ALLEN NEET-UG Mock Test Papers Target 2024

(Academic Session: 2023 - 2024)
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Sample Paper - 1
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and it contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct
response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 720.
2. In this Test, subject Physics will consist of two sections (Physics A & Physics B). Physics A Section will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Physics B Section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
3. Subject Chemistry will consist of two sections (Chemistry A & Chemistry B). Chemistry A Section will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Chemistry B Section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
4. Subject Biology will consist of two sections (Biology A & Biology B). Biology A Section will consist of 70 questions
(all questions are mandatory) and Biology B Section will have 30 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any
20 questions out of these 30 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 20 questions, first 20 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : _____________________________________________________________________________
Form Number : in figures _________________________________________________________________________________________
In words _________________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : _____________________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ______________________________
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Sample Paper-1
PHYSICS
Section-A
6. A double convex lens of glass of µ = 1.5
1. A swimmer can swim with 20 m/s in still
water. He dives into a river 200m wide, has radius of curvature of each of its
flowing with a speed of 10√3 m /s. Find the surface is 0.2 m. The power of the lens is:-
ratio of time taken to swim across the river (1) +10 D (2) –10 D
along shortest path and swim across with (3) –5 D (4) +5 D
minimum time. 7. A ray of light is incident on an equilateral
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/√3 glass prism placed on a horizontal table.
(3) 2 (4) 1 For minimum deviation which of the
2. A block of mass m remains at rest on a following is true :-
rough incline plane. Then find the net
contact force applied on the block by the R
Q
incline. S
P
(1) PQ is horizontal
(2) QR is horizontal
 (3) RS is horizontal
(1) mgcos (2) mgsin (4) Either PQ or RS is horizontal
(3) 0 (4) mg 8. The maximum intensity of fringes in
3. The magnetic field B and the magnetic Young’s experiment is I. If one of the slit
intensity H in a material are found to be is closed, then the intensity at that place
1.6 T and 1000 A/m respectively. becomes I0. Which of the following
Calculate the relative permeability µr of relation is true?
the material. (1) I = I0
(1) 1.3 × 103 (2) 1.5 × 102
(2) I = 2I0
(3) 1.6 × 104 (4) 1.2 × 102
(3) I = 4I0
4. A small spherical ball of radius r, falling
through a viscous medium of negligible (4) There is no relation between I and I0
density has terminal velocity ‘v’. Another 9. An element ℓ = x î is placed at the
ball of the double mass and of radius 2r, origin and carries a large current I = 10 A.
falling through the same viscous medium What is the magnetic field on the y - axis
will have terminal velocity :- at a distance of 0.5 m. Δx = 1 cm :-
(1) v (2) 4v
y
v
(3) 2v (4) P
4
5. What do you mean by term "parallax"?
(1) when reflected ray from mirror are 0.5m
parallel.
(2) lateral shift between image of an x
x
object viewed from two different
positions. (1) 4 × 10–8 T in +z direction
(3) when incident & refracted ray are (2) 4 × 10–8 T in –z direction
parallel. (3) 2 × 10–8T in +z direction
(4) none of these (4) 2 × 10–8 T in –z direction
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NEET-UG 2024
10. A coil of 10–2 H inductance carries a 14. A 80 pF capacitor is charged to 15 V by
current I = 2sin (100t) A. When current is connecting it to a battery. How many
half of its maximum value, then at that electrons are transferred from one plate
instant the induced emf in the coil will to another?
be:- (1) 7.5 × 109 (2) 6 × 109
(1) 1V (2) 2V (3) 5 × 108 (4) 9 × 108
(3) 3V (4) 2V 15. A body of mass 2 kg begins to move under the
11. A trolley T of mass 5 kg on a smooth action of a time dependent force given by
horizontal surface is pulled by a load of ( )
F = 6t î + 6t 2 ˆj N . The power developed by
2kg through a uniform rope ABC of length
the force at the time t is given by:
2 m and mass 1 kg, (figure). As the load
falls from BC = 0 m to BC = 2 m, its (
(1) 6t 4 + 9t 5 W ) (
(2) 3t 3 + 6t 5 W )
acceleration, in ms–2 changes from (3) ( 9t 5
+ 6t 3 )W (4) ( 9t 3
+ 6t ) W
5
(Take g = 10 ms–2)
16. When the momentum of a proton is
T
A B changed by an amount P0, the
5 kg corresponding change in the de-Broglie
wavelength is found to be 0.25%. Then,
C the original momentum of the proton
2 kg was:-
(1) p0 (2) 100 p0
20 30 20 30
(1) to (2) to (3) 400 p0 (4) 4 p0
6 6 8 8
17. Which of the following is incorrect
20 30 20 30
(3) to (4) to statement regarding photon?
5 6 6 5
(1) Photon exerts no pressure
12. Instantaneous displacement current of
(2) Photon energy is h
1.0 A in the space between the parallel
(3) Photon rest mass is zero
plates of 1 μF capacitor can be established
(4) None of these
by changing potential difference at the
210
rate of: 18. A nucleus of 84 Po originally at rest emits
(1) 10–6 V/s (2) 106 V/s  particle with speed v. What will be the
(3) 10–8 V/s (4) 108 V/s recoil speed of the daughter nucleus?
13. The r.m.s value of potential difference V (1) 4v/206 (2) 4v/214
shown in the figure is:- (3) v/206 (4) v/214
V 19. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
2V0 (1) A diode does not obey Ohm's law
(2) A PN junction diode symbol shows an
O t
T/2 T arrow identifying the direction of
V0 current (forward) flow
(1) (2) V0 2
3 (3) An ideal diode is an open switch
V0 V0 (4) An ideal diode is an ideal one way
(3) (4) conductor
2 2
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Sample Paper-1
20. The change in potential energy, when a 26. The dimension of universal gravitational
body of mass m is raised to a height nR constant is
from the earth's surface is : - (1) [M–2L2T–2] (2) [M–1L3T–2]
(R = Radius of earth) (3) [ML–1T–2] (4) [ML2T–2]
n 27. Assertion : The time period of a
(1) mgR (2) nmgR
n −1 pendulum is given by the formula,
n2 n
(3) mgR 2 (4) mgR T = 2 g/ .
n +1 n +1
21. A weightless thread can support tension Reason : According to the principle of
upto 30 N. A stone of mass 0.5 kg is tied to homogeneity of dimensions, only that
it and is revolved in a circular path of radius formula is correct in which the
2m in a vertical plane. If g = 10 ms–2, then dimensions of L.H.S. is equal to
the maximum angular velocity of the stone dimensions of R.H.S.
will be : (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(1) 5 rad/s (2) 30 rad/s the reason is the correct explanation
(3) 60 rad/s (4) 10 rad/s of the assertion.
22. A wire of a certain material is stretched (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
slowly by ten percent. It’s new resistance the reason is not the correct
and specific resistance become respectively explanation of the assertion.
(1) both remain the same (3) Assertion is true statement but
(2) 1.1 times, 1.1 times Reason is false.
(3) 1.2 times, 1.1 times (4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) 1.21 times, same 28. A shell of mass 20 kg at rest explodes into
23. The moment of inertia of a body about a
two fragments whose masses are in the
given axis is 1.2 kg × m2. Initially, the body
ratio 2 : 3. The smaller fragment moves
is at rest. In order to produce a rotational
with a velocity of 6 ms–1. The kinetic
KE of 1500 joule, an angular acceleration
of 25 rad/sec2 must be applied about the energy of the larger fragment is
axis for a duration of : (1) 96 J (2) 216 J
(1) 4 s (2) 2 s (3) 144 J (4) 360 J
(3) 8 s (4) 10 s 29. When 5V potential difference is applied
24. The position of a particle is given by : across a wire of length 0.1m, the drift
r = î + 2jˆ − kˆ and its linear momentum is speed of electrons is 2.5 × 10–4ms–1. If the
given by : p = 3iˆ + 4jˆ − 2kˆ . Then its angular electron density in the wire is 8 × 1028 m–3
the resistivity of the material is close to
momentum, about the origin is
perpendicular to : - (1) 1.6 × 10–8 Ωm (2) 1.6 × 10–7Ωm
(1) YZ-plane (2) z-axis (3) 1.6 × 10–6 Ωm (4) 1.6 × 10–5 Ωm
(3) y-axis (4) x-axis 30. A particle executes simple harmonic
25. The speed of transverse wave in a motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the
stretched string is 348 m/s, when the mean position, velocity of the particle is
tension of string is 3.6 kg-wt. Calculate 10 cm/s. The distance of the particle from
the speed of the transverse wave in the the mean position when its speed becomes
same string, if the tension of the string is
5 cm/s is  cm, where  = ______.
changed to 4.9 kg-wt.
(1) 348 m/s (2) 406 m/s (1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 500 m/s (4) 300 m/s (3) 11 (4) 0
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NEET-UG 2024
31. A wire is bent in the form of circle of 35. Three different processes that can occur
radius 2m. Resistance per unit length of in an ideal monoatomic gas are shown in
wire is 1/ /m. Battery of 6V is the P vs V diagram. The paths are labelled
connected between A & B. AOB = 90 . as A → B, A → C and A → D. The change in
Find the current through the battery. internal energies during these process
I are taken as EAB, EAC and EAD and the
B
O
workdone as WAB, WAC and WAD. The
correct relation between these
parameters are
A D
P C T 1 > T2
6V B
(1) 8A (2) 4A A T1
(3) 3A (4) 9A T2
32. In moving from A to B along an electric field V
line, the electric field does 6.4 × 10–19 J of (1) EAB = EAC = EAD, WAB > 0, WAC = 0, WAD > 0
work on an electron. If 1, 2 are (2) EAB < EAC < EAD, WAB > 0, WAC > WAD
equipotential surfaces, then the potential (3) EAB = EAC < EAD, WAB > 0, WAC = 0, WAD < 0
difference (VC – VA) is (4) EAB > EAC > EAD, WAB < WAC < WAD
B
E
A C Section-B
1
2 36. Match the column
(1) –4V (2) 4V Column-I Column-II
(3) Zero (4) 64 V
P Stress  strain A Terminal
33. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at
velocity
constant pressure, the fraction of the heat
energy supplied which increases the Q Magnus effect B Zurin’s law
internal energy of the gas is R Hight rise in C Hooke’s law
(1) 2/5 (2) 3/5 capillary tube 
(3) 3/7 (4) 5/7 1/radius of tube
34. A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at
S Rain drops D Bernoulli’s
temperature T1, is enclosed in a cylinder
achieve constant principle
fitted with a frictionless piston. The gas is
allowed to expand adiabatically to a velocity in air
temperature T2 by releasing the piston (1) P-C;Q-B;R-B;S-A
suddenly. If L1 and L2 are the lengths of (2) P-C;Q-D;R-B;S-A
the gas column before and after (3) P-B;Q-D;R-C;S-A
expansion respectively, then T1/T2 is (4) P-C;Q-D;R-A;S-D
given by
37. Two polaroids are placed in the path of
2/3
L  L unpolarized beam of intensity I0 such that
(1)  1  (2) 1
 L2  L2 no light is emitted from the second
2/3 polaroid. If a third polaroid whose
L L 
(3) 2 (4)  2  polarization axis makes an angle  with
L1  L1  the polarization axis of first polaroid, is
Sample Paper-1
placed between these polaroids then the 41. There are n1 photons of frequency 1 in a
intensity of light emerging from the last beam of light. In an equally energetic
polaroid will be beam, there are n2 photons of frequency
I  I  2. Then the correct relation is :-
(1)  0  sin2 2 (2)  0  sin2 2
8 4 n1 n1  1
(1) =1 (2) =
I  n2 n2  2
(3)  0  sin 4  (4) I0cos4
2 n1 12
n1  2
38. Two charges proton and α-particle are (3) = (4) =
n2 1 n2 22
projected in uniform transverse magnetic
42. The given graph represents V–I characteristic
field of strength 'B' and '2B' respectively
in such a way that their radii of circular for a semiconductor device.
tracks are equal. Find ratio of their kinetic
energy :- I
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 4
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 1 : 6 A
39. The loops A and B, when both are moved V
(see figure) near a current carrying wire. B
Then direction of induced current in A
Which of the following statement is
and B are
correct?
V (1) It is for a photodiode and points A and
B represent open circuit voltage and
I V current, respectively
(2) It is for a LED and points A and B
A B represents open circuit voltage and
short circuit current respectively
(1) No current, clockwise (3) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell
(2) No current, anticlockwise where point A represents open circuit
(3) Anticlockwise, clockwise voltage and point B short circuit
(4) Clockwise, anticlockwise current
40. For the circuit as shown in figure, if the (4) It is for a solar cell and points A and B
value of rms current is 2.2 A, the power
represent open circuit voltage and
factor of the box is
current, respectively
Box
100 C 43. The logic behind ‘NOR’ gate is that it
gives: -
1/ H
(1) High output when both the inputs are
low
~
Vrms=220V, =100s–1 (2) Low output when both the inputs are
1 low
(1) (2) 1
2 (3) High output when both the inputs are
1 high
3
(3) (4) (4) None of these
2 2
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44. The orbital velocity of an artificial 48. In the following four situations charged
satellite in a circular orbit just above the particles are at equal distance from the
earth's surface is v. For a satellite orbiting origin. Arrange them according to the
at an altitude of half of the earth's radius, magnitude of the net electric field at
the orbital velocity is : - origin (greatest first).
3 3 Y Y
(1) v (2) v 5q –3q
2 2
2 2 (i) X (ii) X
(3) v (4) v 2q O –3q 2q O –q
3 3
45. A mass m is suspended from a spring of
negligible mass and the system oscillates
Y Y
with a frequency f1. The frequency of
oscillations if a mass 9 m is suspended from
(iii) X (iv) X
f 4q O –2q 3q O –q
the same spring is f2. The value of 1 is ___.
f2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) 3 (4) 4
(2) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
46. Assertion (A) :- Due to end correction,
(3) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
fundamental frequency of any pipe
(4) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
becomes less than frequency without end
49. An electron falls through a small distance
correction. in a uniform electric field of magnitude
Reason (R) :- Due to end correction, 2 × 104 NC–1. The direction of the field is
effective length of pipe increases. reversed keeping the magnitude
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is unchanged and a proton falls through the
the correct explanation of (A). same distance. The time of fall will be
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is (1) Same in both cases
NOT the correct explanation of (A). (2) More in the case of an electron
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (3) More in the case of proton
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true. (4) Independent of charge
47. A student measured the length of a rod 50. An ideal gas undergoes a four step cycle
and wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which as shown in the P–V diagram below.
instrument did he use to measure it? During this cycle, heat is absorbed by the
(1) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in gas in
the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm. P 1
(2) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in
4 2
the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm.
(3) A meter scale 3
(4) A vernier calliper where the 10
V
divisions in vernier scale matches
(1) Steps 1 and 2 (2) Steps 1 and 3
with 9 division in main scale and main
(3) Steps 1 and 4 (4) Steps 2 and 4
scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm.
Sample Paper-1
CHEMISTRY
Section-A
51. x gram of CaCO3 was completely burnt in 58. In a closed insulated container, a liquid is
air. The mass of the solid residue formed stirred with a paddle to increase the
is 28 g. What is the value of 'x' in gram? temperature, which of the following is
(1) 44 (2) 200 true?
(3) 150 (4) 50 (1) E = W ≠ 0, q = 0 (2) E = W = q ≠ 0
52. An organic compound contains 49.30% (3) E = 0, W = q ≠ 0 (4) W = 0, E = q ≠ 0
carbon, 6.84% hydrogen and its vapour 59. What is the enthalpy change for,
density is 73. Molecular formula of the 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g) if heat of
compound is: formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are –188
(1) C3H8O2 (2) C6H10O4 and –286 kJ/mol respectively?
(3) C6H9O (4) C4H10O2 (1) –196 kJ/mol (2) +948 kJ/mol
53. What will be the longest wavelength line (3) +196 kJ/mol (4) –948 kJ/mol
in Balmer series of the hydrogen 60. For the reaction, aA → bB
spectrum ?  −dA   dB 
(1) 566 nm (2) 626 nm log   = log   + 0.6020, then a : b
 dt   dt 
(3) 546 nm (4) 656 nm is
54. If the kinetic energy of an electron is (1) 4 (2) 2
increased 4 times, the wavelength of the (3) 1.5 (4) 0
de Broglie wave associated with it would 61. The oxidation potential of hydrogen
become :
electrode at pH = 10 and p0H2 = 1 atm is :
(1) 4 times (2) 2 times
1 1 (1) 0.51 V (2) 0.00 V
(3) times (4) times (3) +0.59 V (4) 0.059 V
2 4
62. On increasing the dilution, the specific
55. Equilibrium constant Kp increases with
conductance :
increase in temperature. The H for the
(1) increases (2) decreases
reaction would be :
(3) remains constant (4) none of these
(1) positive
63. A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea
(2) negative
(M.W. = 60) is isotonic with a 5%w/v
(3) zero
solution of a non-volatile solute. The
(4) cannot be predicted
molecular mass of this non-volatile solute
56. The pH of solution of obtained by mixing
is :
50 mL of 0.4 N HCl and 50 mL of 0.2 N
(1) 250 g mol–1 (2) 300 g mol–1
NaOH is :
(3) 350 g mol–1 (4) 200 g mol–1
(1) –log 2 (2) –log 0.2
64. Which of the following species does not
(3) 1 (4) 2
contain the S-S linkage.
57. The reaction which is not an
(1) S2O22– (2) S2O32–
intramolecular redox reaction is
(3) S2O52– (4) None of these.
(1) NH4NO2 ⎯→ N2 + 2H2O
65. The basic structural unit of silicates is
(2) 2Mn2O7 ⎯→ 4MnO2 + 3O2
2−
(3) 2KClO3 ⎯→ 2KCl + 3O2 (1) SiO3 (2) SiO24−
(4) 2H2O2 ⎯→ 2H2O + O2 (3) SiO− (4) SiO44−
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66. Select the true statement for the acids of 70. The number of non-polar molecules from
phosphorus, H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4. the following is ___________
(1) The order of their acidity is HF, H2O, SO2, H2, CO2, CH4, NH3, HCl, CHCl3,
BF3
H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2.
(1) 4 (2) 3
(2) All of them are reducing in nature.
(3) 5 (4) 2
(3) All of them are tribasic acids. 71. The element having the highest first
(4) The geometry of phosphorus is ionization enthalpy is
tetrahedral in all the three. (1) Si (2) Al
67. Which of the following statements is (3) N (4) C
incorrect for transition elements ? 72. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fluorine has most negative
(1) The ionization energies for transition
electron gain enthalpy in its group.
metal atoms are intermediate Statement II: Oxygen has least negative
between s and p block elements. electron gain enthalpy in its group.
(2) Transition elements are less In the light of the above statements,
electropositive than Group 1 and 2 choose the most appropriate from the
elements of the periodic table. options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) They may form ionic and covalent
true
bonds depending upon the
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is
conditions. First row element forms false
more ionic compounds than element (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
in the second and third rows. false
(4) None of these (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is
68. Which of the following statements is true
73. The total number of anti bonding
incorrect ?
molecular orbitals, formed from 2s and
(1) CN– is a weaker -acceptor than CO. 2p atomic orbitals in a diatomic molecule
(2) The Fe–C bond length is more in is _____________.
[Fe(CN)6]4– as compared to that in (1) 2 (2) 3
[Fe(CN)6]3–. (3) 4 (4) 5
(3) The Fe–C bond length is less in 74. Statement-I : cis-trans isomerism is a
type of geometrical isomerism.
[Fe(CN)6]4– as compared to that in
Statement-II : For cis-trans isomerism
[Fe(CN)6]3–
both of the double bonded carbon must
(4) The dFe-O (in [Fe(H2O)6]3+) < dFe-O (in have one common group.
[Fe (H2O)6]2+). (1) Both statement I and statement II are
69. Among the following lead acetate is used incorrect.
for which set of radicals ? (2) Both statement-I and statement-II
(1) S2–, Cr3+, Cl¯ are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement
(2) Cu2+, Fe2+, Pb2+
II is incorrect
(3) H+, Ca2+, Al3+ (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
(4) Ag+, Mn2+, Zn2+ II is correct.
Sample Paper-1
75. Statement-I : Eclipsed form of n-Butane 79. Which of the following compounds is
is minimum stable conformers. aromatic?
Statement-II : Eclipsed form of n-Butane
has maximum torsional strain but (1) (2)
N N
minimum steric strain. (Pyridine)
(1) Both statement I and statement II H
(Pyrrole)
are incorrect.
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are (3) (4) All of these
correct. O
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II Furan
is incorrect 80. Given below are two statements:
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement Statement-I : Peroxide effect is not
II is correct. observed in addition of HCl & HI
76. Statement-I : D and L nomenclature Statement-II : HCl bond is stronger than
system is used for naming enantiomers HBr bond and H – I bond is weaker than
Statement-II : D represent dextrorotary H – Br bond.
and L represent Laevorotatory rotation of
In the light of the above statements,
light.
choose the most appropriate answer
(1) Both statement I and statement II
from the options given below:
are incorrect.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
correct.
correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II
is incorrect II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement (3) Statement-I is incorrect but
II is correct. Statement-II is correct.
77. Hyperconjugation occurs in (4) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
CH CH CH3 81. CH3Cl KMnO4

3 3 A ‘B’
AlCl3 H
(1) (2) Product 'B' of above reaction is :
CH3 CH3 CH3 COOH
CH3
(1) (2)
C—CH3
(3) (4) CH3 OH
Br (3) (4)
O
82. Identify correct reactivity order for SN1
78. (I) CH3—C—CH3 (II) CH2=CH—CH2
reaction
OH
I Br Br
OH
O O
(III) CH2=C—CH3 (I) (II) (III)
O
Which among these are tautomers?
(1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) I > III > II (4) III > I > II
(3) II and III (4) All of these
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NEET-UG 2024
CH3 87. The half-life periods of a reaction at initial
H2SO4 concentrations 0.1 mol L–1 and 0.5 mol
83. CH3CH2—C — CH—CH3 P
heat Major L–1 are 200 s and 40 s respectively. The
CH3 OH order of the reaction is
What is the major product P in the above (1) 1 (2) ½
(3) 2 (4) 0
reaction ?
88. Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and
CH3 CH3
CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45,
(1) CH2—CH2—CH—CH=CH2 426.16 and 91 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
CH3 CH3 respectively. The equivalent conductance
of CH3COOH at infinite dilution would be:
(2) CH3—CH—CH—CH=CH2 (1) 101.38 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
CH3 (2) 253.62 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
(3) 390.71 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
(3) CH3CH2—C—CH=CH2
(4) 678.90 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
CH3 89. Given that :
H3C CH3 Gas Henry’s law constant (KH)
Ar 40.39
(4) CH3CH2—C=C—CH3
CO2 1.67
84. Arrange the following compounds in HCHO 1.83 × 10–5
acidic order of decreasing CH4 0.413
OH OH OH OH Which of the following is the correct
order of increasing solubility.
(1) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar
(2) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
Cl CH3 NO2 OCH3 (3) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (4) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO
(1) IV > III > I > II (2) II > IV > I > III 90. Which meniscus in read in burette in case
of KMnO4
(3) I > II > III > IV (4) III > I > II > IV
(1) Upper (2) Lower
85. In a Lassaignes’s test for sulphur in the
(3) Middle (4) None of these
organic compound with sodium 91. When KMnO4 reacts with H2O2 in alkaline
nitroprusside solution the purple colour and acidic medium, the respective
formed is due to- products obtained are
(1) [Fe(CN)5 NOS]4– (2) [Fe(CN)5 S]2– (1) K2MnO4 and Mn2+
(3) [Fe(CN)5 NOS]2– (4) [Fe(CN)6 ]4– (2) MnO2 and MnO2
(3) MnO2 and Mn2+
Section-B (4) Mn2+ and MnO2
86. The degree of hydrolysis of which of the 92. Choose the correct order for 0 for the
following salt is independent of the following complexes.
concentration of salt solutions ? I : [Co(H2O)6]2+ II : [Co(H2O)6]3+
(1) CH3COONa (2) NH4Cl III : [Fe(H2O)6]3+ IV : [Fe(CN)6]3–
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) I < III < II < IV
(3) CH3COONH4 (4) NaCl
(3) I < II = III < IV (4) I < II < IV < III
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Sample Paper-1
93. Which of the following statements is CH3
correct for [Ni(dmg)2] ? Br ⊝
(CH3)3 CO
(1) Oxidation state of Ni is zero. 97. CH3

(2) Only five membered ring is present.
Major product is: -
(3) Dimethylglyoximato is a bidentate CH3
ligand. CH3 CH2
(4) Four and five membered rings are (1) (2)
present. CH3
CH3 CH3
94. Why copper sulphate turns blue on CH3 CH3
adding excess of NH4OH. (3) (4)
(1) Due to formation of Cu(OH)2
(2) Due to formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ 98. Compound ‘X’ C4H8O which gives 2, 4-DNP
(3) Due to oxidation of Cu2+ derivative and negative iodoform test is :
O
(4) Du to reduction of Cu2+ (1)
95. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is (2) CH2—OH
labelled as Reason R.
OH
Assertion A : H2Te is more acidic than
(3)
H2S.
O
Reason R: Bond dissociation enthalpy of
H2Te is lower than H2S. (4) H3C—CH—C—H
In the light of the above statements. CH3
Choose the most appropriate from the
⊝
options given below. OH/H2O
99. + CH2=O
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
O
correct explanation of A. The major product which can be isolated
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the from this reaction is:
correct explanation of A. OH
(3) A is false but R is true.
(1) (2)
(4) A is true but R is false. HO
96. Primary alcohol can be formed as major O O
product by OH
CH3 (3) (4) OH
(1) BH3, THF O O
(1) CH3—C=CH2 ⊝
(2) H2O2/OH CH3
Aq. NaNO2/HCl
100. NH P
CH3 CH3 O°C
dil. H2SO4
(2) CH3—C=CH2 (2° Amine)
CH3 P should be
(1) (CH3COO)2 Hg, H2O (1) CH3—OH (2) CH3—Cl
(3) CH3—C=CH2
(2) NaBH4 CH3
(3) N—N = O (4) All of these
(4) Both (2) and (3) CH3 (A nitrosamine)
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BIOLOGY
Botany [Section-A]
105. Consider the following statements (A-D)
101. Arrange the following different taxa in
(A) Cytoplasmic increase is a continuous
ascending sequence according to their rank:-
process during cell cycle
(A) Poaceae
(B) During S-phase, number of chromosomes
(B) Polymoniales
becomes double
(C) Panthera (C) Cells in quiescent stage remain
(D) Monocotyledonae metabolically inactive
(1) C → A → B → D (D) The interphase lasts more than 95% of
(2) D → C → B → A the duration of cell cycle.
(3) C → B → A → D How many of the above statement(s) is/are
(4) D → B → A → C true?
102. Plant cells do not divide their cytoplasm by (1) One (2) Two
forming a furrow in cell membrane like animal (3) Three (4) Four
cells rather they divide by cell plate because. 106. Find out the frequency of AabbCcDdee if
parents are AabbCCddEe and AabbccDdee.
(1) Plant cells do not have centrioles
(1) 6.25% (2) 12.5%
(2) Nuclear membrane formation begins
(3) 25% (4) 50%
with formation of cell plate.
107. According to Hardy Weinberg Law, the
(3) Plant cells are enclosed by a relatively
frequency of organisms having recessive
inextensible wall
character will be :
(4) Plant cells are enclosed by a relatively (1) p2 (2) q2
extensible wall (3) p2 + 2pq (4) p2 + 2pq + q2
103. Which of the following is a secondary 108. Which of the following growth rate uses
metabolite from a fungi ? initial parameter in calculation:-
(1) Morphine (1) Absolute growth rate
(2) Streptomycin (2) Relative growth rate
(3) Penicillin (3) Arithmatic growth rate
(4) Curcumin (4) Geometric growth rate
104. A normal woman, whose father was colour– 109. In electron transport system of respiration,
which enzyme complex is odd w.r.t. electron
blind marries to a normal man. Their sons
carrier ?
would be-
(1) Complex - I
(1) All colour–blind
(2) Complex - III
(2) 75% colour–blind
(3) Complex - IV
(3) 50% colour–blind
(4) Complex - V
(4) All normal
Sample Paper-1
110. How many disease in the list given below are 115. Among following options which property of
caused by bacteria ? DNA made it suitable to be used for
Citrus canker, Late Blight, Anthrax, Red Rot amplification by PCR.
of sugarcane, Rust disease in wheat, Typhoid, (1) Presence of 2’ OH group
Blight in rice. (2) Thermal Stability
(1) Six (2) Three (3) Catalytic behaviour
(3) Four (4) Five (4) More reactive
111. If successive division of a bacterium occurs in 116. In the equation of logistic growth
every minute, a small test tube is filled up in  dN  K − N 

 dt = rN  K  
one hour. Then lower half of the test tube will   
be filled up in how much time? K−N
 K  represents:-
(1) 30 minutes (2) 29 minutes  
(3) 59 minutes (4) 15 minutes (1) Environmental resistance

112. Which one of the following does not differ in (2) intrinsic rate of natural increases
E. coli and Chlamydomonas ? (3) exponential form of growth
(1) Cell wall (4) influence of individuals over biotic potential

117. Which of the following is not a structural
(2) Cell membrane
component of a community ?
(3) Ribosomes
(1) Dominance
(4) Chromosomal organisation
(2) Species diversity
113. Find incorrect statements about
(3) Bio-Geo-chemical cycle
sclerenchyma :-
(4) Stratification
(a) Wide lumen with cellulosic cell wall
118. Which of the following marsupial is extinct?
(b) Presence of pits
(1) Thylacine (2) Dodo
(c) Present in hypodermis of maize and
(3) Quagga (4) Steller’s Sea Cow
sunflower
119. Assertion: Photosynthesis requires a
(d) These are usually dead and without
membranous system consisting of grana and
protoplast stroma lamellae.
(1) a, d (2) a, b Reason: Membranous system of chloroplast
(3) b, c, d (4) a, c is responsible for trapping light energy and
114. In a pond there are 400 lotus plants last year, converting it into chemical energy.
through reproduction 16 new lotus plants (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and
are added, and current population become the Reason is a correct explanation of the
416, then calculate the birth rate. Assertion.
(1) 0.4 offspring per year (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(2) 0.6 offspring per year Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(3) 0.08 offspring per year Assertion.
(4) 0.04 offspring per year (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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NEET-UG 2024
120. How many of the following are autotrophic 126. Read carefully following statements :-
prokaryotes? Wolfia, Rose, Nostoc, (A) Communication was not easy in those
Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Nitrosomonas, days and his work could not be widely
Chara, Fucus, Anabaena publicised
(1) Two (2) Three (B) His concept of genes/factor was not
(3) Four (4) Five accepted because discontinuous
121. Darwinian fitness is represented by:- variation seen in nature
(1) Low r value (2) High r value (C) Use of Mathematics
(3) High k value (4) Low k value (D) He could not provide any physical proof
of factors
122. Nutrient mobilization in plants, which leads
How many statements are not correct for
to delay in senescence of leaf, is
characteristic function of :- Mendel's work unrecognised till 1900.
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (1) One (2) Two
(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene (3) Three (4) Four
123. Which of the following is correct sequence of 127. The ecological interaction in which co-
amount of DNA in different stages of meiosis. existence, co-evolution and co-extinction
If amount of DNA at G1-phase is 30 pg :- occurs is/are :-
(1) G2 phase-128 pg, Diakinesis-60 pg, (A) Mutualism (B) Predation
Metaphase-I-60 pg (C) Commensalism (D) Ammensalim
(2) Pachytene 60 pg, metaphase-I-60 pg, (1) A and B (2) A and D
diplotene-30pg (3) B and C (4) only A

128. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(3) S phase-60 pg, Metaphase-I-60 pg,
(1) The sequence of amino acids is defined
Telophase-120 pg
by the sequence of bases in the m-RNA.
(4) Anaphase-I-60 pg, Metaphase-I-60 pg,
(2) RNA polymerase Ι forms r-RNA in
Metaphase-II-30 pg
prokaryotes.
124. Calvin cycle consumes _____ ATP molecules
(3) Genetic code is ambiguous
and ___ NADPH2 molecules for fixation of
(4) Both (1) & (2)
three carbon dioxide molecules :-
129. Which of the following is not found in a
(1) 18, 12 (2) 9, 6
microbe that is used to produce citric acid on
(3) 6, 9 (4) 12, 18
industrial scale?
125. Genes A, B and C are linked. Genes A and B
(1) Introns (2) Mendelian factors
are more close than A and C. Find out the
(3) 26S rRNA (4) Meiosis
most correct option for the given statements:
130. How many of the following are incorrect
I. A might be before B and C.
A. Nucleic acids are polymers of
II. B might be between A and C
nucleotides.
III. C might be between A and B B. DNA acts as genetic material in most of
IV. More crossing over has occurred the organisms.
between A and C than A and B. C. RNA functions as a genetic material,
(1) I and II (2) II and III messenger, as adapter, structural and in
(3) III and IV (4) I, II and IV some cases as a catalytic molecule.
Sample Paper-1
D. DNA is not only the most abundant 135. If TCA cycle produce FADH2 at all the
genetic material but also it is most oxidation steps, then what would be the
interesting molecule in the living system. reduction in number of ATP produced by one
E. A bacteriophage ϕ × 174 has 5386 cycle?
nucleotides, bacteriophage lambda has (1) 9 ATP (2) 12 ATP
48502 base pairs, E. coli has 4.6 ×106 base (3) 6 ATP (4) 3 ATP
pairs and haploid content of human DNA
Botany [Section-B]
has 3.3 × 109 bp.
F. The back bone in a polynucleotide chain 136. Assertion : In monoecious plants neither
is formed by sugar and phosphate. autogamy nor geitonogamy can be observed.
G. For a double stranded DNA, the ratios Reason : In monoecious plants male and
between Adenine & Thymine and female flowers are produced on different
plants.
Guanine & Cytosine is constant and equal
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and
to one.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
Assertion.
131. Which of the following set of organism are
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
seeded plants ?
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) Wheat, Pinus, Pteris
Assertion.
(2) Pinus, Cycas, Cedrus
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(3) Pinus, Sphagnum, Chara
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(4) Chara, Wheat, Cycas 137. How many of the following are correctly
132. Which of the following secondary metabolite matched from the given below column-I,
obtained from fruit of a plant having column-II and column-III?
syncarpous gynoecium? Column-I Column-II Column-
(1) Morphine (2) Cocaine III
(3) Nicotine (4) Interferons (A) Ribosome Composed of Site of
r-RNA and protein
133. Lichen, Fig-wasp, Epiphyte-Mango,
protein synthesis
Mycorrhiza, Barnacle-Whale, Pronuba moth- (B) ER Network of Site for
Yucca plant, Sea anemone-Clown fish. tiny tubular synthesis
How many of the above show structure for protein
scattered in and lipid
commensalism?
the cytoplasm
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (C) Kinetochore Disc shape Site of
134. Identify the floral diagram of Liliaceae : structure attachment
present on for spindle
secondary fibres
(1) (2)
constriction of
chromosome
(D) Microbody Membrane Present
bound minute only in
vesicle plant cell
(3) (4)
(1) Two (2) One
(3) Four (4) Three
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NEET-UG 2024
138. Which one of the following correctly 140. Select the correct example of the following
represents the manner of DNA replication :- figure:-
(1)
A B C D
(1) Calotropis Cotton Cassia China rose
(2) Liliaceae China Gulmohur Cruciferae
rose
(3) Calotropis Lady's Cassia Pea
Finger
(2) (4) Pea Bean Cassia Liliaceae
141. __________(i) using a prism he split light into its

spectral components and then illuminated a
green alga__________(ii) placed in a suspension
of __________(iii). These bacteria were used to
detect the sites of O2 evolution. He observed
(3) that the bacteria accumulated mainly in the
region of blue and red light of the split
spectrum. A first __________(iv) of
photosynthesis was thus described.
(1) (i) T.W. Engelmann ; (ii) Chlorella ;
(iii) Anaerobic bacteria ;
(4) (iv) Action spectrum
(2) (i) Whiteman ; (ii) Cladophora ;
(iii) Aerobic bacteria ;
(iv) Absorption spectrum
139. (i) A bacterium __(A)__ produces (3) (i) Blackman ; (ii) Scenedesmus ;
commercial product called lactic acid. (iii) Anaerobic bacteria ;
(ii) A fungus __(B)__ produces cyclosporin A. (iv) Absorption spectrum
(4) (i) T.W. Engelmann ; (ii) Cladophora;
(iii) __(C)__ produces statins.
(iii) Aerobic bacteria ;
(iv) A fungus produces __(D)__antibiotic.
(iv) Action spectrum
142. Select the correct sequence of steps in
A B C D glycolysis ?
(1) Lactobacillus Trichoderma Yeast Streptomycin
(1) PGAL → 3-PGA → 1,3-BisPGA → PEP
(2) Lactobacillus Monascus Trichoderma Penicillin (2) PGAL → 1,3-BisPGA → PEP → 3-PGA
(3) Lactobacillus Trichoderma Yeast Penicillin (3) 1,3-BisPGA → 3-PGA → 2-PGA → PEP
(4) Lactobacillus Monascus Trichoderma Streptomycin (4) PGAL→ PEP→ 1,3-BisPGA → 2-PGA
Sample Paper-1
143. Which of the following is not correct with
Synthesis of Utilisation of
respect to megasporogenesis and
NADH + H+ NADH + H+
megagametogenesis? (1) Step-2 Step-1 & 3
(1) Generally in ovules a group of megaspore (2) Step-1 Step-2 & 3
mother cells differentiate in the (3) Step-2 & 3 Step-1
micropylar region of the nucellus. (4) Step-1 & 3 Step-2
(2) In a majority of flowering plants, only 146. Match the correct amino acid according to its
one of the megaspore is functional. nature :-
(3) During the formation of 8 nucleated (A) (B) (C)
structure mitotic divisions are strictly Acidic Alkaline Neutral
free nuclear. (1) Aspartic Histidine Arginine
(4) Central cell is the largest cell in embryo acid
(2) Palmitic Arginine Alanine
sac.
acid
144. Find the incorrect statement :-
(3) Glutamic Lysine Valine
(1) Lipids are strictly micromolecule acid
(2) Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms (4) Glycine Arginine Histidine
excluding carboxyl carbon
147. Given below is the flow chart of sewage
(3) Oils have lower melting point and hence treatment. Identify A, B, C and D, and select
remain as oil in winter. the correct option :-
(4) Glycerol is known as trihydroxy propane.
145. Pathways of anaerobic respiration are
shown in the diagram. Select the correct
option :-
(1) A- Primary effluent,

B-Increased BOD,
C-Activated sludge,
D-Aerobic sludge digesters
(2) A-Primary effluent,
B-Reduced BOD,
C-Activated sludge,
D-Anaerobic sludge digester
(3) A-Microbial digestion,
B-Activated sludge,
C-Reduced BOD,
D-Anaerobic sludge digester
(4) A-Microbial digestion,
B-Primary effluent,
C-Reduced BOD,
D-Aerobic sludge digester
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148. Select the correct statement regarding the (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
characteristics of certain organisms correct explanation
(1) Sphagnum provide peat that have long (3) A is true but R is false
been used as fuel. (4) Both A and R are false
(2) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and 152. Statement I : RNAi takes place in all
prevent soil erosion.
prokaryotic organisms as a method of
(3) Gammae are green, multicellular, asexual
cellular defense.
buds which are developed on Marchantia
Statement II: It prevents transcription of the
thallus in gemma cup.
mRNA (silencing)
(4) All of the above.
149. In the given figure of Euglena identify the (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
structure A and their composition :- incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
is correct
A (3) Both the statement are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
c
Pvu I
(1) A-Pellicle : Proteinaceous Pst I d
(2) A-Mucilaginous sheath : Protection from 153.
water a b
Sal I
(3) A-Pellicle : Silica pBR322
(4) A-Mucilaginous sheath : Polysaccharide

150. Plant captures only :-
Pvu I
(1) 2–10% of total Incident solar radiation
(2) 2–10% of Photosynthetically Active a b c d
radiation (1) ampr tetr Pvu II BamHI
(3) 1–5% of Photosynthetically Active (2) tetr ampr Pvu I Hind III
radiation (3) ampr tetr EcoRI BamHI
(4) Less than 90% of total Incident solar
(4) tetr ampr Pst I ClaI
radiation
154. Assertion : The inhibitor competes with the
Zoology [Section – A] substrate for the substrate binding site of the
enzyme.
151. Assertion : Continuous culture system
Reason : Inhibitors show close structural
method produces a larger biomass leading to
similarity with the substrate.
higher yields of desired protein. (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
Reason : It maintains the cells in their correct explanation
physiologically most active log (2) A is true but R is false
exponential phase. (3) Both A and R are true and R is correct
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
explanation of A (4) Both A and R are false
Sample Paper-1
155. Study the diagram of digestive system of frog. (1) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
B A (2) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
(4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
158. Indicate whether the following statements
C are true or false.
D (a) Micturition is carried out by a reflex.
(b) ADH helps in water elimination, making
the urine hypotonic
(c) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood
plasma into the bowman’s capsule.
(d) Henle’s loop plays an important role in
Choose the incorrect option.
concentrating the urine.
(1) A – short because frogs are carnivores.
(e) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the
(2) B – Covered by a membrane called proximal convoluted tubule.
pericardium. (1) a, b, d are true but c, e are false.
(3) C – Bile emulsifies fat and pancreatic juices (2) a, b, c are true but d, e are false.
digest proteins and carbohydrates (3) a, c, d, e are true but b is false.
(4) D – Double fold of peritoneum called (4) b, d are true but a, c, e are false.
mesorchium is present.
156. Which of the following statements are
incorrect?
(a) Muscle is a specialised tissue of 159.
endodermal origin.
(b) About 40-50 percent of the body weight
of a human adult is contributed by
muscles.
(c) Muscles have special properties like Which is correct about given labelling and
excitability, contractibility, conductivity their functions.
and elasticity. (1) B → Bowman’s capsule → cup like
(d) Based on location two type of muscles are structure helps in formation of urine
identified (i) voluntary and (ii) (2) A → Afferent arteriole is fine branch of
involantory. renal artery carries blood to glomerulus
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d (3) C → Efferent arteriole → Fine branch of
(3) a, c and d (4) b, c and d renal artery carries blood to glomerulus
157. Match the column-I with column-II. (4) D → Poximal convoluted tubule → form
Column-I Column-II vasa recta
(i) Gliding joint (a) Between the 160. Read the following statement and find out
carpals the incorrect statement.
(1) Dendrites transmit impulses away from
(ii) Saddle joint (b) Between
the cell body to a synapse or
carpals and
neuromuscular junction.
metacarpals
(2) Synaptic knob possesses synaptic vesicles.
of thumb (3) Based on the number of axon and
(iii) Cartilaginous (c) Between dendrites, the neurons are divided into
joint adjacent three types i.e. unipolar, bipolar and
vertebra multipolar.
(iv) Pivot joint (d) Between Atlas (4) In Hydra, the neural system is composed
and Axis. of a network of neurons.
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161. Read the following (A-D) statements : (1) i–C and D;ii–E and A (respectively)
(i) Tight junction help to stop substances (2) i-B and E; ii-D and E (respectively)
from leaking across a tissue. (3) i-A and B; ii-C and D (respectively)
(ii) Intercalated discs at some fusion points (4) i-B and C; ii-A and B (respectively)
allow the cells to not contract as a unit. 165. Match the column.
(iii) Cartilage is main tissue that provides Column I Column II
structural frame to the body. (i) Synapsis (a) Pachytene
(iv) Compound epithelium has main role in (ii) Bivalent (b) Diplotene
secretion and absorption. (iii) Chiasmata (c) Zygotene
How many of the following statement are correct? (1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c (2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c
(1) Four (2) Three (3) One (4) Two (3) i-c, ii-b, iii-a (4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b
162. In cockroach, identify the A,B,C and D in 166. Complete the chart_______.
given flow chart and choose the correct Dryopithecus
option : More __A__ like B
Mouth A Oesophagus B (Connecting link
b/w man and
ape)
Colon D Mesenteron C C
(first human-like
A C B D being)
(1) Pharynx Crop Gizzard Midgut (1) A – man ; C – Homo habilis
Pharynx Crop Malpighian (2) B – Ramapithecus;
(2) Caeca
tubules C – Homo sapiens
(3) Pharynx Gizzard Crop Ileum (3) A – ape; B – Australopithecines
(4) Pharynx Gizzard Crop Rectum (4) B – Homo erectus;
163. Plant cells are responsible for trapping light C-Neanderthal man
energy essential for photosynthesis because 167. Assertion : Evolution is the result of a
(a) Stroma lamellae contain chloroplast. process.
(b) Stroma in plastid, is the site of light reactions. Reason : When we describe the story of life
(c) Grana in plastid, is the site of dark reactions. on earth, we treat evolution as a consequence
(d) Chromoplast are present, help in above of a process called natural selection.
process. (1) Both assertion and reason are true and
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a and b only reason is correct explanation of assertion
(3) b and c only (4) a only (2) Both assertion and reason are true and
164. Observe the figure and answer the following. reason is not correct explanation of
C assertion.
B (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
E
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
statements.
D
168. Identify the stage of cell cycle.
(i) _____ lie on the surface of membrane while

___are partially or totally buried in the
membrane.
(ii) The major lipids are____ that are arranged
in a bilayer. In addition to phospholipids (1) Anaphase I (2) Metaphase II
membrane also contains____. (3) Telophase I (4) Anaphase II
Sample Paper-1
169. Match the column-I with column-II. (1) Ascaris (Roundworm), Wuchereria
Column-I Column-II (Filaria worm), Ancylostoma (Hookworm)
(i) Insulin (a) Hypoglycemic (2) Sycon (Scypha), Spongilla (Fresh water
(ii) Glucagon (b) Hypercalcemic sponge), Euspongia (Bath sponge)
(iii) Thyrocalcitonin (c) Hyperglycemic (3) Taenia (Tapeworm), Fasciola (Liver
(iv) Parathyroid (D) Hypocalcemic fluke), Planaria
Hormone (PTH)
(4) Anopheles, Culex, Aedes
(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b) 173. Which of the following options does not
(2) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) correctly represent the characteristic
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b) features of class mammalia?
(4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) (1) External ears or pinnae are present
(2) The skin of mammals is unique in
possessing hair.
(3) Body is divisible into head and trunk
170. (4) The most unique mammalian characteristic
is the presence of milk producing glands
(mammary glands) by which the young
ones are nourished
174. The true statement about RBC is
(1) RBCs have an average life span of 120 days.
(2) RBCs are destroyed in the spleen
(graveyard of RBCs)
(3) RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the
mammals
(4) All of the above
Identify A, B, C and D from the above flow 175. Statement I : AB blood group is a universal
chart. recipient as well as donor.
(1) (A)-LH, (B)-FSH, (C)-Estrogen, Statement II : Fishes have single open
(D)-Progesterone circulation whereas amphibians possess
(2) (A)-FSH, (B)-LH, (C)-Progesterone, transitional double closed circulation.
(D)-Estrogen (1) Statement 1 and statement 2 both are
(3) (A)-FSH, (B)-LH, (C)-Estrogen, incorrect
(D)-Prolactin (2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
(4) (A)-FSH, (B)-LH, (C)-Estrogen, incorrect
(D)-Progesterone (3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2
171. Bioluminescence refers to - is correct
(1) the property of a living organism to emit (4) Statement 1 and statement 2 both are
light correct
(2) presence of segmented body and 176. Receptors associated with aortic and carotid
parthenogenic mode of reproduction artery can recognize changes in ________ and
(3) alternation of generation _______ concentration and send necessary
(4) lack the capacity to regulate their body signal to _______ for remedial action.
temperature (1) O2, CO2, pneumotaxic
172. Which of the following is the correct (2) CO2, H+, rhythm centre
combination of animals which possess water (3) CO2, H+, apneustic centre
canal system? (4) O2, H+, pneumotaxic
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177. Select the incorrect statement with respect 181. Match the column :
to AIDS – Column-I Column-II
(1) Diagnostic test is Enzyme linked
(a) Curable STI (i) Syphilis
immuno-sorbent assay.
(b) Non-curable STI (ii) Genital
(2) Infected cells survive while virus are
being replicated and released. herpes
(3) Progressive decrease in number of T- (c) Family planning (iii) 1951
lymphocyte (TH) in infected person body. programme
(4) HIV/AIDS infected persons are isolated started in India
from family and society.
(d) MTP legalized in (iv) 1971
178. Match the following column and select the
correct option. India
Column I Column II (1) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(a) Plasmodium (i) Water and food
(2) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iv), d – (iii)
contamination
(b) Salmonella (ii) Droplet or (3) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
typhi aerosol infection (4) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (iv), d – (iii)
(c) W. bancroftian (iii) Female anopheles 182. Assertion : Testicular lobules are the
(d) Haemophilus (iv) Bite by the female
compartments present in testes.
influenzae mosquito vectors
Reason : These lobules are involved in
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
process of fertilization.
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (1) If Both A and R are true and R is the
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) correct explanation of A
179. Given below are two statements : (2) If Both A and R are true but R is not the
Statement 1 : The yellowish fluid secreted correct explanation of A
by mother during the initial days of lactation (3) If A is true but R is false
has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the
(4) If Both A and R are false
infant.
Statement 2 : Antivenom injection which is 183. Match the column I and II.
given to patient, is type of passive Column-I Column-II
immunisation. (a) Finger like (i) Infundibulum
(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are structure
true
(b) Inverted (ii) Testes
(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2
pear like
is correct
(3) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are structure
false. (c) Funnel (iii) Fimbriae
(4) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is shaped
incorrect. structure
180. Which lymphocyte produce an army of
(d) Oval shape (iv) Uterus
protein in response to pathogens into our
blood to fight with them and these proteins structure
are called :- (1) a – (i), b – (iv), c – (iii), d – (ii)
(1) T-lymphocyte, Antibodies (2) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (i), d – (iv)
(2) B-lymphocyte, Antibodies
(3) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (ii), d – (i)
(3) B-lymphocyte, Antigen
(4) T-lymphocyte, Antigen (4) a – (iii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (ii)
Sample Paper-1
184. Read the following statements and identify 188. Which of the following statements are
the correct one among them. correct with respect to fibrous joint.
(1) In testes, the immature male germ cells (i) They permit limited movements
produce sperms by spermatogenesis (ii) Do not allow any movement.
which begins at puberty. (iii) They are present between adjacent
(2) The spermatogonia divide by meiotic vertebrae of vertebral column.
division and increase in numbers. (iv) They are present between skull bones
(3) Some of the spermatogonia called that are fused end to end with the help
secondary spermatocyte periodically of dense fibrous tissue
(1) i, ii and iii (2) i, iii and iv
undergo meiosis.
(3) i, ii and iv (4) ii and iv
(4) Sperm heads become embedded on
189. Statement I : In resting stage, the axonal
Sertoli cells and are finally released from
membrane is comparatively more permeable
the seminiferous tubules by the process
to Na+ and nearly impermeable to K+.
called spermiogenesis.
Statement II : When a stimulus is applied on
185. Refer to the given figure showing human the polarised membrane, the membrane
foetus within the uterus. becomes freely permeable to Na+.
B (1) Both statement I and statement II are
true
A C (2) Statement I is true but statement II is
false.
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is
true.
D
(4) Both statement I and statement II is true
In the figure some part are labelled as A, B, C 190. Which of these is not a location of compound
and D. Identify the part which is first epithelium.
hemopoietic organ. (1) Inner surface of buccal cavity
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) A (2) Pancreatic ducts
(3) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands
Zoology [Section – B] (4) Air sac of lungs
191. Which of the following is correct :-
186. _________ is a procedure through which a piece
(1) Cells of all living organisms have a
of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.
nucleus.
(1) Microinjection
(2) Both animal and plant cells have well
(2) Recombination defined cell wall.
(3) Cloning (3) In prokaryotes, there is no membrane
(4) Transformation bound organelles.
187. Which of the following statement is correct. (4) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic
(1) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms materials.
excluding the carboxyl carbon. 192. Phenomenon like habitat fragmentation and
(2) Fats and oils differ on the basis of their ____ may accentuate these variations leading
boiling point to appearance of new species and hence
(3) Fatty acids could be unsaturated evolution.
(without double bond) or saturated (1) Isolation
(with one or more c=c double bonds) (2) Genetic drift
(4) Neural tissues have lipids with more (3) Hybridization
complex structures (4) Struggle for existence
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193. A 50 Year old women suffers from irregular (3) The tracheae, primary, secondary and
Menstrual cycle, loose and swollen skin, tertiary bronchi and initial bronchioles
deposition of adipose fat, falling of hair. All are supported by complete cartilaginous
these symptoms are related to- rings.
(1) Hypothyroidism (4) During swallowing, the glottis can be
(2) Hyperthyroidism
covered by a thin elastic cartilaginous
(3) Deficiency of Iodine in Diet
flap called epiglottis to prevent the entry
(4) Hyper section of Adrenal Gland
of food into the larynx.
194. In which of the following, the genus name, its
two characters and its phylum are not
197. How many of the following can be classified
correctly matched, whereas the remaining
three are correct? as STIs?
Genus Two characters Phylum (a) Encephalitis (b) Psoriasis
name (c) Trichomoniasis (d) AIDS
(1) Physalia (a) Gastrovascular Coelenterata (e) Gouty (f) Arthritis
cavity (g) Genital warts (h) Osteoporosis
(b) Cnidoblast
(i) Hepatitis B
(2) Nereis (a) Parapodia Aschelminthes
(b) Dioecious (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Bombyx (a) Paired jointed Arthropoda (3) 5 (4) 6
appendages 198. Statement 1 : Mammary glands are
(b) Respiration by characteristic of all females.
trachea
Statement 2 : Mammary glands contain
(4) Chaetopleura (a) Unsegmented Mollusca
body
glandular tissue and variable amount of fat.
(b) Mouth with (1) Both statement 1 and 2 are true
radula (2) Statement 1 is true but statement 2
195. Identify the correct sequence of events in a is false
cardiac cycle: (3) Statement 1 is false but statement 2
(1) Joint diastole, atrial systole, ventricular is true
diastole (4) Both statement 1 and 2 are false
(2) Atrial systole, ventricular diastole, 199. Which of the following is used as probe in
ventricular systole autoradiography?
(3) Atrial systole, ventricular systole, joint (1) Radio-labelled dsDNA or dsRNA
diastole
(2) Radio-labelled single stranded RNA and
(4) Ventricular diastole, diastole, ventricular
double stranded DNA
systole, atrial systole
196. Select the incorrect statement from the (3) Radio-labelled single stranded DNA or
following : RNA
(1) Pleural fluid reduces friction on the lung (4) Both (1) and (3)
surface. 200. How many of the followings are secondary
(2) The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is metabolites and primary metabolites
such that any change in the volume of the respectively?
thoracic cavity will be reflected in the Essential oils, Flavonoids, alkaloids, spices,
lung (pulmonary) cavity. Such an amino acids, sugars, antibiotics, cellulose,
arrangement is essential for breathing, as coloured pigments.
we cannot directly alter the pulmonary
(1) 5, 4 (2) 6, 3
volume.
(3) 7, 2 (4) 2, 7
Sample Paper - 2
In words _________________________________________________________________________________________
Sample Paper-2
PHYSICS
Section-A
1. A particle having momentum of
100 kg-m/s after travelling for 5 sec
5m
acquires a momentum of 200 kg-m/s. v
How much distance it travelled during
this interval if its mass is 2 kg and moving 10m
with uniform acceleration.
(1) 175m (2) 375m (1) 10 m/s (2) 10 2 m/s
(3) 250m (4) 125m (3) 10 3 m/s (4) 20 m/s
2. A body is projected from ground with 6. Two slits are made one millimetre apart
speed 40m/s for maximum range. Then and the screen is placed one metre away.
find out maximum height attained by the What is the fringe separation when blue-
body during this projectile, g=10m/s2:- green light of wavelength 500 nm is used?
(1) 160 m (2) 80 m (1) 0.5 µm (2) 0.5 mm
(3) 40 m (4) 120 m (3) 0.5 m (4) 0.5 nm
3. A batsman hits a ball coming horizontally 7. The magnifying power of telescope is
with velocity 10√2 m/s and toss it high if
vertically upward without change in (1) Both objective and eye-piece have
magnitude of speed in time of 0.2sec. How short focal length
much impulse is imparted during this (2) Both objective and eye-piece have
shot in (Ns) long focal length
(3) The objective has a long focal length
(1) 20 (2) 5 (3) 100 (4) 10
and the eye piece has a short focal
4. A monkey climbing the rope as shown
length
increases its speed from 2m/s to 8m/s in
(4) The objective has short focal length
3 seconds. As a result the block remains
and the eye piece has a long focal length
at rest. Find the mass of monkey.
8. Given below are two statements : -
Statement (I) : Viscosity of gases is
greater than that of liquids.
Statement (II) : Surface tension of a
6 kg liquid decreases due to the presence of
monkey insoluble impurities.
(1) 6kg (2)12kg (3) 5kg (4) 8kg from the options given below :
5. A cylindrical tank 1 m in radius rests on a (1) Statement I is correct but statement II
platform 10 m high. Initially, the tank is is incorrect.
filled with water to a height of 5 m. A (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement
small plug whose area is 2 × 10–4 m2 is II is correct.
removed from an orifice located on the (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
side of the tank at the bottom. Calculate incorrect.
the initial speed with which the water (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
flows out from the orifice : - correct.
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9. The condition for obtaining secondary
K1 K2
maxima in the diffraction pattern
obtained by wavelength of source ‘’
using single slit having width a is C1 C2
(1) asin = n V

(2) asin = (2n + 1)
2 (1) charge on C1 gets redistributed such
(3) asin = (2n + 1) that V1 = V2
n (2) charge on C1 gets redistributed such
(4) asin =
2 that q1' = q2'
10. A wire carrying a current i is placed in a (3) charge on C1 gets redistributed such
magnetic field in the form of the curve that C1V1 = C2V2 = C1V
 x  (4) charge on C1 gets redistributed such
y = a sin   0 ≤ x ≤ 2L. Force acting on
 L  that q1' + q2' = 2q .
the wire is :-
13. In the given circuit.
D3 5
D1 10
2L
O 20 5
D2
iBL 10V
(1) (2) iBLπ The current through the battery is :-

(3) 2iBL (4) Zero (1) 0.5A (2) 1A (3) 1.5A (4) 2A
11. A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is situated in a 14. A solid cylindrical wire of radius 'R'
uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 Wb/m2 Carries a current 'I'. The ratio of magnetic
and makes an angle of 60° with respect to fields at points which are located at R/2
the magnetic field as shown in figure. The and 2R distance away from the axis of the
value of the magnetic flux through the wire :-
area A would be equal to : (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
15. The electric field associated with an E.M.
wave in vacuum is given by
A
ሬBԦ E = 40 cos ( kz − 6  108 t ) î where E, z and
60° t are in volt/m, meter and second

respectively. The value of propagation
nො constant k is:
(1) 2 weber (2) 1 weber (1) 6 m–1 (2) 3 m–1
(3) 3 weber (4) (3/2) weber (3) 2 m–1 (4) 0.5 m–1
12. In the given circuit, initially K1 is closed 16. One (10 W, 60 Volt) bulb is to be
and K2 is opened. Then K1 is opened and connected to 100 V AC line. The required
K2 is closed. If q1' and q2' are charges on induction coil has self-inductance of value
C1 and C2 and V1 and V2 are the voltages (f = 50 Hz) :-
respectively, then (1) 1.52 H (2) 2.42 H
(3) 16.2 mH (4) 4.62 mH
Sample Paper-2
17. A parallel plate capacitor filled with a
I2
medium of dielectric constant 10, is Infinitely
R Coil
connected across a battery and is long I1 'N'
charged. The dielectric slab is replaced by wire turns
x
another slab of dielectric constant 15.
Then the energy of capacitor will
I2 N I1 R
(1) increase by 50% (1) (2)
I1 R I2 N
(2) decrease by 15%
(3) increase by 25% I1 I1 NR
(3) NR (4)
(4) increase by 33% I2 I2 
18. A cubical container of side 100 cm is fully 23. There are two bodies of masses 100 kg
filled with water. The amount of work- and 10000 kg separated by a distance
done to empty it is ( = 1000 kg/m3) 1 m. At what distance from the smaller
(1) 5000 J (2) 10000 J body, the intensity of gravitational field
(3) 4000 J (4) 1000 J will be zero :-
19. The momentum of a photon is 1 1
2  10−16 g-cm/s. Its energy is :- (1) m (2) m
9 10
(1) 0.61  10−26 erg (2) 2.0  10–26 erg 1 10
−6 −8
(3) m (4) m
(3) 6  10 erg (4) 6  10 erg 11 11
20. The mass of an -particle is 24. A simple pendulum has a period T. It is
(1) Less than the sum of masses of two taken inside a lift moving up with uniform
protons and two neutrons acceleration of g/3. Now, its time period
(2) Equal to mass of four protons will be : -
(3) Equal to mass of four neutrons. 2 3
(1) T (2) T
(4) Equal to sum of masses of two 3 2
protons and two neutrons
(3) 2T (4) 3T
21. In P-N junction diode not connected to 3 2
any circuit :- 25. A thin hollow cylinder is free to rotate
(1) The potential is the same everywhere
about its geometrical axis. It has a mass of
(2) The P-type is a higher potential than
8 kg and a radius of 20 cm. A rope is
the N-type side
wrapped around the cylinder. What force
(3) There is an electric field at the
must be exerted along the rope to
junction directed from the N-type
side to the P-type side produce an angular acceleration of
(4) There is an electric field at the 3 rad/sec2?
junction directed from the P-type side (1) 8.4 N (2) 5.8 N
to the N-type side (3) 4.8 N (4) None of these
22. A circular coil of 'N' turns and radius 'R' is 26. Two open organ pipes of length 50 cm
placed in a plane containing an infinitely and 50.5 cm produce 3 beats/sec when
long wire. The distance of the wire from sounded together in fundamental modes.
the centre of the coil is 'x'. Current in the The velocity of sound is -
wire is I1 and current in coil is I2. Find the
(1) 303 m/s (2) 330 m/s
value of 'x' for which field at the centre of
(3) 151.5 m/s (4) 603 m/s
the coil is zero :-
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27. The period of oscillation of a simple
f
pendulum is given by, T = 2 where  P A
g
is about 100 cm and is known to have B
1mm accuracy. The period is about 2s. i
The time of 100 oscillations is measured V
by a stop watch of least count 0.1 s. The (1) QA = QB ; UA = UB
percentage error in g is :- (2) QA > QB ; UA = UB
(1) 0.1% (2) 1% (3) 0.2% (4) 0.8% (3) QA > QB ; UA > UB
28. Two equal masses m1 and m2 moving (4) QA < QB ; UA < UB
along the same straight line with 32. In the following figure two parallel
velocities + 3 m/s and –5 m/s metallic plates are maintained at
respectively collide elastically. Their different potential. If an electron is
velocities after the collision will be released midway between the plates, it
respectively will move
(1) +4 m/s for both
(2) –3 m/s and +5 m/s
(3) –4 m/s and + 4 m/s
(4) –5 m/s and + 3 m/s –200 V –400 V
29. For a system of particles, internal force (1) Right ward at constant speed
can change : (2) Left ward at constant speed
(1) The linear momentum but not the (3) Accelerated right ward
kinetic energy (4) Accelerated left ward
(2) The kinetic energy but not the linear 33. The electric field due to a uniformly
momentum charged sphere of radius R as a function
(3) Linear momentum as well as kinetic of the distance from its centre is
energy represented graphically by
(4) Neither the linear momentum nor the E E
kinetic energy
(1) (2)
30. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round
the cycle ABCDA as shown in following
P–V diagram. The work done during the R r R r
cycle is : E E
P 3P,V 3P,3V (3) (4)
A B
R r O R r
34. Which of the following represent the
D C graph for energy with time for a damped
P,V P,3V
O SHM ?
V
E E
(1) PV (2) 2 PV (3) 4 PV (4) Zero (1) (2)
31. Following figure shows two processes A
and B for a gas. If QA and QB are the t t
amount of heat absorbed by the system in E
two cases, and UA and UB are changes (3) (4) E
in internal energies, respectively, then :
t t
Sample Paper-2
35. In the circuit shown the current in the 1 40. Two wires with currents 2A and 1A
resistor is enclosed in a circular loop. Another wire
6V 2 with current 3A is situated outside the
P
loop as shown. The  B.d around the
loop is :-
1 9V 1A 3A
2A
3 Q 3
(1) 1.3 A, from P to Q
(2) 0 A
(3) 0.13 A, from Q to P (1) µ0 (2) 3µ0 (3) 6µ0 (4) 2µ0
(4) 0.13 A, from P to Q 41. The given graph shows variation with
time in the source voltage and steady
Section-B state current drawn by a series RLC
36. A body is thrown upward with a speed circuit :-
4v0 achieves height h0. At what height the
ball will acquire speed v0 :-
(1) 3/4 h0 (2) 1/16 ho
(3) 8/9 ho (4) 15/16 ho
37. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has
diameter 1mm, one end of which has 3 fine
holes each of diameter 0.10 mm. If the
speed of the liquid in the tube is 4 m/s, the Which of the following statements is/are
speed of the ejection of the liquid through correct?
the holes is (approximately) : - (a) Current lags the voltage
(1) 133 m/s (2) 233 m/s (b) Resistance in the circuit is 250 3
(3) 400 m/s (4) 33 m/s
(c) Reactance in the circuit is 250
38. Figure given below shows a beam of light
(d) Average power dissipation in the
converging at point P. When a concave
lens of focal length 16 cm is introduced in circuit is 20 3 Watt
the path of the beam at a place O shown (1) Only a (2) a & b
by dotted line such that OP becomes the (3) a, b & c (4) All
axis of the lens, the beam converges at a 42. Assertion : Energy is released in nuclear
distance x from the lens. The value x will fission.
be equal to :- Reason : Total binding energy of fission
fragment is less than total binding energy
of parent nucleus.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
P
O and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion, then
12cm
mark (1).
(1) 12 cm (2) 24 cm (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(3) 36 cm (4) 48 cm but the reason is not the correct
39. A coil of resistance 100Ω is placed in a explanation of the assertion, then
magnetic field. If the magnetic flux ϕ(Wb) mark (2).
linked with the coil varies with time (3) If Assertion is true statement but
t (sec) as ϕ = 20t3 + 10t. The current in the Reason is false, then mark (3).
coil at t = 2 sec is : (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) 5A (2) 2A (3) 1.8A (4) 2.5A statements, then mark (4).
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43. In a photo cell, the photo-electrons 48. Match Column-I and Column-II and
emission takes place :- choose the correct match from the given
(1) After 10–1 sec on incident of light rays choices.
(2) After 10–3 sec on incident of light rays Column-I Column-II
(3) After 10–6 sec on incident of light rays Average speed of gas 1
(A) (P) nmv 2
(4) After 10–9 sec on incident of light rays molecules 3
44. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a Pressure exerted by ideal 8RT
(B) (Q)
semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. gas M
It can detect a signal of wavelength Average kinetic energy of
(C) (R) 3RT
(1) 6000 Å (2) 4000 nm a molecule
(3) 6000 nm (4) 4000 Å Total internal energy of
3
45. A particle moves in a circle of radius (D) one mole of a non-linear (S) k BT
2
30 cm. Its linear speed is given by : v = 2t, polyatomic gas
where t in second and v in m/s. Find out (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
its radial and tangential acceleration at (2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
t = 3 sec. respectively. (3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
(1) 220 m/sec2, 50 m/sec2 (4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
(2) 100 m/sec2, 5 m/sec2 49. A charge ‘q’ is placed at one corner of a
(3) 120 m/sec2, 2 m/sec2 cube as shown in figure. The flux of
(4) 110 m/sec2, 10 m/sec2 electrostatic field E through the shaded
46. Consider a disc of mass 5 kg, radius 2m, area is :-
rotating with angular velocity of 10 rad/s
Z
about an axis perpendicular to the plane
of rotation and passing through centre of
disc. An identical disc is kept gently over
the rotating disc along the same axis. The
energy dissipated so that both the discs q Y
continue to rotate together without X
slipping is _____ J.
q q q q
(1) 500 (2) 125 (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 0 240 480 8 0
(3) 600 (4) 250
47. The period of a body under SHM i.e. 50. A battery of emf E produces currents I1
and I2 when connected to external
presented by T = Pa DbSc ; where P is
resistances R1 and R2 respectively. The
pressure, D is density and S is surface
internal resistance of the battery is
tension. The value of a,b and C are
I R −I R
(1) 1 2 2 1 (2) I1R 2 + I2R 1
3 1 I2 − I1 I1 − I2
(1) − , ,1 (2) −1, − 2,3
2 2
I1R 1 + I2R 2
1 3 1 1 (3) (4) I1R 1 − I2R 2
(3) , − , − (4) 1,2, I1 − I2 I2 − I1
2 2 2 3
Sample Paper-2
CHEMISTRY
Section-A
51. 0.5 mole BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole 59. The cell reaction of a cell is :
Na3PO4; the maximum number of moles Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq.) Cu(s) + Mg2+(aq.)
of Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is:
If the standard reduction potentials of
(1) 0.7 (2) 0.5
Mg+2 and Cu+2 are –2.37 and +0.34 V
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.1
respectively. The emf of the cell is :
52. The largest number of molecules is in:
(1) 2.03 V (2) –2.03 V
(1) 28 g of CO (2) 46 g of C2H5OH
(3) +2.71 V (4) –2.71 V
(3) 36 g of H2O (d) 54 g of N2O5
60. The value of equilibrium constant for a
53. Ionisation energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV.
feasible cell reaction is :
The ionisation energy for He+ ion will be :
(1) < 1 (2) = 1
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 54.4 eV
(3) > 1 (4) zero
(3) 27.2 eV (4) 40.8 eV
61. The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous
54. The de Broglie wavelength of 1 mg grain
solution of glucose is 750 mm of mercury
of sand blown by a 20 ms–1 wind is :
at 373 K. The mole fraction of solute is :
(1) 3.3 × 10–29 m (2) 3.3 × 10–21 m
1 1
(3) 3.3 × 10–49 m (4) 3.3 × 10–42 m (1) (2)
10 7.6
55. Which of the following is not a
1 1
disproportionation reaction ? (3) (4)

35 76
→ H2PO2 + PH3
(1) P4 + 5OH ⎯⎯ 62. The element which has highest ionization
 energy amongst N, O, S, F and Cl elements is
→Cl + ClO
(2) Cl2 + OH ⎯⎯ (1) N (2) F
(3) 2H2O2 ⎯→ 2H2O + O2 (3) Cl (4) O
(4) PbO2 + H2 ⎯→ PbO + H2O 63. Which of the following order of ionization
56. The heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 energy is correct ?
is –393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon (1) In < Tl (2) Sn > Pb
formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon (3) Ga < Al (4) O > N
and oxygen gas is: 64. Which of the following compounds is
(1) –315 kJ (2) +315 kJ neither planar nor non-polar ?
(3) –630 kJ (4) –3.15 kJ (1) XeF4 (2) XeF2
57. Considering entropy (S) as a (3) XeF5− (4) XeF5+
thermodynamic parameter, the criterion
65. Select the incorrect statement regarding
for the spontaneity of any process in :
the anionic part of PCl5(s) ?
(1) Ssystem + Ssurroundings > 0
(1) Its hybridization is sp3d
(2) Ssystem – Ssurroundings > 0
(2) It has non planar structure
(3) Ssystem > 0 only (3) Its dipole moment is zero
(4) Ssurroundings > 0 only (4) All are correct
58. The rate constant of a reaction is found to 66. Covalent radii for the Group 13 elements
be 3 × 10–3 mol L–1min–1. The order of the follow which order ?
reaction is (1) Tl < In < Ga (2) Ga < Al < B
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) B < Ga < Al (4) B > Al > In
(3) 2 (4) 1.5
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NEET-UG 2024
67. Silicon has a strong tendency to form 72. Which of the following acts as a strong
polymers like silicones. The chain length reducing agent? (Atomic number : Ce =
of silicone polymer can be controlled by 58, Eu = 63, Gd = 64, Lu = 71)
adding. (1) Lu3+ (2) Gd3+
(1) MeSiCl3 (2) Me2SiCl2 (3) Eu2+ (4) Ce4+
(3) Me3SiCl (4) Me4Si 73. The oxidation number of iron in the
68. Which of following set of radicals are compound formed during brown ring test
present in white salts ?
for NO3− ion is _____.
(1) K+, Ca2+, Na+
(1) 2 (2) 3
(2) Cu2+, Al3+, Fe2+
(3) 1 (4) 4
(3) Fe2+, Ni2+, Cr3+
(4) Fe3+, Cu2+, Ba2+ 74. Dihedral angle of most stable conformer
69. Which of the following is an example of of ethylene glycol is
dry tests ? (1) 60° (2) 120°
(1) Flame test (3) 180° (4) 0°
(2) Charcoal cavity test 75. The correct IUPAC of the following
(3) Borax bead test compound is
(4) All of these Cl CH3
70. Given below are two statements: C=C
CH3 I
Statement (I) : In the Lanthanoids, the
formation of Ce+4 is favoured by its noble (1) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo but-2-ene
gas configuration. (2) trans-3-iodo-2-hloro but-2-ene
Statement (II) : Ce+4 is a strong oxidant (3) cis-2-iodo-3-chloro but-2-ene
reverting to the common +3 state. (4) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo but-2-ene
In the light of the above statements, 76. Which of the following compound may
choose the most appropriate answer not exist as enantiomers ?
from the options given below: (1) CH3CH(OH)CO2H
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is (2) CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2OH
true (3) C6H5CH2CH3
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) C6H5CHClCH3
true 77. (I) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is CH3 CH3
false (II) C=C
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are H H
false CH3 H
71. Choose the correct option having all the (III) C=C
H CH3
elements with d10 electronic configuration
from the following: Which of the following orders is correct
(1) 27Co, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr for heat of hydrogenation of these
(2) 29Cu, 30Zn, 48Cd, 47Ag alkenes?
(3) 46Pd, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr (1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(4) 28Ni, 24Cr, 26Fe, 29Cu (3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I
Sample Paper-2
78. Order of basic strength of the following 82. Arrange the following in order of their
compounds reactivity toward dehydrohalogenation :-
m-Methyl aniline aniline Cl Cl Cl
(I) (II) Cl
o-Methyl aniline
(III)
I II III IV
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(3) III > I > II (4) III > II > I (1) II > I > III > IV (2) III > II > I > IV
79. In the reaction, (3) IV > III > I > II (4) I > II > III > IV
CH3 83. HBr
(P)
CH2—CH=CH2
Heated
CH3–CH–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 + HI …….
Major product (P) will be :-
Which of the following will be formed ?
CH3 (1) CH2—CH2—CH2
(1) CH3—CH—CH2OH + CH3CH2—I Br
CH3
(2) CH2—CH—CH3
(2) CH3—CH—CH2I + CH3CH2OH
Br
(3) CH3—CH—CH3 + CH3CH2OH
(3) CH—CH2—CH3
CH3
Br
(4) CH3—CH—CH2OH + CH3CH3
(4) All
CH3
84. Given below are two statements:
80. The stability towards dehydration of the
Statement-I : Ethyne is formed from
following compounds
dibromoethane by using alcoholic KOH
(I) OH (II) OH followed by NaNH2.
Statement-II : Ethyne is formed from
OH OH geminal dibromo ethane by using one

(III) (IV)
equivalent of alcoholic KOH.
decreases in the order :
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > IV > III > II
(3) IV > II > I > III (4) II > III > IV > I
81. Compound (X) C4H8O gives positive
haloform test but does not give 2, 4-DNP (1) Statement-I and Statement-II both
derivative is : are correct.
O (2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-
(1) (2) H
OH II is incorrect.
OH (4) Statement-I is incorrect but
(3) (4) Statement-II is correct.
O
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85. The correct name and product of given 89. 0.002 molar solution of NaCl having
reaction are respectively. degree of dissociation of 90% at 27°C
CO, HCl has osmotic pressure equal to :
Anhy.AlCl3 (1) 0.94 bar (2) 9.4 bar
(3) 0.094 bar (4) 9.4 × 10–4 bar
COOH
90. Which of the following orders is correct
against the property indicated?
(1) Kolbe's reaction,
(1) PH4+  PCl4+ : Bond angle.
CHO (2) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 : Dipole moment.
OH (3) CCl4 < B(OH)3 < PCl5 : Number of
(2) Gatterman reaction, valence electrons used for bonding by
central atom.
CHO (4) CH4 < CCl4 < CBr4 : Order of bond
polarity.
(3) Gatterman Koch reaction, 91. The best reducing agent among the
following is
(4) Gatterman aldehyde synthesis (1) NH3 (2) SbH3
CHO (3) PH3 (4) AsH3
92. Which reagent is used for confirmatory
reaction,
test of Nickel.
(1) Oxalate
Section B (2) Dimethyl glyoxime
86. In the reaction, (3) Trien
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) + X cal, (4) Dien
93. Identify from the following species in
most favourable conditions of which d2sp3 hybridization is shown by
temperature and pressure for greater central atom:
yield of SO3 are : (1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) BrF5
(1) low temperature and low pressure (3) [Pt(Cl)4]2– (4) SF6
(2) high temperature and low pressure 94. The coordination geometry around the
(3) high temperature and high pressure manganese in
decacarbonyldimanganese(0)
(4) low temperature and high pressure
(1) Octahedral
87. pKa for acetic acid is 4.74. What should be
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
the ratio of concentration of acetic acid (3) Square pyramidal
and acetate ions to have a solution with (4) Square planar
pH 5.74 ? 95. In SN2 reactions on asymmetric centres
(1) 1 : 10 (2) 10 : 1 (1) inversion of configuration occurs
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 because nucleophile attacks from the
back-side of leaving group
88. The half-life of a first-order reaction is 10 min.
(2) retention of configuration occurs
If initial amount is 0.08 mol L–1 and because nucleophile attacks from the
concentration at some instant is 0.01 mol L–1, front side of leaving group
then is (3) both retention and inversion occur in
equal proportions. It means a racemic
(1) 10 min (2) 30 min mixture is produced
(3) 20 min (4) 40 min (4) the chiral centre becomes achiral
Sample Paper-2
96. In the following reaction, O2N
CH3
H2O/H+ COOH
H3C—C—CH=CH2 A + B (3)
Major Minor
CH3 product product OH
The major product is :
CH3 (4) None of these
(1) H3C—C—CH—CH3 NH2
1. Aq. NaNO2/HCl
OH CH3 99. P + N2
2. CuBr/
CH3
(2) CH2—C—CH2—CH3 NO2
P should be
OH CH3
CH3 Br
(1)
(3) H3C—C — CH—CH3
CH3 OH NO2
CH3
(2)
(4) H3C—C—CH2—CH2 Br
CH3 OH NO2
97. CH3CH2 − C  N ⎯⎯
X
→CH3CH2 − CHO Br
The reagent/s Xis (are):
(1) SnCl2/HCl, H2O/boil (3)
(2) H2/Pd-BaSO4
(3) LiAlH4/ether NO2
(4) NaBH4/ether, H3O+
OMe (4) A mixture of all of these
⊝
NH2
CHO 1. OH
98. 100. AcCl/Py
CHO 2. H
The major product which can be isolated

The major product which can be isolated
from this reaction is: from this reaction is
OMe NH2
NH–Ac Ac
OH (1) (2)
(1)
COOH
NH2 NH2
OMe (3) (4)

Ac
(2) COOH Ac
COOH
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BIOLOGY
Botany [Section-A]
106. Match the items of Column I with Column II.
101. If diploid female plant is crossed with
Column - I Column - II
tetraploid male plant. What would be the
(a) XX-XO method of (i) Turner's
ploidy level of seed coat formed by this cross.
sex determination syndrome
(1) 3n (2) n (b) XX-XY method of (ii) Female
(3) 2n (4) 4n sex determination heterogametic
102. Which of the following option is not correct: (c) Karyotype- (iii) Grasshopper
(1) Apospory = formation of embryo sac 45chromosomes
directly from cell of nucellus or (d) ZW-ZZ method of (iv) Female
integument sex determination homogametic
(2) Adventive embryony = formation of (1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (2) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
embryo directly from nucellus or (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
integument 107. Match column-I and Column-II :-
(3) Diplospory = formation of embryo Column-I Column-II
directly from antipodal cells (i) QB Bacteriophage (a) ss RNA
(4) Parthenogenesis = formation of embryo (ii) ϕ × 174 (b) ds DNA
directly from egg cell without fertilization Bacteriophage
103. Apomixis is not concerned with ? (iii) λ Bacteriophage (c) ss DNA
(1) Formation of diploid embryo from nucellus (iv) TMV (d) ss RNA
(2) Formation of pollen grain (1) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(3) Formation of apomictic seeds (2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(4) Formation of embryo without fertilization (3) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
104. In a dihybrid cross in garden pea 1024 plants (4) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
were obtained in F2. How many plants will 108. If in a bacterial cell, 5 types of nitrogenous
show dominant trait for both characters ? base are present in m-RNA which code 20
(1) 218 (2) 324 types of amino acid then genetic code will be:
(3) 123 (4) 576 (1) Singlet (2) Doublet
105. Given pedigree chart shows inheritance of (3) Triplet (4) Pentaplet
autosomal recessive trait (sickle cell 109. Which of the following are correct for DNA
anaemia) then what will be genotypes of double-helix structure.
parents ? A. It is made of two polynucleotide chains,
where the bases project outside.
B. The two chains have anti-parallel polarity.
C. The bases in two strands are paired
through H-bonds and form base pairs.
(1) Father - (Aa) Mother - (aa) D. The two chains are coiled in a right-
(2) Father - (aa) Mother - (aa) handed fashion.
(3) Father - (Aa) Mother - (Aa) (1) A, B, C & D (2) A, B and C
(4) Father - (AA) Mother - (AA) (3) B, C and D (4) A only
Sample Paper-2
110. Flocs are masses of :- (C) Saprophytes are not given any place in
(1) Aerobic bacteria associated with fungal ecological pyramids even though they
filaments play vital role in the ecosystem.
(2) Anaerobic bacteria associated with (1) Only A & C (2) Only B & C
fungal filaments (3) Only C (4) All are correct
(3) Algae and fungi 114. The Verhulst Pearl Logistic Growth is
(4) Cyanobacteria and viruses (a) Not followed by insects during rainy season
111. (a) Number of living in an particular area (b) Followed by algal blooms in a eutrophic
(b) Mass of living in an particular area lake
(c) Dry weight of living in an particular area (c) Represented under limited resource
(d) Total amount of nutrients such as carbon, conditions
nitrogen, calcium, etc. in an particular (1) All are correct
area. (2) Only a and c are incorrect
Which statements is/are correct for standing (3) Only a is correct
crop ? (4) Only b is incorrect
(1) a & b (2) c & d 115. Study the age pyramid shown below and
(3) a, b & c (4) a, b, c, d choose the correct option :-
112. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
and select the option which includes all the
correct ones only.
(a) Single cell Spirulina can produce large A B C
quantities of food rich in protein. Triangular Urn-Shaped Bell-Shaped
(1)
pyramid pyramid pyramid
(b) Body weight-wise, microorganism
Pyramid
Methylophilus methylotrophus may be Expanding showing Bell shaped
able to produce several times more (2)
Population negative pyramid
proteins than the cow per day. growth
(c) Common button mushrooms are a very Pyramid
Expanding Bell-shaped showing
rich source of vitamin C. (3)
population pyramid negative
(d) A rice variety has been developed which
growth
is very rich in calcium. Bell shaped Triangular Urn-Shaped
(4)
(1) Statements (b) , (c) and (d) pyramid pyramid pyramid
(2) Statements (a) , (b) 116. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in
(3) Statements (c) , (d) the light reaction is :-
(4) Statements (a) , (c) and (d) (1) PS II → plastoquinone → cytochromes →
113. Which statement is/are correct?
PS I → ferrodoxin
(A) In most ecosystem all the pyramid of
(2) PS I → Plastoquinone → Cytochromes →
number, energy and biomass are upright.
PS II → ferrodoxin
(B) The pyramid of biomass in sea is
(3) PS I → ferrodoxin → PS II
generally inverted because the biomass
(4) PS I → plastoquinone → Cytochromes →
of fishes far exceed that of
PS II → ferrodoxin
phytoplankton.
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NEET-UG 2024
117. Which of the given statements(s) are true 121. A bacterial cell divides every 35 minutes. If a
w.r.t. only ATP synthase during culture containing 105 cells per ml is grown
chemiosmosis? for 140 minutes, what will be the cell
(A) It pumps protons across a membrane to concentration per ml, after 140 minutes?
create a protein gradient (1) 5 × 105 cells (2) 16 × 105 cells
(B) It includes channel that allows diffusion (3) 32 × 105 cells (4) 140 × 105 cells
of proton across the membrane. 122. All are wrongly matched except -
(C) Catalyses the formation of ATP. (1) Marginal placentation – Potato, Tomato,
(D) It helps in splitting of water molecule on Tobacco
inner side of thylakoid membrane. (2) Vexillary aestivation – Indigofera, Sunhemp,
(1) A, B and C (2) B and C only Pea, Beans
(3) Only C (4) A and B only (3) Tetradynamous – Salvia, Mustard
118. Assertion : Centrioles form the basal body of (4) Endospermic seed – Pea, Beans
cilia or flagella. 123. Match the column-I and column-II :-
Reason : Centrioles give rise to spindle Column-I Column-II
apparatus during cell division. (a) Prothallus (i) Multicellular,
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and photosynthetic
Reason is the correct explanation of gametophyte

(b) Gemmae (ii) Reproductive leaves
Assertion.
(c) Vascular (iii) Green, multicellular
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
cryptogams Bud
Reason is not the correct explanation of
(d) Sporophyll (iv) Lack of vessels in
Assertion.
xylem
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
119. How many meiotic divisions are required to
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-ii
form 1000 microspores and 800 grains of
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
wheat respectively ?
124. From the following groups, select the one
(1) 250, 400 (2) 100, 750
which has only secondary metabolites :
(3) 250, 200 (4) 250, 1000
(1) Arbin, cellulose, arginine, tyrosine
(2) Glycine, gums, serine, diterpenes
120. (3) Carotenoids, phenylalanine, curcumin,
rubber
(4) Concanavalin-A, morphine, codeine,
Which of the following is correct for given Vinblastin
diagram:- 125. Which of the following is not a fungal
(1) Found in stems of grasses disease?
(2) Presence of intra-fascicular cambium (1) White rust of Crucifers
(3) Found in stems of sunflower (2) Cr-Jacob disease
(4) Presence of secondary xylem and (3) Yellow rust of wheat
secondary phloem (4) Black rust of wheat
Sample Paper-2
126. The bacteria obtain food only from dead Part A Part B Part C Part D
organic matter is :- (1) Serine Cysteine Tyrosine Glutamic
(1) Bacillus vulgaris acid
(2) Pneumococcus (2) Cysteine Serine Glutamic Tyrosine
(3) Mycobacterium leprae acid
(4) Staphylocccus (3) Tyrosine Serine Cysteine Glutamic
127. Which option is not correct about members acid
of kingdom protista ? (4) Serine Tyrosine Glutamic Cysteine

acid
(1) They have cilia or flagella
(2) They may secrete poison in water 132. Which one is false about monocot stem?
(3) They show nitrogen fixation (1) Scattered vascular bundles are conjoint,
(4) They have well defined nucleus and other close and surrounded by
membrane-bounded cell organelles sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
128. How many of the following are examples of (2) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous.
fibrous proteins? (3) Peripheral vascular bundles are smaller
Albumin, Keratin, Globin, Myosin, Collagen than centrally placed ones.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (4) Ground tissue is differentiated into
129. Which of the following plant group is called cortex, pericycle, pith, etc.
phanerogams without ovary : 133. Match Column-I with Column-II.
(1) Pteridophyta (2) Bryophyta Column-I Column-II
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperm (a) Solanaceae (i) Stamen six, 3 + 3,
130. Read the given examples carefully. epitepalous
Gelidium, Chara, Spirulina, Chlorella, Fucus, (b) Fabaceae (ii) Stamen Five,
Gracilaria, Polysiphonia, Laminaria, epipetalous
Sargassum, Sphagnum, Dictyota, Ectocarpus. (c) Brassicaceae (iii) Stamen ten,
How many of them belong to Red, Brown and diadelphous
Green algae respectively. (d) Liliaceae (iv) Stamen six,
(1) 3, 5 & 2 (2) 4, 6 & 2 tetradynamous
(3) 2, 5 & 3 (4) 3, 6 & 3 Select the correct answer from the options
131. The figure given below shows 4 A, B, C, D that given below-
represent sequence of amino acid in a (1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
polypeptide chain. Select the option give (2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
correct identification:- (3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
134. Human hormone Insulin can be produced in
E. coli because :-
(1) Assembly of mature insulin is easy in E. coli
(2) Insulin produced by E. coli does not cause
any allergy
(3) Genetic code is universal
(4) Recombinant insulin is not expensive
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NEET-UG 2024
135. The replacement of two kingdom 139. Choose correct one :-
classification by five kingdom classification
was proposed in the year.
(1) 1859 (2) 1969 (3) 1862 (4) 1919
Botany [Section – B]
136. Which of the following gives the correct

categorisation of three given below plants
according to the type of pollination (A,B,C)
that perform by different plant.
(1) a-DNA, b-H1 -histone, c-histone octamer,
A B C
Hydrophily Anemophily Zoophily d-core of histone
(1) Zostera Amorphophallus Grasses (2) a-core of histone, b-DNA,
(2) Grasses Amorphophallus Zostera
c-H1 histone, d-histone octamer
(3) Zostera Grasses Amorphophallus
(4) Amorphophallus Grasses Zostera (3) a-Histone octamer, b-core of histone,
137. Study the pedigree chart of a family given c-DNA, d-H1 histone
below :- (4) a-DNA, b-histone octamer,
c-core of histone, d-H1 histone
140. Select the correct option
I II
A Synapsis aligns (i) Anaphase-II
It is representative for disease like :
homologous
(1) Sickle cell anaemia, Haemophilia
chromosomes
(2) Albinism, Thalassemia
B Synthesis of RNA (ii) Zygotene
(3) Phenylketonuria, Colour blindness
and protein
(4) Myotonic dystrophy, sickle cell anaemia
C Action of enzyme (iii) G -phase
138. Find out the sequence of binding of the
recombinase
following amino acyl–t–RNA complexes
D Centromeres do (iv) Anaphase-I
during translation to an m–RNA transcribed
not separate but
by a DNA segment having the base sequence.
chromosomes
3' ATACCCATGGGG 5'. Choose the answer
move towards
showing the correct order of alphabets :–
opposite poles
(v) Pachytene
(a) (b)
A B C D
(1) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(c) (d) (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(1) a, b, c, d (2) d, a, b, c
(3) a, b, d, c (4) b, a, c, d
Sample Paper-2
141. In a logistic growth curve of population, (3) Soil fertility, Biomass, Rainfall
environmental resistance is maximum when: (4) Population Interaction, Species richness,
temperature
144. Match the column I with column II :-
Column-I Column-II
Gives the
Primary appearance of
(I) (a)
(1) Value of 'r' is high (2) Value of 'r' is low constriction small fragment
(3) N approaches K (4) K approaches N called satellite
142. Recognise the figure and find out the correct Beads on string
Secondary
matching of a, b, c, d and e :– (II) (b) structure in
constriction
chromatin
Kinetochore is
(III) Telomere (c)
present
Related with
(IV) Nucleosome (d)
ageing process
(1) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
(2) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(3) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
(4) I-c, II-b, IV-a, IV-d
145. Match the column-I, II & III and choose the
option showing correct match :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(PGR) (Chemical (Physiological
(1) c – DHAP, d – acetyl CoA, e – pyruvic acid, Nature) effect)
b – fatty acid, g – glycerol (I) Cytokinin (a) Terpenes (i) Speed up
(2) d–DHAP, e-acetyl CoA, c–pyruvic acid, malting
process
a–fatty acid, b–glycerol
(II) ABA (b) Indole (ii) Initiate
(3) c–DHAP, e-acetyl CoA, d–pyruvic acid,
Compounds rooting in
a–fatty acid, b–glycerol stem
(4) c–DHAP, d-acetyl CoA, e–pyruvic acid, cutting
a–fatty acid, b–glycerol (III) Auxin (c) Carotenoid (iii) Induce
derivative seed
143.
dormancy
(IV) Gibberellin (d) Adenine (iv) Delay of
derivatives leaf
senescence
Choose correct option for (a), (b), (c) (1) I-a-i, II -b-ii, III-c-iii, IV-d-iv
respectively. (2) I-d-i, II -c-ii, III-b-iii, IV-a-iv
(1) Soil fertility, productivity, Biomass (3) I-a-iv, II-b-iii, III-c-ii, IV-d-I
(2) Species richness, Nutrient cycling, (4) I-d-iv, II-c-iii, III-b-ii, IV-a-i
temperature
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146. The C4-plants are different from the C3-plants (e) Contain chemicals that have molecular
with reference to the :- weight more than 1000 D
(1) The substance that accepts CO2 in carbon (f) Protein, nucleic acid, polysaccharides
assimilation
(1) A - b,e,f ; B-a,c,d
(2) Types and end product of photosynthesis
(2) A - a,c,d ; B-b,e,f
(3) The number of NADPH2 that are
consumed in sugar synthesis. (3) A - a,d ; B-b,c,e,f
(4) Types of pigments involved in (4) A - a,c,f ; B-b,e,d
photosynthesis 149. If pollen grain contains 30 chromosomes and
147. Read the following statements & select the 50 pg DNA, then what will be the number of
correct option :-
chromosomes and DNA amount respectively
(A) Gymnosperms include medium size trees
in microspore (pollen) mother cell in G2
or tall trees and shrubs.
(B) In Cycas coralloid roots are associated phase and product of meiosis-I?
with mycorrhiza 60 chromosome 30 chromosome
(1) ,
(C) In conifers needle like leaves reduce the 200 pg DNA 100 pg DNA
surface area 30 chromosome 15 chromosome
(D) All Gymnosperms are heterosporous (2) ,
50 pg DNA 100 pg DNA
How many above statements are correct &
120 chromosome 60 chromosome
incorrect ? (3) ,
400 pg DNA 100 pg DNA
(1) 2-correct, 2-incorrect
(2) 3-correct, 1-incorrect 60 chromosome 60 chromosome
(4) ,
(3) 1-correct, 3-incorrect 200 pg DNA 200 pg DNA
(4) 0-correct, 4-incorrect 150. Identify the correct match from the columns
148. Read the given statements and select the
I, II and III :-
option that correctly sorts these with respect
Column-
to A and B in the given flow chart : Column-I Column-III
Living tissue II
Grinding in Cl3COOH Indole Abscisic Antagonist to
1 a i
Thick slurry acetic acid acid GA
Strained through cheese cloth Rapid cell

2 Zeatin b Ethylene ii
division
Two fractions are obtained
Thinning of
3 Ethephon c Auxin iii
A filtrate cotton
B Retentate
(a) Acid soluble pool 4 Dormin d Cytokinin iv Parthenocarpy
(b) Acid insoluble pool (1) 1 - d - i, 2 - c - ii, 3 - b - iii, 4 - a – iv
(c) Molecular weight ranging from 18 to 800
(2) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - ii, 3 - b - iii, 4 - a - i
dalton approximately
(3) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - iii, 3 - b - ii, 4 - a – i
(d) Amino acid, sugar, nucleotides
(4) 1 - b - ii, 2 - a - iv, 3 - d - i, 4 - c - iii
Sample Paper-2
154. If the plant is infected with a virus. Then
Zoology [Section – A]
which part of plant will be taken as explant ?
151. Statement I : More than 230 restriction (1) Leaf (2) Stem
enzymes have been isolated from over 900 (3) Apical meristem (4) Root
strains of bacteria and fungi. 155. Which of the following correctly represents
Statement II : The first restriction the labelling.
endonuclease discovered is Hind II.
___A___
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
correct ___C___
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II ___B___
is correct +
___D___
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect A B C D
(4) Both statement I and statement II are (1) Proenzyme a-1- Ionic Free C
antitrypsin bonds peptide
incorrect
(2) Proenzyme Adenosine Ionic bond Free B
152. Match column I with column II.
deaminase peptide
Column I Column II (3) Pro Insulin Disulphide Free A
(a) Agrobacterium (i) Pathogen of DNA hormone bond peptide
tumefaciens (4) Pro insulin Insulin Disulphide Free C
(b) DNA (ii) Removal of DNA bond peptide
precipitation that separates out
156. Statement I : There are 20 types of amino
(c) Gene gun (iii) Bacterial cells
acids and 5 types of nucleotides.
(d) Spooling (iv) Plant cells
Statement II : Phospholipid contain a
(e) Lysozyme (v) Pathogen of dicot
plants phosphorylated nitrogenous compound.
(vi) Chilled ethanol (1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(vii) Animal cells (2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(viii) Fungal cell (3) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(1) a-(vi), b-(viii), c-(i), d-(ii), e-(iii) (4) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(vii), d-(vi), e-(viii) correct
(3) a-(v), b-(vi), c-(iv), d-(ii), e-(iii) 157. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(4) a-(vii), b-(vi), c-(iv), d-(v), e-(iii) (1) A protein is a heteropolymer and not a
153. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for homopolymer.
resistance to an antibiotic (ampicillin) is (2) If any protein encoding gene is expressed
transferred into E. coli cells and plated on in a heterologous host, it is called secretory
ampicillin plate. protein.
(1) Transformants will grow (3) Translation refers to the process of
(2) Transformed recipient cells will die polymerisation of amino acids to form a
(3) The host cells become transformed into polypeptide.
ampicillin sensitive cells. (4) The ribosome binds to the mRNA at the
(4) The ampicillin resistance gene in this case start codon that is recognized only by the
is called as selectable marker. initiator tRNA.
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158. A nucleotide has three chemically distinct How many statements are correct.
components except (1) I & II are correct
(1) Heterocyclic compound (2) I, III, IV are correct
(2) Monosaccharide (3) IV is correct
(3) Phosphoric acid (4) I & III are correct
(4) Polysaccharide 162. Match the following column:
159. Read the following statements about frog. Column-I Column-II
Choose the correct answer from the options (a) PCT (i) Conditional
given below. reabsorption of
Statement 1 : Kidneys open into bidder’s Na+ and water
canal. (b) Collecting (ii) Reabsorption is
Statement 2 : Kidneys via urinogenital duct minimum
ducts, open into the cloaca. (c) DCT (iii 70-80% of

(1) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is electrolytes
)
false. reabsorbed
(d) Ascending (iv Large amount of
(2) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.
limb of water
) is
(3) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.
Henle’s loop reabsorbed here
(4) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is
correct (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
160. Which of the following statement are true. (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(a) Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones. (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(b) Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
163. Statement 1 : Limbic system is connected
of three bones ilium, ischium and pubis.
(c) At the point of fusion of three bones is a with emotions and motivation.
cavity called glenoid cavity to which Statement 2 : Electrical synapses are rare in
thigh bone articulates. our system.
(d) The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet (1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are
correct
dorsally to form the pubic symphysis
(2) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
containing hyaline cartilage.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
(1) a, b and c (2) a and b
(3) b and c (4) a, c and d (4) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
161. (I) Henle’s loop and vasa recta play a 164.
significant role in concentrating urine. Human Neural System
(II) Blood flow in two limbs of Henle’s loop

also formed counter current. CNS PNS
(III) Small amount of urea enter thin segment of
ascending limb of Henle’s loop. Brain Spinal Cord SNS ANS
(IV) Counter current mechanism help’s in CNS (A) CNS (B)

maintaining an increasing osmolarity
towards the inner medullary (C) (D)
interstitium. Identify A, B, C and D.
Sample Paper-2
(1) (A)-Voluntary, (B)-Involuntary 168. Among the stories of evolution of individual
(C)-Sympathetic neural system species the story of evolution of modern man
(D)-Parasympathetic neural system is most interesting and appears to parallel
(2) (A)-Involuntary, (B)-Voluntary evolution of ____and___.
(C)-Sympathetic neural system (1) Human brain; diet
(D)-Parasympathetic neural system (2) Dentition; human brain
(3) (A)-Smooth Muscles, (B)-Skeletal Muscles (3) Dentition; language
(C)-Sympathetic neural system (4) Human brain; language
(D)-Parasympathetic neural system 169. Given below are two statements.
Statement 1 : Life arising from non-living
(4) (A)-Viscera, (B)-Skeletal Muscles
things only, was explained by the theory of
(C)-Sympathetic neural system
spontaneous generation.
(D)-Parasympathetic neural system
Statement 2 : Louis Pasteur’s experiment
165. The gap junction.
clearly demonstrated the theory of
(1) Checks leakage across a tissue
spontaneous generation.
(2) Facilitates communication between cells
In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) Performs cementing
the correct answer from the options given
(4) Keeps neighbouring cells together
below.
166. How many of the below statements are (1) Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2
incorrect regarding cockroach? is correct
(a) Compound eyes consists of about 2000 (2) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are
hexagonal ommatidia. correct
(b) Mushroom shaped gland present in 6th – (3) Both statement 1 and statement are
7th abdominal segments. incorrect
(c) External genitalia are represented by (4) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is
phallomere. incorrect.
(d) 10th segment bears a pair of jointed 170. As each chromosome moves away from the
filamentous structures called anal cerci. equatorial plate, the centromere remains
(1) Four (2) One directed towards the ___A___ and hence at the
(3) Three (4) None ___B___ edge, with the arms of chromosomes
167. Match the following. ___C___ behind.
Column I Column II Fill in the blanks with appropriate answer.
(a) Cristae (i) Flat (1) B → Trailing; C → Leading
membranous (2) A → Pole; C → Trailing
sacs in stroma (3) A → Equator; B → Leading
(b) Cisternae (ii) Infoldings in (4) B → Leading; C → Splitting
mitochondria 171. Somatostatin from the hypothalamus
(c) Thylakoids (iii) Disc shaped through a portal circulation reaches-
sacs in Golgi (1) Neurohypophysis
apparatus (2) Anterior pituitary
(3) End of long bones
(1) a – ii, b – iii, c – i (2) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
(4) Posterior pituitary
(3) a – ii, b – i, c – iii (4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
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172. Choose the correct labelling’s. (1) If both the assertion and the reason are
true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true
but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
176. How do parasympathetic and sympathetic
(1) A-Releases ACTH, F-Releases 3F
neural signals affect the working of the heart?
Hormones
(2) C-GnRH, E-Insulin (1) Sympathetic reduce both heart rate and
(3) A-Helps in maintaining body cardiac output whereas parasympathetic
temperature, D-Promotes production of increases both heart rate and cardiac
antibodies output
(4) E-Corticoids, H-Anabolic effect on
(2) Parasympathetic reduce both heart rate
protein
173. Read the following statements. and cardiac output whereas Sympathetic
(a) Comb plates present in Pleurobrachia increases both heart rate and cardiac
helps in locomotion output
(b) Alternation of generation is observed in (3) Parasympathetic reduce both heart rate
Coelenterata and increases cardiac output whereas
(c) Aves are warm blooded animals with
Sympathetic increases both heart rate
direct development
(d) Notochord is replaced by vertebral and cardiac output
column in some of the chordates (4) Sympathetic reduce both heart rate and
(e) Trygon has 6 to 15 pairs of gills cardiac output whereas Parasympathetic
Choose the correct answer from the options decreases heart rate and increases
given below. cardiac output
(1) a, b and c are incorrect
177. The diagram given here is the standard ECG
(2) a, b, c and d are correct
of normal person. The QRS segment
(3) a, d and e are correct
represents the:
(4) a, b, c and e are correct
174. Which of the following organism belong to
the second largest phylum of animal
kingdom?
(1) Laccifer (2) Dentalium
(3) Hemidactylus (4) Asterias
(1) Constriction of both the atria
175. Assertion : Bats and whales are classified as
(2) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
mammals.
(3) Beginning of the joint diastole
Reason : Bats and whales have four
(4) End of ventricular systole
chambered heart.
Sample Paper-2
178. Select the incorrect statement from the Reason : Declining death rate, declining
following : infant mortality rate and declining maternal
(1) Dorsal side of thoracic chamber is mortality are the important factor for
formed by sternum population rise.
(2) During inspiration, diaphragm and (1) If Both A and R are true and R is the
external intercostal muscles contract. correct explanation of A
(3) RBCs contain a very high concentration (2) If Both A and R are true but R is not the
of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase and correct explanation of A
minute quantities of the same is present (3) If A is true but R is false
in the plasma too. (4) If Both A and R are false
(4) Expiration involves relaxation of 182. Lactational amenorrhoea is a method of birth
diaphragm and intercostals muscles. control that is effective.
179. Match list I with list II (1) As long as mother breastfeeds the baby
List I List II (2) Only up to a maximum period of six
(a) Opioids (i) Medicines to help months following parturition.
patients cope (3) For two years following parturition.
depression (4) Only up to a maximum period of two
(b) Hashish (ii) Hallucinogenic
months following parturition.
properties
183. Which of the following statements are true.
(c) Barbiturates (iii) Slow down body
(a) Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells.
function
(b) Spermatozoa get nutrition from Sertoli cells
(d) Atropa (iv) Effect on
(c) Oogenesis take place in corpus luteum.
belladona cardiovascular
system (d) Leydig cells are found in ovary.
(e) Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(1) a, b, d and e (2) a, b and e
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b and d
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
184. Match the column I with column II and select
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
the correct option using the codes given below:
180. Given below are two statements : Column-I Column-II
Statement 1 : In humoral immune response, (a) Embryo’s heart is (i) End of first
antibodies not found in the blood. formed trimester
(b) Develops limbs (ii) End of second
Statement 2 : T lymphocyte mediate the CMI.
and digits trimester
(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false (c) Most of the major (iii) End of the
(2) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false organ system are second
(3) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true formed month
(d) Eyelashes are (iv) After one
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
formed month
181. Assertion : The most important factor that
(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
determines the increase in human
(2) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
population in India during the 20th century is (3) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
mortality. (4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
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185. How many statement is/are incorrect. 190. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Family planning were initiated in 1951. (i) Cells vary in their shape, size but not in
(b) Saheli a oral contraceptive for the activities and functions.
females was developed at CDRI in (ii) Plasma membrane is selectively
Lucknow India. permeable and facilitates transport of
(c) 10 to 17 day of the menstrual cycle is several molecules.
called the safe period. (iii) All the cell organelles perform different
(d) Coitus interruptus is a natural method of but specific functions.
contraception. (iv) Nucleus not controls the activities of
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 organelles but also plays a major role in
heredity.
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv)
Zoology [Section – B]
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (iii) and (iv)
186. Which of the following represent incorrect 191. Assertion (A) : - Golgi apparatus is the
match ? important site of formation of glycoproteins
Correct Incorrect and glycolipids.
(1) Cotton bollworm Cry II Ab Reason (R) :- A number of proteins
(2) Corn borer Cry IAc synthesized by ribosomes on the
(3) World wide 30 recombinant endoplasmic reticulum are modified in the
therapeutics
(4) Gene therapy ADA deficiency cisternae of the Golgi apparatus before they
are released from its trans face.
187. Statement I : Binding of myosin head with
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct
new ATP results in breakdown of cross
explanation of A
bridges during muscle contraction.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not a
Statement II : During contraction of skeletal correct explanation of the A
muscle the size of I-band decreases while (3) A is true but R is false
that A-band remain same. (4) Both A and R are false
(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct 192. Match list I with list II.
(2) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect List I List II
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
(a) Neanderthal man (i) 900 cc
(4) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
(b) Homo habilis (ii) 1650 cc
188. A single ____A____ shaped bone called hyoid is
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 1400 cc
present at the base of ____B____ and it is also
(d) Cro-magnon man (iv) 650 cc
included in the ____C____.
(1) (A)-V, (B)-buccal cavity, (C)-Skull (1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(2) (A)-U, (B)-oral cavity, (C)-Skull (2) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(3) (A)-V, (B)-oral cavity, (C)-facial (3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
(4) (A)-U, (B)-buccal cavity, (C)-Skull (4) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
189. Choose the incorrectly matched pair :- 193. If in Metaphase I, n = 10. Then which of the
(1) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue following is true?
(2) Cartilage cell – Chondrocyte (1) 10 Tetrads, 20 Chromatids
(3) Ciliated epithelium – Moist surface of (2) 40 Chromatids, 40 Kinetochores
buccal cavity (3) 5 Bivalents, 40 Chromatids
(4) Nerve cells - Neurons (4) 10 Bivalents, 20 Kinetochores
Sample Paper-2
194. (A) Hormones which support the process of 197. Blood transport of CO2 occurs in three forms.
RBC formation. The correct percentages of CO2 in these
(B) Hormones which maintain water and forms are As carbaminohae-moglobin in RBC,
electrolyte balance. As bicarbonates, Dissolved form in plasma.
(C) Hormones which control metabolism of (1) 20-25%, 70%, 7%
carbohydrates, proteins and fats. (2) 7%, 20-25%, 70%,
Identify the correct sets of Hormones. (3) 20-25%, 7%, 70%,
(1) A-Cortisol, Thyroid, Erythropoietin (4) 70%, 20-25%, 7%
B-ADH, Aldosterone, Thyroid 198. Assertion : Vaccination is an example of
C-Thyroid, Insulin, Cortisol active immunity.
(2) A-Erythropoietin, Estrogen, Thyroid Reason : In vaccination, a preparation of
B-ADH, Aldosterone, Parathormone antigenic proteins of pathogen or inactivated
C-Thyroid, GH, Thymosin pathogen are introduced.
(3) A-Testosterone, ANF, Erythropoietin (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
B-Vasopressin and Aldosterone only explanation of A
C-Thyroid, GH, Estrogen (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(4) A- Erythropoietin, Thyroid, Progesterone correct explanation of A
B-Vasopressin, Oxytocin, Aldosterone (3) A is true but R is false
C-Melatonin, Thyroid, GH (4) Both A and R are false
195. Match the following columns and select the 199. Corpus luteum contains cells of
correct option - (i) Theta externa
Column A Column B (ii) Theca interna
A Felis I Tree frog (iii) Follicular cells
B Struthio II Cobra (iv) Secondary oocyte
C Naja III Ostrich (1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
D Hyla IV Cat (2) (i), (ii), (iii) only
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) (i), (ii) only
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) (iii) only
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 200. Assertion : Placenta facilitates the supply of
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III oxygen and nutrients. Along with this, it acts
196. Which of the following is an incorrect as an endocrine tissue.
statement about leucocytes? Reason : It produces hormones like hCG,
(1) They are nucleated. hPL, Oxytocin, Progestogens tissue.
(2) They are approximately in an average of (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
6000-8000 mm-3 of blood cells in explanation of A
numbers. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(3) Two main types are found they are correct explanation of A
granulocytes and agranulocytes. (3) A is true but R is false
(4) Monocytes are most abundant WBCs (4) Both A and R are false
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Space for Rough Work
Sample Paper-2
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Sample Paper - 3
In words _________________________________________________________________________________________
Sample Paper-3
PHYSICS
Section-A
1. A car begins to move from garage whose 5. The electrical circuit used to get smooth
DC output from a rectifier circuit is
speed is increasing at constant rate. It
called : -
travels a distance of 60m within 20 to
(1) Oscillator (2) Filter
40 seconds. How much it travelled in
(3) Amplifier (4) Logic gates
first 20 second. 6. The figure shows a network of currents.
(1) 30 m (2) 40 m The magnitude of currents is shown here.
(3) 10 m (4) 20 m The current I will be
2. A step down transformer is used to reduce
1A
the main supply of 220 V to 11 V. If the
primary coil draws a current of 5A and the
current in secondary coil is 90A. What is 10A I
the efficiency of the transformer?
6A
(1) 70% (2) 80%
(3) 90% (4) 99% 2A
3. The Rutherford -particle experiment
(1) 3A (2) 9A
shows that most of the -particles pass (3) 13A (4) 19A
through almost unscattered while some 7. A block of mass 2kg moving with velocity
are scattered through large angles. What 20m/s in positive x-direction is being
information does it give about the pulled by a constant force of 10N in
structure of the atom :- negative x-direction. Coefficient of static
(1) Atom is hollow and kinetic friction for surface in contact
(2) The whole mass of the atom is are 0.5 and 0.4. Address the direction and
magnitude of friction acting on block.
concentrated in a small centre called
(1) 10N along –ve x-direction
nucleus
(2) 10N along +ve x-direction
(3) Nucleus is positively charged
(3) No friction acting on block
(4) All of the above
(4) 8N along –ve x-direction
4. In the circuit shown in the figure, the total W
charge is 750C and the voltage across 8. Buoyant force of magnitude is acting
2
capacitor C2 is 20V. Then the charge on an a droplet of rain having weight W
capacitor C2 is going downward with constant speed,
C2 then find the viscous force acting on it.
C1 = 15F
W
(1) W (2)
2
C3 = 8F
3W
(3) (4) 2W
+ – 2
V 9. A plot between the angle of deviation and
(1) 450 C (2) 590 C angle of incidence is shown in figure.
From the graph one can say that the
(3) 160 C (4) 650 C prism angle is : -
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13. In an electromagnetic wave propagating

along –x-direction magnetic field oscillates
50° at a frequency of 3 × 1010 Hz along
(Angle of y-direction and has an amplitude of 10–6 T.
deviation) The expression for electric field will be :-
(1) Ez = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
i (2) Ez = 300 sin 2π(100x + 3×1010 t) V/m
38° 58° (3) Ey = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(Angle of incidence) (4) Ey = 300 sin 2π(100x + 3×1010 t) V/m
(1) 47° (2) 46° 14. If magnetic moment of each magnet is M
(3) 45° (4) 60° then net magnetic field at point O is
1 (r > > ) : -
10. The correct curve between  and for
T
paramagnetic magnetic is : - N
ℓ r
  O
S N ℓ
r S
(1) (2) µ0 M µ0 M
(1) 2 (2) 5
4 r3 4 r3
1/T 1/T µ M µ M
(3) 0 3 3 (4) 0 3 9
  4 r 4 r
4
15. If the refractive index of water is and
3
(3) (4) 5
that of glass slab is , then the critical
3
1/T 1/T angle of incidence for which a light ray
11. A coil of resistance 10 ohm and tending to go from glass to water is totally
inductance 5 henry is connected to a 100 reflected is :-
volt battery. Then, the energy stored in 3 3
(1) sin −1   (2) sin −1  
the coil is :- 4 5
(1) 250 joule (2) 250 erg 2 4
(3) 125 joule (4) 125 erg (3) sin −1   (4) sin −1  
3 5
12. In the figure shown, all the wires are long
and parallel, if net force/length on wire B 16. The graph shows variation of I with f for a
d series R-L-C network keeping L and C
is zero, then 1 will be :- constant. If R decreases
d2
I Im
i 2i 3i
f
fr
A B C (a) maximum current increases
d1 d2 (b) sharpness of graph increase
1 2 (c) quality factor increases
(1) (2)
3 3 (d) band width increases
1 1 (1) a,b,c (2) b,c,d
(3) (4)
6 4 (3) c,d,a (4) All
Sample Paper-3
17. Train A is moving along two parallel rail 21. Dual nature of radiation is shown by
tracks towards north with speed 72 km/h (1) Diffraction and reflection
and train B is moving towards south with (2) Refraction and diffraction
speed 108 km/h. Velocity of train B with (3) Photoelectric effect alone
respect to A and velocity of ground with (4) Photoelectric effect and diffraction
respect to B are (in ms–1) : 22. The dominant mechanism for motion of
charge carriers in forward and reverse
(1) –30 and 50 (2) –50 and –30
biased silicon P-N junction are :-
(3) –50 and 30 (4) 50 and –30
(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in
18. A 1 kg ball is thrown up with an initial
reverse bias
speed of 14 m/s and reaches a height of (2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in
8.0 m. How much energy is dissipated by reverse bias
air drag acting on the ball during the (3) Diffusion in both forward and reverse
ascent: (g = 9.8 m/s2) bias
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J (4) Drift in both forward and reverse bias
(3) 0 J (4) 18 J 23. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by
19. If the distance of light source from a 1%. Its mass remaining the same, the
photosensitive surface is reduced to half acceleration due to gravity on the earth's
and frequency of light () remains same surface would
(1) Decrease by 2%
( > 0) then
(2) Remain unchanged
(1) Rate of emission of electron remain
(3) Increase by 2%
same and kinetic energy becomes
(4) Increase by 1%
twice 24. A particle is executing SHM with
(2) Both rate of emission of electron and amplitude A and has a maximum velocity
K.E. becomes twice V0. The displacement at which its velocity
(3) Rate of emission of electron becomes will be (V0/2) and the velocity at
four times and kinetic energy remain displacement A/2 are : -
same A V A V
(1) , 0 (2) , 0
(4) Rate of emission remain same, K.E. 2 2 3 3
becomes four times  3 3V0 A V0
20. Two liquids water and oil are filled in a (3)   A, (4) ,
 2  2 2 2
 
container as shown in figure. Then find
25. A body having moment of inertia about its
the pressure due to liquid at Point A.
axis of rotation equal to 3 kg-m2 is
[Relative density of oil is 0.8]
rotating with angular velocity equal to
3 rad/s. Kinetic energy of this rotating
body is the same as that of a body of mass
Oil 4m 27 kg moving with a speed of :
(1) 1.0 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s
(3) 1.5 m/s (4) 2.0 m/s
26. The fundamental frequency of a closed
water 5m organ pipe is equal to the first overtone
frequency of an open organ pipe. If length
of the open pipe is 60 cm, then the length
A of the closed pipe will be :-
(1) 82 kPa (2) 82 Pa (1) 60 cm (2) 45 cm
(3) 42 kPa (4) 42 Pa (3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm
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27. In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the 31. When the switch S, in the circuit shown,
force is 100 dynes. In another system is closed, then the value of current i will
where the fundamental physical be : -
quantities are kilogram, metre and 20V i1 C i2 10V
minute, the magnitude of the force is A 2 i 4 B
(1) 0.036 (2) 0.36
(3) 3.6 (4) 36 S
28. A 15 g mass of nitrogen gas is enclosed in V=0

a vessel at a temperature 27°C. Amount of (1) 3A (2) 5A
heat transferred to the gas, so that rms (3) 4A (4) 2A
velocity of molecules is doubled, is about: 32. What is the principle of working of a
[Take R = 8.3 J/ K mole] physical balance?
(1) Principle of conservation of linear
(1) 10 kJ (2) 0.9 kJ
momentum
(3) 6 kJ (4) 14 kJ (2) Principle of conservation of energy
29. Two thin wire rings each having a radius (3) Principle of moments
R are placed at a distance d apart with (4) Principle of conservation of angular
their axes coinciding. The charges on the momentum
two rings are +q and –q. The potential 33. To measure the height of water level a
difference between the centres of the two student sees the pointer tip through the
rings is travelling microscope he must have seen
(1) Zero this image -
q 1 1 
(2)  −  (1) (2)
40 R R 2 + d2 
(3) qR/40d2
q 1 1 
(4)  − 2 2 (3) (4)
20  R R +d 
30. A current of 6A enters one corner P of an
equilateral triangle PQR having 3 wires of 34. A small liquid drop of radius r is divided
resistances 2 each and leaves by the into 64 identical liquid drops. If the
corner R. Then the current I1 and I2 are surface tension is T, then the work done
6A in the process will be : -
P (1) 12 r2T (2) r2T

I1 I2 (3) 8 r2T (4) 60 r2T
2 2 35. Cross sectional area of a wire
(Y = 5 × 1011 N/m2)is 0.1 cm2.
Find the
Q 2 R force required to make its length double.
(1) 2A, 4A (2) 4A, 2A (1) 5 × 106 dyne (2) 5 × 103 N
(3) 1A, 2A (4) 2A, 3A (3) 5 × 106 N (4) 5 × 103 dyne
Sample Paper-3
Section-B 40. The unit vectors î, ˆj and k̂ are as shown
36. Following is the velocity-time plot for a below. What will be the magnetic field at
student moving on straight road. Find the O in the following figure :-
distance travelled before the student
turns back for the first time :
v i
a O
20m/s a
10s 15s 20s
t i
5s
0 i   0 i  
(1)  2 −  ˆj (2)  2 +  ˆj
(1) 50m (2) 100m 4 a  2 4 a  2
(3) 150m (4) 200m 0 i   0 i  
37. Three blocks of masses m, 3m, 5m are (3)  2 +  î (4)  2 +  kˆ
4 a  2 4 a  2
connected by massless strings and pulled
by force F on a frictionless surface as 41. Assertion :- The DC and AC both can be
shown in figure. Find the ratio of tension measured by a hot wire instrument.
in string Q and Q'. Reason :- The hot wire instrument is
P Q based on the principle of magnetic effect
F 5m 3m m
of current.
Q' P' (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
5m 3m m F the correct explanation of (A).
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 5 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(3) 5 : 9 (4) 3 : 5 NOT the correct explanation of (A).
38. Two capillary tubes of same material of (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
a radius 1 mm & 1.5 mm are vertically (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
immersed in the same liquid, then find
42. The de-Broglie wavelength and kinetic
the ratio of potential energy of liquid
rise : - energy of a particle is 2000Å and 1 eV
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 respectively. If its kinetic energy becomes
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 1 MeV, then its de-Broglie wavelength
39. Ray diagram for two lenses kept at some becomes :-
distance given in the diagram, which of the
(1) 1Å (2) 2Å
following option is correct (f1, f2 are focal
lengths, d = distance between lenses) : - (3) 5Å (4) 10Å
43. In a fission reaction
236
92 U →117 X +117 Y + n + n ,
the binding energy per nucleon of X and Y
(1) f1 + f2 > d is 8.5 MeV whereas of 236
U is 7.6 MeV. The
(2) f1 + f2 < d total energy liberated will be about :-
(3) f1 + f2 = d
(1) 200 KeV (2) 2 MeV
(4) Combination behaves like converging
lens (3) 200 MeV (4) 2000 MeV
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44. The Vernier constant of Vernier callipers (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are
is 0.1 mm and it has zero error of true
–0.05 cm. While measuring diameter of a (2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is
sphere, the main scale reading is 1.7 cm false
and coinciding vernier division is 5. The (3) Both statement-I and statement-II are
corrected diameter will be false
(1) 1.8 cm (2) 2.8 cm (4) Statement-I is false but statement-II
(3) 2.3 cm (4) 1.5 cm is true
45. A sphere P of mass m and velocity vi 49. On interchanging the resistances, the
undergoes an oblique and perfectly balance point of a meter bridge shifts to
elastic collision with an identical sphere Q the left by 10 cm. The resistance of their
initially at rest. The angle θ between the series combination is 1 k. How much
velocities of the spheres after the was the resistance on the left slot before
collision shall be :- interchanging the resistance?
(1) 0° (2) 45° (1) 505 k
(3) 90° (4) 180° (2) 550 k
46. An ideal monoatomic gas occupies a (3) 910 k
volume of 2m3 at a pressure of 3 × 106 Pa. (4) 990 k
The energy of the gas is: 50. While measuring the surface tension of
(1) 3 × 102 (2) 108 J water, by capillary rise method, which of
(3) 6 × 104 J (4) 9 × 106 J the following precaution is/are necessary.
47. A monoatomic gas is supplied the heat Q (a) Capillary tube and water must be
very slowly keeping the pressure constant. clean and free from contamination/
The work done by the gas will be grease.
2 3 (b) Capillary tube should be set vertical &
(1) Q (2) Q
3 5 the temperature of the water should
2 1 be noted.
(3) Q (4) Q
5 5 (c) Travelling microscope should be
48. Given below are two statements.
moved in lower direction only avoid
Statements-I: An electric dipole is placed
back lash error.
at the centre of a hollow sphere. The flux
(d) Internal diameter of capillary tube
of electric field through the sphere is zero
but the electric field is not zero anywhere should be measured in two mutually
in the sphere. perpendicular directions.
Statement-II: If R is the radius of a solid (1) (b) & (c)
metallic sphere and Q be the total charge (2) (b)
on it. The electric field at any point on the (3) (d) & (e)
spherical surface of radius r(<R) is zero (4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
but the electric flux passing through this
closed spherical surface of radius r is not
zero.
Sample Paper-3
CHEMISTRY
Section-A
51. 10 g of hydrofluoric acid gas occupies 5.6 56. For a cyclic process, which of the
litre of volume at NTP. If the empirical following is not true ?
formula of the gas is HF, then its (1) H = 0 (2) E = 0
molecular formula will be : (3) G = 0 (4) Total w = 0
(At. Mass of F = 19) 57. The half-life of a substance in a first-
(1) HF (2) H3F3 order is 15 min. The rate constant is
(1) 2.46 × 102 min–1
(3) H2F2 (4) H4F4
(2) 4.62 × 10–2 min–1
52. Wave function is plotted against the
(3) 6.74 × 10–2 min–1
distance from nucleus :
(4) 7.18 × 102 min–1
58. An aqueous solution freezes at –0.186 °C
↑ (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1, Kb = 0.512 K kg
 mol–1). The elevation of b.pt. of the
+ + solution is :
– r→ (1) 0.186 (2) 0.512
Which of the following orbital is 0.512
(3) (4) 0.0512
represented by this graph ? 1.86
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s 59. For a reaction of iodide ion with
(3) 2 p (4) 3 s hydrogen peroxide at room temperature,
53. The pH of a buffer solution prepared by what will be the order of reaction
adding 10 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 20 concerning iodide ion?
(1) Second order reaction
mL of 0.1 M sodium acetate will be:
(2) Zero order reaction
(Given : pKa of CH3COOH = 4.74)
(3) Third order reaction
(1) 4.05 (2) 3.04
(4) First order reaction
(3) 5.04 (4) 3.05 60. Which of the following compounds is not
54. MnO4− oxidises H2O2 to O2 in acidic amphoteric in nature ?
medium, (1) Cr2O3 (2) Fe2O3
xMnO4− + yH2O2 + zH+ ⎯⎯
→Mn2+ + O2 + H2O (3) Al2O3 (4) Ga2O3
61. Difference of electrons between ‘Uub’
Coefficient x, y, and z are respectively.
element and ‘Uuo’ element is
x y z (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 1 2 3 (3) 6 (4) 8
(2) 3 2 5 62. Which among the following has highest
(3) 2 5 6 melting point ?
(4) 2 6 5 (1) Zn (2) Cd
55. For the reaction (3) W (4) Hg
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) 63. Which of the following ions does not
At constant temperature, H – E is : exist?
(1) –RT (2) +RT (1) CuI24− (2) VO34−
(3) –3RT (4) +3RT (3) WO24− (4) CrO24−
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64. Which of the following is a diamagnetic (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is
and inner orbital complex ion ? false.
(1) [Fe(NH3)6]2+ (2) [Mn(NH3)6]2+ (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) [Co(H2O)6] 3+ (4) [Co(NO2)6]4– false.
65. Why magnesium is not precipitated along (3) Both statement I and Statement II is
with the carbonates of V group though
are true.
magnesium carbonate is insoluble in
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is
water ?
are true.
(1) Due of common-ion effect of NH4+
(2) Odd ion effect of NH4+ 72. Which of the following is least ionic ?
(3) Common ion effect of Cl¯ (1) BaCl2 (2) AgCl
(4) None of these (3) KCl (4) CoCl2
66. What is the shape of potash alum ? 73. Stability order of ethylene glycol
(1) TBP conformers is :-
(2) PBP (1) Eclipsed > Gauche > Anti
(3) Octahedral (2) Anti > Gauche > Eclipsed
(4) Trigonal planar (3) Gauche > Anti > Eclipsed
67. What is the colour of Mohr’s salt ? (4) Gauche > Eclipsed > Anti
(1) Blue (2) White
74. Assertion :- Racemic mixture is optically
(3) Pink (4) Light green
inactive
68. Which of the following cannot function as
an oxidising agent? Reason :- Racemic mixture is optically
inactive due to external compensation of
(1) N3– (2) SO24−
equal percentage of (+) and (–) forms
(3) BrO3− (4) MnO −4
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
69. On passing a gas, ‘X’, through Nessler’s is not the correct explanation of (A).
reagent, a brown precipitate is obtained.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
The gas ‘X’ is
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(1) H2S (2) CO2
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
(3) NH3 (4) Cl2
70. The molecule/ion with square pyramidal is the correct explanation of (A).
shape is: 75. (I) Cl—CH2—COOH
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) PCl5 (II) O2N—CH2—COOH
(3) BrF5 (4) PF5 (III) CH3—COOH
71. Given below are two statements: Which of the following orders is correct
Statement-I: Since fluorine is more for the strength of these carboxylic acids?
electronegative than nitrogen, the net (1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
dipole moment of NF3 is greater than NH3. (3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I
Statement-II: In NH3, the orbital dipole ⊝ ⊝ ⊝ ⊝
due to lone pair and the dipole moment of 76. F, Cl, Br, I
NH bonds are in opposite direction, but in Among these nucleophiles, which of the
NF3 the orbital dipole due to lone pair and following orders is correct for their
dipole moments of N-F bonds are in same nucleophilicity order is gas phase?
direction. ⊝ ⊝ ⊝ ⊝ ⊝ ⊝ ⊝ ⊝
In the light of the above statements. (1) F > Cl > Br > I (2) I > Br > Cl > F
⊝ ⊝ ⊝ ⊝
Choose the most appropriate from the (3) I > Br > F > Cl (4) none of these
options given below.
Sample Paper-3
77. Which of the following alcohols can give H
80. + H2N—OH P + H2O
iodoform reaction?
O
OH
P should be:
(1) CH3—CH2—CH—CH2—CH3 N—OH NH2
OH (1) (2)
O
(2) CH3—CH—CH2—CH3
NH2
OH
(3) CH—CH2—CH3 (3) (4)
O O
(4) None of these 81. Which statement is NOT correct for
CH3 p-toluenesulphonyl chloride ?
HBr
78. P + H2O (1) It is known as Hinsberg’s reagent.
OH (Major) (2) It is used to distinguish primary and
P should be secondary amines.
(3) On treatment with secondary amine,
CH3
it leads to a product, that is soluble in
(1)
Br alkali.
(4) It doesn’t react with tertiary amines.
CH3
82. Sulphur containing non-essential and
(2)
essential amino acids are respectively :-
Br (1) Cystein and Histidine
CH3 (2) Histidine and Cystein
(3) (3) Methionine and Cystein
(4) Cystein and Methionine
CH2
83. The compounds 1-butyne and 2-butyne
(4)
can be distinguished by using
(1) Bromine water
79. Ph − C  C − CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
H2O, H2SO4
P
HgSO 4 (2) alk. KMnO4 (cold)
Major product 'P' will be : (3) Tollens’s reagent
O (4) Chlorine gas
84. The end product (Q) in the following
(1) Ph—CH2—C—CH3
sequence of reactions is
O Cl2/FeCl3 Na/ether
P Q
(2) Ph—C—CH2—CH3
OH
Cl CH3
(3) Ph—CH=C—CH3 (1) (2)
OH
OH
(4) Ph—C=CH—CH3 (3) (4)
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85. For the reaction 90. Maximum work done by the cell
CH3Cl Cl2 Cr | Cr3+ || Fe2+ | Fe will be :
AlCl3
(A) (B)
FeCl3 Given :
(major)
E0Cr3+ /Cr = −0.75 V, E0Fe2+ /Fe = −0.45 V
Product B is :
CH2Cl CH3 (1) 173.7 kJ (2) 371.1 kJ
Cl (3) 137.7 kJ (4) 317.7 kJ
(1) (2) 91. 0.1 M aqueous solution of MgCl2 at 300 K
is 4.92 atm. What will be the percentage
CH3 ionization of the salt ?
CH3
(1) 49% (2) 29%
(3) (4) (3) 39% (4) 69%
Cl
92. Which one of the following does not
Section-B correctly represent the correct order of
86. How many grams of HCl will react with 5 g the property indicated against it ?
MnO2 when heated strongly if the (1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : Increasing melting
reaction involved is : points
MnO2 (s) + 4HCl (aq.) → (2) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : Increasing second
MnCl2 (aq.) + Cl2 (g) + 2H2O ionization enthalpy
(1) 8.39 g (2) 8.5 g
(3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : Increasing number
(3) 8.69 g (4) 8.84 g
of oxidation states
87. In an atom, an electron is moving with a
(4) Ti3+ < V3 < Cr3+ < Mn3+ : Increasing
speed of 600 m sec–1 with an accuracy of
0.005%. Certainty with which the magnetic moment
position of the electron can be located is : 93. Select the correct IUPAC name for Brown
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2 s–1, mass of electron ring complex.
= 9.1 × 10–31 kg) (1) Tetraaqua nitrosyl iron (I) chloride
(1) 1.52 × 10–4 m (2) 5.1 × 10–3 m (2) Tetrahydro nitrosyl iron (II) chloride
(3) 1.92 × 10–3 m (4) 3.84 × 10–3 m (3) Pentaaqua nitrosyl ferrate (III)
88. The solubility product sparingly salt sulphate
Ag2CrO4 is 4 × 10–12. The molar solubility (4) Pentaaqua nitrosyl iron (I) sulphate
of the salt is:
94. Which of the following complexes
(1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1
has/have more C–O bond length than in
(2) 2 × 10–6 mol L–1
[Ni(CO)4]?
(3) 1 × 10–5 mol L–1
(4) 2 × 10–12 mol L–1 (1) Na[Co(CO)4] (2) [Fe(CO)4]2+
89. The time for half-life period of a certain (3) [Fe(CO)5] (4) [Cr(CO)6]
reaction A ⎯→ products is 1 h. When 95. Given below are two statements:
the initial concentration of the reactant A Statement (I) : Oxygen being the first
is 2.0 mol L–1, how much time does it member of group 16 exhibits only –2
take for its concentration to come from oxidation state.
0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1, if it is a zero order Statement (II) : Down the group 16
reaction? stability of +4 oxidation state decreases
(1) 4h (2) 0.5 h and +6 oxidation state increases.
(3) 0.25 h (4) 1h
Sample Paper-3
In the light of the above statements, 98. The reaction of :
choose the most appropriate answer CH3—CH=CH— OH
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is with HBr gives :
incorrect (1) CH3CHBrCH2 OH
correct (2) CH3CH2CHBr OH
(3) CH3CHBrCH2 Br
incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
(4) CH3CH2CHBr Br
is correct
96. The products formed during the CHO CHO CHO
following reaction are :
99.
CH3
CH3—C—O—CH3 + HI ? NO2 OMe
I II III
CH3
Which of the following orders is correct of
CH3 the yield of products obtained when these
compounds are treated with KCN/HCN?
(1) CH3OH + CH3—C—I
(1) I > II > III
CH3 (2) III > II > I
CH3 (3) II > I > III
(4) III > I > II
(2) CH4 + H3C—C—OI NH2
CH3 1. Aq. NaNO2/HCl
100. P
2. HBF4
CH3
3. 
(3) CH3I + CH3—C—OH CH3
P should be
CH3
F
CH3
(1)
(4) CH3OI + H3C—C—H
CH3 CH3
97. In the following sequence of reactions, F
KCN + LiAlH (2)
→ B ⎯⎯⎯ →C
H3O
CH3—Br ⎯⎯→ A ⎯⎯⎯ ether
4
the end product C is : CH3

(1) acetone
(3)
(2) methane
F
(3) acetaldehyde
CH3
(4) ethyl alcohol
(4) A mixture of (1) and (3)
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BIOLOGY
Botany [Section-A]
105. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked
101. In flowering plants, how many divisions are recessive trait that can be transmitted from
required for the formation of mature male parents to the offspring when both the
gametophyte from microspore mother cell ? partners are carrier or heterozygous. The
(1) One meiotic and One mitotic disease is controlled by a single pair of allele,
(2) Two meiotic and Two mitotic HbA and HbS. Identify X, Y and Z :-
(3) One meiotic and Two mitotic
(4) One meiotic and Three mitotic
102. Mark the wrong statement.
(1) Families are characterised on the basis of
both vegetative and reproductive
characteristics
(2) Plant families are put in similar order on
the basis of similar floral characters
(3) Felidae and Canidae are included in
similar order Mammalia
(4) Fishes, birds, amphibians are included in (1) GTG, GAC, Val (2) GTG, CAC, Val
same Phylum (3) GTA, GAG, Val (4) GTC, GAC, Val
106. Which factor is similar in DNA and RNA both?
103. Select the incorrect statement :-
(1) Pentose sugar
(1) Flip flop movement is shown by both
(2) Nitrogenous base
lipid and protein. (3) Phosphate group
(2) Membrane of R.B.C. has approximately (4) Coiled form
52% protein and 40% lipid 107. Which is not a carbohydrate :-
(3) Neutral solutes may move across the (1) Cellulose (2) Glycogen
membrane by the process of simple (3) Insulin (4) Glucose
diffusion. 108. Select the two correct statements out of the
four (a-d) given below about lac operon :
(4) The quasifluid nature of lipid enables
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
lateral movement of protein within the
repressor and inactivate it
overall bilayer.
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor
104. In a certain plant red colour flower has binds with the operator region
incomplete dominance over white colour (c) The z-gene codes for permease
flower. When heterozygous Rr plant is (d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob
crossed with heterozygous Rr plant then 400 and Jacques Monod
offprings are obtained. The number of white The correct statements are :
offspring are (1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(1) 160 (2) 125 (3) 500 (4) 100 (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c)
Sample Paper-3
109. Match the column 'A' and 'B' and identify 114. There are four major causes of accelerated
correct option :- rates of species extinction, which are
A B collectively called as 'the evil quartet'.
(I) Organ transplant (a) Statins Which one of the following is not included in
(II) Clot buster (b) Cyclosporin A 'the evil quartet'?
(III) Blood cholesterol (c) Streptokinase (1) Over exploitation
lowering agent (2) Pollution
(1) I-a, II-b, III-c (2) I-b, II-a, III-c (3) Co-extinctions
(3) I-b, II-c, III-a (4) I-c, II-b, III-a (4) Alien species invasions
110. BOD is the measure of _______ in water. 115. Floral formula of makoi is :-
(1) Organic matter (1)
(2) Inorganic matter
(3) Bacterial load
(2)
(4) Toxicity
111. Study the following table carefully and select (3)
the correct match :-
(4)
(1) Chlamydomonas Sea lettuce Rhodophyceae
(2) Ectocarpus Brown alga Phaeophyceae 116. Consider the following statements and select
(3) Gelidium Agar-Agar Chlorophyceae the option which includes all correct
(4) Colletotrichum Red rot Ascomycetes statements.
disease (a) In an alcoholic fermentation triose-P is
112. Which one is not a functional aspect of the donor of hydrogen and pyruvic acid
Ecosystem :- is the acceptor.
(1) Species diversity (2) Decomposition (b) In an aerobic respiration O2 is directly
(3) Productivity (4) Energy flow used in Krebs cycle but it is regarded as
113. Identify correct match from the column-I, II anaerobic pathway.
(c) Krebs cycle is the common oxidation
and III :-
pathway for complete breakdown of fats,
1. Epidermis a. Trichomes i. Dicot carbohydrates and amino acids.
root (d) PFK is allosterically inhibited by high
2. Hypodermis b. Casparian ii. Monocot
strips stem
conc. of ATP.
3. Endodermis c. Inconspicuous iii. Dicot (1) a, b & c (2) b & c
stem
(3) b, c & d (4) c & d
4. Pith d. Scleren iv. Monocot
chymatous root 117. Which among the following is most crucial
(1) 1-d-ii, 2-a-iii, 3-b-i, 4-c-i step of Calvin cycle ?
(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(2) 1-a-iii, 2-b-ii, 3-d-iv, 4-c-i
(2) Carboxylation
(3) 1-a-iii, 2-d-ii, 3-b-iv, 4-c-i
(3) Reduction
(4) 1-a-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-c-i, 4-b-ii (4) Regeneration
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118. Calvin cycle occurs in : 121. What are indicated A-F in the given figure.
(1) Only monocots and dicots
(2) In only C3 plant
(3) In only C4 plant
(4) In all photosynthetic plants
119. Make suitable pair :-
(A) Emerson (p) C3 cycle
effect
(B) Hill (q) Photolysis
reaction
(C) Calvin's (r) C4 cycle
cycle (1) A-oxaloacetic acid (4C),
(D) Hatch and (s) Photosystem-I B-Malic acid (4C), C-Salicylic acid (4C),
slack cycle and II D-Acetyl Co-Enzyme-A (2C),
(1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s E-Citric acid (6C), F-α-Ketoglutaric acid
(2) A-p, B-r, C-s, D-q (2) A- α -Ketoglutaric acid, B-Citric acid (6C),
(3) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s C-oxaloacetic acid (4C), D-Succinic acid (4C),
(4) A-s, B-q, C-p, D-r E-AcetylCo-Enzyme-A (2C), F-Malic acid
(3) A-Acetyl Co-Enzyme-A (2C),
120. Study the pathway given below. B-Oxaloacetic acid (4C),
C-Citric acid (6C), D-Malic acid (4C),
E-α-Ketoglutaric acid, F-Succinic acid (4C)
(4) A-Succinic acid (4C),
B-Acetyl Co-Enzyme-A (2C), C-Malic acid,
D-α-Ketoglutaric acid, E-Citric acid (6C),
F-Oxaloacetic acid (4C)
122. Match the Column I with Column II :-
Column -I Column -II
A Bulliform cells P Stomata
In which of the following options, correct B Subsidiary cells Q Phloem
words for all the three blanks A, B and C are C Complementary R Isobilateral
indicated ? cells leaf
D Companion cells S Lenticel
(1) A-Decarboxylation, B-Reduction,
C-Regeneration (1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S (2) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
(2) A-Fixation, B-Transamination, (3) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q (4) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
C-Regeneration 123. Which of the following enzyme play a
(3) A-Fixation, B-Decarboxylation, significant role both in DNA replication and
C-Regeneration recombinant DNA technology?
(4) A-Carboxylation, B-Decarboxylation, (1) RNase (2) Protease
C-Reduction (3) Ligase (4) Endonuclease
Sample Paper-3
124. In a food chain suppose the amount of energy 128. Law of independent assortment is applicable
at the fourth tropic level is 6 kJ, what will be to :-
the energy at producer level? (1) All the dominant alleles only.
(1) 0.5 kJ (2) 60 Kj (2) All genes on the same chromosome.
(3) 600 kJ (4) 6000 kJ (3) Two genes present on the same
125. Match Column-I with Column-II and select
chromosome.
the correct answer using the code given
(4) Two genes present on the different
below -
chromosome.
Column -I Column -II
129. If light DNA was allowed to grow for 80
(Characters) (Families)
minutes in heavy medium then what would
(a) Cruciform corolla (i) Solanaceae
be proportions of hybrid and heavy density
(b) Perianth (ii) Fabaceae
DNA molecule? (according to Meselson
(c) Diadelphous (iii) Brassicaceae
condition experiment)
(d) Epipetalous (iv) Liliaceae (1) 1 : 1 (2) 7 : 1
condition (3) 1 : 7 (4) 2 : 0
(1) (a)-iv, (b)-i, (c)-ii, (d)-iii 130. How many compounds in the list given below
(2) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-ii, (d)-iv are hexose sugar ?
(3) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-ii, (d)-i Glucose, Ribose, lactose, Galactose, Grape
(4) (a)-ii, (b)-iv, (c)-iii, (d)-i sugar, Brain sugar, Fructose, Allolactose,
126. Identify the following statements as true (T) Fruit sugar, PGAL, Mannose.
or false (F) and select the option accordingly (1) Four (2) Seven
(A) Members of Rhodophyceae asexually (3) Five (4) Six
reproduce by motile spores 131. In the above diagrammatic representation of
(B) Members of Phaeophyceae do not show a portion of glycogen, glycosidic bonds
isogamous type of sexual reproduction represented by A, B and C are :-
(C) In some green algae, food is stored in the
form of oil droplets
(A) (B) (C)
(1) T F T
(2) F F F
(3) F F T
(4) T T F
(A) (B) (C)
127. Sex-determination of birds is different from
that of humans, in (1) -1’-4” -1’-4” -1’-4”
(1) Males have less number of chromosomes (2) -1’-6” -1’-4” -1’-4”
than females (3) -1’-6” -1’-4” -1’-4”
(2) Male produces only one type of sperms
(4) -1’-4” -1’-6” -1’-4”
(3) Female is heterogametic
(4) More than one option is correct
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132. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
Botany [Section – B]
matching.
136. Identify 'A' in the given
diagram :
(1) Cotyledons
(2) Radicle
(3) Hypocotyl
(4) Epicotyl
137. Study the following figure of cell division
(1) a-sludge, b-dung and water, c-digester, d- carefully and identify the stage shown in figure:
gas holder
(2) b-sludge, a-dung and water, d-digester, c-
gas holder
(3) a-sludge, b-dung and water, d-digester, c-
gas holder
(4) b-sludge, a-dung and water, c-digester, d- (1) Anaphase of mitosis
gas holder (2) Metaphase of mitosis
133. "There may be variation in the length of (3) Anaphase I of meiosis
filaments within a flower" (4) Metaphase I of Meiosis
Select the correct option in respect of given 138. Identify the following
statement. molecule shown below
(1) Salvia and mustard with their nature and
(2) Radish and Turnip occurrence from the
(3) China rose and Pea given table.
(4) Both (1) and (2) Molecule Nature Occurrence
134. Choose the correctly matched option :- (1) Uracil Nucleotide Found in RNA
(1) Rivet popper hypothesis - David Tilman (2) Uridine Nucleoside Found in both
(2) Extinct species - Prickly pear cactus RNA and DNA
(3) Evil Quartet – Coexistence (3) Uridylic Nucleotide Found in RNA
(4) Species- Area relationship - Alexander acid
von Humbolt (4) Uridine Nucleoside Found in t-RNA
135. Statement I :-Aristotle used systema
139. In this pie chart of vertebrates which column
naturae as title of his publication
is representing species diversity of birds ?
Statement II :- Systematics takes into
account evolutionary relationship between
organisms.
(1) Statement I & II are correct
(2) Statement I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct & I is incorrect. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Sample Paper-3
140. How many organisms in the list given below 142. (A) CAM plants lack structural
are autotrophs ? compartmentation of leaf as found in C4
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, plants
Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, (B) In photorespiration path, neither ATP
Rhodospirillum, Porphyra, Mucor, Gonyaulax. nor NADPH is produced
(1) Four (2) Five (1) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
(3) Six (4) Seven (2) Statement B is correct and A is incorrect
141. Which of the following options correct word (3) Both statements are incorrect
for the four blanks A, B, C and D (4) Both statements are correct
143. Which of the following statements are not
correct regarding the type of growth
represented by the above diagram?
(a) It is observed at early stage of zygotic

division
(b) Only one daughter cell continues to
divide while the other differentiates and
matures.
(c) It represents exponential growth
(d) This type of growth is represented by the
(A) (B) (C) (D)
equation W = W0ert
(1) FAD CytC1 Inter Cyt-F
(1) a and b only (2) b, c and d
Membrane
space (3) a, c and d only (4) c only
(2) FMN Inter UQH2 Cyt-a- 144. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
membrane a3 and select the option which includes all the
Space correct ones only.
(3) NAD Matrix of CytC1 Cyta (a) Pollen grains are spherical and measures
mitochondria
25-50 m in diameter.
(4) FMN Inner CytC1 Cyta-
mitochondrial a3 (b) At germpore sporopollenin is absent.
membrane (c) Pollen grain consumption increase
performance of athletes and race horses.
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NEET-UG 2024
(d) Pollen grains are shed at 3-celled stage in (2) B represent removal of t RNA and A
more than 60% angiospermic plants. represent formation of peptide bond.
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d) (3) C represent, Ist amino acid containing
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c) t-RNA coming at A site.
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) A, B, C show termination reaction.
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d) 148. Diplotene is marked by :-
145. Examine the figure A, B and C. In which one (1) Formation of synaptonemal complex
of the four options all the items A, B and C are (2) Terminalisation of chiasmata
correct? (3) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Formation of recombination nodules
149. Choose the incorrect option for A, B, C or D in
given diagram :-
(A) (B) (C)
(A) (B) (C)

(1) Fucus Selaginella Ginkgo
(2) Polysiphonia Sphagnum Ginkgo
(3) Polysiphonia Sphagnum Salvinia
(1) A-cell to cell recognition
(4) Fucus Selaginella Salvinia
(2) B-formed only by saturated lipids
146. Early blight of potato disease cause by which
(3) C-cholesterol
fungi and it belongs to which class
(4) D-helpful for transport of substrate
(1) Phytophthora infestans and Phycomycetes
against the concentration gradient
(2) Alternaria solani and Ascomycetes
150. Study the following
(3) Phytophthora infestans and
pie chart with
Deuteromycetes
respect to global
(4) Alternaria solani and Deuteromycetes
diversity of plants
147. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C)
and select the
of translation identification together with
correct option :-
what it represent :-
A B C D E F
(1) Angiosperm Lichen Algae Fungi Mosses Fern &
Allies
(2) Fungi Lichen Algae Angiosperm Mosses Fern &
Allies
(3) Fungi Mosses Fern & Angiosperm Lichen Algae
Allies
(4) Angiosperm Fern Lichen Fungi Algae Mosses
&Allies
(1) A represent removal of t RNA and B
represent peptide bond formation.
Sample Paper-3
155. Which of the following statement is incorrect
Zoology [Section – A]
with respect to selectable marker -
151. Assertion : Restriction enzymes leaves galactosidase.
single stranded portions at the ends called (1) It helps to differentiate between
sticky ends. recombinants and non-recombinants.
(2) Gene for -galactosidase enzyme is
Reason : They form phosphodiester bond
inactivated.
with their complementary cut counterparts.
(3) It is referred as insertional inactivation.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(4) Recombinant colonies produce blue
correct explanation colour in presence of chromogenic
(2) A is true but R is false substrate.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is correct 156. Which of the following is correctly
explanation of A represented.
(4) Both A and R are false (1) Holoenzyme = Cofactor Apoenzyme
(2) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + cofactor
152. Match column I with column II
(3) Holoenzyme = Protein part + nucleic acid
Column I Column II
(4) Apoenzyme = cofactor (protein part) +
(a) Toxicity safety (i) -1-antirypsin
Holoenzyme (non-protein part)
(b) Emphysema (ii) -lactalbumin 157. Statement I : The elemental composition of
(c) Transgenic cow (iii) Transgenic living tissues and non living matter appear to
animals be similar when analysed quantitatively.
(d) Polio vaccine (iv) Transgenic Statement II : Polysaccharides are storage
mice
forms of energy.
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) correct
(3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii) (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
is correct
(4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Carbonic Anhydrase
153. CO2 + H2O H2CO3 incorrect
The enzyme has accelerated the reaction (4) Both statement I and statement II are
rate by. incorrect
158. Assertion : Visceral muscles are also called
(1) 100 million times
smooth muscles or non-straited muscles.
(2) 1 million times
Reason : The visceral muscles do not exihibit
(3) 10 billion times any striations.
(4) 10 million times (1) Assertion and reason both are true
154. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in reason is a correct explanation of
a ____host, it is called a ____ protein. assertion.
(1) Heterologous host, conjugated protein (2) Assertion and reason both are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) Heterologous host, Recombinant protein
assertion
(3) Homologous host, Recombinant protein
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Homologous host, Conjugated protein
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
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159. An 50 year old women suffering from 162. Given below are functions of different parts
decreased bone mass. Even doctor suggested of Brain.
her chances of fracture has also increased. (A) Hippocampus Deep structure
So she is probably suffering from which and Amygdala associated with
disorder- inner part of
(1) Osteoporosis due to decreased level of cerebral
estrogen hemisphere
(2) Osteoporosis due to increased level of (B) Limbic lobe + Regulate
estrogen Hypothalamus motivation and
(3) Muscular Dystrophy sexual behaviour
(4) Tetany (C) Medulla Regulate
160. Which of the following is incorrect about the oblangata cardiovascular
structure of kidney and nephron? reflex and gastric
(1) Cortex extends in between the medullary secretions.
pyramids as renal columns. (D) Midbrain Regulate visual
(2) Towards the centre of the inner concave reflex and
surface of kidney is a notch called hilum. Auditory Reflex.
(3) Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed
Which function is correctly matched with its
by efferent arteriole.
part.
(4) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s
(1) A and B (2) C and D
capsule is called renal corpuscle.
(3) A and D (4) All of the above
161. (A) When a neuron is not conducting any
163. Match list I with list II and select the correct
impulse, the axonal membrane is more
option :-
permeable to K+ and negatively charged
List I List II
proteins.
(a) Secretion of (i) Mesothorax
(B) Direction of conduction of nerve impulse
gastric juice
is always unidirectional
(b) Tegmina (ii) Open circulatory
(C) If Na+–K+ pump is blocked then, excess
system
amount of Na+ accumulates in extra-
(c) Alary (iii) Grinding the
cellular fluid.
muscles food particles
(D) When a stimulus is applied membrane
(d) Gizzard (iv) Hepatic caecae
becomes permeable for Na+.
(v) Storing of food
Which of the given above statement is
correct. (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(1) A and B (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(i)
(2) B and C (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
(3) C and D (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) B and D
Sample Paper-3
164. Statement 1 : Cancer cells are immortalised
by the mechanism that maintains length of
telomeres. 167.
Statement 2 : Telocentric chromosome has
the centromere situated close to its end Mark the incorrect statements with respect
forming one extremely short and one very to above diagram.
long arm. (a) Outer membrane is more permeable.
(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect (b) Grana are arranged in piles of coins called
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is thylakoids.
incorrect. (c) Stroma contains enzymes for synthesis of
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II carbohydrates only.
is correct (d) Grana is site of light reactions.
(4) Both statement I and II are correct. (e) Lumen of thylakoids contain chlorophyll.
(1) a, d, e (2) b, c, e
165. Which of the following are characteristics of
(3) b, c only (4) c, d only
prokaryotes?
168. First form of life could have come from pre-
(A) Genetic material is naked and not
existing _____i____ and that formation of life
enveloped by a nuclear membrane.
was produced by chemical evolution.
(B) 70S type of ribosome are present only in
prokaryotic cell. OPARIN HALDANE THEORY
(C) Inclusion bodies and mesosomes are Experimental proof

feature of prokaryotes only.
ii
(1) (A) only
(1) (i) – Living organic molecule;
(2) (A) and (B) only
(ii) – S.L. Miller
(3) (A) and (C) only
(2) (i) – Non living organic molecule
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(ii) – S.L. Miller
166. Plasma membrane is selectively permeable. (3) (i) – Cell ; (ii) – Darwin
Involve
(4) (i) – Nucleoprotein
Without
energy energy (ii) - Weismann
A B 169. Statement 1 : Branching descent and natural
Simple Diffusion selection are the two key concepts of
diffusion Eg.-D
of water
Darwinian theory of evolution.
C
Which of the following is correct? Statement 2 : Mutations are random and
directional while Darwinian variations are
(1) A – active transport, C – Facilitated
small and directionless.
(2) B – Active transport,
(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are false
D – Neutral solutes
(2) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
(3) A – Passive transport,
(3) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
C – Na+/K+ pump (4) Both statement 1 and 2 are true
(4) C – Osmosis, D – Na+/K+ pump
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170. You have studied mitosis in onion root tip 174. Which of the following statement is incorrect
cells. It has 16 chromosomes in each cell. Can about the phylum Hemichordata?
you tell how many chromosomes will the cell (1) Hemichordata was earlier considered as
have after S phase and after M-phase
a sub-phylum under phylum Chordata
respectively?
(2) Hemichordates have a rudimentary
(1) 16 and 16 (2) 8 and 16
structure in the trunk region called
(3) 32 and 16 (4) 16 and 8
171. Match the column. stomochord, a structure similar to
Column I Column II notochord

(i) Number of (a) Anaphase I (3) This phylum consists of a small group of
chromosomes worm-like marine animals with organ-
(n) per cell
system level of organisation
(ii) Amount of DNA (b) Metaphase II
content (C) per (4) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
cell 175. Identify the animal with following
(c) Anaphase II characters.
(d) Telophase I
(a) Ventrally located mouth
(1) (i) – a, b, c, d; (ii) – c (b) Gill slits are separate and without
(2) (i) – b, c; (ii) – a, d
operculum (gill cover)
(3) (i) – a, b; (ii) – c, d
(c) Tough skin with minute placoid scales
(4) (i) – a, d, (ii) – b, c
(d) Air bladder is absent
172. Given below are some statements for thyroid
gland. (1) Scoliodon and Pristis
(A) It is H-shaped, largest Endocrine gland. (2) Rana and Chelone
(B) Follicular cells synthesise two hormones, (3) Exocoetus and Clarias
tetraiodothyronine and
(4) Vipera and Corvus
triiodothyronine.
176. Which one of the following animal is not a
(C) Thyroid gland stores its hormone in its
poikilotherm?
inactive state.
(D) Thyroid gland only secrete Thyroid (1) Neophron (2) Hemidactylus
Hormones. (3) Bungarus (4) Salamander
(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D 177. Find the incorrect match from the following -
(3) A, C and D (4) A, B and D (1) Heart failure - Heart not pumping blood
173. How Parathyroid Hormone increases the effectively enough to meet the needs of
Ca2+ levels in the blood. the body
(1) By stimulating the process of Bone
(2) Cardiac arrest - Heart stops beating
resorption.
(3) Angina pectoris - Heart muscle is
(2) By stimulating reabsorption of Ca2+ by
suddenly damaged by an inadequate
the renal tubules.
(3) Increases Ca2+ absorption from the blood supply
digested food. (4) Atherosclerosis - Coronary artery
(4) All of the above. disease
Sample Paper-3
178. Pulmonary circulation is required for:- 181. Assertion : Immunoglobulins are secreted
(1) Nutrient supply to lungs by T-lymphocytes.
(2) Elimination of waste products from the Reason : Each antibody has two heavy and
lungs
four light chain.
(3) Oxygenation of deoxygenated blood
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Nutrient supply to heart
179. Match the following : explanation of A
Column-A Column-B (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(a) Asthma (i) Inflammation of correct explanation of A
bronchi and (3) A is true but R is false
bronchioles (4) Both A and R are false
(b) Emphysema (ii) Chronic disorder in
182. Which of the following is a correct
which alveolar walls
are damaged due to statement?
which respiratory (1) Pills have to be taken for a period of 15
surface is decreased. day starting preferably within the first
(c) Occupational (iii) Long exposure of
five days of menstrual cycle.
Respiratory chemicals can give
Disorders rise to inflammation (2) Surgical methods of contraception have
leading to fibrosis very good reversibility.
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (3) Person belonging to age group of 9-12
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i years are highly vulnerable to sexually
180. Which of the following are correct transmitted infections.
statements?
(4) Pelvic inflammatory diseases, abortions
(i) Ringworm infection is characterised by
dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the and still births are complications of
body such as skin, nails and scalp. untreated sexually transmitted
(ii) Plasmodium initially infects RBC’s and infections.
then infects liver cells. 183. Statement 1 : The embryo with 8 to 16
(iii) Amoebiasis is caused by a protozoan blastomeres is called a morula.
pathogen called Amoeba proteus.
Statement 2 : The blastomeres in the morula
(iv) Wuchereria is an intestinal parasite
are arranged into an outer layer called
causing internal bleeding, muscular
trophoblast and inner group of cells attached
pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the
to trophoblast called Leydig cells.
intestinal passage.
(v) Ringworms are generally acquired from (1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are
soil or by using towels clothes or even the true

comb of infected Individuals. (2) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is
(1) (i) and (ii) false.
(2) (ii) and (iv) (3) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is
(3) (i) and (v) true
(4) (iv) and (v) (4) Both statement 2 are false.
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NEET-UG 2024
184. Given below is the diagrammatic sectional 187. Bidder’s canal present in
view of seminiferous tubule with their parts (1) Female frog – kidney
marked as P, Q, R, and S. Select the option (2) Male frog – kidney
which shows the correct identification of the (3) Male frog – Cloaca
structure with its characteristics. (4) Female frog – Cloaca
188. The cuboidal epithelium is composed of a
single layer of cube like cells found in tubular
P part of nephron. Its function is-
(1) Secretion and absorption
Q (2) Providing strength
R (3) Diffusion of gases
(4) Providing flexibility
S 189. Match Column-I with Column-II.
(1) P : Spermatozoa, secretes testicular Column-I Column-II
hormones that control spermatogenesis. (a) Stomach and (i) Compound
(2) S : Sertoli cells, provide nutrition to the intestine epithelium
germ cells (b) Ducts of (ii) Columnar
glands epithelium
(3) R : Interstitial cells, store and transport
(simple)
the sperms from the testis to the outside
(c) Air sacs of (iii) Cuboidal
through the urethra.
lungs epithelium
(4) Q : Spermatogonium, it is also called male
(simple)
germ cells which undergo meiotic (d) Dry surface (iv) Squamous
division to from spermatozoa of skin epithelium
185. Assertion : Fitness is the end result of the (simple)
ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Reason : Adaptive ability is inherited.
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
reason is correct explanation of assertion
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and
190. Which is applicable to cilia & flagella?
reason is not correct explanation of
a. Core is called axoneme.
assertion.
b. Axoneme has 9 pairs of doublets.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false c. Central tubules are connected by bridges.
statements. d. Emerge from centriole-like structure.
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d
Zoology [Section – B] (3) b and d (4) a, b, c, d
191. _____ is an example where the four daughter
186. Which of the following is not a molecular
diagnosis method ? cells formed by meiosis are equal in size.
(1) ELISA (1) Gametogenesis
(2) Serum Analysis (2) Oogenesis
(3) Recombinant DNA technology (3) Spermatogenesis
(4) PCR (4) All of the above
Sample Paper-3
192. ____and____ are the two key concepts of 197. Statement-1 : Neural signal from
Darwinian theory of evolution. pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration
(1) Convergent evolution; divergent of inspiration.
evolution Statement-2 : The role of oxygen in the
(2) Struggle; survival of fittest regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite
(3) Branching descent; natural selection significant.
(4) Adaptive radiation; natural selection (1) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are
193. Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial while wolf is a correct
placental mammal. This shows (2) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is
incorrect
(1) Convergent evolution
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2
(2) Divergent evolution
is correct
(3) Parallelism
(4) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are
(4) Inheritance of acquired characteristics
incorrect
194. Which of the following hormone show
198. Name the infection and its causative if a
synergistic effect on mammary glands.
patient is prescribed the anti retroviral
(1) Insulin, GH, Oxytocin, Estrogen
therapy?
(2) Estrogen, Progesterone, Prolactin and
(1) Dengue fever – Aedes Ageypti
Oxytocin
(2) Malaria – Anapheles mosquito
(3) Thyroxin, Prolactin and Oxytocin (3) AIDS – HIV
(4) Growth Hormone, Prolactin, Progesterone (4) Cancer – Oncogenic virus
and Estrogen 199. Match list I with list II
195. Radially symmetrical and coelomate animals Column-I Column-II
are examplified by (a) Lactational (i) Sterilisation
(1) Aschelminthes amenorrhea
(2) Echinodermata (b) Cervical caps (ii) IUDs
(3) Mollusca (c) LNG – 20 (iii) Barrier
(4) Ctenophora method
196. Assertion: Human heart is myogenic. (d) Tubectomy (iv) Natural
Reason: Normal activities of heart are method
regulated intrinsically by specialized muscle.
(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are (2) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
true and the reason is a correct (3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
explanation of the assertion. (4) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true 200. How many primary follicles are left in each
but the reason is not a correct ovary at the time of puberty.
explanation of the assertion. (1) 40000 – 50000
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is (2) 60000 – 80000
false. (3) 80000 – 90000
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. (4) 30000 – 35000
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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

CH CH CH3 81. CH3Cl KMnO4

(4) Curcumin (4) Geometric growth rate

every minute, a small test tube is filled up in  dN  K − N 

(3) 59 minutes (4) 15 minutes (1) Environmental resistance

(1) Cell wall (4) influence of individuals over biotic potential

diplotene-30pg (3) B and C (4) only A

141. __________(i) using a prism he split light into its

(1) A- Primary effluent,

(4) A-Mucilaginous sheath : Polysaccharide

(i) _____ lie on the surface of membrane while

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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

60° t are in volt/m, meter and second

OH OH geminal dibromo ethane by using one

The major product which can be isolated

OMe (3) (4)

Reason is the correct explanation of gametophyte

of kingdom protista ? (4) Serine Tyrosine Glutamic Cysteine

136. Which of the following gives the correct

Strained through cheese cloth Rapid cell

ducts, open into the cloaca. (c) DCT (iii 70-80% of

thigh bone articulates. our system.

161. (I) Henle’s loop and vasa recta play a 164.

significant role in concentrating urine. Human Neural System

(II) Blood flow in two limbs of Henle’s loop

(IV) Counter current mechanism help’s in CNS (A) CNS (B)

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28. A 15 g mass of nitrogen gas is enclosed in V=0

P (1) 12 r2T (2) r2T

the end product C is : CH3

(a) It is observed at early stage of zygotic

(A) (B) (C)

(A) (B) (C)

(C) Inclusion bodies and mesosomes are Experimental proof

Column I Column II notochord

soil or by using towels clothes or even the true

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Candidate’s Signature : _ Invigilator’s Signature : __