FACULTY OF ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY

Swami Vivekanand Subharti University, Meerut

Chemistry (KAS-202)
Session: 2023-24 (EVEN Sem.)
IMPORTANT MCQS:
1. Schottky and Frenkel defects are ___________
a) Interstitial and vacancy defects respectively
b) Vacancy and interstitial defect respectively
c) Both interstitial defects
d) Both vacancy defect
Answer: b
Explanation: Schottky defect occurs when oppositely charged ions leave the crystal and
creating a vacancy and hence is a vacancy defect while in Frenkel defect an atom moves
from its original site to an interstitial position and hence is an interstitial defect.
2. The filling of molecular orbital takes place according to __________
(i) The Aufbau Principle (ii) Pauli Exclusion Principle (iii) Hund’s rule of maximum
multiplicity (iv) All of the mentioned
Ans. iv
3. Graphite has layered _________ structure.
(i) Three dimensional structure (ii) Pyramidal (iii) Planar (iv) Bipyramidal
Ans. iii
4. In oxygen containing atmospheres, the graphite readily converted into _________
(i) Carbon-monoxide (ii) Carbon dioxide (iii) Carbon mono sulphide (iv) Carbon-
disulphide
Ans. ii
5. On the basis of molecular orbital theory, select the most appropriate option.
(i) The bond order of O2 is 2.5 and it is paramagnetic (ii) The bond order of O 2 is 1.5 and
it is paramagnetic (iii) The bond order of O2 is 2 and it is diamagnetic
(iv) The bond order of O2 is 2 and it is paramagnetic
Ans. iv
6. The colour of the nano gold particles is __________
(i) Yellow (ii) Orange (iii) Red (iv) Variable
Ans. iv
7. Which property of nanoparticles provides a driving force for diffusion?
(i) Optical Properties (ii) High surface area to volume ratio (iii) Sintering (iv) There is no
such property
Ans. ii
8. The optical properties of liquid crystals depend on the direction of ___________
a) Air
b) Solid
 c) Light
d) Water
Answer: c
Explanation: The optical properties of liquid crystals depend on the direction of light travels
through a layer of the material.
9. The direction of electric field in an LCD is determined by ___________
a) the molecule’s chemical structure
b) Crystalline surface structure
c) Molecular Orbital Theory
d) Quantum Cellular Automata
Answer: a
Explanation: For LCDs, the change in optical properties results from orienting the molecular
axes either along or perpendicular to the applied electric field, the preferred direction being
determined by the details of the molecule’s chemical structure.
10. A fullerene is any molecule composed entirely of the carbon not in the form of hollow
________
a) Sphere
b) Tube
c) Ellipsoid
d) Cuboid
Answer: d
Explanation: A fullerene is any molecule composed entirely of carbon not in the form of
cuboid. Generally, the fullerenes are in the form of spherical, ellipsoid or tube.
11. What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of light?
a) 400 nm – 700 nm
b) 700 nm to 1 mm
c) 0.01 nm to 10 nm
d) 10 nm to 400 nm
Answer: d
Explanation: Ultraviolet (UV) is an electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength from 10
nm to 400 nm, shorter than that of visible light but longer than X-rays (the visible region
fall between 380-750 nm and X- rays region fall between 0.01 to 10nm).
12. On which factors the vibrational stretching frequency of diatomic molecule depend?
a) Force constant
b) Atomic population
c) Temperature
d) Magnetic field
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of vibrating stretching frequency is shifted if the force constant of
a bond changes with its electronic structure. Frequency shifts also take place on working
 with the same substance in different states (solids, liquids and gas). A substance usually
absorbs at higher frequency in a gaseous state as compared to liquid and solid states.
13. The vibrations, without a center of symmetry are active in which of the following region?
a) Infrared but inactive in Raman
b) Raman but inactive in IR
c) Raman and IR
d) Inactive in both Raman and IR
Answer: c
Explanation: If a molecule has COS, then its vibrational mode will either IR active or
Raman Active.
14. Given below is the stretching vibration of a diatomic molecule. The reduced mass of the
two atoms involved in this stretching vibration will be
(a) μ=(m 1 + m 2)/m 1m 2
(b) μ=m1 m2/(m1 + m2)
(c) μ=(m 1 + m 2)/2
(d) μ=(m 1 + m 2)/2m 1m 2
Ans. (b)
15. The IR region most widely used for qualitative analysis is
(A) Near IR
(B) mid IR
(C) Far IR
(D) All of the above
Ans. (a)
16. Which of the following is a non-dispersive type of spectrophotometer
(A) Spectrofluorometer
(B) Spectrophotometer
(C) Flame photometer
(D) FTIR
Ans. (d)
17. Raman effect is scattering of ________
a) Atoms
b) Molecules
c) Protons
d) Photons
Answer: d
Explanation: The inelastic scattering of a photon by a molecule that is raised to higher
energy levels is called the Raman effect. It was discovered by C.V. Raman.
18. Which of the following cannot be conserved during Raman scattering?
a) Total Energy
b) Momentum
c) Kinetic Energy
d) Electronic Energy
 Answer: c
Explanation: The Raman scattering is the inelastic scattering of a photon by a molecule.
In inelastic scattering, the Kinetic energy is not conserved.
19. The Rama shift generally lies between ________
a) 100 – 1000 cm-1
b) 100 – 2000 cm-1
c) 100 – 3000 cm-1
d) 100 – 4000 cm-1
Answer: d
Explanation: The Rama effect generally lies between the range 100 – 4000 cm -1, which
falls in far and near infrared regions of the spectrum.
20. Raman lines are ________
a) Weak
b) Strong
c) Curved
d) Blurry
Answer: a
Explanation: The lines observed in the Raman effect are generally weak. Thus, long
exposures are required with conventional light source.
21. Find the number of electrons transferred in the equation Cu (g) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) +
2Ag(s).
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

Answer: c
Explanation: 2Ag+(aq) + 2e– → 2Ag(s)
From the equation it is evident that 2Ag+ takes 2 electrons from Cu and neutralizes to
form 2Ag

22. What is the percentage of acid and water present in the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
in a fully charged condition?
a) 39% acid and 61% water
b) 45% acid and 65% water
c) 30% acid and 70% water
d) 25% acid and 75% water
Answer: a
Explanation: The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains 39 percentage of acid and 61
percentage of water in a fully charged condition. Whereas in the fully discharged
condition it contains 85 percentage of water and 15 percentage of acid.
23. Which of the following is the electrolyte used in a lead-acid battery?
a) Nitric acid
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Lead-acid
d) Hydrochloric acid

Answer: b
Explanation: The battery is filled with electrolyte. The electrolyte used in the lead-acid
battery is a solution of sulphuric acid. It contains approximately one part of sulphuric
acid to two part of water by volume. It should be noted that acid should be added to water
and not the vice versa.
24. Which is the active material present on the negative plate in a lead-acid battery?
a) Lead dioxide
b) Lead peroxide
c) Spongy lead
d) Water
Answer: c
Explanation: The positive and negative electrodes of a lead-acid battery are immersed in
dilute sulphuric acid. On the positive plate, we have lead peroxide and on the negative
plate, the active material is spongy lead.
25. Which of the following energy is converted to electricity by the battery?
a) Mechanical energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Electrical energy

Answer: b
Explanation: A battery is a device for storing chemical energy and converting the same
into electricity. It supplies current to operate the lighting and various accessories, when
the engine is not running, for the starting of the vehicle as well as to ignition system.
26. Which of the following increase due to which the electrode gravity decreases?
a) Enthalpy
b) Entropy
c) Temperature
d) Pressure
Answer: c
Explanation: The electrolyte gravity varies with temperature. It increases with the
decrease in temperature and vice versa. The gravity value is always mentioned at a
specified standard temperature, which is usually 15-degree centigrade.
27. What is the amount of water and acid present in the electrolyte after the full discharge of
the battery?
a) 90% of water and 10% of acid
b) 85% of water and 15% of acid
c) 70% of water and 30% of acid
 d) 75% of water and 25% of acid
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of water and acid in the full discharged state is 85 per cent of
water and 15 percentage of acid whereas in the fully charged condition the electrolyte
contains 39 percentage of acid and 61 percentage of water.
28. Which of the following methods is not used for the prevention of corrosion?

a. greasing
b. painting
c. plating
d. Heating
Answer: (d)
29. Corrosion can be prevented by

a. alloying
b. tinning
c. galvanizing
d. all of the above
Answer: (d)
30. How many types of systems are applicable for phase diagrams?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: System may be defined as either a specific body of material or a series of
possible alloys consisting of the same components. A system having one component is
called as a unary system. Similarly, two, three, and four component systems are called
binary, ternary, and quaternary systems respectively.
31. How is Gibb’s phase rule defined?
a) C+P+1
b) C+P+2
c) C-P+2
d) C-P
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of phases present in an alloy depends on the number of
elements of which it is composed. The Gibb’s phase rule is given by the equation F = C –
P + 2. Here, F is the degrees of freedom, C is the number of components, and P is the
number of phases
32. Hardness of water is due to the presence of salts of ____________
a) Potassium
b) Chlorine
c) Magnesium
d) Boron
Answer: c
Explanation: Hardness of water is due to the presence of salts of calcium and magnesium.
 Hard drinking water may have moderate health benefits, but can pose serious problems in
industrial settings, where water hardness is monitored to avoid costly breakdowns in
boilers, cooling towers, and other equipment that handles water.
33. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.
a) Water which does not form lather with soap and forms white scum is called hard water
b) Hard water contains dissolved calcium and magnesium salts in it
c) In hard water, cleansing quality of soap is depressed
d) Due to the presence of dissolved hardness-producing salts, the boiling point of water is
depressed
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to the presence of dissolved hardness-producing salts, the boiling point
of water is elevated. Elevation in boiling point is one of the most important colligative
property. All the other options are correct.
34. Hardness of water is conventionally expressed in terms of equivalent amount of
____________
a) H2CO3
b) MgCO3
c) CaCO3
d) Na2 CO3
Answer: c
Explanation: Hardness of water is conventionally expressed in terms of equivalent
amount of CaCO3. The total water hardness is the sum of the molar concentrations of
Ca2+ and Mg2+, in mol/L or mmol/L units.
35. Which of the following is not a unit of hardness?
a) Parts per million
b) Degree centigrade
c) Degree clarke
d) Degree French
Answer: b
Explanation: Degree centigrade is not a unit of hardness. Degree centigrade is the unit of
temperature. The unit for hardness is ppm (parts per million), degree clarke and degree
french. All these three units are inter-related.
36. 1 degree Clarke = 1 part of CaCO3 per _____________ parts of water.
a) 10,000
b) 30,000
c) 50,000
d) 70,000
Answer: d
Explanation: 1 degree Clarke = 1 part of CaCO3 per 70,000 parts of water. It is calculated
mathematically.
37. 1 ppm = ____________
a) 0.07 0Fr
b) 0.70Fr
c) 0.10Fr
d) 0.010Fr
 Answer: c
Explanation: 1 ppm = 0.10Fr. It is calculated mathematically.
38. In which process of water softening, the chemicals are added to remove hardness from
water?
a) Lime soda process
b) Zeolite process
c) Boiling
d) Demineralization process
Answer: a
Explanation: In the Lime soda process, lime and soda are added to remove temporary and
permanent hardness from water.
39. Semi-permeable membrane is selective membrane which does not permit the passage of
dissolved ________ particles.
a) Solvent
b) Solute
c) Anhydrous
d) Saturated
Answer: b
Explanation: Semi-permeable membrane is selective membrane which does not permit
the passage of dissolved solute particles. It is a type of biological or synthetic, polymeric
membrane that will allow certain molecules or ions to pass through it by diffusion
40. The pH for the potable water should be in the range of ___________
a) 5-6
b) 7-8.5
c) 9-10
d) 12-13
Answer: b
Explanation: The pH for the potable water should be in the range of 7-8.5. It should not
be acidic and also should not have a high value of basicity. Hence, it’s value should be in
the neutral range.
41. Which calorimeter is used to find calorific values of solid and liquid fuels?
a) Boy’s calorimeter
b) Bomb calorimeter
c) Junker’s calorimeter
d) Calvet-type calorimeter
Answer: b
Explanation: The calorific value of solid of solid and liquid fuel is defined as the amount
of heat liberated by complete combustion of unit mass of fuel. In SI unit s it is expressed
in kJ/kg. A bomb calorimeter is a type of constant volume calorimeter used in measuring
heat of combustion of particular reaction. Bomb calorimeters have to withstand the large
pressure within the calorimeter as the reaction is being measured.
42. The physical mixture of two or more polymers that are not linked by covalent bonds is
called ____________
a) Polymerisation
b) Dendrimer
c) Polyblend
 d) Multiblend
Answer: c
Explanation: The physical mixture of two or more polymers that are not linked by
covalent bonds is called polyblend or polymer blend. They are blended together to create
a new material with different physical properties.
43. Polymers are dissolved in common solvent to give ____________
a) Mechanical blends
b) Solution-cast blends
c) Latex blends
d) Chemical blends
Answer: b
Explanation: Polymers are dissolved in common solvent to give solution-cast blends. If
the blend is made of two polymers, two glass transition temperatures will be observed.
44. Which of the following is not required for the biodegradation process?
a) Micro-organism
b) Environment conditions
c) Adhesives
d) Substrate
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three essential conditions for the biodegradable process, micro-
organism, environment and substrate. Micro-organisims biodegrade the substrate in the
presence of a suitable environment.
45. Biodegradation will be more for ____________
a) More molecular weights and high crystallinity
b) Low molecular weights and high crystallinity
c) More molecular weights and less crystallinity
d) Low molecular weights and less crystallinity
Answer: d
Explanation: Biodegradation will be more for low molecular weights and less
crystallinity. Low molecular weight compound can easily be broken into pieces by micro-
organisms and hence improve the rate of biodegradation.
46. Which of the following is not an example of a natural biodegradable polymer?
a) Collagen
b) Polyvinyl alcohol
c) Lignin
d) Natural rubber
Answer: b
Explanation: Collagen, natural rubber, lignin etc are some of the examples of natural
biodegradable polymer. Polyvinyl alcohol is not an example of a natural biodegradable
polymer.
47. Polyamide polymers with amide group –CONH is known as ________
a) Teflon
b) Resin
c) Nylon
d) Coke
Answer: c
 Explanation: Nylon is a standard name for a group of polyamide polymers containing the
amide group –CONH. It is primarily used as a fiber but also finds its applications as an
engineering plastic. Nylon has good mechanical, chemical, and frictional properties.
48. Which of the following is a drawback of Nylon?
a) Moisture absorption
b) Easily Abrasive
c) Low Electric strength
d) Oil receptive
Answer: a
Explanation: Nylon is a material that possesses good abrasion and impact resistance.
However, it absorbs a lot of moisture. This results in changes in dimensions by more than
2% in a 100% relative humidity surrounding.
49. BUNA – S is otherwise called as __________
a) Sodium rubber
b) Synthesized rubber
c) Butadiene rubber
d) Styrene rubber
Answer: d
Explanation: BUNA – S is otherwise called as styrene rubber. It is also called as the
government rubber styrene
50. Which is not present in Grignard reagent?
a) Methyl group
b) Magnesium
c) Halogen
d) −COOH group
Answer: d
Explanation: Grignard reagents are made from halogenoalkanes (haloalkanes or alkyl
halides) and introduces some of their reactions. A Grignard reagent has a formula RMgX
where X is a halogen, and R is an alkyl or aryl (based on a benzene ring) group.
51. What is the melting point of Nylon 6?
a) 264oC
b) 223oC
c) 211oC
d) 200oC
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nylon is a crystalline and thermoplastic polymer. It had a good tensile
strength of 105 psi and a specific gravity of 1.14. The melting point of Nylon 6 is 223 oC,
whereas that of Nylon 6,6 is 264oC.