(Answer) WBCS (Prelims) Mock Test-17

WBCS 2023 (Preliminary) Examination
Offline Mock Test-17
: English Grammar:
Q.1) In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part
of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error,
select „No error‟.
If you had (1)/ told me earlier (2)/ I will help you. (3)/ No Error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is C
 The subordinate clause of the sentence: "If you had told me" is in the past perfect tense
(subject + had + third form verb).To maintain the uniformity of the sentence the main
clause will have the structure as "would have + past participle". Hence, the main clause
will take the verb phrase as:- "would have helped".
 The given sentence is a third conditional sentence.
 A third conditional sentence is used to imagine a different past that did not happen.
select „No error‟.
Her mother is (1)/ angry and (2)/ indifferent to me. (3)/ No Error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B
 'angry with' should be used in place of 'angry'
 If two verbs/ adjectives etc take two different prepositions, we must mention both the
prepositions, we cannot simply use one preposition with the last verb/ adjective.
 Examples:
o She is conscious of and engaged in her work.
o I was surprised at as well as pleased with her performance.
o She is younger and taller than her brother. (Single 'same' preposition is used with
both the adjectives, it is used only one)
Thus, the correct sentence is: Her mother is angry with and indifferent to me.
Q.3) In the following question, the sentence is given with blank to be filled in with an
appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the
appropriate option.
Don‟t loiter _____ the corridor.
A. around
B. off
C. of
D. at
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: To „loiter around‟ means to linger about aimlessly in a place. „Loiter‟ is followed
by four prepositions, each having a slightly different meaning to it. „Loiter on‟ means to move in a
slow idle manner. „Loiter over‟ means to waste time over work. „Loiter away‟ means to waste time
aimlessly.
Q.4) In the following question, the sentence is given with blank to be filled in with an
appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the
appropriate option.
I will scold him when _____.
A. he will come
B. he comes
C. he would come
D. he had come.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This sentence is an example of the first conditional sentence that talks about possible
future events and their likely results. First conditional sentences follow the blueprint of a „conditional
clause‟ + the „main clause‟ where the conditional clause is in simple present tense, while the main
clause is in simple future. Thus, the sentence must be: I will scold him when he comes.
Q.5) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to
the word given.
Mellifluous
A. Shiver
B. Frank
C. Immoral
D. Dulcet
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: „Mellifluous‟ is an adjective that describes a sound as pleasing to the ear. „Dulcet‟
is an adjective that describes something as sweet-sounding.
„To shiver‟ is to tremble in fear, excitement or out of cold. „Immoral‟ refers to something unethical.
„Frank; means direct and straightforward. Therefore, „dulcet‟ is closest in meaning to „mellifluous‟.
Q.6) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to
the word given.
Dodge
A. Soften
B. Order
C. Avoid
D. Chaotic
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: To „dodge‟ means to steer clear of something, or to avoid something by sudden
movement.
„Soften‟ means to make something softer.
„Order‟ is a state where everything is in place.
„Chaotic‟ is used to describe something that is in a state of complete confusion.
Thus, „avoid‟ is closest in meaning to „dodge‟.
Q.7) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning
to the word given.
Meretricious
A. Brazen
B. Natural
C. Exemplary
D. Gaudy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Meretricious describes something to be apparently attractive but having no real value.
In other words, it means pretentious. The word most opposite in meaning to „meretricious‟ is therefore
„natural‟.
to the word given.
Nebulous
A. Definite
B. Inchoate
C. Dismal
D. Sullen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: „Nebulous‟ means „indistinct‟ or „unclear‟. Its antonym must be „definite‟ which means
„clear‟.
Q.9) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
Spick and Span
A. High and low
B. Dark and light
C. Neat and clean
D. Happy and sad
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: „Spick and span‟ means „neat and tidy‟.
Example: He is always cleaning because he likes his place to be spick and span
expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
To draw the longbow
A. To nullify
B. To exaggerate
C. To underrate
D. To demarcate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: „To draw the longbow‟ is to exaggerate something or to overstate something. Example:
Every time he speaks of his achievements, it seems as if he is drawing the longbow.
Q.11) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

By rescuing the child from the fire, the local resident (added another feather to his cap).
A. did not make a significant achievement
B. was gifted with precious thing
C. was crowned and rewarded
D. No improvement
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Since the sentence is correct, no improvement is required.

The government plans to (take up) the construction project soon.
A. Take on
B. Take off
C. Take in
D. No improvement
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Here the correct answer is No improvement.
 To „take something up‟ means to become interested or engaged in a work or a pursuit.

o For Example - She took up tennis at the age of 11.
 The phrase fits perfectly in the sentence and thus requires no improvement.
Therefore, the correct sentence is The government plans to take up the construction project soon.
Q.13) Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of
words/phrases.
A man devoid of kind feeling and sympathy.
A. Callous
B. Credulous
C. Gullible
D. Bohemian
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is callous
 „Callous‟ is someone cruel and unsympathetic.
 „Credulous‟ is to easily believe in things.
 „Gullible‟ is someone who is easily persuaded.
 „Bohemian‟ refers to a socially unconventional person (normally involved in arts).
Q.14) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the
best substitute of the phrase.
One who eats too much
A. Impostor
B. Glutton
C. Hypochondriac
D. Intestate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: „Imposter‟ is a person who pretends to be someone else. „Glutton‟ is an excessively
greedy eater. „Hypochondriac‟ is a person who is abnormally conscious about their health. „Intestate‟
is a person who died without having a will made.
Q.15) In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.
Find the incorrectly spelt word.
A. Forfeit
B. Gorilla
C. Blissfull
D. Corrupt
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'Blissful‟ is the correct spelling.
Find the incorrectly spelt word.
A. Afforestation
B. Translusent
C. Foreigner
D. Achievement
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: „Translucent‟ is the correct spelling.
Q.17) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active
voice.
She teaches us English.
A. English is being taught to us by her.
B. We are taught English by her.
C. English have been taught to us by her.
D. We had been taught English by her.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In the sentence „she teaches us English‟, „she‟ is the subject who is performing an
action while „us‟ is the object on which the action is being performed. Thus, in the passive form, the
sentence must be 'We are taught English by her'.
Q.18) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the
four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in
Indirect/Direct speech.
Nisha said to Swati, " Will you help me in my project just now?"
A. Nisha told Swati whether she will help her in her project just now
B. Nisha asked Swati if she would help her in her project just then.
C. Nisha questioned to Swati that will you help me in my project just now.
D. Nisha asked to Swati that will she help her in her work just now.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is- Nisha asked Swati if she would help her in her project just
then.
 Let's look at the steps to change the sentence from direct to indirect speech:
 The tense of direct speech is changed only when the reporting verb is in the past tense.
 When the direct speech is in an interrogative form, we follow the steps given below:
o The reporting verb said to is converted into asked.
o Connectors 'whether' or 'if' are used in place of comma and inverted commas.
o Change the reported speech from interrogative to assertive.
o The personal pronouns will be changed according to the subject and object of
the reporting verb.
o Here the 2nd person 'you' will change into the 3rd person 'she' as per the object.
o Similarly 'my' is converted into 'her'.
o The auxiliary verb (will) in direct speech changes to (would).
o Words showing time and place are changed accordingly. (now- then)
 At last line up the remaining part.
Following these steps, we finally get- Nisha asked Swati if she would help her in her project
just then.
Q.19) In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate
word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate
option.
My father did not approve ______ the plan of travelling to Uttarakhand because of bad weather
there.
A. of
B. one
C. to
D. with
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: „approve of‟ means „give consent or assent to something‟. Therefore, it fits the context
of the sentence in not giving consent to the plan of travelling to Uttarakhand.
select 'No Error'.
Organic pulses are so popular today (1)/ that many people wonder (2)/ how they have ever lived
without them. (3)/ No Error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is option C.
 Since the sentence is talking about '...popular today...' and the second part of the sentence also
talks about people comparing with their past pattern of not having organic pulses, the
word have doesn't agree with lived
 We have to compare two ways of life in the past and present
Thus the correct sentence is: Organic pulses are so popular today that many people wonder how
they ever lived without them.

When I first saw Ankit, he (was playing) cricket.
A. had played
B. had been playing
C. played
D. No improvement
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The sentence is correct as it follows all the rules of tenses and maintains the structure
properly. The action of playing cricket was done when he saw Ankit, i.e., they were going on
simultaneously.
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To steal a march
A. To act in a foolish way
B. To break something
C. To outshine
D. To see a hidden meaning
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: „To steal a march‟ means to gain an advantage unexpectedly or secretly. From the
given options, „to outshine‟ is the closest in meaning and therefore, the correct answer.
An example sentence is: „The local retail store stole a march on the big brands during the sale time‟.
to the word given.
Intrepid
A. Greed
B. Kind
C. Meek
D. Sigh
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is- 'Meek.'
 Let's understand the meaning of the given word:
o Intrepid means fearless and adventurous. means quiet and easily scared.
o Example: Three intrepid explorers head out into the unknown.
 By the meaning and example, we can say that 'Meek' is the opposite word for 'Intrepid.'
Hence option 3 is the correct answer.
Select the incorrectly spelt word.
A. Alluminium
B. Cemetery
C. Recommend
D. Satellite
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: „Alluminium‟ is the incorrectly spelt word. The correct spelling is „aluminium‟,
meaning a metal.
Q.25) to prevent infections and diseases is _____.

A. optional
B. secondary
C. voluntary
D. imperative
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Imperative means necessary or vitally important. The passage says that children should
be taught that taking precautionary measures is vitally important to prevent infections and diseases.
The other options have an opposite meaning and are incorrect.
Q.26) Excretory products of mammalian embryo are eliminated out by

A. placenta
B. amniotic fluid
C. allantois
D. ureter
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The placenta is an organ that connects the developing fetus to the uterine wall to allow
nutrient uptake, waste elimination, and gas exchange via the mother's blood supply.
Q.27) A pungent smell often present near the urinals is due to-
(a) Sulphur-di-oxide
(b) Chlorine
(c) Ammonia
(d) Urea
Correct Answer: C
Solution: Urine odour is caused by the presence of Ammonia. Urine is an aqueous solution of greater
than 95% water.
Q.28) Which article can be used by the President of India to declare financial emergency?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 349
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 365
Correct Answer: C
Solution: Article 360 can be used by the President of India to declare financial emergency.
Q.29) Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of soaps?

(a) Vegetable oil
(b) Mobil oil
(c) Kerosene oil
(d) Cutting oil
Correct Answer: A
Solution: Soap is a combination of animal fat or plant oil and caustic soda. Many vegetable fats
including olive oil, palm kernel oil and coconut oil are also used in soap making
Q.30) _______________means cases that can be directly considered by the Supreme Court
without going to the lower courts before that.
(a) Original Jurisdiction
(b) Writ Jurisdiction
(c) Appellate Jurisdiction
(d) Advisory Jurisdiction
Correct Answer: A
Solution: Original Jurisdiction means cases that can be directly considered by the Supreme Court
without going to the lower courts before that.
Q.31) Which of the following was the first book published in India by Portuguese?
[A] Jesuit of Goa
[B] Jesus of Pondicherry
[C] The Christian Monarch
[D] The Scheme of William Bolts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Portuguese were the first Europeans, who brought a printing press to India and
thefirst book published in India was by the Jesuit of Goa in 1557 AD. Hence, A is the correct
option.
Q.32) The impact of the Green Revolution was felt most in production of
[A] Rice
[B] Pulses
[C] Oilseeds
[D] Wheat
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The introduction of high yielding varieties of seeds and the increased use of
chemical fertilizers and irrigation are known collectively as the Green Revolution. The impact of
the Green Revolution was felt most in the production of wheat. India saw annual wheat production
rise from 10 million tons in the 1960s to 73 million in 2006.
Which of the following is NOT one of the main functions of the Reserve Bank of
India?
[A] Formulating policies to facilitate external trade and payments
[B] Supervising the entire tax system
[C] Maintaining accounts of central and state governments
[D] Regulating Payment Systems
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: TAX system is controlled and supervised by the central and state governments
Q.33) Kelvin is the unit of

A. length
B. temperature
C. Time
D. mass
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The kelvin is the SI unit of thermodynamic temperature, and one of the seven SI base
units. Unusually in the SI, we also define another unit of temperature, called the degree
Celsius (°C). Temperature in degrees Celsius is obtained by subtracting 273.15 from the numerical
value of the temperature expressed in kelvin.
Q.34) Many times we read in newspapers that the RBI has revised certain Rates-Ratios
underLAF. What is the full form of LAF?
[A] Liquidity Adjustment Facility
[B] Legal Adjustment Facility
[C] Longterm Achievement Facility
[D] Legal Adjustment Facility
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is a tool used in Monetary Policy, primarily by
theRBI, that allows banks to borrow money through repurchase agreements (repos) Of for banks to
makeloans to the RBI through reverse repo agreements.
Q.35) Who gave the slogan "Inquilab zindabad" to the nation ?

[A] Chandra sekhar Azad
[B] Bhagat singh
[C] Subhash chandra bose
[D] Lala lajpat roy
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: This slogan was coined by the Urdu poet, Indian freedom fighter and a leader of the
Indian National Congress Maulana Hasrat Mohani in 1921. It was popularized by Bhagat
Singh (1907–1931) during the late 1920s through his speeches and writings.
Q.36) RBI Act has been amended by which act to provide 4 Monetary Policy
Committee forthe maintenance of price stability?
[A] Finance Act, 2016
[B] Finance Act, 2001
[C] Financial Policy Act, 2016
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 has been amended by Finance Act, 2016 to
provide an institutionalised and statutory framework for price stability through the monetary policy
committee.
Q.37) What kind of Tax is GST?

[A] Direct Tax
[B] Indirect Tax
[C] Depends on the type of goods and service
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Goods and Services Tax (GST) is the biggest Indirect tax reform of India, GST is
a single tax on the supply of goods and services. It 1s a destination based tax. GST subsurned
CentralExcise Law, Service Tax Law, VAT, Entry Tax, Octroi, etc.
Q.38) A body suffering from external deforming force develops an internal opposing force. In
this case, stress is
A. magnitude of the internal restoring forces per unit area of the section.
B. magnitude of the external forces per unit area of the section
C. direction of the internal forces at each unit area of the section
D. direction of the external forces at each unit area of the section.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In physics, elasticity is a physical property of materials which return to their original
shape after the stress that caused their deformation is no longer applied. For very small deformations,
most elastic materials, such as springs, exhibit linear elasticity. This means that they are characterised
by a linear relationship between stress and strain (the relative amount of deformation). To describe
elastic properties of linear objects like wires, rods or columns which are stretched or compressed, a
convenient: parameter is the ratio of the strain, a parameter is the ratio of the stress to the strain called
the „Young‟s modulus‟ or „Modulus of Elasticity' of the material.
Q.39) Who was the organizer of revolt of 1857 in Bihar?

[A] Bahadur Shah
[B] Nana Sahib
[C] Maulvi Ahmadullah
[D] Kunwar Singh
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Singh led the Indian Rebellion of 1857 in Bihar. At the age of 80, he led a select
bandof armed soldiers against the troops under the command of the British East India Company.
He was the chief organizer of the fight against the British in Bihar. He is popularly known as
Veer Kunwar Singh.
Q.40) The Sunauli Border is a well-known transit point between India and
[A] Myanmar
[B] Nepal
[C] Pakistan
[D] Bhutan
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Sunauli Border is a well-known transit point between India and Nepal. It is a
townarea in Maharajganj district Uttar Pradesh.
Q.41) The period of plan holiday in India was

[A] 1962-65
[B] 1966-69
[C] 1970-73
[D] 1973-76
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Due to miserable failure of 3rd Plan the Government was forced to declare plan holidays
(from 1966-67, 1967-68, 1968-69) the target growth rate was 5.6% but the actual was 2.4%
Q.42) In which of the following cases of motions, the distance moved and the magnitude of
displacement are equal?
A. If the car is moving on straight road
B. If the car is moving in circular path
C. The pendulum is moving to and fro
D. The Earth is revolving around the Sun
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The distance moved and magnitude of displacement are equal only in the case of
motion along a straight line. Because displacement is the shortest path between initial and find path.
So, for car moving on straight road, distance moved and magnitude of displacement are equal.
Q.43) Which state has proposed to set up the first "Blockchain District' in India?
[A] Gujarat
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Telangana
[D] Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Telangana has proposed to set up the first "Blockchain District" in India
Q.44) Who gave the slogan "Dams are the temples of modern india"?
[A] K L Rao
[B] Dr.A P J Kalam
[C] Jawaharlal Nehru
[D] Sardar Vallabhai patel
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: "Dams are the temples of modern India" is one of the famous quotes of
JawaharlalNehru.
Q.45) Which is the coldest place in India?

[A] Amarnath
[B] Drasis
[C] Leh
[D] Srinagar
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The village of Drasis located in the Kargil district of Jammu and Kashmir. It is
India'scoldest inhabited place, Temperatures here drop to aslowas -22?C. Dras is often called the
'Gatewayto Ladakh'
Q.46) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] Hector Munro - Battle of Buxar
[B] Lord Hastings - Anglo-Nepal War
[C] Lord Wellesley - Fourth Anglo-Myoore war
[D] Lord Cornwallis - Third Anglo - Maratha war
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The Third Anglo-Maratha War was the final and decisive conflict between the
British East India Company and the Maratha Empire in India. The war left the Company in
controlof most of India. It began with an invasion of Maratha territory by British East India
Company troops, and although the British were outnumbered, the Maratha army was decimated.
The troops were led by Governor General Hastings, supported by a force under General Thomas
Hislop.
Operations began against the Pindaris, a band of Muslim mercenaries and Marathas from central
India.
Q.47) Chhattisgarh does NOT share its boundary with:

[A] West Bengal
[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] Madhya Pradesh
[D] Telangana
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The border of Chhattisgarh is shared by Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Telangana,
Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. West Bengal doesn't share any border with Chhattisgarh.
Q.48) British Crown assumed sovereignty over Indian from the East Indian Company in the
year
[A] 1857
[B] 1858
[C] 1859
[D] 1860
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The government of India Act (1858) also known as the act for Good Government of
India transferred the power to the British crown from East India company.
Q.49) A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200 m on a levelled
road. The work done against the gravitational force will be (g = 10ms-2)
A. 6X103 J
B. 6J
C. 0.6 J
D. zero
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The work done against gravity is zero as she is moving forward not upward so she
overcomes the frictional force not the gravitational force.
Normal work done is 6000j but work against gravity is zero.
Q.50) Who was the first Governor General of India?

[A] Warren Hastings
[B] William Bentick
[C] Lord Delhousie
[D] Lord Canning
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Warren Hastings (6 December 1732 – 22 August 1818), an English statesman, was
the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of
Bengal, and thereby the first de facto Governor-General of India from 1773 to 1785. The first
governor-general in India (of Bengal) was Warren Hastings, the first official governor-general of
British India was Lord William Bentinck, and the first governor-general of the Dominion of India
wasLord Mountbatten.
Q.51) When was the constitution of Pakistan enforced?

[A] 1973
[B] 1947
[C] 1965
[D] 1952
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: After nine years of efforts, Pakistan was successful in framing a constitution. The
Constituent Assembly adopted it on 29 February 1956, and it was enforced on 23 March 1956,
proclaiming Pakistan to be an Islamic republic. The 3rd Constitution of Pakistan was enforced on
23rd March 1973.
Q.52) The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was
[A] Railways
[B] Plantations and mines
[C] Banking and insurance
[D] Shipping
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was Railways
Q.53) In which state is Sambhar, the largest inland salt water lake of India located?
[A] Maharashtra
[B] Odisha
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Rajasthan
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sambhar Salt Lake of Rajasthan is the largest inland salt lake of India and an
extensive saline wetland. The Sambhar lake is India‟s largest saline lake and designated as a
Ramsar site due to thousands of pink flamingos and waterfowl birds.
Q.54) The Treaty of Sigauli rook place in the year

[A] 1800A.D.
[B] 1803 A.D.
[C] 1805A.D.
[D] 1816A.D.
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Treaty of Sagauli, (March 4, 1816), agreement between the Gurkha chiefs of
Nepaland the British Indian government that ended the Anglo-Nepalese (Gurkha) War (1814–
16).
Q.55) In which state is Sasthamcotta Lake located?

[A] Tamil Nadu
[B] Telangana
[C] Kerala
[D] Karnataka
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sasthamkotta or Sasthamcotta is a village in the Kunnathoor Tehsil of Kollam
districtin the state of Kerala, India. Kunnathoor taluk headquarters is located at Sasthamkotta.
Sasthamkotta freshwater lake is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala. The lake is named after the
ancient Sastha temple located on its banks.
Q.56) Which of the Act made the governor General of Bengal as Governor General of India?
[A] Pitt's India Act, AD 1784
[B] The charter Act, 1833 AD
[C] Charter Act, 1793 AD
[D] The Regulating Act, AD 1773
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Until 1833, the title of the position was "governor-general of the Presidency of
Fort William in Bengal". The Government of India Act 1833 converted the title into "governor-
general ofIndia", effective from 22 April 1834.
Q.57) As we go from equator to North pole, the value of g, the acceleration due to gravity
A. remains the same
B. decreases
C. increases
D. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The acceleration due to gravity of Earth is the rate of increases of velocity of a body
falling freely towards the Earth. At a given place, the value of acceleration due to gravity is constant
but it varies from one place to another place on the Earth surface. It is due to this fact that Earth is not
a perfect sphere. It is flattened at the poles and bulges out at the equator. The value of g is minimum at
the equator and maximum at the poles.
Q.58) Who was the first Governor General of Bengal?

[A] Robert Clive
[B] William Bentinck
[C] Warren Hasting
[D] Col. Sanders
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Warren Hastings is the first British Governor General of Bengal. He took the charge
asa Governor General on 20th October,1773.
Q.59) Which of the following institutions is/are responsible for the supervision of RRBs?
[A] RBI
[B] SEBI
[C] NABARD
[D] Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: NABARD has been sharing with the Reserve Bank of India certain
supervisoryfunctions in respect of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Cooperative Banks.
Q.60) Indira Sagar Dam which is a concrete gravity dam is located in which of the
following states ofIndia?
[A] Uttar Pradesh
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Chattisgarh
[D] Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Indira sagar dam built on the Narmada river with a height of 92m. is concrete
gravity dam, located in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh. The Indira sagar project was the key
project onNarmada river providing an excellent storage site of water.
Q.61) Anglo-Nepal war took place during the reign of

[A] Lord Cornwall is
[B] Lord Hastings
[C] Lord Wellesley
[D] Lord Bentik
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The war was fought between 1st November 1814 to 4th March 1816...... The war
began with the capture of Butwal and Sheoraj by the Gurkhas during the tenure of Marquess
of Hastings (1813-23) and it ended with the signing of the Sugauli Treaty in 1816, which gave
awaysome Nepalese held territories to the East India Company.
Q.62) Which of the following about money supply measures adopted in 1998 is wrong?
[A] M1= currency with public +demand deposits with banking system + other deposits with
RBI
[B] M2= M1 + savings deposits of post office savings bank
[C] M3= M1+ time deposits with banking system
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: M4= M3+ all deposits with post office savings banks excluding National
Savings Certificate
Q.63) The laws of reflection hold good for,

[A] plane mirror only
[B] concave mirror only
[C] convex mirror only
[D] all mirrors irrespective of their shapes
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The laws of reflection hold good for all reflecting surfaces irrespective of their
shapes whether plane or curved.
Q.64) The effect of inflation on tax revenue results in a situation known as?
[A] Stagflation
[B] Fiscal drag
[C] Reflation
[D] Disinflation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fiscal dragis the tedency of revenue from taxation to rise as a share of GDPin a
growing economy. Fiscal dragmay happen due to inflation or fiscal policies of the government.
Fiscaldrag is normally associated with progressive tax rates.
Q.65). The first Viceroy of India was

[A] Lord Canning
[B] Lord Hardinge
[C] Lord Dalhousie
[D] Lord Elgin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India. The title of Viceroy was created in
1858after the mutiny of 1857. Before 1858, East India Company was ruling large parts of India
and the head of administration of the East India Company was called Governor General.
Q.66) Net National Product (NNP) of a country is

[A] GDP minus Depreciation Allowances
[B] GDP plus Net Income from abroad
[C] GNP minus Net Income from abroad
[D] GNP minus Depreciation Allowances
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Net National Product (NNP) of a country is GNP minus Depreciation Allowances.
NNP is actual addition to year‟s wealth. While calculating GNP, we ignore depreciation of assets
but in reality the process of production uses up the fixed assets or there is some wear and tear or
fixed assets by process of depreciation. In order to arrive at NNP we deduct depreciation from
GNP.
Q.67) Due to which phenomena sound is heard at longer distances in nights than in day?
[A] Reflection
[B] Refraction
[C] Interference of sound
[D] Diffraction of sound
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Due to refraction, sound is heard at longer distances in nights than in day.
Q.68) In which region did Birsa Munda operate against the British?
[A] Punjab
[B] Chhota Nagpur
[C] Tarai
[D] Manipur
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Birsa Munda was a great tribal leader belonging to the Munda Adivasi, the movement
operate against British in Chhota Nagpur (Jharkhand) region.
Q.69) Any body having, mobile free electrons to conduct electricity is called
[A] charged body
[B] conductors
[C] insulators
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Materials with high electron mobility (many free electrons) are called
conductors, while materials with low electron mobility (few or no free electrons) are called
insulators. Here area few common examples of conductors and insulators: Conductors. silver.
Q.70) Which of the following states has one of the richest monazite deposits in India?
[A] Kerala
[B] Gujarat
[C] Jharkhand
[D] Rajasthan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kerala has one of the richest monazite deposits in India.
Q.71) Which of the following Harappan towns is divided into three parts ?
[A] Kalibanga
[B] Lothal
[C] Chanhudaro
[D] Dholavira
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The Dholavira is the largest Indus Valley Site in independent India. It is located
on Khadir Beyt, an island in the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.It has been excavated by R S
Bisht team of ASI. It had three citadels. Each of these three citadels of Dholavira was
improved than Harappa and Mohen-jo-Daro and had an inner closure as well.
Q.72) Import substitution means which of these?

[A] Gradual reduction of imported goods to save foreign exchange
[B] Importing new items in terms of old items of import
[C] Replacing import items by domestic production of such items
[D] Increasing domestic supply of goods by imposing Import restrictions
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Import Substitution is a trade and economic policy which advocates replacing foreign
imports with domestic production, Import substitution is based on the premise that “country should
attempt to reduce its foreign dependency through the local production of industrialized products
Q.73) The strongest force in nature is

[A] electrical force
[B] gravitational force
[C] nuclear force
[D] magnetic force
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The nuclear force (or nucleon-nucleon interaction or residual strong force) is the
force between two or more nucleons. It is responsible for binding of protons and neutrons into
atomic nuclei. The energy released causes the masses of nuclei to be less than the total mass of the
protons and neutrons which form them; this is the energy used in nuclear power and nuclear
weapons. The force is powerfully attractive between nucleons at distances of about 1 femtometre
(fm) between their centres, but rapidly decreases to insignificance at distances beyond about 2.5
fm.
Q.74) The Governor of Madras presidency at the time of Vellore sepoy mutiny was?
[A] Wellesley
[B] Lord Minto
[C] Lord Cornwallis
[D] William Bentinck.
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The Governor of Madras presidency at the time of Vellore sepoy mutiny was
WilliamBentinck. He was also the first governor-general of British India.
Q.75) The Jharia and Chandrapura coal fields are located in the state of .
[A] Jharkhand
[B] Uttarakhand
[C] Nagaland
[D] Gujarat
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Jharia and Chandrapura coalfields are located in the state of Jharkhand.
Q.76) After the year 1853, a substantial amount of British capital had been invested in
[A] Tea Plantations
[B] The Railways
[C] Coal Mining
[D] Jute Mills
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After the year 1853, a substantial amount of British capital had been invested in the
railways.
Q.77) The vinegar is a solution of

[A] 5% acetic acid in water
[B] 25% acetic acid in water
[C] 50% acetic acid in water
[D] 40% acetic acid in water
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Vinegar is an aqueous solution of acetic acid and trace chemicals that may include
flavorings. Vinegar typically contains 5–8% acetic acid by volume. Usually the acetic acid is
produced by the fermentation of ethanol or sugars by acetic acid bacteria. There are many
types of vinegar, depending on source materials.
Q.78) Pin Valley National Park is situated in :

[A] Andhra Pradesh
[B] Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Himachal Pradesh
[D] Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pin Valley National Park is a National park of India located within the Lahaul and
Spitidistrict, in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
Q.79) Who was the priest of the Bharatas in the battle of Ten Kings ?
[A] Visvamitra
[B] Vasishtha
[C] Atri
[D] Bhrigu
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The battle of ten kings was fought between Sudas, a Bharata king of the Tritsu
familyand the confederacy of ten well-known tribes- Puru, Yadu, Turvasa, Anu, Druhyu, Alina,
Paktha
,Bhalanas,Shiva and Vishanin. In the bloody and decisive battle on the banks of River Purushni,
theBharatas emerged victorious. The reason behind the war is the rivalry between Vishwamitra
and Vasishtha.
Q.80) Indian Mutiny began in

[A] 1557
[B] 1657
[C] 1857
[D] 1957
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Indian Rebellion of 1857 is also called the Indian Mutiny, the Sepoy Mutiny, North
India's First War of Independence or North India's first struggle for independence. It began on 10 May
1857 at Meerut, as a mutiny of sepoys of the British East India Company's army.
Q.81) Dugong is a main animal of which biosphere reserve ?

[A] Simlipal
[B] Bay of Mannar
[C] Manas
[D] Great Rann of Kutch
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Dugong is a vulnerable marine mammal, which is a flagship mammal of the
biosphere reserve. However, Gulf of Mannar is an important habitat for the Cetaceans:
Indo-Pacific bottlenose dolphin, Finless porpoise, Spinner dolphin, Common dolphin,
Risso's dolphin, Melon-headed whale, and Dwarf sperm whale.
Q.82) Shivaji's Agra Adventure was planned by

[A] Afzal Khan
[B] Shayista Khan
[C] Jai Singh
[D] Mir Jumla
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Jai Singh advised Shivaji to proceed to Agra and meet the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb
to ratify the treaty. Jai Singh assured Shivaji that he would not be harmed during his journey to and
stay at Agra. Shivaji saw the truce as an opportunity for respite and to consolidate his strength
Q.83) Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution provides for the appointment
of aFinance Commission?
[A] Article 300
[B] Article 290
[C] Article 320
[D] Article 280
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Article 280 of Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of a Finance
Commission. It is constituted by the President. its recommendationson distribution of tax
revenuesbetween the Union and the States andamongst the States themselves
Q.84) Which of the following properties is generally not shown by metals?

[A] Electrical conduction
[B] Sonorous in nature
[C] Dullness
[D] Ductility
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Metals have shiny appearance and not dull. Thus property of dullness is not shown
bymetals.
Q.85) Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is associated with the
electionof the President of India?
[A] Article 103
[B] Article 78
[C] Article 74
[D] Article 54
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Article 54:It states that the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of
theelected members of both Houses of Parliament and of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
Article 103 : It deals with the decision on question as to disqualification of the member
Article 78 : T o communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to
the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation
Article 74: t here shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and
advisethe President in the exercise of his functions".
Q.86) The British Governor General and Viceroy who served for the longest period in India was
[A] Lord Irwin
[B] Lord Dalhousie
[C] Lord Curzon
[D] Lord Linlithgow
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The British Governor General and Viceroy who served for the longest period in
India was Lord Dalhousie.
Q.87) Non-metals are generally bad Conductor of electricity. Which of the following is a
goodconductor of electricity?
[A] Diamond
[B] Graphite
[C] sulphur
[D] Fullerene
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Graphite is a non-metal and it is the only non-metal that can conduct electricity.
You can find non-metals on the right side of the periodic table and graphite is the only non-metal
that is a good conductor of electricity.
Q.88) Kishtwar National Park is located in :

[A] Jharkhand
[B] Jammu and Kashmir
[C] Himachal Pradesh
[D] Uttrakhand
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Kishtwar National Park is located in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir,
India. It is bounded to the north by Rinnay river, south by Kibar Nala catchment, east by main
divideof Great Himalaya and west by Marwa river.
Q.89) Which of the following rivers was known as “Drishdvati” in Vedic Era?
A. Ravi
B. Chenab
C. Jhelum
D. Ghagghar
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: A number of archaeologists and geologists have identified the Sarasvati river with the
present-day Ghaggar-Hakra River, or the dried up part of it, despite the fact that it had already dried-
up and become a small seasonal river before Vedic time.
Q.90) On the bank of which river, Mahavira attained Kaivalaya?

A. Niranjana
B. Rijupalika
C. Yamuna
D. Jamuna
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:At the age of 42, Mahavira attained Kaivalaya under a Sal tree on the bank of river R
ijupalika near Jrimbhikgrama in Modern Bihar.
Q.91) Consider the following statements about Climate in India:

1. Area north of the Tropic of Cancer being away from the equator experiences extreme climate
2. Such areas experience low daily and annual range of temperature.
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Tropic of Cancer passes through the central part of India in east-west direction.
Thus, northern part of the India lies in sub-tropical and temperate zone and the part lying south of
the Tropic of Cancer falls in the tropical zone. The tropical zone being nearer to the equator,
experiences high temperatures throughout the year with small daily and annual range Area north of
the Tropic of Cancer being away from the equator, experiences extreme climate with high daily
and annual range oftemperature
Q.92) The British India Society was formed in

[A] 1832
[B] 1833
[C] 1839
[D] 1874
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The British India Society (1839): Founded in London with the efforts of William Adam,
one of the friends of Raja Ram Mohan Roy. He along with George Thompson, William Ednis, and
Major General Briggs organised meetings and enlightened people about the miserable conditions in
India.
Q.93) The main river flowing in the state of Jammu and Kashmir is
[A] Jhelum
[B] Indus
[C] Chenab
[D] Nubra
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The main river flowing in the state of Jammu and Kashmir is Jhelum. The Jhelum River
is the only major Himalayan river which flows through the Kashmir valley. The Indus, Tawi, Ravi
and Chenab are the other major rivers flowing through the state
Q.94) Which of the following is not a cyclic compound?

[A] Anthracene
[B] Pyrrole
[C] Phenol
[D] Neo-pentane
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The organic compounds are very large in number on account of the self linking
property of carbon called catenation. These compounds have been further classified as open chain
andcyclic compounds.
Q.95) When the East India Company was formed, the Mughal emperor in India was
[A] Jahangir
[B] Humayun
[C] Aurangzeb
[D] Akbar
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The East India Company was incorporated by royal charter on December 31, 1600.
It was an English company formed for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and
India during the reign of Mughal Emperor Akbar (1556-1605).
Q.96) Choose the correct answer with respect to Directive Principles of State Policy
[A] They are non-enforceable in courts of law
[B] They are quasi-enforceable
[C] They are partly non-enforceable
[D] They enforceable in courts of law
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to central & state government
ofIndia, to be kept in mind while framing laws & policies. These provisions, contained in Parts IV
of Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court, but principles laid down therein are
consideredfundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply
these principles in making laws.
Q.97) The octet rule is not valid for which one of the following molecules?
[A] CO2
[B] H2S
[C] NH3
[D] BF3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: According to octet rule an atom whose outermost shell contains 8 electrons (octet),
is stables. This rule, however, does not hold good in case of certain small atoms like helium (He)
in which presence of 2 electrons (duplet) in the outermost shell is considered to be the condition of
stability. Atoms combine with one another to achieve the inert gas electron arrangement and
becomestable. An atom can achieve the inert gas electron arrangement in three ways
(i) by losing one or more electrons
(ii) by gaining one or more electrons
(iii) by sharing one or more electrons
In case of BF3, electronic configuration of B is 2, 3. After sharing 3 electrons with three F atoms,
ithas 6 electrons, and not 8 electrons. Hence, it does not achieve inert gas electronic
arrangement.
Therefore, octet rule is not valid for BF3 molecule.
Q.98) Mosses, Lichens and small shrubs are found in which type of vegetation?
[A] Mangrove
[B] Tundra
[C] Tropical Evergreen Forest
[D] Coral Reefs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Only mosses, lichens and very small shrubs are found in the polar regions, and this
typeof vegetation is called Tundra.
Q.99) In which year, Vardhamana Mahavira was born?

[A] 563 BC
[B] 540 BC
[C] 533 BC
[D] 560 BC
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Vardhamana Mahavira was born in 540 BC at Kundaligrama, now in Bihar.
Q.100) Which of the following states is the biggest Jute producer in India?
[A] West Bengal
[B] Nagaland
[C] Karnataka
[D] Rajasthan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: West Bengal is thelargest producer of Jute in India, followed by Bihar, Assam
andAndhra Pradesh.
Q.101) Akbar launched Din-i-llahi in the year

[A] 1570
[B] 1578
[C] 1581
[D] 1582
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Din-i-llahi was a syncretic religion propounded by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1582
AD, intending to merge some of the elements of the religions of his empire and reconcile tolerance of
faith and he also encouraged debate on philosophical and religious issues. This led to creation of
Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri
Q.102) Hydrogen is not found in atmosphere because

[A] it is highly inflammable
[B] it is the tightest gas
[C] it is absorbed by plants
[D] it immediately combines with oxygen to form water
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The reason there is not much hydrogen in the atmosphere is because it is lighter
thanair, and so can easily escape the Earth's gravity.
Q.103) Which of the following is NOT a nuclear power station?

[A] Ramagundam
[B] Rawatbhata
[C] Naraura
[D] Kalpakkam
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Apart from its culture, Ramagundam is also known for its sightseeing attractions
likethe temple of Lord Rama, National Thermal Power Corporation, etc.
Q.104) When the Congress Ministries were formed in the provinces in June 1937, the Viceroy
of India was
[A] Lord Willingdon
[B] Lord Irwin
[C] Lord Linlithgow
[D] Viscount Wavell
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province. The
Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against Viceroy Lord
Linlithgow's action of declaring India to be a belligerent in the Second World War without
consultingthe Indian people.
Q.105) Modern periodic table is based on atomic number of the elements. The
significance ofatomic number was proved by the experiment of
[A] Moseley's work on x-ray spectra
[B] Bragg's work on X-ray diffraction
[C] Mullikan's oil drop experiment
[D] Discovery of X-ray by Roentgen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The experiment which proved the significance of the atomic number was.
Solution :Moseley's work on X-ray spectra proved the significance of the atomic number.
Q.106) Which of the following is the largest container port of India?

[A] Jawaharlal Nehru Port
[B] Ennore Port
[C] Chhatrapati Shivaji Port
[D] Paradip Port
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru port (Mumbai) is the largest container port in India and is also
known by Nhava Sheva. It accounts for more than half of total container volumes handled at
India's 12 publicports and around 40 percent of the nation's overall contain erizedocean trade.
Q.107) The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new
compoundsis
[A] a displacement reaction
[B] a decomposition reaction
[C] an addition reaction
[D] a double displacement reaction
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Double displacement reaction: If two reactants exchange their constituents
chemicallyand form two products then the reaction is called double displacement reaction.
Q.108) First Buddhist Council was held during the reign of which of the following kings?
[A] Ajatsatru
[B] Ashoka
[C] Kanishka
[D] Kalasoka
Correct
Answer:A
Explanation:
The First Buddhist Council was held at Saptaparni cave near Rajagriha in 72 AD, during the
reign of Emperor Ajatsatru. It was held under the Presidentship of Mahakassapa to compile the
Dhamma P itaka and Vinaya Pitaka.
Q.109) Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Directive
Principles OfState Policy?
[A] Some of the DPSPs are justiciable
[B] All the DPSPs are justiciable
[C] No DPSPs are justiciable
[D] None of the Above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the
Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is,
they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government
(Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them. Nevertheless, the Constitution
(Article 37) itself says that the principles are fundamental in the government of the country and it
shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Q.110) Which Act was accepted as the Provisional constitution of India, After
Independence?
[A] Indian Councils Act 1909
[B] Government of India act 1919
[C] Government of India Act 1935
[D] Indian Independence Act 1947
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Government of India Act 1935 was an Act of the Parliament of the United
Kingdom. It originally received Royal assent in August 1935. It was the longest Act of
(British) Parliament ever enacted until Greater London Authority Act 1999 surpassed it.
Because of its length, the Act was retroactively split by the Government of India Act, 1935
into two separate Acts:
Q.111) According to 2011 census, the literacy rate among men in India ?
[A] 82.14
[B] 84.14
[C] 85.14
[D] 86.14
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As per the census of 2011, the literacy rate of India is 74.04%. Literacy rate among the
males is 82.14% and among females is 65.46%.
Q.112) Zabti system was introduced by -

[A] Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
[B] Sikander Lodi
[C] Sher Shah
[D] Akbar
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Akbar introduced the Dahasala or Zabti System of land revenue collection in
1580-82 to alleviate the problems arising due to fixing prices every year and doing settlements of
revenues ofprevious years.
Q.113) Consider the following . statements about Fundamental Duties :

(1) Fundamental Duties were added on the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee.
(2) The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51 under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 1 & 2
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the
Indian Constitution. Fundamental duties are non-enforceable in nature. There is no legislative
process to enforce citizens to do their duties. Hence statement 1 is not true.
Q.114) Who among of the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent
Assemblyof India?
[A] Dr. B. N. Rao
[B] Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
[C] Sachindra Nath Sanyal
[D] Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sir Benegal Narsing Rao (B N Rau), was the Constitutional Advisor to the
Constituent Assembly. He was an Indian civil servant, jurist, diplomat and statesman known for
his key role in drafting the Constitution of India. He was also India's representative to the United
Nations Security Council from 1950 to 1952.
Q.115) The first Mysore War Fought between the British and Hyder Ali in 1767- 1769
A.D., came toan end by the
[A] Treaty of Pondicherry
[B] Treaty of Madras
[C] Treaty of Mysore
[D] Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In 1767 Mysore was a powerful state under Hyder Ali. In 1769, the first Anglo-
Mysorewar was fought in which Haider Ali defeated the British and Treaty of Madras was signed
between them. Haider Ali occupied almost the whole of Carnatic.
Q.116) “Tin Bigha Corridor” links

[A] India and Pakistan
[B] India and China
[C] India and Bhutan
[D] India and Bangladesh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: „Tin Bigha Corridor‟ links India and Bangladesh.
Q.117) Who presided Second Buddhist Council?

[A] Mahakassapa
[B] Vasumitra
[C] Moggliputra Tissa
[D] Sabakami
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The second Buddhist Council took place at Vaishali in 383
BC. It was presided by Sabakami under Kalasoka of Shisunga dynatsy to settle down
dispute between two opposing groups of monks of Vaishali and Patliputra and monks of
Kausambi andAvanti regarding the code of discipline.
Q.118) The 10th Schedule to Indian Constitution, that is popularly referred to as 'Anti-
Defection Law' was inserted by
[A] 42nd Amendment Act

[B] 25th Amendment Act
[C] 52nd Amendment Act
[D] 1st Amendment Act
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The 10th Schedule to Indian Constitution, that is popularly referred to as 'Anti-
Defection Law' was inserted by 52nd Amendment to Constitution in 1985. It has as provisions for
Members of Parliament & Members of State Legislatures.
Q.119) Name the ending point for Singalila Ridge

[A] Rimbik
[B] Sandakphu
[C] Tiger Hill
[D] Falut
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Rimbick is a small settlement located in the Darjeeling district. It is an ending
pointfor Singalila Ridge, Sandakphu Trek. Rimbick lies at an altitude of 2280m above sea level
and is famous for oranges.
Q.120) Mudra Rakshas is a work of Vishakhadutta. This work was depicted which of the
following?
[A] Chadragupta Maurya & Dhruva Devi
[B] Mauryas & Nandas
[C] Campaigns of Chandragupta Maurya
[D] Campaigns of Ashoka
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Mudrarakshasa is a Sanskrit-language play by Vishakhadatta that narrates the
ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya. It is dated variously from the late 4th century to the
8thcentury CE. This work depicted Mauryas and Nandas.
Q.121) The Digha Beach of West Bengal is the most famous beach of West Bengal. Lord
Hastings referred to is as:
A. Pride of Bengal
B. Brighton of the East
C. Pearl of Bengal
D. Diamond of East
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Digha originally known as Beerkul during the time of Warren Hastings, was discovered
in the late 18th century by the British. It was mentioned as the "Brighton of the East" in one of the
letters of Warren Hastings (1780 AD) to his wife.
Q.122) The British Government intervened in the affairs of the Company and passed
an Act in 1773A.D., known as the
[A] Regulating Act
[B] Pitt's India Act
[C] Charter Act
[D] Company Act
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Regulating Act, (1773), legislation passed by the British Parliament for the
regulation of the British East India Company's Indian territories, mainly in Bengal. The act was
amended and thegovernment of India was recast by Prime Minister William Pitt's India Act of
1784.
Q.123) Which article prohibits the state to impose tax proceeds of which are meant for
paymento promotion or maintenance of any particular religion?
[A] Article 26
[B] Article 27
[C] Article 28
[D] Article 29
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Article 27 prohibits the state to impose tax proceeds of which are meant for payment
of promotion or maintenance of any particular religion. It means that the state cannot raise a
religious tax and also that the state cannot spend its secular taxes on any particular religion as it
would go against its secular character.
Q.124) The source of political power in India lies in:

[A] The Constitution
[B] The Parliament
[C] The Parliament and State Legislatives
[D] We, the People of India
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The source of political power in India lies in people of India. India is a democratic
country. People of India elect their representative through direct franchise & representatives elect
government to make or amend rules & regulations & to carry out day to day functioning of
governance.
Q.125) Which dynasty of Delhi Sultanate ruled for the shortest period?
[A] Khalji
[B] Tughlaq
[C] Maurya
[D] Lodi
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Khalji dynasty ruled for the shortest period (1290-1320) of only 30 years. The other
dynasties of Sultanate period - Mamluk dynasty (1206-90), Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1414), the
Sayyiddynasty (1414-51) and Lodi dynasty (1451-1526).
Q.126) The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in

[A] 1885
[B] 1887
[C] 1890
[D] 1897
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The society was founded near Calcutta (now Kolkata) by Vivekananda in 1897 with a
twofold purpose: to spread the teachings of Vedanta as embodied in the life of the Hindu saint
Ramakrishna (1836–86) and to improve the social conditions of the Indian people.
Q.127) The viceroy of India decided to partition Bengal for administrative purposes, creating a
new province of East Bengal and Assam, with a population of 31 million people and with its
capital at Dhaka
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Rippon
C. Lord Hastings
D. Wellesley
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lord Curzon, the viceroy of India decided to partition Bengal for administrative
purposes, creating a new province of East Bengal and Assam, with a population of 31 million people
and with its capital at Dhaka.
Q.128) According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase 'Union of States' has been
preferred to'Federation of States' because
(1) The Indian Federation is the result of an agreement among the states like the American
Federation
(2) The states have no right to secede from the federation.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase 'Union of States' has been preferred to
'Federation of States' for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement
among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the
federation.
Q.129) In Coochbehar every year a fair took place which is the oldest fair. What is the
name of thefair?
[A] Ras Purnima
[B] Ras Mela
[C] Jaydeb Mela
[D] Gajol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Raas Mela is the most ancient and traditional of all fairs. Every year even when
the festive mood of the bygone Durga Puja still lingers in our minds, people of Cooch Behar
get set tocelebrate the Raas Yatra of Sri Sri Madan Mohan Thakur.
Q.130) Which among the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (Traveler – During reign of
King)
A. Megasthenes – Chandragupta Maurya
B. Deimachos – Asoka
C. Hsuan -Tsang – Harshavardhana
D. Fa-Hien – Chandragupta II
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Deimachos was a Greek ambassador who visited the court of Bindusara
Q.131) Who propounded the theory of 'Economic Drain of India' during British imperialism?
[A] W.C. Bannerji
[B] Dadabhai Naroji
[C] Gopalkrishna Gokhale
[D] Gandhiji
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji's work focused on the drain of wealth from India to England
during colonial rule of British in India. One of the reasons that the Drain theory is attributed to
Naoroji is his decision to estimate the net national profit of India, and by extension, the effect that
colonisation has on the country.
Q.132) In which year provisions of citizenship became applicable?

[A] 1950
[B] 1949
[C] 1951
[D] 1952
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The majority of constitutional provisions came into force on 26 January 1950.
Unlike other provisions of the Constitution, which came into being on January 26, 1950, the
articles of citizenship were enforced on November 26, 1949 itself, when the Constitution was
adopted.
Q.133) Which among the following bears smallest living cell?

A. Bacterium
B. Mycoplasma
C. Virus
D. Yeast
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mycoplasma is the smallest cell which does not possess cell wall as an outer covering
but has cell membrane as an outer covering.
Q.134) After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the title of -

[A] Tuti-e-Hind
[B] Kaiser-i-Hind
[C] Zil-i-Ilahi
[D] din-i-Ilahi
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Balban took the title of Zil-i-Ilahi meaning Shadow of God. He also started Iranian
customs of Sijda and Paibos to Sultan in India. He also introduced the Persian festival Navroz. He
propounded the Niyabat-i-Khudai
Q.135) The pigment which gives colour to the human skin is

A. melanin
B. rhodopsin
C. iodopsin
D. anthocyanin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Melanin pigments are derivative of the amino acid tyrosine, which is primarily
responsible for the colour of the human skin, skin colour ranges from black to white with a pinkish
line due to the presence of blood vessels under it.
Q.136) According to the terms of the treaty of Srirangapattanam, was ceded to the British
[A] Malabar
[B] Cochi
[C] Travancore
[D] Mysore
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: According to the terms of the treaty of Srirangapattanam, Malabar was ceded to the
British.
Q.137) Which of the following was capital of Guptas?

[A] Taxila
[B] Pataliputra
[C] Ujjain
[D] Mathura
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Patliputra was the capital city of Gupta dynasty.
Q.138) Which part of the pituitary is under the direct control of the hypothalamus?
A. Posterior part
B. Anterior part
C. Dorsal part
D. Ventral part
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus. The
pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called Sella turcica and is attached to the hypothalamus by a
stalk.
Q.139) The Vernacular Press Act was repealed by

[A] Lord Ripon
[B] Lord Lytton
[C] Lord William Bentic
[D] Gladstone
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Vernacular Press Act, in British India, law enacted in 1878 to curtail the freedom of
theIndian-language (i.e., non-English) press. The law was repealed in 1881 by Lytton's successor
as viceroy, Lord Ripon (governed 1880–84).
Q.140) Which of the following statement is/are correct about Red Blood Cells (RBC)?
A. RBC carries oxygen from the lungs to all the cells of the body.
B. It contains a pigment called Haemoglobin
C. RBCs lack nucleus
D. All the above are correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: RBC carries oxygen from the lungs to all the cells of the body. It lacks the nucleus and
contains a pigment called Haemoglobin.
Q.141) The Treaty between Ranjit Singh and the British was signed at
[A] Allahabad
[B] Amritsar
[C] Kashmir
[D] Agra
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Treaty of Amritsar, (April 25, 1809), pact concluded between Charles T. Metcalfe,
representing the British East India Company, and Ranjit Singh, head of the Sikh kingdom of
Punjab.The British wanted a defensive treaty against the French and control of Punjab to the Sutlej
River.
Q.142) Which one of the following is considered as the easily digestible source of protein?
A. Egg albumin
B. Soybean
C. Fish flesh
D. Red meat
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: When it comes to animal protein sources, you may be wondering what meat is the
easiest to digest. Lean animal proteins (like chicken breast or fish), egg protein and milk proteins like
whey protein are all easily digestible protein.
Q.143) In which of the following cities of India is located world‟s first complete granite
temple?
[A] Varanasi
[B] Mathura
[C] Thanjaur
[D] Madurai
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjaur (in Tamil Nadu) was the world‟s first
completegranite temple
Q.144) Autotroph includes

A. blue-green algae and green plants
B. fungi and mushroom
C. slime moulds
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: They prepare their own food by utilizing solar energy, water, and carbon dioxide by the
process of photosynthesis. This results in the formation of glucose. Plants like blue-green algae and
bacteria such as cyanobacteria are considered to be examples of autotrophs
Q.145) When the East India Company came into existence, England was ruled by the
[A] Hanoverians
[B] Stuarts
[C] Normans
[D] Tudors
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: When the East India Company came into existence, England was ruled by the Stuarts.
Q.146) Gemmule is a
A. structure
B. divided cell
C. vegetative structure in sponge
D. bud
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Gemmules are internal buds found in sponges and are involved in asexual reproduction.
It is an asexually reproduced mass of cells, that is capable of developing into a new organism i.e., an
adult sponge.
Q.147) By which Charter Act, the East India Company's monopoly of trade with China come to
an end?
A. Charter Act of 1793
B. Charter Act of 1813
C. Charter Act of 1833
D. Charter Act of 1853
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Charter Act of 1813. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the commercial trade
monopoly of the East India Company except for trade in tea and trade with China.
Q.148) According to which article of Indian Constitution no citizen of India shall

accept anytitle from any foreign state?
[A] Article 17
[B] Article 18
[C] Article 19
[D] Article 20
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to Article 18, No citizen of India shall accept any title from any
foreignstate. It also contains;
No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under
theState, accept without the consent of the President any title from
any foreign State. No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the
consent of the President, accept any present emolument or office of any kind from or under any
foreign State.
Q.149) The release of energy in the aerobic process is, than in the anaerobic process.
A. lesser
B. greater
C. May be lesser or greater
D. None of these
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A major advantage of aerobic respiration is the amount of energy it releases. Without
oxygen, organisms can split glucose into just two molecules of pyruvate This releases
enough energy to produce up to 38 ATP molecules. Thus, aerobic respiration releases
muchmore energy than anaerobic respiration
Q.150) Which the following rulers is known as the “Napoleon of India”?

[A] Samudragupta
[B] Ashoka
[C] Chandragupta I
[D] Skandgupta
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Samudragupta believed in the policy of war and conquest and because of his
braveryand generalship he is known as the “Napoleon of India” by historian Vincent. A. Smith.
Q.151) Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question
mark in it.
11 13 17
33 35 39
189 191 ?
A. 203
B. 199
C. 217
D. 195
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The logic is:
Row 1: (11 + 2) = 13; (13 + 4) = 17
Row 2: (33 + 2) = 35; (35 + 4) = 39
Similarly,
Row 3: (189 + 2) = 191; (191 + 4) = 195
Hence, „195‟ is the correct answer.
Q.152) Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one
different. Select the odd word.
A. Africa
B. Europe
C. Russia
D. Asia
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: All options except „Russia‟ are the name of Continents, while Russia is a Country.
Hence, „Russia‟ is the odd one out.
Q.153) Select the letter that can replace the question mark? In the following series.
C, E, H, J, M, O, R,____?
A. D
B. T
C. S
D. W
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Hence, „T‟ is the correct answer.
Q.154) In a certain code language, „FOX‟ is coded as „108‟ is „SOUP‟ is coded as „148‟. How will
„UPSIDE‟ be coded as in that language?
A. 528
B. 385
C. 494
D. 590
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Note: The letters are reversed first and then the sum of all the reverse letters is multiplied by the
number of letters in each word.
Similarly,
Q.155) Select the number that can replace the question mark? In the following series
45, 63, 101, 160, 241, ?
A. 368
B. 345
C. 305
D. 319
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given series: 45, 63, 101, 160, 241, ?
The logic is:
Q.156) A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. Select from the
given answer figures, how it will paper when unfolded.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The paper when unfolded, will appear as shown below:
Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
Q.157) In certain code language, „TAPE‟ is written as „SUZBOQDF‟. How will „MOCK‟ be
written as in that language?
A. LOPQBCKL
B. LNNPBDJL
C. MOPQDELM
D. KNNPBEBL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Similarly,
Hence, „LNNPBDJL‟ is the correct answer.
Q.158) „Family‟ is related to „Upbringing‟ in the same way as „School‟ is related to „______‟
A. Children
B. Parents
C. Education
D. Curriculum
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The relation is:
„Family‟ is related to „Upbringing‟ → A family is responsible for the good or bad upbringing of a
child.
Similarly,
„School‟ is related to „______‟ → A school is responsible for the education of a child.
Hence, „education‟ is the correct answer.
Q.159) Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second
number is related to the first number.
23 : 527 :: 19 : ?
A. 402
B. 359
C. 325
D. 363
Correct Answer: B
23 : 527 → 23 : 232 – 2
Similarly,
19 : ? → 19 : 192 – 2
=> ? = 361 – 2
=> ? = 359
Hence, „359‟ is the correct answer
Q.160) Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers
in the given set.
(14, 17, 961)
A. (13, 19, 1024)
B. (12, 18, 851)
C. (15, 14, 743)
D. (11, 12, 729)
Correct Answer: A
(14, 17, 961) → 14, 17, (14 + 17)2
1) (13, 19, 1024) → 13, 19, (13 + 19)2 = 1024

2) (12, 18, 851) → 12, 18, (12 + 18)2 ≠ 851
3) (15, 14, 743) → 15, 14, (15 + 14)2 ≠ 743
4) (11, 12, 729) → 11, 12, (11 + 12)2 ≠ 729
Hence, „(13, 19, 1024)‟ is the correct answer.
Q.161) Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between the
following classes?
Utensils, Spoons, Steel items
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the classes Utensils,
Spoons, Steel items is shown below:
All spoons are utensils, and some spoons and utensils are steel items.
Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.
Q.162) Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark? in the following series.
PROGRESS, QTOGRESS, QTRKRESS, ?, QTRKWKZA
A. QTRKWKSS
B. QTRKWKTY
C. QTRKVMSS
D. PRRKWKSS
Correct Answer: A
Hence, „QTRKWKSS‟ is the correct answer.
Q.163) For letter-cluster have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and is
different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
A. DPG
B. EYH
C. BFF
D. CIF
Correct Answer: C
The logic is here:

square of the place value of 1st letter → 2nd letter.
The place value of 1st letter + 3 → 3rd letter.
1) DPG
D = 4.
⇒ 42 = 16 = P = 2nd letter.
⇒ 4 + 3 = 7 = G = 3rd letter.
2) EYH
E=5
⇒ 52 = 25 = Y = 2nd letter.
⇒ 5 + 3 = 8 = H = 3rd letter.
3) BFF
B=2
⇒ 22 = 4 = D ≠ 2nd letter.
⇒ 2 + 3 = 5 = E ≠ 3rd letter.
4) CIF
C=3
⇒ 32 = 9 = I = 2nd letter.
⇒ 3 + 3 = 6 = F = 3rd letter.
Hence, „BFF‟ is the odd one out.
Q.164) Select the option in which the given figure X is embedded (rotation is not allowed).
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The option figure in which the given figure is embedded is option „2‟.
Hence, option „2‟ is the correct answer.
Q.165) Four numbers –pairs have given, out of which three are alike some manner and one is
different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest.
A. 55 : 25
B. 44 : 16
C. 76 : 42
D. 28 : 56
Correct Answer: D

1) 55 : 25 → 55 : (5 × 5) = 25
2) 44 : 16 → 44 : (4 × 4) = 16
3) 76 : 42 → 76 : (7 × 6) = 42
4) 28 : 56 → 28 : (2 × 8) ≠ 56
Hence, „28 : 56‟ is the correct answer.
Q.166) How many triangles are there in the given figure?
A. 20
B. 23
C. 22
D. 24
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The number of triangles in the figure is shown below:
Q.167) A sum of Rs. 4,620 is to be paid back in 2 equal annual instalments. How much is each
instalment (in Rs.) if the interest is compounded annually at 10% per annum?
A. 2,552
B. 2,750
C. 2,420
D. 2,662
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Shortcut Trick
Rate of interest = 10% (per annum)

Fraction value = 10% = 1/10
∴ Principal = 10; Interest = 1
So, total installment = 10 + 1 = 11
Time
Principal Equal instalment per annum
Period
1st year 10 × 11 = 110 11 × 11 = 121
2nd year 102 = 100 112 = 121
Total principal
= 110 + 100 = 210
So, 210 → Rs. 4620

∴ 121 → (4620/210) × 121 = Rs. 2662
∴The each instalment (in Rs.) is Rs. 2662
Q.168) A shopkeeper marks an article at a price 20% higher than its cost price and allows 10%
discount. Find his gain percentage.
A. 10%
B. 9%
C. 8%
D. 9.5%
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Given:
Marked price = 20% higher than the cost price
Discount = 10%
Formula used:
S.P. = [(100 - Discount%)/100] × C.P.
Gain% = [(S.P. - C.P.)/C.P.] × 100
Where, C.P. = Cost price; S.P. = Selling price
Calculation:
Let, the cost price = Rs. 100
So, the marked price = 100 + (20% of 100) = Rs. 120
Then, the selling price = 120 × (90/100) = 108
Gain percentage = [(108 - 100)/100] × 100 = 8%
∴The gain percentage is 8%
Q.169) If 8A5146B is divisible by 88, then what is the value of AB ?

A. 9
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given:
The given number = 8A5146B

Concept used:
Divisibility rule of 8: If the last three digits of a number is divisible by 8, the number will be divisible
by 8
Divisibility rule of 11: The provided integer is divisible if the difference between the sum of the
digits at odd places and the sum of the digits at even places is 0 or divisible by 11.
Calculation:
8A5146B is divisible by 88
So, 8A5146B is divisible by 8 and 11
⇒ 46B should be divisible by 8
Put B = 4, 464 is divisible by 8
Hence, B = 4
Now, 8A51464 should be divisible by 11
⇒ (8 + 5 + 4 + 4) - (A + 1 + 6) should be divisible by 11
⇒ 21 - (A + 7) should be divisible by 11
⇒ 14 - A should be divisible by 11
Put A = 3 then, 14 - 3 = 11 which is divisible by 11
So, A = 3
∴ AB = 3 × 4 = 12
∴The value of AB is 12
Q.170) The average of sixteen numbers is 48. The average of the first six of these numbers is 45
and that of the last seven numbers is 53. The seventh and the eighth numbers are, respectively, 3
and 7 greater than the ninth number. What is the average of the ninth and seventh numbers?
A. 39
B. 41.5
C. 40.5
D. 42
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Given:
The average of sixteen numbers = 48
The average of the first six numbers = 45
The average of the last seven numbers = 53
Concept used:
Sum of the terms = Average × Number of the terms
Calculation:
Let, the ninth number = x
So, seventh number = x + 3; eighth number = x + 7
Then, x + (x + 3) + (x + 7) = (16 × 48) - [(6 × 45) + (7 × 53)]
3x + 10 = 768 - (270 + 371)
3x + 10 = 768 - 641
3x = 768 - 641 - 10 = 117
x = 117/3 = 39
∴ The ninth number = 39
∴ The seventh number = 39 + 3 = 42
The average = (39 + 42)/2 = 81/2 = 40.5
∴The average of the ninth and seventh numbers is 40.5
Q.171) A spends 65% of his income. His income is increased by 20.1% and the expenditure is
increased by 20%. By what percent (correct to one decimal place) does his saving increase or
decrease?
A. Decrease by 17.7%
B. Increase by 20.3%
C. Increase by 21.5%
D. Decrease by 18.9%
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given:
A spends 65% of his income
His income is increased by 20.1% and his expenditure is increased by 20%
Concept used:
The gain percentage of savings = [(New savings - Old savings)/Old savings] × 100
Formula used:
Let, the income = Rs. 100
So, the expenditure = Rs. 65; Savings = (100 - 65)% = 35%
His new income = 100 + (20.1% of 100) = Rs. 120.1
His new expenditure = 65 + (20% of 65) = Rs. 78
The new savings = 120.1 - 78 = Rs. 42.1
The gain percentage of savings = [(42.1 - 35)/35] × 100 = 20.28...% ≈ 20.3% (correct to one decimal
place)
∴His saving increases by 20.3%
Q.172) A man bought toffees at 3 for a rupee. How many toffees for a rupee must he sell to gain
50%?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Given:
A man bought toffees at 3 for a rupee
Formula used:
S.P. = [(100 + Profit%)/100] × C.P.
Calculation:
The cost price of 1 toffee = Rs. 1/3
The required selling price of 1 toffee = (1/3) × (150/100) = Rs. 1/2
So, The selling price of two toffee = (1/2) × 2 = Rs. 1
∴The total 2 toffees for a rupee must be sold to gain 50%
Q.173) An alloy contains 40% of silver, 30% of copper, and 30% of nickel. How much silver (in
kg) should be added to 25 kg of the alloy so that the new alloy contains 50% of silver?
A. 20
B. 5
C. 12
D. 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Shortcut Trick
Silver = 40%; Copper = 30%; Nickel = 30%
Let, the total weight of alloy = 100 units
So, the silver = 40 units
If we add 20 units silver then, alloy = (100 + 20) = 120 units
also, silver = 40 + 20 = 60 units
Now, silver is 50% of the alloy [∵ silver = 60 and alloy = 120]
So, 100 units = 25 kg
⇒ 20 units = (25/100) × 20 = 5 kg
∴A total of 5 kg silver (in kg) should be added to 25 kg of the alloy so that the new alloy
contains 50% of silver.
Q.174) The profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 832 is equal to the loss incurred when the
article is sold for Rs. 448. What will be the selling price of the article if it is sold at a 10% loss?
A. Rs. 576
B. Rs. 640
C. Rs. 625
D. Rs. 540
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Given:
The selling price at profit = Rs. 832
The selling price at loss = Rs. 448
Required loss = 10%
Formula used:
S.P. = (100 - Loss%)/100 × C.P.
Calculation:
Let, the profit = loss = x
So, 448 + x = 832 - x
⇒ x + x = 832 - 448
⇒ 2x = 384
⇒ x = 384/2 = 192
∴ The cost price = (448 + 192) = (832 - 192) = Rs. 640
So the selling price = (100 - 10)/100 × 640 = Rs. 576
∴The selling price of the article will be Rs. 576
Q.175) Find the greatest number which divides 108, 124 and 156, leaving the same remainder.
A. 16
B. 12
C. 10
D. 18
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Given:
The given numbers are 108, 124 and 156
After dividing by the greatest number x, the remainder in each case is the same.
Concept used:
The greatest number that will divide a, b, and c and leaving the same remainder in each case is given
by the HCF of |a - b|, |b - c|, and |c - a|
Calculation:
Here, |108 - 124| = |- 16| = 16
|124 - 156| = |- 32| = 32
|156 - 108| = 48
Prime factors of 16 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2
Prime factors of 32 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2
Prime factors of 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
So, HCF of 16, 32, and 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 16
∴The greatest number is 16
Q.176) The first nuclear reactor of India is named as ________.

[A] Urvashi
[B] Apsara
[C] Kamini
[D] Rohini
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Named Apsara, the reactor was housed in a 100 x 50 x 70 concrete building. India's and
Asia's first nuclear reactor, Apsara reached criticality at 3:45 p.m on 4 August 1956 and was
inaugurated by Prime Minister Nehru on 20 January 1957.
Q.177) Kakrapar Atomic Energy Station is located in the state of ______.

[A] Gujarat
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Maharashtra
[D] Karnataka
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS) is located near Surat in the state of
Gujarat. KAPS currently operates two PHWRs, the first of which (Unit-1) began commercial
operations on 6 May 1993.
Q.178) Pratap Singh Museum located at __________ .

[A] Bikaner
[B] Udaipur
[C] Srinagar
[D] Tanjore
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Shri Pratap Singh Museum, commonly known as the SPS Museum, is a museum in
Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, India.
Q.179) Shivalik Fossil Park Museum is located in

[A] Kerala
[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Himachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Shivalik Fossil Park, also known as the Suketi Fossil Park , is a notified National Geo-
heritage Monument fossil park in the Sirmaur district in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.
Q.180) Which one of the following mountain peaks of Himalayas is not in India?
[A] Annapurna
[B] Nanda Devi
[C] Mt. Kamet
[D] Kanchenjunga
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Annapurna mountain peaks of Himalayas is not in India. Annapurna is the mountain
range which is not present in India and it is present in Nepal.
Q.181) Khardung La mountain pass is located in which Indian state or Union Territory?
[A] Himachal Pradesh
[B] Uttarakhand
[C] Ladakh
[D] Sikkim
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Famously known as the gateway to the Nubra and Shyok Valleys in the Ladakh region .
It is the highest motorable pass in the world. It is filled with tourists crossing over from Leh and
stopping long enough to click some photographs.
Q.182) The Khasi and Jaintia Hills are located in ________.

[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Meghalaya
[C] Manipur
[D] Nagaland
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Khasi and Jaintia Hills are a mountainous region that was mainly part of Assam
and Meghalaya. Meghalaya was previously part of Assam, but on 21 January 1972, the districts of
Khasi, Garo and Jaintia hills became the new state of Meghalaya.
Q.183) Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India, is situated on ________

[A] Palni hills
[B] Anaimalai mountain
[C] Nilgiri mountain
[D] Cardamon hills
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India, is situated on Palni hills. Its name in
the Tamil language means “The Gift of the Forest”. Kodaikanal is referred to as the “Princess of Hill
stations” and has a long history as a retreat and popular tourist destination.
Q.184) What is the other name of the highest range in the Western Ghats?
[A] PirPanjal
[B] Siwalik range
[C] Sahyadris
[D] NamchaBarwa
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Western Ghats, also the "Sahyadri", is a mountain range that covers an area of
160,000 square kilometres (62,000 sq mi) in a stretch of 1,600 kilometres (990 mi) parallel to the
western coast of the Indian peninsula, traversing the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Goa,
Maharashtra and Gujarat. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is one of the eight hotspots of
biological diversity in the world. It is sometimes called the Great Escarpment of India.
Q.185) Considering the locations of mountains in India, which one among the following is in the
right sequence from south to north?
[A] Doddabetta, Kailash, Dhaulagiri, Vindhyachal
[B] Doddabetta, Vindhyachal, Dhaulagiri, Kailash
[C] Dhaulagiri, Kailash, Doddabetta, Vindhyachal
[D] Dhaulagiri, Vindhyachal, Doddabetta, Kailash
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri Hills (Tamil Nadu)at 2,637 metres.
The Vindhyas run across most of central India. The Dhaulagiri massif in Nepal extends 120 km from
the Kaligandaki River west to the Bheri. Mt. Kailash peak is standing in the remote south-west corner
of Tibet in the Himalayan Mountains.
Q.186) When was Great Himalayan National Park declared a National World Heritage site?
[A] 2014
[B] 2018
[C] 2020
[D] 2000
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: They are protected under the strict guidelines of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972;
hence any sort of hunting is not permitted. In June 2014, the Great Himalayan National Park was
added to the UNESCO list of World Heritage Sites, under the criterion of "outstanding significance
for biodiversity conservation".
Q.187) Which one of the following is a famous hill station of South India?
[A] Panchmarhi
[B] Ootacamund
[C] Madurai
[D] Araku Valley
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ootacamund is a famous hill station of south India. Ootacamund, now frequently
known as Ooty (but officially called Udhagamandalam), is a town in the Nilgiri Hills.
Q.188) What is the correct sequence of hill stations according to height above mean sea level in
descending order?
[A] Kodaikanal, Darjeeling, Shimla and Mahabaleshwar
[B] Shimla, Kodaikanal, Darjeeling and Mahabaleshwar
[C] Kodaikanal, Shimla, Mahabaleshwar and Darjeeling
[D] Mahabaleshwar, Shimla, Darjeeling and Kodaikanal
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct sequence of hill stations according to height above mean sea level in
descending order are Shimla-2,276 m, Kodaikanal-2,133 m, Darjeeling-2,042 m and Mahabaleshwar-
1,353 m.
Q.189) On which hill range is the hill station Pachmarhi situated?

[A] Himalayan Range
[B] Satpura Range
[C] Western Ghat Range
[D] None
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pachmarhi, the only hill station of Madhya Pradesh is situated in a valley of the
Satpura Range in Hoshangabad district, at a height of 1,067 meters above sea level.
Q.190) Horsley Hills is situated in which state?

[A] Uttar Pradesh
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Kerala
[D] Sikkim
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Horsley Hills or Horsleykonda or Yenugulla Mallamma Konda is a series of hills
in Andhra Pradesh in Madanapalle Taluka of Chittoor district and is about 9 miles from
Madanapalle town.
Q.191) Which city is known as Pittsburg of India?

[A] Kanpur
[B] Jamshedpur
[C] Pune
[D] Dispur
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Jamshedpur is known as the Pittsburgh of India due to the largest iron and steel
industry.
Q.192) Which city is known as Pink City?

[A] Kolkata
[B] Jaipur
[C] Hyderabad
[D] Pune
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A romantic dusty pink hue -- which has defined the city since 1876, after it was painted
pink to welcome Queen Victoria's husband, Prince Albert -- gives Jaipur its status as the "Pink City,"
as it is commonly known.
Q.193) Who won the best actor award in the Filmfare Awards 2023
(a) Pankaj Tripathi
(b) Vicky Kaushal
(c) Ayushmann Khurrana
(d) Rajkummar Rao
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Rajkummar Rao won the Best Actor Award at Filmfare 2023 for his role in Badhaai
Do. The film, directed by Harshavardhan Kulkarni, also won the Best Film (Critics) Award.
Q.194) Which India's AI supercomputer has been ranked 75th in the Top 500 Global
Supercomputing List
(a) AIRAWAT
(b) HATHWAY
(c) INDIA-AI
(d) AIGIGA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'AIRAWAT' ranks 75th in top 500 Supercomputing List. The AI Supercomputer
'AIRAWAT', installed at C-DAC, Pune has been ranked 75th in the world.
Q.195) Which State declaring itself as the country‟s first “total e-governed state”
(a) Goa
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Karnataka
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Kerala, the southern state of India, is set to make history by declaring itself as the
country's first “total e-governed state.”
Q.196) Who become the first Indian to receive Suriname's highest civilian honor, The Grand
Order of the Chain of Yellow Star
(a) Droupadi Murmu
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Jagdeep Dhankhar
(d) Venkaiah Naidu
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: "Greatly honoured": President Murmu receives Suriname's highest distinction 'Grand
Order of the Chain of Yellow Star' President Droupadi Murmu . She is "greatly honoured" to receive
Suriname's highest civilian honour - Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star, the first Indian to
receive this award.
Q.197) Who is the first woman chairperson to lead SEBI, and also SEBI's first non-IAS
chairperson
(a) Alka Mittal
(b) Roshni Nadar
(c) Soma Mondal
(d) Madhabi Puri Buch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Madhabi Puri Buch is the chairperson of the securities regulatory body Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI). She is the first woman chairperson to lead SEBI, and also SEBI's
first non-IAS chairperson.
Q.198) World Intellectual Property Day is observed on

(a) 25th April
(b) 26th April
(c) 27th April
(d) 28th April
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: World Intellectual Property Day is marked on April 26th with the objective of raising
awareness about the impact that patents, copyrights, trademarks, and designs have on our daily lives.
Q.199) Which area has been a source of conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan
(a) Baku
(b) Kosovo
(c) Khankendi
(d) Nagorno-Karabakh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As the war progressed, Armenia and Azerbaijan, both former Soviet Republics,
entangled themselves in a protracted, undeclared war in the mountainous heights of Karabakh as
Azerbaijan attempted to curb the secessionist movement in Nagorno-Karabakh.
Q.200) Mohammed Shahabuddin sworn in as the President of _______

(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Malaysia
(d) Indonesia
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Shahabuddin was sworn in as the 22nd President of Bangladesh in a ceremony at the
Bangabhaban on 24 April 2023. Jatiya Sangsad Speaker Shirin Sharmin Chaudhury administered the
oath.

(Answer) WBCS (Prelims) Mock Test-17

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WBCS 2023 (Preliminary) Examination

Offline Mock Test-17

Q.11) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Q.12) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

 To „take something up‟ means to become interested or engaged in a work or a pursuit.

Q.21) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Q.25) to prevent infections and diseases is _____.

Q.26) Excretory products of mammalian embryo are eliminated out by

Q.29) Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of soaps?

Q.33) Kelvin is the unit of

Q.35) Who gave the slogan "Inquilab zindabad" to the nation ?

Q.37) What kind of Tax is GST?

Q.39) Who was the organizer of revolt of 1857 in Bihar?

Q.41) The period of plan holiday in India was

Q.45) Which is the coldest place in India?

Q.46) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Q.47) Chhattisgarh does NOT share its boundary with:

Q.50) Who was the first Governor General of India?

Q.51) When was the constitution of Pakistan enforced?

Q.54) The Treaty of Sigauli rook place in the year

Q.55) In which state is Sasthamcotta Lake located?

Q.58) Who was the first Governor General of Bengal?

Q.61) Anglo-Nepal war took place during the reign of

Q.63) The laws of reflection hold good for,

Q.65). The first Viceroy of India was

Q.66) Net National Product (NNP) of a country is

Q.72) Import substitution means which of these?

Q.73) The strongest force in nature is

Q.77) The vinegar is a solution of

Q.78) Pin Valley National Park is situated in :

Q.80) Indian Mutiny began in

Q.81) Dugong is a main animal of which biosphere reserve ?

Q.82) Shivaji's Agra Adventure was planned by

Q.84) Which of the following properties is generally not shown by metals?

Q.88) Kishtwar National Park is located in :

Q.90) On the bank of which river, Mahavira attained Kaivalaya?

Q.91) Consider the following statements about Climate in India:

Q.92) The British India Society was formed in

Q.94) Which of the following is not a cyclic compound?

Q.99) In which year, Vardhamana Mahavira was born?

Q.101) Akbar launched Din-i-llahi in the year

Q.102) Hydrogen is not found in atmosphere because

Q.103) Which of the following is NOT a nuclear power station?

Q.106) Which of the following is the largest container port of India?

Q.112) Zabti system was introduced by -

Q.113) Consider the following . statements about Fundamental Duties :

Q.116) “Tin Bigha Corridor” links

Q.117) Who presided Second Buddhist Council?

[A] 42nd Amendment Act

Q.119) Name the ending point for Singalila Ridge

Q.124) The source of political power in India lies in:

Q.126) The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in

Q.132) In which year provisions of citizenship became applicable?

Q.133) Which among the following bears smallest living cell?

Q.134) After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the title of -

Q.135) The pigment which gives colour to the human skin is

Q.137) Which of the following was capital of Guptas?

Q.139) The Vernacular Press Act was repealed by

Q.144) Autotroph includes

Q.148) According to which article of Indian Constitution no citizen of India shall

Q.150) Which the following rulers is known as the “Napoleon of India”?

Hence, „T‟ is the correct answer.

Hence, „528‟ is the correct answer.