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me/csepaper2atish
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding
Financial Action Task Force (FATF) :
1. FATF is an intergovernmental organization to
develop policies to combat money laundering
and terrorism financing.
2. FATF Secretariat is located at the OECD
headquarters in Paris.
3. Only the OECD member states can become
members of the FATF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q2. Consider the following statements with reference
to the major ports in India?
1. The major ports are under the direct
administrative control of the Central
Government while other ports are under the
jurisdiction of the respective maritime states
government.
2. Of the total traffic handled by all Indian Ports,
more than 50 percent is handled by major
ports.
3. Kolkata Port is the only riverine major port in
the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding
Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS):
1. It is a facility provided by the RBI for all
resident individuals including minors.
2. It can be used to freely remit a certain
amount in terms of US Dollar for both current
and capital account purposes.
3. The scheme is regulated under the Foreign
Exchange Management Act (FEMA).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q4. Consider the following statements regarding
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
1. It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
2. It is a statutory body under Payment and
Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding
World Trade Organization (WTO):
1. The countries with GDP per capita of more
than $5000 are categorised as developed
countries by WTO.
2. All decisions are made by consensus of its
members
3. WTO’s Ministerial Conference meeting takes
place every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q6. Consider the following statements :
1. National Food Security Act, 2013 aims to
provide subsidized food grains to around two-
thirds of India’s population
2. State government is responsible for
identification of eligible households
3. National Food Security Mission was launched
under NFSA, 2013 to increase food grain
production
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q7. With reference to Start-Up Village
Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP), consider the
following statements:
1. It is a sub-scheme under Deendayal
Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods
Mission (DAY - NRLM).
2. Only women, SC and ST communities are
eligible to be part of this programme.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. Core inflation is a measure of the total
inflation within an economy, including
commodities such as food and fuel, which
tend to be much more volatile and prone to
inflationary spikes.
2. Headline inflation excludes the highly volatile
food and fuel components and therefore
represents the underlying trend inflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q9. Consider the following statements:
1. Sabka Vishwas scheme is a legacy dispute
resolution scheme for closing pending
disputes relating to legacy Service Tax and
Central Excise cases.
2. Vivad Se Vishwas scheme is a direct tax
scheme for settling tax disputes between
individuals and the income tax department.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q10. With reference to National Agriculture Market
(eNAM), consider the following statements:
1. Central Warehousing Corporation is the lead
agency for implementing eNAM.
2. Presently, only food grains and cereals are
allowed to be traded on eNAM.
3. eNAM can help in providing better price
discovery for farmers through transparent
auction process.
Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q11. Model Concession Agreement is associated with
(a) Public Private Partnership (PPP) projects
(b) Recapitalization of Banks
(c) Interest Subvention Scheme for MSMEs
(d) Education loans scheme
Q12. Consider the following statements :
1. Insurance density is defined as ratio of
premium underwritten in a given year to the
Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
2. Insurance penetration is the ratio of premium
underwritten in a given year to the total
population.
3. Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory body
that regulates insurance sector in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Q13. Consider the following sectors that are part of
Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
1. Mining
2. Manufacturing
3. Electricity
Choose the option which depicts the weights of these
sectors from highest to lowest:
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-3-1
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 2-1-3
Q14. . Which of the following statements about
SWAYAM portal is correct ?
(a) It facilitates businessmen to get all kinds of
registrations and submit returns that are
required under labour laws at a single online
window.
(b) It is an electronic platform for quicker
processing of loans under the Deendayal
Antyodaya Yojana – National Urban
Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM).
(c) It is a Massive Open Online Course (MOOC)
platform which hosts wide variety of online
courses.
(d) It provides employers a platform to assess the
availability of skilled workforce and formulate
their hiring plans.
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Q15. Consider the following statements with (a) 1 only

reference to India’s external debt: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Commercial borrowings are the largest (c) 1 and 3 only
component of India’s external debt. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The share of short-term debt is more than the
share of long-term debt in India’s total Q20. Consider the following pairs:
external debt Literary work Author
3. US dollar denominated debt forms the largest 1. Mudrarakshasa Sudraka
component of India’s external debt. 2. Malavikagnimitra Kalidasa
3. Mricchakatika Vishakhadatta
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(b) 1 and 3 only matched?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q16. Among the following, which one is the largest (d) 1, 2 and 3
producer of crude oil in the world in the last five
years? Q21. ‘Virupaksha Temple’ and ‘Hazara Rama Temple’
(a) USA were notable temples constructed in the kingdom of
(b) Saudi Arabia (a) Chalukya
(c) Russia (b) Chandela
(d) Iraq (c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara
Q17. Tobin Tax refers to a tax:
(a) levied from sectors considered lucrative for Q22. Which among the following Buddhist texts is/are
money laundering. written in Sanskrit?
(b) on market activities that generates negative 1. Milindpanha
externalities. 2. Buddhacharita
(c) on spot currency conversions to discourage 3. Saundarananda
short-term currency speculation.
(d) levied on the consumption of sin goods. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 3 only
Q18. With reference to Mitakshara, consider the (b) 2 only
following statements: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. It is a legal commentary on the Yajnavalkya (d) 1, 2 and 3
Smriti.
2. It was written by Vijnaneshwara. Q23. Which of the following organizations are part of
3. It is known for the theory of inheritance by World Bank group ?
birth. 1. International Finance Corporation
2. International Monetary Fund
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 3. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(a) 1 only 4. International Centre for Settlement of
(b) 2 and 3 only Investment Disputes
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
Q19. Ashokan edicts are found in which of the (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
following countries? (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. Afghanistan (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Pakistan
3. Nepal

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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Q24. With reference to the Organisation of Islamic
Cooperation (OIC), consider the following statements:
1. All its members are from Asia and Africa.
2. It is headquartered at Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
3. India is not a member of OIC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q25. Consider the following statements with respect
to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
1. It is a statutory body established under Delhi
Special Police Establishment Act 1946
2. It is an attached office under Ministry of
Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
3. Both Centre and State governments have
concurrent control over CBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q26. Consider the following statements with respect
to constitutional provisions related to Tribunals:
1. Parliament and state legislatures are
empowered to establish administrative
tribunals to adjudicate disputes related to
respective public services.
2. The Chairman and members of State
Administrative Tribunals are appointed by the
President.
3. Appeals against the orders of the Central
Administrative Tribunal (CAT) could be made
in the Supreme Court only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
Q27. Consider the following statements regarding
National Health Authority (NHA):
1. It is a statutory body under Union Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare
2. It is the implementing agency of Pradhan
Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)
3. It is chaired by Union Minister for Health and
Family Welfare
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q28. Under the Representation of People Act, 1951, a
person is disqualified from being elected as a member
of Parliament on which of the following grounds?
1. holding any office of profit under the Union or
state government
2. person is an undischarged insolvent
3. person is convicted for any offence resulting
in imprisonment for 6 months or more.
4. promoting enmity between different groups
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q29. Consider the following statements:
1. Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)
2010 requires all NGOs to apply for a license
to receive foreign funding.
2. NGOs that are substantially financed by
government funds fall within the ambit of the
Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q30. Consider the following statements:
1. A bill contemplating changes in name, area or
boundary of a state can be introduced in the
Parliament only with the prior
recommendation of the President.
2. After recommending the bill, the President
has to refer the same to the state legislature
concerned for expressing its views within a
specified period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q31. Arrange the following seas from west to east: Q36. Free Movement Regime (FMR) which permits
1. Sea of Azov the tribes residing along the border to travel 16-km
2. Aral Sea across the boundary without visa restrictions, is a
3. North Sea unique arrangement between India and which of the
4. Yellow Sea following countries ?
(a) Nepal
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) Bhutan
(a) 3-1-2-4 (c) Bangladesh
(b) 3-2-1-4 (d) Myanmar
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 1-3-2-4 Q37. Consider the following statements:
1. United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is the
Q32. In India, citizens from other states require Inner only UN body with the authority to issue
Line Permit (ILP) to visit which of the following states? binding resolutions on member states.
1. Nagaland 2. A UNSC resolution is deemed to be passed if
2. Manipur all five permanent members of the UNSC
3. Mizoram support the resolution, even if no non-
4. Arunachal Pradesh permanent member supports it.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q33. What is the correct sequence of the following Q38. Global Gender Gap Report is published by
countries in the descending order of length of their (a) International Labour Organization
boundary with India? (b) Economist Intelligence Unit
(a) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal (c) World Economic Forum
(b) Bangladesh, Pakistan, Myanmar, Nepal (d) World Bank
(c) Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal, Myanmar
(d) Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar Q39. Which of the following countries is not a
member of Gulf Cooperation Council?
Q34. Istanbul Convention, sometimes seen in the (a) Qatar
news, is related to: (b) Iran
(a) Worst forms of child labour (c) UAE
(b) Violence against women and domestic (d) Oman
violence
(c) Movement of hazardous waste between Q40. With reference to Astra missile, consider the
nations following statements:
(d) Road safety 1. It is the first air-to-air missile developed by
DRDO.
Q35. Consider the following statement: 2. It enables the fighter-pilots to shoot precisely
1. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait connects the Persian at the enemy targets which are beyond their
Gulf and the Gulf of Oman visual range
2. Strait of Hormuz connects the Red Sea and 3. It is capable of engaging targets at varying
the Gulf of Aden range and altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q41. Which of the following are possible applications Q44. Consider the following statements regarding
of nanotechnology? Bose-Einstein condensate:
1. Targeted drug delivery 1. It is a state of matter which is typically formed
2. Wastewater treatment at very high temperatures.
3. Energy storage 2. Jagdish Chandra Bose was instrumental in
4. Flexible electronics prediction of Bose-Einstein condensate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: Select the correct answer using the codes below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q42. Consider the following statements with Q45. Consider the following pairs:
reference to supercomputers: Terms sometimes seen in Context
1. Japan’s Fugaku is the fastest supercomputer news
in the world. 1. Muon g-2 Particle physics
2. None of India’s supercomputers figure in the experiment
top 100 most powerful supercomputers in the 2. Quasar Astronomy
world. 3. Non-fungible token Digital Assets
3. The performance of a supercomputer is Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
measured in million instructions per second matched?
(MIPS), while the performance of a (a) 1 only
conventional computer is measured in (b) 2 only
floating-point operations per second (FLOPS). (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Q46. Which among the following can possibly lead to
(b) 1 and 3 only the development of Anti-microbial resistance (AMR)
(c) 3 only in humans?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Use of antibiotics in Poultry Industry
2. Self-Medication of antibiotics without doctor's
Q43. Consider the following statements: consultation
1. Compulsory licensing is the authorization 3. Not completing the complete dosage of
given to a third-party by the government to antibiotics
allow them to produce a patented product Select the correct answer using the code given below:
without the consent of the patent owner. (a) 1 only
2. TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual (b) 1 and 2only
Property Rights) Agreement does not allow (c) 1 and 3 only
compulsory licensing under any circumstance. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. In India, provision with regard to compulsory
licensing is mentioned under Indian Patent Q47. What is the objective of 'LIGO' observatory?
Act, 1970. (a) to detect gravitational waves
(b) to detect neutrinos
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (c) to search for habitable planets in the universe
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) to study the coronal heat problem
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Q48. Narcondam hornbill is a species of endemic to
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the Indian island of Narcondam. In which state/UT is
Narcondam located ?
(a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
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Q49. Consider the following statements with Q53. Which of the following are Globally Important
reference to the Western Disturbances: Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) designated sites
1. The western cyclonic disturbances originate in India?
over the Mediterranean Sea and brought into 1. Saffron Heritage of Kashmir
India by the westerly jet stream. 2. Koraput Traditional Agriculture
2. The arrival of western cyclones disturbances is 3. Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System
generally indicated by a fall in the prevailing Select the correct answer using the code given below:
night temperature. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q54. With reference to Direct Seeded Rice system,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements:
1. It uses less water than traditional
Q50. Which among the following is/are causes of the transplanted paddy cultivation.
aridity of Hot deserts ? 2. It eliminates the need for weedicides.
1. Off shore Trade Winds 3. Its adoption results in increased greenhouse
2. Cold ocean current on west coast of the gas emissions.
continents Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Horse latitudes (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Q55. With reference to Boreal Summer Intra-Seasonal
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Oscillation (BSISO) sometime in the news, consider
the following statements:
Q51. Which among the following organisms play the 1. It is the movement of convection (heat) from
role of decomposers in food chains ? the Indian Ocean to the western Pacific
1. Bacteria 2. During BSISO north Indian Ocean and the
2. Fungi Arabian Sea witness high waves.
3. Virus
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q56. Basel Ban Amendment is sometimes seen in
Q52. Consider the following pairs: news in context of
Ocean current Bordering country (a) Prohibition of export of hazardous wastes
1. Canary current Morocco (b) Coordination of banking regulations across
2. Benguela current Namibia the globe
3. Labrador current Canada (c) elimination stocks of intermediate-range
nuclear missiles
Which of the pairs given above are correctly (d) ensuring safety of air transport
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only Q57. Environment Impact Assessment in India is
(b) 2 and 3 only mandated under which of the following Act?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
(c) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
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Q58. ‘Energy Transition Index’ is released by which of Q64. Arrange the following events in India
the following organizations? chronologically:
(a) United Nations Environment Programme 1. Abolition of privy purses
(b) European Bank for Reconstruction and 2. Nationalisation of Reserve Bank of India
Development 3. Liberation of Goa from the Portuguese
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) International Energy Agency Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1-2-3
Q59. Araku Valley, sometimes seen in news for its (b) 2-3-1
world-famous coffee, is located in (c) 2-1-3
(a) Odisha (d) 3-2-1
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu Q65. The Lex Loci Act of 1850 was related to
(d) Andhra Pradesh (a) the abolition of the practice of female
infanticide
Q60. Oslo Accords and Camp David Accords are (b) the right of a religious convert to inherit
sometimes seen in news in the context of affairs of ancestral property
(a) Norway (c) the abolition of the practice of 'sati'
(b) Israel (d) the right of widows to remarry
(c) Afghanistan
(d) North Korea Q66. He was a commander in the army of Ahom
Kingdom. He is known for his exemplary leadership in
Q61. Arrange the following state capitals from west to the 1671 Battle of Saraighat, where the Ahoms
east: defeated the Mughal forces. Identify the personality:
1. Gangtok (a) Lachit Borphukan
2. Shillong (b) Gomdhar Konwar
3. Itanagar (c) Maniram Dewan
4. Kohima (d) Tirot Sing

Select the correct answer using the code given below: Q67. With reference to the Regulating Act of 1773,
(a) 2-3-1-4 consider the following statements:
(b) 1-2-3-4 1. It encouraged the servants of the East India
(c) 3-2-4-1 Company to engage in private trade.
(d) 4-2-3-1 2. It made governors of Bombay and Madras
presidencies subordinate to the governor-
Q62. Which of the following best describes ‘INS general of Bengal.
Vikramaditya’ ? 3. It created a new body called Board of Control
(a) Amphibious warfare ship to manage political affairs of the company.
(b) Nuclear-powered submarine 4. It provided for the establishment of a
(c) Aircraft carrier Supreme Court at Calcutta
(d) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q63. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (b) 1 and 3 only
does not make killing of animals for religious (c) 2 and 4 only
purposes an offence. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory
body set up under Prevention of Cruelty to Q68. Consider the following events:
Animals Act, 1960 1. Barrackpore mutiny
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 2. Paika rebellion
(a) 1 only 3. Santhal rebellion
(b) 2 only 4. Vellore mutiny
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the following is the correct chronological
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sequence of the above events?
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(a) 4-2-3-1 Q74. Consider the following statements with

(b) 3-2-1-4 reference to United Nations Convention against
(c) 4-2-1-3 Torture (UNCAT):
(d) 3-1-2-4 1. UNCAT prohibits torture in all circumstances
including state of war or a threat of war,
Q69. Abhanga is a form of devotional poetry internal political instability or any other public
associated with which of the following states? emergency.
(a) Maharashtra 2. Principle of non-refoulment is explicitly
(b) Kerala included in the UNCAT.
(c) Punjab 3. Recently, India signed and ratified the UNCAT.
(d) Uttarakhand
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q70. Consider the following pairs: (a) 1 and 2 only
Martial Art State (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Gatka Punjab (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Thang-Ta Manipur (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Paika Akhada Assam
Q75. Consider the following statements about
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly Defence Acquisition Council:
matched? 1. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. It is Defence Ministry‘s highest decision
(b) 2 only making body for capital acquisition proposals
(c) 2 and 3 only of Indian armed forces.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q71. With reference to the saint Purandara Dasa, (a) 1 only
consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. He is considered the father of Carnatic Music. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. He was a contemporary of Vijayanagar (d) Neither 1 nor 2
emperor Krishnadevaraya.
Q76. With reference to Election Commission of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (ECI), consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. While ECI is empowered to register a political
(b) 2 only party, it is not empowered to de- register a
(c) Both 1 and 2 political party on the grounds of violating the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Constitution.
2. ECI is empowered to settle disputes related to
Q72. Sangai Deer in their natural habitat are found in allotment of election symbols to political
(a) Gir National Park parties.
(b) Pin Valley National Park
(c) Keibul Lamjao National Park Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(d) Kanha National Park (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1and2
Q73. Among the following places, which one lies (d) Neither 1 nor 2
geographically closest to the Kuril Islands?
(a) Kamchatka peninsula Q77. Which of the following organisations is
(b) Iberian peninsula mandated to enforce Foreign Exchange Management
(c) Crimean peninsula Act, 1999 (FEMA) and Prevention of Money
(d) Arabian peninsula Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)?
(a) Central Bureau of Investigation
(b) Enforcement Directorate
(c) Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
(d) Intelligence Bureau
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Q78. With reference to the Tenth Schedule of the (a) 1 only

Constitution, consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. An MLA is deemed to have “voluntarily given (c) Both 1 and 2
up membership” of her political party only if (d) Neither 1 nor 2
she submits her resignation to the party
president. Q82. Consider the following statements:
2. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly has to 1. Drug Price Control Order (DPCO), 2013 has
make a decision with regard to been issued under the Essential Commodities
disqualification of an MLA within one month. Act, 1955
2. All the drugs in India are subject to price
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? control under DPCO, 2013.
(a) 1 only 3. Drug prices are monitored and controlled by
(b) 2 only the Central Drugs Standard Control
(c) Both1and2 Organisation (CDSCO).
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q79. With reference to the Consumer Protection Act (a) 1 only
(CPA) 2019, consider the following statements: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. It provides for a Central Consumer Protection (c) 2 and 3 only
Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and (d) 1,2 and 3
enforce the rights of consumers, while CPA
1986 did not provide for such regulator. Q83. Consider the following statements:
2. The Act brings e-commerce under its ambit. 1. The Competition Act, 2002 replaced the
Monopolies and Restrictive Practices Act,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 1969 (MRTP Act).
(a) 1 only 2. Competition Commission of India which is
(b) 2 only responsible for enforcing The Competition
(c) Both 1 and 2 Act, 2002 is under the Ministry of Commerce
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 and Industry.

Q80. With reference to the Finance Commission (FC) ,
consider the following statements:
1. Qualifications of the chairman and members
of the FC are determined by the President.
2. It recommends the compensation to the
states for loss of revenue arising on account
of introduction of GST.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q81. Consider the following statements:
1. Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
contains the provisions in relation to
allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha and the
Lok Sabha.
2. The Constitution has prescribed a fixed term
of office of six years for members of the Rajya
Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q84. With reference to National Investigation Agency
(NIA), consider the following statements:
1. NIA was established in 2008 in the wake of
Mumbai terror attacks.
2. NIA is empowered to deal with terror-related
crimes across states without special
permission from the states.
3. NIA does not have the power to investigate
scheduled offences committed outside India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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Q85. Consider the following statements : Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. The Constitution has fixed the term of the (a) 1 only
Prime Minister to be 5 years. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The Constitution does not contain any specific (c) 1 and 3 only
procedure for the selection and appointment (d) 3 only
of the Prime Minister.
3. The resignation or death of an incumbent Q89. Parliamentary privileges are extended to which
Prime Minister automatically dissolves the of the following?
council of ministers. 1. President
2. Union Ministers
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Attorney General of India
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Q86. Which among the following benefits are (d) 1, 2 and 3
available to Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI)
cardholders? Q90. With reference to Protection of Children from
1. Multi-purpose, multiple entry, lifelong visa for Sexual Offences Act (POCSO), consider the following
visiting India statements:
2. Exemption from registration with local police 1. The Act is gender neutral ,i.e., both male and
authority for any length of stay in India female children are covered.
3. Right to vote in Indian elections 2. It defines a child as any person below the age
of 16 years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 3. The Act doesn’t apply if the offender is a child.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Q87. Consider the following statements: (d) 2 and 3 only
1. The process of removal of a Judge of a High
Court in India is same as that of removal of a Q91. Arrange the following events in a chronological
Judge of the Supreme Court. order:
2. President of India appoints the judges of a 1. Assam Accord
High Court as well as the judges of the 2. Shillong Accord
Supreme Court in India. 3. Nagaland Peace Accord
4. Bodo Peace Accord
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code below:
(b) 2 only (b) 2-1-3-4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2-1-4-3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1-3-2-4
(e) 1-2-3-4
Q88. Consider the following statements with
reference to Fundamental Duties under Part IVA of Q92. Reverse Charge Mechanism is associated with
the Constitution: (a) Goods and Services Tax
1. They are not enforceable by law. (b) Excise on Petrol and Diesel
2. They help the courts in examining the (c) Pricing of imported natural gas
constitutional validity of a law. (d) None of the above
3. Parliament can provide for imposition of
penalty for violation of specific duties
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Q93. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. In India, Minimum Support Price (MSP) is fixed (a) 1 only
taking into consideration the comprehensive (b) 2 only
cost which includes notional costs of family (c) Both 1 and 2
labour, rent of owned land and interest on (d) Neither 1 nor 2
owned capital.
2. Government procures a fixed quantity of Q97. Mudumalai, Nagarhole, Bandipur national parks
grains from the farmers at MSP after which and Wayanad wildlife sanctuary are part of
the procurement is denied. (a) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
(b) Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere
(a) 1 only Reserve
(b) 2 only (d) Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q98. Consider the following countries:
1. South Sudan
Q94. Consider the following statements with 2. Ethiopia
reference to PM WANI scheme: 3. Eritrea
1. It aims to bring large scale deployment of Wi- 4. Sudan
Fi hotspots throughout the country.
2. Ministry of Electronics and Information Which of the above countries is/are landlocked?
Technology is the nodal ministry for this (a) 2 only
scheme. (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q99. With reference to physical geography of India,
(c) Both 1 and 2 temperate forests are found in the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Nilgiri Hills
2. Anaimalai Hills
Q95. Consider the following statements: 3. Maikal Range
1. CITES (the Convention on International Trade
in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Flora) is multilateral treaty to ensure that (a) 1 only
international trade in specimens of wild (b) 1 and 2 only
animals and plants does not threaten their (c) 2 and 3 only
survival. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. CITES is legally binding on the parties.
3. There are three appendices to the convention Q100. Consider the following statements with
containing lists of species afforded different reference to Laterite soil:
levels of protection from over-exploitation. 1. They are formed under conditions of high
temperature and heavy rainfall.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
(a) 1 only 3. No crops can be grown in laterite soil.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Q96. Consider the following statements with (c) 2 and 3 only
reference to Emission Gap Report 2020: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is published by United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
2. India is the world’s second largest emitter of
greenhouse gases, after China.