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Questions
1. Escherichia coli with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in non-radioactive medium for
two generations. Percentage of bacteria with radioactive DNA in second generation is
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 12.5%
2. A short length of DNA molecule has 80 thymine and 80 guanine bases. The total number of nucleotides in the
DNA fragment is
(a) 40
(b) 80
(c) 160
(d) 320
5. Scientists have discovered how to put together a bacteriophage with the protein coat of phage T2 and the
DNA of phage T4. If this composite phage were allowed to infect a bacterium, the phages produced in the
host cell would have:
(a) the coat protein of T2 and the DNA of T4
(b) the coat protein of T4 and the DNA of T2
(c) the coat protein and DNA of T2
(d) the coat protein and DNA of T4
6. Due to discovery of which of the following in 1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world:
(a) m-RNA, t-RNA, r-RNA synthesise proteins
(b) In some virus RNA is genetic material
(c) RNA has enzymatic property
(d) RNA is not found in all cells
7. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at
(a) 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(b) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(c) The 5' (upstream) end
(d) The 3' (downstream) end
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3/21/24, 4:59 PM Molecular Basis of Inheritance - Test
9. Through which experiments, the first proof that DNA is the genetic material was provided?
(a) Transfection
(b) Phage infection
(c) Bacterial translocation
(d) Bacterial transformation
10. In a 3.2 kbp long piece of DNA, 820 adenine bases were found. What would be the number of cytosine
bases?
(a) 780
(b) 1560
(c) 2380
(d) 1480
11. Which of the following is NOT true about Watson and Crick’s DNA double helix model?
(a) The two strands are anti-parallel to each other
(b) The anti-parallel nature of the strands makes them form a right-handed helix
(c) A large-sized purine always binds to a small-sized pyrimidine
(d) The DNA backbone is formed of sugar-phosphate groups, with the nitrogenous bases pointing outwards
14. How many base pairs does the haploid human genome consist of?
(a) 4 x 109 bp
(b) 3 x 109 bp
(c) 5 x 109 bp
(d) 2 x 109 bp
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3/21/24, 4:59 PM Molecular Basis of Inheritance - Test
15. Given diagram represents the components of a transcription unit. Select the correct answer regarding it.
(a) (A) – Terminator; (B) – Promoter; (C) – Template strand; (D) – Coding strand
(b) (A) – Promoter; (B) – Terminator; (C) – Coding strand (D) – Template strand
(c) (A) – Promoter; (B) – Terminator;(C) – Template strand; (D) – Coding strand
(d) (A) – Terminator; (B) – Promoter; (C) – Coding strand; (D) – Template strand
18. Who first theorised the semiconservative mode of replication for DNA?
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Meselson and Stahl
(c) Hershey and Chase
(d) Beadle and Tatum
19. Any mistakes during DNA replication by the enzyme would result into:
(a) Cancer
(b) Apoptosis
(c) Cell fragmentation
(d) Mutation
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3/21/24, 4:59 PM Molecular Basis of Inheritance - Test
22. Which of the following heavy/radioisotopes is not suitable for DNA labeling based studies?
(a) 3H
(b) 32P
(c) 15N
(d) 35S
23. A DNA nucleotide chain has AGCTTCGA sequence. The nucleotide sequence of other chain would be
(a) TCGAAGCT
(b) GCTAAGCT
(c) TAGCATAT
(d) GATCCTAG
28. Which of the following is true for both transcription and DNA replication?
(a) Principle of complementarity governs the process
(b) Only one of the two strands acts as a template
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3/21/24, 4:59 PM Molecular Basis of Inheritance - Test
30. In case of prokaryotes, synthesis of an mRNA molecule from DNA is terminated with the help of
(a) Alpha factor
(b) Sigma factor
(c) Delta factor
(d) Rho factor
31. If one strand of DNA has the nucleotide sequence 5'GATCAA3' , its complementary strand will have the
sequence.
(a) 5' CTAGTT 3'
(b) 5' TTCATC 3'
(c) 5' TTGATC 3'
(d) 5' TTGTTC 3'
32. If the length of E.coli DNA is 1.36 mm, then how many base pairs are present in E.coli ?
(a) 3.6 × 104
(b) 3.6 × 106
(c) 4.0 × 106
(d) 4.6 × 106
33. The phosphodiester bonds that link adjacent nucleotides in both RNA and DNA:
(a) always link A with T and G with C
(b) join the 5' C sugar residue of one nucleotide to the 3'C sugar residue of the next nucleotide
(c) form between the planar rings of adjacent bases
(d) are uncharged at neutral pH
34. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, when N14 DNA molecules were grown in a medium with heavy
nitrogen N15
Half the daughter DNA molecules in Generation I had both light strands and the remaining half were
(a)
hybrids
Half the daughter DNA molecules in Generation I had both heavy strands and the remaining half were
(b)
hybrids
(c) All the daughter DNA molecules in Generation II had both heavy strands
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3/21/24, 4:59 PM Molecular Basis of Inheritance - Test
37. Wild type Escherichia coli growing on medium having glucose is transferred to lactose containing medium.
Which change occurs?
(a) Lac operon is induced
(b) Lac operon is suppressed
(c) All operons are induced
(d) The bacterium stops dividing
38. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA?
(a) The inducer
(b) A terminator
(c) A promoter
(d) The structural gene
39. Regulatory proteins turn transcription off through binding to a site rapidly at the front of the promoter and
many times even overlaps the promoter, this site is the
(a) Regulatory site
(b) Operator site
(c) Suppressor site
(d) Transcriptional control site
40. What is added to the 3’ end of many eukaryotic mRNA’s after transcription?
(a) Intron
(b) Poly A tail
(c) Trinucleotide –CCA
(d) a cap
41. In Hershey and Chase experiment, what findings led to the conclusion that DNA is the genetic material?
(a) The presence of radioactivity in the bacteria when 35S was used.
(b) The presence of radioactivity in the supernatant when 35S was used.
(c) The presence of radioactivity in the bacteria when 32P was used.
(d) The presence of radioactivity in the supernatant when 32P was used.
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3/21/24, 4:59 PM Molecular Basis of Inheritance - Test
45. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?
(a) Reverse transcriptase
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) RNA polymerase
46. The goal of HGP was to identify all the approximately ______ genes in human DNA
(a) 15000-20,000
(b) 20,000-25,000
(c) 25000-30000
(d) 35000-40000
47. Which of the following is used as cloning vectors for storing HGP data:
(a) BAC (bacterial artificial chromosomes)
(b) YAC (yeast artificial chromosomes)
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
49. Select the correct statement from the following regarding transcription.
A. In transcription only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.
B. Terminator is located upstream of the structural gene.
C. Intervening sequences do appear in processed RNA.
D. In bacteria translation can begin much before the mRNA is fully transcribed
(a) A & D
(b) B & C
(c) A & C
(d) B & D
50. How many amino acids can be translated from the given sequence of nucleotides in mRNA if 6th nucleotide
undergoes deletion?
AUG UGC ACU AUA GCG UAA
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Four
(d) Three
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3/22/24, 6:38 PM p-block (group 13 and 14) - Test
Questions
(b) S iO 4−
(c) S i O 2
6−
(d) (S i O ) 2
2−
5 n
3. H3BO3 is
(a) monobasic acid and weak Lewis acid
(b) monobasic and weak Bronsted acid
(c) monobasic and strong Lewis acid
(d) tribasic and weak Bronsted acid
(b) N a S iO + N a C O
2 3 2 3
(c) N a S iO + H 2 2 2
(d) N a S iO + H 2 4 2
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3/22/24, 6:38 PM p-block (group 13 and 14) - Test
11. The species present in solution when CO2 is dissolved in water are:
(a) H2CO3, CO32–
(b) HCO3Ɵ, CO32–
(c) CO2, H2CO3
(d) CO2, H2CO3, HCO3Ɵ, CO32–
12. Silica is reacted with sodium carbonate. What is the gas liberated?
(a) CO
(b) O2
(c) CO2
(d) O3
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3/22/24, 6:38 PM p-block (group 13 and 14) - Test
15. In graphite and diamond, the percentage of p-characters of the hybrid orbitals in hybridisation are
respectively :
(a) 33 and 25
(b) 33 and 75
(c) 50 and 75
(d) 67 and 75
16. Which of the period 4th elements given below exhibit its identical valency in its hydride and higher oxide?
(a) Bromine
(b) Germanium
(c) Arsenic
(d) Selenium
18. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding diamond and graphite?
(a) In diamond, each carbon atom is covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms.
(b) In graphite, each carbon atom is covalently bonded to three other carbon atoms in the same plane.
(c) The C – C bond length in graphite is intermediate between single and double bond distance.
(d) Diamond is a layered structure, the two layers joined by van der Waals' forces.
20. The relative stability of +2 oxidation state of group 14 elements follows the order:
(a) Si < Ge > Sn > Pb
(b) Si < Ge < Sn < Pb
(c) Ge < Si < Pb < Sn
(d) Si > Ge > Sn > Pb
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3/22/24, 6:38 PM p-block (group 13 and 14) - Test
26. On small scale pure CO is prepared by dehydration …X… with conc. H2SO4 at 373 K. Here, X refers to
(a) steric acid
(b) benzoic acid
(c) acetic acid
28. Which of the following represents the laboratory preparation of carbon dioxide?
Δ
(a) C aC O −→ C aO + C O
3 2
(b) C aC O + 2H C l → C aC l + H O + C O
3 2 2 2
(c) C H O + 6O → 6C O + 6H O
6 12 6 2 2 2
(d) C H + 2O → C O + 2H O
4 2 2 2
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3/22/24, 6:38 PM p-block (group 13 and 14) - Test
31. The number of 2-centre-2-electron and 3-centre-2-electron bonds in B2H6, respectively, are:
(a) 2 and 1
(b) 4 and 2
(c) 2 and 2
(d) 2 and 4
33. Which one of the following has highest Lewis acid strength?
(a) BI3
(b) BBr3
(c) BF3
(d) BCl3
34. An allotrope of carbon which exhibits only two types of C–C bond distance of 143.5 pm and 138.3 pm, is
(a) charcoal
(b) graphite
(c) diamond
(d) fullerene
36. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the property of elements with an increase in
atomic number in the carbon family (group 14)?
(a) Atomic size decreases
(b) Ionization energy increases
(c) Metallic character decreases
(d) Stability of +2 oxidation state increases
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3/22/24, 6:38 PM p-block (group 13 and 14) - Test
37. The increasing order of atomic radii of the following Group 13 elements is
(a) Al < Ga < ln < TI
(b) Ga < Al < In < TI
(c) Al < In < Ga < TI
(d) Al < Ga < TI < In
39. What is the effect of density on moving down the 13th group?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) First decreases then increases
(d) Remains same
40. The first ionization enthalpy of group-14 members is …A… than the corresponding members of group-13.
Here, A refers to
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) smaller
(d) Both (b) and (c)
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3/22/24, 6:38 PM p-block (group 13 and 14) - Test
46. The correct statements among I to III regarding group 13 element oxides are,
(I) Boron trioxide is acidic
(II) Oxides of aluminium and gallium are amphoteric
(III) Oxides of indium and thallium are basic.
(a) (I) and (II) only
(b) (I), (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III) only
(d) (II) and (III) only
48. Diborane (B2H6) reacts independently with O2 and H2O to produce, respectively;
(a) B2O3 and H3BO3
(b) B2O3 and [BH4]–
(c) H3BO3 and B2O3
(d) HBO2 and H3BO3
49. The power of halides of boron to act as Lewis acids decreases in the order:
(a) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(b) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(c) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
(d) BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3
50. Which among the following statements are correct regarding Boron family ?
(I) Boron has high melting and Boiling point.
(II) All oxide of Boron-family are acidic.
(III) Thallium trichloride (TlCl3) may act as oxidizing agent unlike other trihalides of Boron-family.
(IV) Lewis acidity order: BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3.
(a) (I), (II), (III)
(b) Only (I)
(c) (I) and (III) only
(d) (I) (II) (III), (IV)
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