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TEST-1
11TH PCMB: CHEMISTRY
DATE: 23-01-2024 MARKS:240 TIME: 2 hrs
1. In the final answer of the expression
2. A metallic chloride contain 47.22% metal. Calculate the equivalent weight of metal.
(a) 39.68 (b) 31.76 (c) 36.35 (d) 33.46
3. One litre hard water contains 12.00 mg Mg2+. Milli-equivalents of washing soda required to remove
its hardness is :
(a) 1 (b) 12. 16(c) 1 × 10–3 (d) 12. 16 × 10–3
Answer
4. The percentage weight of Zn in white vitriol [ZnSO4.7H2O] is approximately equal to (Zn = 65,S = 32,O
= 16 and H = 1)
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(a) 33.65 % (b) 32.56 % (c) 23.65 % (d) 22.65 %
Answer (d) Molecular weight of ZnSO4.7H2O
5. 25ml of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with a 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a
litre value of 35ml.The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was
(a) 0.14 (b) 0.28 (c) 0.35 (d) 0.07
6. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is
(a) 0.02 M (b) 0.01 M (c) 0.001 M (d) 0.1 M
7. What volume of hydrogen will be liberated at NTP by the reaction of Zn on 50 ml dilute H2SO4 of specific
gravity 1.3 and having purity 40%?
(a) 3.5 litre (b) 8.25 litre (c) 6.74 litre (d) 5.94 litre
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Answer
8. "Electrons are filled in energy orbitals, in increasing order of energy." This statement is related to
(a) Planck's rule (b) Hund's rule(c) Pauli's rule (d) Aufbau principle
Answer (d) The given statement is related to Aufbau principle. According to this principle the electrons first
occupy the orbital with lowest energy available to them and then enter into higher energy orbitals only when
the lower energy orbitals are filled.
9. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is -328 kJ mol-1; hence the energy of fourth Bohr
orbit would be:
(a) -41 kJ mol-1 (b) -82 kJ mol-1 (c) -164 kJ mol-1 (d) -1312 kJ mol-1
Answer
10. The orbital angular momentum for an electron revolving in an orbit is given by . This momentum
for an s-electron will be given by
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Answer
11. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in a hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity to
stationary state 1, would be (Rydberg constant = 1.097×107 m–1)
(a) 406 nm (b) 192 nm (c) 91 nm (d) 9.1×10–8 nm
Answer
12. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom will
be (Given : ionization energy of H=2.18 ×10–18J atom–1and h = 6.625 × 10–34 J s )
(a) 1.54´1015 s-1 (b) 1.03´1015 s-1 (c) 3.081015 s-1 (d) 2.00´1015 s-1
Answer
13. According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is
by
14. Which of the following transitions of electrons in the hydrogen atom will emit maximum energy ?
(a) n5 ® n4 (b) n4 ® n3 (c) n3 → n2 (d) all will emit same energy
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Answer
15. The ionization energy of nitrogen atom is more than that of oxygen atom because of
(a) greater attraction of electrons by the nucleus. (b) smaller size of nitrogen atom.
(c) more penetrating effect (d) due to half filled p orbital
Answer (d) According to the general trend of I.E. in a period, it is expected that oxygen atom has
higher I.E. than nitrogen atom but nitrogen atom has more stable half filled porbitals due to which it
has higher I.E. than oxygen
atom.
Answer (b) The acidic character of non metal oxides increases across
a period from left to right and decreases down a group.
So, acidic character will follow the order:
oxide of nitrogen > oxides of sulfur > oxides of carbon. Among oxides of carbon acidic character
increases with the oxidation number of carbon. So, 4 CO2 + is more acidic than CO. Hence the
sequence of acidic character is N2O5 > SO2 > CO2 > CO
17. Which is a metalloid ?
(a) Manganese (b) Phosphorus (c) Oxygen (d) Arsenic
Answer (d) Arsenic is the only metalloid among the given options.
Its small amounts are even very harmful for humans.
18. Na+ ,Mg2+ ,Al3+ and Si4+ ions are isoelectronic. The value of ionic radii of these ions would be in the
order :
(a) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+ (b) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ < Si4+
(c) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ < Si4+ (d) Na+ < Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+
Answer (a)
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25. The bond length between C–C bond in sp2 hybridised molecule is :
(a) 1.2 Å (b) 1.39 Å (c) 1.33 Å (d) 1.54 Å
Answer (c) The bond length between carbon & carbon in sp2 hybridisation (double bond) is 1.33 Å.
26. Match List I and List II and pick out correct matching codes from the given choices :
List I List II
Compound Structure
A. ClF3 1. Square planar
B: PCl5 2. Tetrahedral
C. IF5 3. Trigonal bipyramidal
D. CCl4 4. Square pyramidal
E. XeF4 5. T-shaped
Codes
(a) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1 (b) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-1
(c) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1, E-2 (d) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-1
Answer
27. Consider the reaction : N2 + 3H2 ® 2NH3 carried out at constant temperature and pressure. If DH and DU
are the enthalpy and internal energy changes for the reaction, which of the following expressions is true ?
(a) DH > DU (b) DH < DU (c) DH = DU (d) DH = 0
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Answer (b
28. (DH – DU) for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from its elements at 298 K is (R = 8.314 J K–1
mol–1)
(a) –2477.57 J mol–1 (b) 2477.57 J mol–1 (c) –1238.78 J mol–1 (d) 1238.78 J mol–1
Answer (d) 1238.78 J mol–1
29. Two moles of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from 1 litre to 10 litre at 300 K. The
enthalpy change (in kJ) for the process is
(a) 11.4 kJ (b) – 11.4 kJ (c) 0 kJ (d) 4.8 kJ
Answer
30. A well stoppered thermos flask contains some ice cubes. This is an example of a
(a) closed system (b) open system (c) isolated system (d) non-thermodynamic system
Answer (c) In isolated system neither exchange of matter nor exchange of energy is possible with
surroundings.
31. If is the fraction of HI dissociated at equilibrium in the reaction, 2 HI (g) H2 (g) + I2 (g), starting with
2 moles of HI, the total number of moles of reactants and products at equilibrium are
(a) 2 + 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 + (d) 2 –
Answer
32. A solution having hydrogen ion concentration is 0.0005 g eqvt./litre, its pOH is :
(a) 8.2798 (b) 10.6990 (c) 12.7854 (d) 13.3344
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Answer
Answer
34. In which of the following reactions, the concentration of the product is higher than the concentration of
reactant at equilibrium? (K = equilibrium constant)
(a) A⎯⎯→B;K = 0.001 (b) M⎯⎯→ N;K = 10
(c) X⎯⎯→Y;K = 0.005 (d) R ⎯⎯→P;K = 0.01
35. The solubility of PbF2 in water at 25ºC is ~ 10–3 M. What is its solubility in 0.05 M NaF solution? Assume
the latter to be fully ionised.
(a) 1.6 × 10–6 M (b) 1.2 × 10–6 M
(c) 1.2 × 10–5 M (d) 1.6 × 10–4 M
Answer
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36. The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2, H2S respectively, are
(a) 0, +1 and –2 (b) +2, +1 and –2 (c) 0, +1 and +2 (d) –2, +1 and –2
Answer (a) (i) Oxidation state of element in its free state is zero.
(ii) Sum of oxidation states of all atoms in compound is
zero.
O.N. of S in S8 = 0; O.N. of S in S2F2 = + 1;
O.N. of S in H2S = –2;
38. When SO2 is passed through acidified solution of potassium dichromate, then chromium sulphate is
formed. The changein valency of chromium is
(a) +4 to +2 (b) +5 to +3 (c) +6 to +3 (d) +7 to +2
Answer
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and as a reducing agent. Here Cl undergoes
simultaneous oxidation and reduction.
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Answer (d) Geometrical isomerism is obseved when different groups are attached to each of the doubly
bonded carbon atom.
46. The correct stability order of following species is –
(a) x > y > w > z (b) y > x > w > z (c) x > w > z > y (d) z > x > y > w
Answer (c) x is a conjugated diene system, w is an isolated diene system, z is a cumulated diene
system, y is antiaromatic system.
47. Keto-enol tautomerism is observed in:
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51. The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic
character of A- B bond is
Answer [72]
Electronegativity difference is 4.0 - 1.20 = 2.8 percentage ionic character is 72.24%
when the electronegativity difference is 1.7, the % ionic character is approx 51%.
52. The number of anti-bonding electron pairs in O22- molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbital theory
is, (Atomic number of O is 8)
Answer [4]
53. If the bond energies of H-H, Br- Br, and H-Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol–1 respectively, the DH° for the
reaction
H2 (g) + Br2(g)®2HBr(g) is
Answer [103]
54. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is – 119.5 kJ mol–1. If resonance energy of benzene is
–150.4 kJ mol–1,
its enthalpy of hydrogenation would be
Answer [208,000]
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The resonance energy provides extra stability to the benzene molecule so it has to be overcome for
hydrogenation to take place. So DH = – 358.5 – (–150.4)
= –208.1 kJ
55. 100 mL of 0.04 N HCl aqueous solution is mixed with 100 mL of 0.02 N NaOH solution. The pH of the
resulting solution is:
Answer [2]
Number of meq. of the acid = 0.04 × 100 = 4
Number of meq. of the base = 0.02 × 100 = 2
\ Number of meq. of the acid left on mixing = 4 – 2 = 2
Total volume of the solution = 200 mL
\ No. of meq of the acid present in 1000 mL of the
solution = 10
or No. of eq. of the acid in 1000 mL of the solution
= 1000/10
= 0.01
Since the acid is monobasic and completely ionises in
solution
0.01 N HCl = 0.01 M HCl
Thus [H+ ] = 0.01
\ pH = – log (0.01) = – (– 2) = 2
56. In a buffer solution containing equal concentration of B– and HB, the Kb for B– is 10–10. The pH of
buffer solution is :
Kb = 10-10 ; 4
Ka 10= - or pKa = 4
For the buffer solution containing equal concentration
of B– and HB
pH = pKa + log 1
pH = pKa = 4
57. A metal ion M3+ loses 3 electrons, its oxidation number will be
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58. An organic compound having carbon, hydrogen and sulphur contains 4% of sulphur. The minimum
molecular weight of the compound is
(a) 500 (b) 800 (c) 400 (d) 100
59. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2. One mole of this compound has a mass of 42 g. Its
molecular formula is
60. How much of sulphur is present in an organic compound, if 0.53 g of the compound gave 1.158 g of
BaSO4 on analysis ?
(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 30%
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