Limitations & Systems Study Guide

Challenger 300/350

Version 1.0 – 10/1/2023

 TABLE OF CONTENTS

Limitations 1
Icing & Cold Weather 1
Aircraft General 2
Weight & CG 3
Speeds 3
Avionics 4
Electrical 6
Aircraft Manuals 7
Flight Controls 7
Hydraulics 8
Landing Gear, Wheels, & Brakes 9
Fuel 10
Powerplant 12
Bleed Air 13
Air Conditioning & Pressurization 14
Oxygen 15
Fire Protection 16
APU 16

Aircraft Systems Sample Questions 17

CAE Aircraft Systems Sample Questions 23

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Aircraft Limitations & Systems
*Note: This list is not exhaustive, reference the current Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) for a complete list.

Kinds of Operations:
- Day
- Night
- VMC
- IMC
- Icing

Operations in Icing Conditions:

Definitions:
- Visible Moisture: rain, snow, sleet, clouds, fog (< 1 SM mile vis), ice crystals
- Surface Contamination: snow, ice, standing water, slush
- Inflight Icing Conditions: TAT ≤ 10°C and > SAT -40°C inflight and visible moisture in any form is encountered

Limitations:
- Engine Anti-Ice ON when:
o Ground operations and for takeoff
 OAT is ≤ 10°C and visible moisture in any form is present
 OAT is ≤ 10°C and surface contamination is present
o Flight operations
 In icing conditions (TAT ≤ 10°C and SAT > -40°C inflight, visible moisture in any form is encountered)
 ICE DETECTED CAS message is on

- Wing Anti Ice ON when:

o Ground Operations
 Takeoff
• OAT is ≤ 5°C and visible moisture in any form is present
 Ramps and taxiways
• OAT is ≤ 5°C and surface contamination is present
o Flight Operations
 In icing conditions (TAT ≤ 10°C and SAT > -40°C inflight, visible moisture) and below 210 KIAS
 ICE DETECTED CAS message is on

- When conducting Anti-Ice self-test on the ground, you can test the engines before or after the wings, but don’t do it while
the wing test is running (the 2 minutes after you cycle the selector)

- Engine or Wing Anti-Icing ON directs all 60 amps to center windshield section (normally 20 per section)
- Do not hold in icing conditions with flaps extended

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 - Flight in Super-Cooled Large Droplet (SLD) icing (indicated when side window icing is observed)
o Wing and Engine Anti-Ice systems must be on
o Leave icing conditions as soon as possible

- Cold Weather:
o Operate aircraft in accordance with FCOM 1 Supplement: Cold Weather Operations
o Takeoff prohibited with frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to any critical surface (wings, horizontal stabilizer, vertical
stabilizer, control surfaces, or engine inlets)
 Upper fuselage must be de-iced to remove contamination (other than allowable frost) anytime the wing and tail
surfaces require deicing
o Takeoff is permitted with frost adhering to
 The underside of the wing that is caused by cold soaked fuel
 The upper surface of the fuselage

- Operation with Type II, III and IV Anti-Icing Fluids

o Wing anti-ice must be ON prior to thrust increase for takeoff

Ditching:
- Certified for ditching when the appropriate equipment is installed

Approaches:
- Operations with a glidepath angle of 4.5° or greater are prohibited

Minimum Flight Crew:

- 1 pilot and 1 copilot

Aircraft General:
- Static wicks:
o 26 (350)
o 24 (300)
o Refer to CDL in AFM for missing wicks

- Wingspan:
o 69’ (350)
o 63’10” (300)

- Wingtip turn radius:

o 101’ (350)
o 96’ (300)

o Min width for 180° turn: 58’ (53’ with a 5’ safety margin)
- Same for 300 and 350

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Weight and CG:

Challenger 300 Challenger 350

Max Ramp Weight 39,000 lbs +1750 = 40,750 lbs
Max Takeoff Weight 38,850 lbs +1750 = 40,600 lbs
Max Zero Fuel Weight 27,200 lbs +1000 = 28,200 lbs
Max Landing Weight 33,750 lbs +400 = 34,150 lbs
Minimum Flight Weight 23,100 lbs +1700 = 24,800 lbs

Speeds:
- VMO - max operating (up to 8,000’) ....................................... 300 KIAS
- VMO (8,001’ – 29,475’) ........................................................... 320 KIAS
- MMO (Above 29,475’) ............................................................ 0.83 Mi
- VA – maneuvering ................................................................... Refer to AFM Figure 2-3-1 below:

- XOJet Min Maneuvering Speeds (FSM and AFM ROPAT):

o Flaps Up ............................................................................ VREF + 40 KIAS
o Flaps 10 ............................................................................. VREF + 30 KIAS
o Flaps 20 ............................................................................. VREF + 20 KIAS
o Flaps 30 ............................................................................. VREF + 10 KIAS

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 - VRA - rough air penetration.................................................... 265 KIAS/0.75 Mi
- VMCG - ground min control...................................................... 111 KIAS
- VMCA – air min control
o Flaps 10 ............................................................................. 106 KIAS
o Flaps 20 ............................................................................. 102 KIAS
- VLO RET – max gear retraction ................................................... 200 KIAS
- VLO EXT – max gear extension ................................................... 250 KIAS
- VLE – max gear down & locked................................................ 250 KIAS
- VFE – max flap extension
o Flaps 10 ............................................................................. 210 KIAS
o Flaps 20 ............................................................................. 210 KIAS
o Flaps 30 ............................................................................. 175 KIAS
- VT – transition (level acceleration segment/flaps up) ............ V2 + 15 (flaps 10°), V2 + 25 (flaps 20°)
- Maximum tire speed............................................................. 182 Knots (Groundspeed)

Operational:
- Maximum takeoff and landing pressure altitude................................................ 10,000’
- Maximum tailwind component .......................................................................... 10 knots
- Paved runways only
- Maximum runway slope ..................................................................................... -2% to +2%
- Maximum pressure altitude ............................................................................... 45,000’
- Maneuvering load factor (flaps up) .................................................................... +2.6 g to -1.0 g
- Maneuvering load factor (flaps extended) ......................................................... +2.0 g to 0 g
- Aerobatic maneuvers and spins prohibited

Autoflight:
- Do not intentionally overpower the autopilot
- Minimum Autopilot Engagement Height (AFM) ................................................. 700’ AGL
o NOTE: GOM states that min engagement altitude is 500’ for other than instrument approaches (Para. 7.15.1)
o NOTE: FSM requires that we don’t engage until 1,000’ AGL, but only after engine loss @ V1
- Minimum use height (Precision Approach ≤ 3.5°) .............................................. 80’ AGL
- Minimum use height (Precision Approach between 3.5° to 4.5°) ...................... 160’ AGL
- Minimum use height (visual and non-precision)................................................. 200’ AGL
- Max Altitude with Yaw Damper Off .................................................................... 31,000’
- 1/2 Bank Automatically Engaged ........................................................................ 31,600’

Avionics:
- Do not select XFR while simultaneously making inputs on an FMS CDU
- Weather products via datalink are advisory only
o Note: D-ATIS is approved
- FANS CPDLC must be operated in accordance with ATN and FANS Interlocked CPDLC Applications Operators Guide
- VNAV PROHIBITED during QFE Operations
- FMS performance data is advisory only
- FMS does not reduce available runway lengths for runways with displaced thresholds
- VFLC is PROHIBITED when reference airspeed is displayed as MACH

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- Altitude/speed constraints must be verified in STAR and approach procedures
- Instrument approaches must be contained in the FMS database
- FMS instrument approaches are PROHIBITED unless APPR is annunciated on the PFD
- PROHIBITED to use VNAV vertical guidance for V-MDA type approach between the final approach fix and the missed
approach fix
- FMS as a primary navigation source beyond the FAF is prohibited for ILS, LOC and LOC-BC approaches
- Use of standby instrument localizer deviation guidance is PROHIBITED during localizer backcourse approaches
- L and R WSHLD/WINDOW switches must be OFF while reading the standby compass
- Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS) – navigation must not be predicated on this display
- TAWS must be off when using QFE operations, and GPS is not available
- TCAS – maneuvers must not be based solely on information presented on the traffic map overlay
- PROHIBITED to load routes from PILOT ROUTE LIST inflight
- PROHIBITED to upload flight plans from ROUTE MENU (FPLN RECALL) inflight
- PROHIBITED to select FPLN WIND UPDATE from ROUTE MENU
- PROHIBITED to tune a localizer on the TUNE page using the identifier only
- PROHIBITED to initiate a NAV RADIO SELF TEST from any control inflight
- IFR navigation PROHIBITED unless database currency or waypoint accuracy verified
- On TAKEOFF: SOME Warnings, MOST Cautions, and ALL Status and Advisory messages are inhibited on takeoff until > 80
KIAS and climbing through 400’ AGL or 60 seconds, whichever happens first
- On LANDING: SOME Warnings, MOST Cautions, and ALL Status and Advisory messages are inhibited from 400’ AGL down
to 40 KIAS or for 60 seconds, whichever comes first, after weight-on-wheels

- Weather radar:
o Danger distance: 9’
o Switches to standby automatically 65 seconds after landing
o Magenta on display = turbulence

- Radio MFD Display:

o Yellow legends = Cross-side tuning
o Amber frequency = Tuning failure (likely a radio has failed)

- ILS Go-Around Technique: (S N A A P)

o Source (NAV Source button x 3 to get magenta line back)
o Nav – Select NAV mode
o Alt - Select FLC and desired speed
o AP – Autopilot on

- SVS Image Generated From:

o IRS heading & attitude data
o GNSS receiver position data
o SVS Terrain Database
o Images change with aircraft motion

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 - SVS Airport Symbols:
o Appear in display (airport symbol and identifier) 10-15 NM from airport
o Runway appears at 10 NM and replaces airport symbol
 Runway image based on FMS selected runway, has magenta extended centerline
o Departure runway edges = Cyan, arrival runway edges = Magenta
o Runway symbology (identifier, centerline & threshold markings) disappear 2 minutes after landing

- SVS INOP (A) message:

o Can happen on initial power-up
o Can indicate SVS miscompare between ADIs
o Can indicate SVS Terrain Database failure

- SVS RUNWAY INOP Advisory message:

o Indicates Runway Database failure

Electrical:
- 24 Volt DC System
- Two (2) 44-Amp/Hour NiCad Batteries
o Vented overboard
o Warmed by air from passenger compartment

- 2 or 3 generators operating ................................................................................ 400 amps max

- 1 generator operating (on the ground)............................................................... 400 amps max
- 1 generator operating (in flight) ......................................................................... 500 amps max
- Transient (5 minutes).......................................................................................... 600 amps max
- Minimum battery temperature for takeoff ........................................................ -20°C min

- LEFT Battery Bus = Main cabin door + Fire Protection system

- RIGHT Battery Bus = Fueling Panel + Fire Protection system
- MAIN batteries will power the Essential Bus for 1 hour (both together; 1 battery = 1/2 hour)
- STANDBY INST power is guaranteed for only 3 hours
o Bear in mind that systems necessary for navigation, instrument approaches, etc., will die after an hour)
- GREEN External Power Avail light = Proper voltage and polarity on connected ground power source

- GPU, when running, powers entire aircraft electrical system, no matter what other power sources are online
- Circuit Breaker Panels (that we have access to, there are more):
o Cockpit (2)
o L/R Equipment Racks (2)
o Aft Equipment Bay (2)
o Galley (1)

- EMER Lights illuminate when armed and RH MAIN BUS is lost

o EMER lights have their own independent 15 minute batteries

- BUS TIE button only OPENS the Bus Tie, it’s normally open when both engines are running

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Aircraft Manuals:
- QRH 1 = Normals (checklists & operations)
o FCOM 2 = Expanded normals (system descriptions)
- QRH 2 = Abnormals
o FCOM 1 = Expanded abnormals

- Also FCOM 1 - Recommended Operating Procedures and Techniques (ROPAT) = Maneuvers and speeds

Flight Controls:
- Max Flap Operation Altitude .............................................................................. 18,000’
- Selecting Flight Spoilers to EMER except during emergency conditions or as required by a procedure is PROHIBITED
- Minimum speed for flight spoilers ...................................................................... Approach speed + 8 KIAS
- Minimum altitude for flight spoilers ................................................................... 500’ AGL
- Losing DCU-A may result in loss of yaw damper (DCU-A monitors yaw damper status)
- Ailerons have a bent tab on both sides, trim tab on the left side only

- Takeoff Configuration Warning conditions (F A S T P D):

o Flaps
o Autopilot
o Spoilers
o Trims x 3
o Parking Brake
o Disconnects (aileron/elevator)

- Stab trim on takeoff is set for V2SE, not normal takeoff speed, that’s why you’re always trimming after normal takeoff
o Normal (2-engine) takeoff pitch attitude = 15-18°, rotate at 3° per second
o One engine inop takeoff pitch = 8-10°

- 4 Pitch Control Units (PCUs), 2 per elevator

- Horizontal stab trim autotrims on flap and spoiler deployment
- Trim clacker activates after 4 seconds of continuous trim application
- Horizontal stab trim operates in 2 modes, PRI and SEC:
o PRI mode rates are a function of airspeed + configuration
o SEC mode rate = 0.2° per second by default
 At 250 knots they move at the same rate

- NEW STEP IN PREFLIGHT PITCH TRIM CHECK PROCEDURE in the QRH-1 Before Start Expanded checklist
o Set trim at 1° and run to 3°, ensure digit and pointer scroll smoothly

- Spoilers form a max angle of 60° to the wing on the ground, 45° in the air
- Controlled by 2 Spoiler Electronic Control Units (SECU)
o SECU 1 controls inboard spoilers, SECU 2 controls outboard spoilers
- Lose hydraulic pressure and you lose the spoilers
- Left yoke connected to spoilers (SECU), right yoke connected to ailerons

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 - Yaw Damper:
o Primary purpose is to prevent Dutch Roll at high altitude
o Disabled on ground from 60 knots unit weight off wheels (Flight Mode Annunciator [FMA] indication will be amber)
o YD control authority = ± 5° of rudder deflection
o Max altitude if yaw damper fails = 31,000’
o Rudder Limiter kicks in at approximately 140 KIAS

- Flight Spoilers:
o Do not deploy below 500’ AGL
 EICAS will warn you by displaying FLT SPOILERS DEPLOY (C) message if you do
o Min deployment speed = Approach speed (not REF) + 8 knots
- Ground Spoiler Deployment Logic:
o Throttles – IDLE, plus any 2 of:
 RALT ˂ 7’
 Weight on Wheels
 Wheel speed ˃ 16 knots

- Stall Pusher:
o Two configurations: EASA and FAA
 FAA config will disable stall pusher, illuminate the CAUTION light, and set an amber EICAS message if you push the
red button the yoke
 EASA configuration will NOT disable the stall pusher, it will continue to push no matter what you do
 This is significant, and worth checking, as some of our aircraft were initially delivered outside the US, then
transferred back into the US…
 To check: During the pusher test, push and hold the red button on the yoke for 10 seconds. If it does NOT
illuminate the CAUTION light and set the CAS message, it isn’t FAA compliant.

Hydraulics:
- SIX (6) total hydraulic pumps:
o 2 Engine-Driven Pumps (EDP) – 20 GPM flow
o 2 DC Motor-Driven Pumps (DCMP) – 2 GPM flow
o 1 Power Transfer Unit (PTU) – Dedicated to landing gear operation
o 1 Aux DC Motor-Driven Pump (Aux DCMP) – Powers lower rudder PCU when right hydraulic system fails

- EDPs provide 3,000 PSI nominal system pressure

- DCMPs power hydraulic systems in the event of engine or EDP failure, and for maintenance on the ground
o Each is powered by the generator and DC bus of the engine on the opposite side; AUX DCMP by L ESS Bus
o If no generators are operational, R DCMP will energize whenever a non-zero flap setting is selected
- PTU’s purpose is to raise the gear faster in the event of a #1 engine failure (to get gear in the well within the required time
to meet FAR Part 25 segmented takeoff obstacle clearance requirements)
- Brakes and Aux Hydraulic System have accumulators, all other systems do not
- Nosewheel Steering is the only hydraulic system with no backup
- When the RIGHT engine fails, flaps take 60-70 seconds longer than normal to extend to 10° due to the lower flow rate of
the DCMPs (2 vs. 20 GPM)
o Extension time from 10° to 20°, and from 20° to 30° respectively, is normal

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 HYD Reservoir Data LEFT RIGHT AUX
Res Capacity (qts.) 13 9.1 1.5
Normal Upper Cap (%) 85 85 85
Normal Lower Cap (%) 30 40 20

Landing Gear, Wheels and Brakes:

- Max gear extension altitude ............................................................................... 18,000’
- MWS max angle = 120°; CAS message @ 120°, limit pin breaks @ 123°
- Tiller control ± 65° left/right; rudder pedal control ± 7° left/right
- Managed by Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit (PSEU)
- Magenta dashes in gear indicator indicate loss of data fed to the PSEU

- If you get the Parking Brake Pressure Low EICAS message with accompanying CAUTION light while parked, turn on the
LEFT hydraulic pump and check the Hydraulic synoptic. Parking Brake pressure is indicated at the left wheel symbol.
o When the aircraft is shut down, parking brake pressure bleeds very slowly; with engines shut down but power ON,
parking brake pressure bleeds off relatively quickly
- Anti-skid protection in effect until < 10 knots
- “Brake-by-Wire” system, no physical connection between brake pedals and brakes
o Brake pedal sensor (LVDT) attached to each pedal is connected to Brake Control Unit (BCU)
o BCU accepts input from whichever pedals are pushing hardest
- Brake Snubbing Procedure: 7 brake applications from 20 to 5 knots
- Brake cooling times in AFM Chapter 6 must be observed between landing or a rejected takeoff

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Fuel:
- Approved additive .............................................................................................. (0.1 to 0.15% by volume) Prist
o DO NOT add unblended Prist directly into the fuel tank – it may damage components
- Single point refueling pressure limit ................................................................... 55 psig
- Single point defueling pressure limit .................................................................. -8 psig
o Fuel trucks must push 35 PSI minimum to make shutoff valves function in auto refueling mode
- Fuel transfer power and gravity shut-off valves shall be selected OFF for takeoff
- Minimum Fuel for Go-Around ............................................................................ 500 lbs per side
- Maximum Fuel Imbalance .................................................................................. Reference FCOM1 info below:

Max Fuel Imbalance

Fuel Imbalance CAS Threshold Fuel Quantity
250 lbs Fuel > 13,700 lbs
315 lbs Fuel = 13,700 lbs – 10,000 lbs
450 lbs Fuel = 10,000 lbs – 4,700 lbs
600 lbs Fuel < 4,700 lbs

- Max Bulk Fuel Temperature for takeoff.............................................................. 50°C

- Bulk Fuel Temperature above 45°C
o Minimum fuel load for takeoff ...................................................................... 2,800 lbs (for oil & hyd cooling)
o Less than 1,000 lbs of fuel per side, do not operate engine for more than 30 minutes
- Minimum Bulk Fuel Temperature for takeoff ..................................................... Reference table below:

- Read fuel temp on Fuel synoptic page

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 Pressure Refueling – Usable Fuel Loads
Fuel Tank Quantity
Right 7,075 lbs
Left 7,075 lbs
Left & Right 14,150 lbs

Gravity (overwing) Refueling (Airplane Level) – Usable Fuel Loads

Fuel Tank Quantity
Right 6,500 lbs
Left 6,500 lbs
Left & Right 13,000 lbs

- Right side collector tank supplies fuel to APU

- < 200 lbs fuel in collector tank turn on EICAS message

- NINE (9) total fuel pumps:

o 2 Engine-driven pumps
o 2 DC boost pumps
o 2 Ejector pumps
o 2 Ejector scavenge pumps
o 1 APU pump

- NINE (9) fuel probes per wing, 18 total

- Fuel transfer pump capacity = 50 PPM
- There is no fuel crossfeed (feeding an engine from the opposite wing tank) capability, only crossflow (via gravity) or
transfer (with transfer pumps)

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Powerplant:
- Engine Type:
o Challenger 300: Allied Signal AS907-1-1A / Honeywell Turbo Fan HTF 7000 turbofan engines
 Takeoff Thrust ............................................. 6,826 lbs flat rated to ISA + 15°C
• Limited to 5 Minutes
 APR (Automatic Power Reserve) Thrust……. 6,826 lbs flat rated to ISA + 20°C
• Limited to 10 Minutes
o Challenger 350: AS907-2-1A / Honeywell Turbo Fan HTF 7350 turbofan engines
 Takeoff Thrust ............................................. 7,323 lbs flat rated to ISA + 15°C (approx. 7% more than the 300)
• Limited to 5 Minutes
 APR Thrust................................................... 7,323 lbs flat rated to ISA + 20°C
• Limited to 10 Minutes

- Engine indicating system, limitations are displayed in red

- CLB = MCT
- APR = Extra power for use in single engine situations
- APR time limits:
o Selected by pilot: ........................................................................................... 5 minutes
o Selected by FADEC: ....................................................................................... 10 minutes
o FADEC commands APR automatically upon a SE condition or when it sees a 15% N2 split
- Min oil temperature to operate above idle power ............................................. 5°C
- Min oil temperature below CLB power............................................................... 14°C
- Check oil at least 5, no more than 30, minutes after engine shutdown
- Engine Start – 3 consecutive cycles followed by a cooling period of 15 minutes
- Engine must be motored for 30 seconds after an aborted start
- Engine can be motored for up to 5 minutes followed by a 15-minute cooling period
- Fuel system icing inhibitor must be used when fuel temperature is below – 20°C unless cold weather procedures are
followed

- Engine Ground Start Procedure Following Shutdown (15 – 180 minutes after shutdown on a turn)
o When engines will be restarted within 15 mins – 3 hours after shutdown, dry motor the engine with this procedure
o Prevents rotor bow and vibration on subsequent start, which could trigger the ENGINE VIBRATION (C) CAS message
 ENGINE VIBRATION (C) CAS message is latched, only way to clear it is to completely power down the jet
o Checklist in QRH-1 SUPPLEMENTAL DATA section, summary:
 Dry motor the engine with Engine RUN switch off to 21% (± 2%) N2 or 15 seconds, whichever comes first
 Wait 3 minutes; window for next start is 3 to 40 minutes after this procedure is accomplished
 If ˃ 40 minutes but ˂ 3 hours have passed, repeat the dry motoring procedure
 If ˃ 3 hours have passed, no need to do the procedure again

- FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control)

o DO NOT let FADEC abort a hung start, or an exceedance will be recorded (650° ITT max)
o If FADEC does abort a hung start, on the next start the opposite FADEC channel and dual igniters will be automatically
selected

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 o In the event of a FADEC failure, the engine might continue to operate, go to idle, or fail completely; depends on the
malfunction and there’s no way to predict it

- Items on the Accessory Gearbox (F A G H O P):

o Fuel Pump & Metering Unit (FPMU)
o Air Turbine Starter
o Generator
o Hydraulic Pumps (engine driven)
o Oil Reservoir
o Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)

- PMA powers the FADEC after 45% N2, before that point FADEC is powered by DC power

- Start ITT limits:

o Ground: ......................................................................................................... 650°
o Air:................................................................................................................. 700°
- Airborne ITT limits:
o Normal: ......................................................................................................... 928°
o APR: ............................................................................................................... 946°

Thrust Reversers:
- Limit thrust reverse system use to ground operations on paved surfaces
- Do not deploy thrust reversers in flight
- Do not use thrust reversers to back up the aircraft
- Do not use thrust reversers for touch and go landings
- Reverse thrust above idle reverse is prohibited below 40 KIAS

Bleed Air:
- Monitored and controlled by 2 Integrated Air System Controllers (IASC)
o Memory aid: “I AS(C) for air…”
o IASCs control bleed air valves, flow control valves, the air cycle machine, the trim air valves, the ram air regulating
valve bleed leak detection, wing anti−ice, and cabin pressurization functions
- Intermediate Bleed supplies systems inside the pressure vessel: air conditioning, pressurization, etc. - 50±3 PSI
o EICAS CAUTION illuminates at 60 PSI
- High Pressure Bleed supplies systems outside the pressure vessel: wing/pylon, engine anti-ice, etc. - 30±3 PSI
o Note that the name of the bleed air supply denotes where it comes from, not the pressure spec
o TRIM air system exists to provide auxiliary pressurization and temp control in the event of complete loss of the air
conditioning pack
 TRIM air is straight, uncooled bleed air, full hot
 During normal operations, TRIM air is also mixed with cooled PACK air to provide conditioned air to the
Environmental Control System
- APU Bleed output = 20 PSI
o APU feeds bleed air to the RIGHT manifold only
- Bleed Air leak detection divided into 8 zones
- Minimum bleed pressure required for a crossbleed start = 32 PSI

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Air Conditioning and Pressurization (Environmental Control):
- Monitored and controlled by 2 Integrated Air System Controllers (IASC)
o Memory aid: “I AS(C) for air…”
- Normal operation summarized:
o Pressurized air from the engines, APU or a ground cart is fed to the PACK and TRIM systems
o Air Cycle Machine inside the PACK cools that air to just below freezing
o PACK and TRIM air are then mixed together, controlled by the IASCs to provide conditioned air at the selected temp
- Air Source – DO NOT select TRIM AIR ONLY while on ground
- PACK must be operating when electrical power is on for more than 30 minutes and OAT is above 40°C
- EMER DEPRESS brings the cabin up to 14,500’, the altitude at which the passenger oxygen masks deploy
- Max differential pressure on the ground ............................................................ 0.1 PSI
- Max differential pressure during landing............................................................ 1.0 PSI
- Max positive differential pressure ...................................................................... 9.4 PSI
- Max positive differential pressure in AUTO Mode.............................................. 8.8 PSI
- Safety valves begin to open ................................................................................ 9.25 PSI
- Max negative differential pressure ..................................................................... -0.5 PSI
- Temp range NORMAL Mode ............................................................................... 15°- 35°C
- Temp Range MANUAL Mode .............................................................................. 10°- 70°C

- Pressurization system operates in one of two modes: Automatic or Manual

- 6 IASC-controlled automatic pressurization modes:
o Pre-pressurization
 When throttles advanced for takeoff, pre-pressurizes the cabin to 300’ below field altitude to eliminate
noticeable pressure changes after takeoff
o Takeoff and Return to Base
 System maintains pre-pressurization setting until 6,000’ MSL or 10 minutes after takeoff, whichever comes first;
allows emergency return to departure field without having to reset pressurization system
o Climb
 Pressurization schedule varies with climb rate; 300-500 FPM, max 635 FPM
 Climbing through 10,000 MSL, cabin pressure differential should be ≈ 4 PSID (10-4, good buddy…)
o Cruise
 Activated when ROC ˂ 500 FPM for ˃ 10 seconds or jet climbing at any altitude ˃ 25,000’; cabin pressurized
according to pressure schedule
o Descent
 Cabin ROD based on aircraft descent rate and ADC-calculated remaining flight time; 300 FPM typical unless
descent rate very high
 Cabin alt descends on schedule until 300’ below landing field elevation
o Depressurization Sequence on Ground
 After landing or aborted takeoff, cabin depressurizes at 500 FPM and outflow valve opens and remains open

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 - Landing Sequence at Elevations ˃ 7,850’ MSL:
o Scheduled cabin pressure altitude is normally limited to 7,850’ inflight (based on Aspen, CO) and then automatically set
to the landing field elevation on descent. But what if the landing field elevation is ˃ 7,850’ MSL?

 In NORMAL mode, the CABIN ALTITUDE (C) message sounds at 8,500’ and the CABIN ALTITUDE (W) at 9,400’

 On descent to a landing field where the elevation ˃ 7,850’, the CABIN ALT WARN HIGH (A) message displays to
inform the crew that the above limits have been reset to a higher altitude

 The CABIN ALTITUDE (C) message sounds at 650’ above landing field pressure altitude, and the
CABIN ALTITUDE (W) at 1,550’ above landing field pressure altitude; both are limited to 14,300’ pressure altitude

Oxygen:
- Number of bottles .............................................................................................. 2
- Volume per bottle .............................................................................................. 77 cu ft (2183 liters), 115 cu ft (3256 liters)
(5439 liters total)
- System pressure ................................................................................................. 1850 PSI
- Max cabin altitude for CREW masks ................................................................... 40,000’
- Max cabin altitude for PASSENGER masks .......................................................... 25,000’
- Passenger masks deploy in AUTO mode (cabin alt) ............................................ 14,500 ± 500’
- Flight crew on continuous oxygen (cabin alt) ..................................................... 10,000’
- O2 QTY LOW (C) message .................................................................................. 700 liters remaining
- One pilot leaves cockpit, other pilot on oxygen.................................................. ≥ FL250
- One pilot on oxygen continuously ...................................................................... ≥ FL350

- Oxygen displayed in liters on status page, PSI on external oxygen filler port gauge
- 2 passenger masks per container, 20 total, including lavatory
- Prolonged operation of passenger oxygen masks above 25,000 ft cabin altitude is not recommended
- EMER DEPRESS brings the cabin up to 14,500’, the altitude at which the passenger oxygen masks deploy
- Procedure to calculate O2 required for flight in PTH

- Carriage of Extra Oxygen Bottles:

o Level 4 release (supplemental O2)
o Special planning, preflight and briefing required
o Crew must be notified and trained
o If carried, must have a full set of 3 bottles, 2 large and 1 small (crew walkaround)
o Procedure to calculate O2 required with extra bottles aboard in PTH

- Checklists which call for donning oxygen masks:

o Emergency Depressurization
o Dual Engine Flameout
o Cabin/Cockpit Fire, Smoke & Fumes
o Cargo Smoke
o CABIN ALTITUDE Warning

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Fire Protection:
- Pressing a FIRE extinguisher switch shuts off (H A L F F S):
o Hydraulics
o Air (bleed)
o Lectrics (electrical system – generator)
o Fuel
o FADEC (engine shutdown commanded)
o Squibs (extinguisher squibs armed)

- Dual fire detection loop everywhere except MLG bays

- APU (only) will auto-shutdown if a fire is detected
- The #2 fire extinguisher bottle in the Aft Equipment Bay has a dedicated squib for the APU
o Once the #2 bottle is used, there’s no way to apply extinguishing agent to a APU fire, so we use the #1 bottle first with
an engine fire
- Fire Detection System self-test runs continuously (every 5 minutes), that’s why we don’t run it in the acceptance check
- When pressing a FIRE button, always hold it until the EXTINGUISHER LOW EICAS message appears
o 10 seconds for the first bottle, 30 seconds for the second (per the QRH2 checklist)

APU:
- Max altitude for APU operation.......................................................................... 37,000’
- Max altitude for starting the APU (inflight) ........................................................ 30,000’
- Max airspeed for starting the APU...................................................................... 285 KIAS
- APU GEN operation ............................................................................................ 30,000’
- APU bleed air use for engine start (inflight)........................................................ 20,000’
- Max altitude to use bleed air for ECS (inflight) ................................................... 20,000’
- APU fuel burn ..................................................................................................... 150 pph (loaded), 80 pph (unloaded)
- Max Start for APU (ground) ................................................................................ 14,000’
- Min RIGHT battery voltage for APU start ............................................................ 20 Volts DC
- GPU, when connected, powers the entire aircraft electrical system, no matter what engines/APU are running
o Batteries DO NOT have to be connected for the APU to power the aircraft electrical system!
- If batteries are connected, they will still power the BATTERY Busses even if the switches are selected OFF
- Following unsuccessful air start, do not attempt another start until after landing
- Do not use the APU to start the left engine on the ground above 9,000’
- Operation of the APU during fluid de-icing/anti-icing is prohibited
- Hold APU START switch in START position for 3 seconds
- Abort start of APU RPM is less than 30% after 30 seconds
- 3 start attempts (on ground) may be made followed by 1 minute cooling period (ST -1 - ST - 1 - ST - 20)
o After third start attempt there must be a 20-minute cooling period
o No further attempts for at least 40 minutes
- 2 more start attempts may then be made. No further attempts may be made for at least 40 minutes.
- 6 successive starts may be made at 10-minute intervals with a 1 hour waiting period prior to additional start attempts
- APU Electronic Control Unit (ECU) is essentially the APU’s FADEC

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Aircraft Systems Sample Questions
The following study guide is intended to spur a self-guided session that gets you into the manuals and dig deeper than
limitations and memory items. Answers for these questions are intentionally not provided. Using these questions in
addition to the memory items and limitations should allow you to feel fully prepared for your checkride.

Aircraft General
1. Aircraft wing span: 69” (350), 63’ 10” (300) – FCOM Vol 2
2. Aircraft height: 20’ (both) – FCOM Vol 2
3. Turning Radius: Min width for 180° turn: 58’ (53’ with a 5’ safety margin) [both] – FCOM Vol 2
4. Towing Limitations: Torque links connected, NWS deenergized, max nosewheel angle 120°. May be towed at
any angle if torque links disconnected and visible chrome on shock strut is ˃ min required on placard – FCOM
Vol 2
5. Which doors are monitored? (5) Aft equip bay, Batt bay door, Cargo door, Cabin emer exit, passenger door. Pax
and cargo door EICAS messages white; turn amber when L Eng Run Switch turned to ON position – FCOM Vol 2

Air Conditioning and Pressurization

1. What are the sources of HP Bleed Air? Engines – FCOM Vol 2
2. What are the sources of IP Bleed Air? Engines, APU, ground cart – FCOM Vol 2
3. What is HP Bleed Air used for? Wing Anti-Ice system – FCOM Vol 2
4. What is IP Bleed Air used for? ECS (air conditioning) and engine starting – FCOM Vol 2
5. What does the IASC do? Bleed air system control and monitoring. Collect data from the air conditioning and bleed
air control functions and monitor cabin pressure and ice protection functions. – FCOM Vol2
6. How are the bleed air valves operated and controlled? Intermediate and High Pressure valves are pneumatically
operated and electrically controlled – FCOM 2
7. What does the bleed leak system monitor? Bleed air and anti-ice ducts. 8 zones, IASC controlled. – FCOM 2
8. What is trim air used for? Auxiliary pressurization and temperature control in the event of complete loss of the
air conditioning PACK. Also tapped to mix with PACK air for air conditioning. – FCOM 2
9. What is the PACK used for? Provides conditioned air for the fuselage compartments – FCOM 2
10. In manual pressurization mode, which IASC is controlling? IASC 1 – FCOM 2
11. What are the automatic pressurization modes? Pre-pressurization, Takeoff and return to base, Climb, Cruise,
Descent, and Ground depressurization – FCOM 2
12. What does the EMER Depress switch do? Depressurizes the cabin for smoke and fumes evacuation – FCOM 2
13. What does the ditching switch do? Depressurizes the cabin, shuts off the air conditioning, and closes the
outflow valve and keeps it closed – FCOM 2
14. What does the manual temperature switch do? Allows manual control when automatic control using cabin and
cockpit sensors isn’t working – FCOM 2
15. What is CABIN ALT WARN HIGH (Mode)? Automatically resets EICAS cabin altitude cautions & warnings to
trigger at 650’ and 1,550’ (respectively) above landing field pressure altitude when landing field PA is above
7,850’ – FCOM 2

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Aural / Visual Alerts
1. What are the DCUs? Data Concentrator Units – collect data from various aircraft systems, process it and relay it
to the proper component or display – FCOM 2
2. What color are items displayed in when there is invalid data? Magenta – FCOM 2
3. What are the IAPs? Integrated Avionics Processor System – A physical collection of functional modules combined
into an efficient mechanical package to minimize size, weight, and wiring, as well as to improve system reliability
and maintainability. Physically, it’s the card cage in the right equipment rack behind the cockpit – FCOM 2

Automatic Flight Control System

1. When depressing the TOGA switch during go around, what happens? Disengages the autopilot, activates Lateral
(heading hold ± 5°bank authority) and Vertical go-around modes – FCOM 2
2. What color is an active mode in the FMA? Green, on top line – FCOM 2
3. What color is an armed mode in the FMA? White, on bottom line – FCOM 2
4. What do the flight modes directly control? Automatically control the aircraft’s flight path
5. What does the flight director directly control? Nothing directly, provides visual pitch and roll control guidance
only
6. What are the lateral AFCS Modes? 8 total: Roll, TO, HDG, NAV, GA, APPR, BC, 1/2 BANK – FCOM 2
7. What does TO in the lateral mode give you? Generates a heading hold command (with ± 5°bank authority) based
on heading at moment of weight off wheels – FCOM 2
8. What does TO in the vertical mode give you? A pitch up command calculated based on V2 and VR – FCOM 2
9. What does GA in the lateral mode give you? Disengages the autopilot, activates heading hold ± 5°bank authority
– FCOM 2
10. What does GA in the vertical mode give you? Turns on both Flight Directors, disengages the autopilot, clears all
other vertical modes except OVERSPEED, and switches flight guidance commands to dual-independent
configuration – FCOM 2
11. When does TERM mode engage? When the FMS sequences from the enroute segment to the terminal segment
of the flight plan, within 30 NM of the airport reference point – FMS 5000 Ref Manual
12. IRS Limitation?
13. What are the parameters for takeoff inhibited CAS messages? Some WARNING, most CAUTION, and all ADVISORY
messages are inhibited when the airspeed is above 80 knots and until altitude in at least 400’ AGL or 60 seconds,
whichever comes first – FCOM 2

Auxiliary Power Unit

1. What is the minimum battery voltage to start the APU? 20 Volts DC from the RIGHT BATTERY Bus
2. What is the max airspeed to start the APU in flight? 285 KIAS – FCOM 1
3. How many start attempts do you have for the APU in flight? One (6 total on the ground) – FCOM 1

Communications
Reserved

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Electrical
1. Which busses are powered on the ground with both batteries on? BATTERY and ESSENTIAL busses – FCOM 2
2. What does it mean when you see AVAIL illuminated on the EXT PWR PBA? Cable plugged in, > 5 Volts DC
detected, GPU output within acceptable parameters (approximately 24 – 32 volts) – FCOM 2
3. How many power sources do we have for the electrical system? Three – Batteries, Generators (engine & APU),
and GPU – FCOM 2
4. What controls the electrical system? Two DC Power Centers (DCPC) – FCOM 2
5. What equipment will be inoperative in essential power only? – LOTS of stuff, list in QRH Vol 2 procedure
6. Where are the secondary power centers located? Equipment rack in the front fuselage – FCOM 2
7. What busses shed with the loss of a generator in flight? AUX busses – FCOM 1
8. What items do you lose during a L or R Aux Bus Fail? List in QRH Vol 2 procedure – QRH Vol 2
9. What items do you lose during a L or R Main Bus Fail? See QRH Vol 2 procedure – QRH Vol 2
10. What happens during an auto press fail? Both auto pressurization modes have failed, control cabin
pressurization manually. See QRH Vol 2 checklist – QRH Vol 2

Oxygen and Emergency Equipment

1. Where are the fire extinguishers located? Cockpit (behind FO seat), galley, lavatory – FCOM 2
2. Where do you find the oxygen duration tables? FCOM Vol 2, Chapter 8 – FCOM 2
3. Where is the oxygen bottle located? Dedicated compartment, RH side of lavatory section – FCOM 2

Fire Protection
1. What system detects an engine fire? Fire Detection and Extinguishing System – FCOM 2

2. What system detects a bleed leak? Bleed Air leak Detection System – FCOM 2

3. What happens when you press the engine fire switch? Fuel SOV closes, IP and HP bleed-air SOVs close, hydraulic
SOVs close, generator is selected offline, FADEC commands engine shutdown, both fire bottles arm to the
respective engine; (HALFFS: Hydraulics, air, ‘lectrics, fuel, FADEC, squibs) – FCOM 2
4. What happens with an APU fire on the ground? APU automatically shuts down; 5 seconds later, #2 fire bottle is
discharged into APU compartment – FCOM 2
5. What are we required to do if we use both engine fire bottles in flight? Land as soon as possible – (REF?)

Flight Controls
1. What items trigger a takeoff configuration warning? Flaps, spoilers, parking brake, autopilot, aileron trim, rudder
trim, roll and pitch disconnect, and horizontal stabilizer trims (FASTPD: Flaps, autopilot, spoilers, trims, parking
brake, disconnects) – FCOM 1
2. What powers the horizontal stabilizer? Electrically operated linear actuator controlled by Horizontal
Stabilizer Trim Electronic Control Unit (HSTECU) – FCOM 2
3. How many channels do we have for pitch trim? Two: Primary and Secondary – FCOM 2

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 4. What does configuration trim do? Automatic movement of horizontal stab trim when flaps or spoilers are
extended/retracted – FCOM 2
5. What does Mach Trim do? Automatic movement of the horizontal stab trim to compensate for the rearward
shift of the aerodynamic center of pressure as Mach number increases – FCOM 2
6. What is the max speed of the airplane with Mach trim inop? .75 Mi/250 KIAS (autopilot disengaged),
MMO/VMO max (autopilot engaged) – FCOM 1
7. How far can you move the rudders with pedals? Not published for flight regime, ±7° on the ground – FCOM 2
8. What controls the ailerons? Ailerons are manually controlled via cable (no hydraulic assistance) – FCOM 2
9. What do the multifunction spoilers do? The two outboard spoiler panels on each wing. In flight, they
operate asymmetrically in a roll (roll assist) and symmetrically as lift spoilers (lift dump, a.k.a. speed
braking); on the ground they operate symmetrically as lift spoilers (ground lift dump) – FCOM 2
10. Which computer controls the spoilers? Spoiler Electronic Control Units (SECU) 1 and 2 – FCOM 2
11. When do the multifunction spoilers begin providing roll control? 8° of control wheel roll movement – FCOM 2
12. Which control column directly controls the ailerons? Copilot side when ROLL DISCONNECT lever pulled – FCOM 2
13. When do the ground spoilers deploy? Throttles at idle and any two of: RADALT <7’, weight on wheels, wheel
speed >16 knots – FCOM 2
14. When do we receive a FLAPS RATE LOW CAS message? When the right engine is shut down or if the engine driven
pump is shut down – FCOM 1

Flight Instruments
1. How long does the standby instrument battery last? 3.5 hours – FCOM 1
2. Why do we turn on the right battery first? To prevent uncommanded APU start – FCOM 1
3. Where is AOA information displayed? 300 – Not displayed; 350 – On PFD to the left of airspeed tape – FCOM 2

Fuel
1. What does a cyan ENGINE FUEL BYPASS mean? Respective fuel filter is impending bypass – FCOM 1
2. What is the max capacity with gravity refueling? 13,000 lbs – FCOM 1
3. How many fuel tanks are in the Challenger 300? Two – FCOM 2
4. Where is the bulk fuel temperature measured? Fuel temperature probe in right wing tank – FCOM 2

Hydraulics
1. What items are on the left hydraulic system? FCOM 2

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 2. What are PCUs? Power Control Units; rudder and elevator control actuators – FCOM 2
3. What controls the rudder PCUs? Upper Rudder PCU = Left HYD system; Lower Rudder PCU = Right HYD system; If
right HYD system fails, AUX HYD system can power the Rudder PCU – FCOM 2
4. Which hydraulic system powers the flaps? Normal ops = Right HYD system; With ALTN FLAPS selected = Left HYD
system – FCOM 2
5. Which hydraulic pump moves more volume, EDP or DCMP? EDPs (20 GPM). DCMPs = 2 GPM – FCOM 2
6. What is the purpose of the AUX Pump? Provides hydraulic pressure to the lower rudder PCU in the event of right
HYD system failure – FCOM 2
7. What is the purpose of the PTU? Power Transfer Unit – Hydraulically operated (by RH HYD system) hydraulic
pump dedicated to extension/retraction of landing gear in the event of left engine failure. Allows jet to meet
FAR 25 engine-out climb requirements – FCOM 2
8. How many hydraulic accumulators? Four total: 1 – aux HYD system; 1 – MLG downlock assist; 1 – inboard +
PARK/EMER brakes; 1 – outboard brakes – FCOM 2
9. When does the PTU come on? When manually selected ON. In AUTO mode: Aircraft is airborne, gear is not in
commanded position, left engine or left EDP is inop or failed, and right EDP is producing pressure – FCOM 2
10. When do the DCMPs come on during ground operations? When manually selected ON at the HYD panel switch –
FCOM 2
11. When do the DCMPs come on during flight operations? In AUTO, when flaps are set at 10° or greater, or if low
hydraulic system pressure is detected – FCOM 2

Ice and Rain Protection

1. What is the definition of visible moisture? Fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice
crystals – FCOM 1
2. When we select engine anti ice on, what happens? Anti-ice ECU opens nacelle anti-icing valve and HP bleed air is
sprayed/directed into the inner surfaces of the nacelle leading edge through the nacelle anti-ice ring – FCOM 2
3. Why do select windshield anti ice on while on the ground? Can’t find this explicitly stated anywhere in any of our
pubs, but best guess: 1 – Ops check it, 2 – prevent condensation/fogging from forming that will freeze after
takeoff (windshield is one of the clean aircraft concept surfaces), 3 – remove condensation/fogging already
present
4. What happens to the windshield when the engine anti ice is on? Engine or Wing Anti-Icing ON directs all 60 amps
to center windshield section (normally 20 per section) (Can’t find a reference in the tech manuals though…)
5. What is the brake warming procedure? 7 consecutive brake applications decelerating from 20 to 5 knots during
the last mile of taxi prior to and not including the final stop before takeoff – FCOM 1
6. How is the windshield protected from rain? Treated with a rain-resistant coating – FCOM 2

Landing Gear
1. What does the PSEU control? The takeoff configuration warning system – FCOM 2
2. How many degrees does the nose wheel turn with tiller? 65° – FCOM 2
3. What happens when you pull the emergency extension handle? When pulled, the MANUAL RELEASE HANDLE
release the nosegear uplock, and it extends via gravity and spring forces. Main landing gear is released from
their uplocks via cables, and the hydraulic manual selector valve is positioned to hydraulically lower the gear
– FCOM 2

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 4. How long do you have to put the gear down in the event of a complete hydraulic failure of both systems? 30
minutes – QRH Vol 2
5. When do the brakes become operative when transiting from flight? The braking system is armed when weight
on wheels is detected for more than 5 seconds, or wheel spinup > 50 knots – FCOM 2
6. When is the antiskid inhibited? Below 10 knots and when using the PARK/EMER brake – FCOM 2

Lighting
Reserved

Navigation
Reserved

Powerplant
1. When does APR come on automatically? Upon a SE condition or when the FADEC sees a 15% N2 split – FCOM 2
2. How much time can APR be on for? 5 minutes (pilot selected), 10 minutes (FADEC selected) – FCOM 2
3. How many FADECs are on the airplane? Two (engines). Three if you count the APU ECU – FCOM 2
4. How many Channels per FADEC? 2 – FCOM 2
5. When do the ignitors come on? During automatic ground starts and airborne restarts (automatic restarts in the
event of flameouts). Also, whenever the pilot manually turns on the pedestal ignition switch – FCOM 2
6. What type of engines are on the Challenger? Challenger 300: Allied Signal AS907-1-1A / Honeywell Turbo Fan
HTF 7000 turbofan engines; Challenger 350: AS907-2-1A / Honeywell Turbo Fan HTF 7350 turbofan engines –
FCOM 2

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CAE Aircraft Systems Study Guide
The following study guide was created from the study card set created by Colin Larson, CAE’s Challenger program manager
and lead instructor. Duplicates have been removed and any errors corrected.

AIRCRAFT GENERAL & LIMITATIONS

What is the maximum ramp weight for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
40,750 lbs

What is the maximum takeoff weight for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
40,600 lbs

What is the maximum landing weight for a Challenger 350 aircraft?

34,150 lbs

What is the maximum zero fuel weight for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
28,200 lbs

What is the minimum flight weight for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
24,800 lbs

What is the maximum ramp weight for the Challenger 300 Aircraft?
39,000 lbs

What is the maximum takeoff weight for the Challenger 300 aircraft?
38,850 lbs

What is the maximum landing weight for a Challenger 300 aircraft?

33,750 lbs

What is the maximum zero fuel weight for the Challenger 300 aircraft?
27,200 lbs

What is the minimum flight weight for the Challenger 300 aircraft?
23,100 lbs

What is the VMO (up to 8000 ft) for the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
300 KIAS

What is the VMO (8000 to 29,475 ft) for the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
320 KIAS

What is the MMO (above 29,475 ft) for the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
0.83 MI

What is the VRA for the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?

265 KIAS/0.75 MI

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How many static wicks are installed on the Challenger 300 aircraft?
24

How many static wicks are installed on the Challenger 350 aircraft?
26

What is the Vmcg speed for flaps 10? (Vmcg for all flap configs is the same: 111)
111 KIAS

Can the Challenger 300/350 aircraft take off or land from a gravel runway?
No. Takeoffs and landings are limited to paved runways.

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180° turn with a 5-ft safety margin?
58’

POWERPLANT

What is the engine designation for the Challenger 350 aircraft?

Honeywell HTF 7350 or (AS907-2-1A)

HTF 7350 (AS907-2-1A) is flat rated at _______.

7323 lbs up to ISA+15°C

What is the engine designation for the Challenger 300 aircraft?

HTF7000 (AS907-1-1A)

What is the limitation for left engine start on the ground using APU bleed air?
9000’ (None of the pubs say “MSL” but that makes sense…)

During a normal engine start, when does the DC fuel pump supply fuel to the engine-driven pump?
When the DC pump switch is in AUTO and the engine run switch is ON

For how long can the engine be motored (cranked)?

5 minutes, followed by a 15 minute cooling period before additional cranking or starts

What is the cooling period after three consecutive engine start cycles?
15 minutes

What is the minimum oil temperature required to operate the engines above ground idle?
5°C

At what oil temperature range may engines be operated from idle up to but not including CLB power?
Between 5° and 14°C

With air temperatures below -30°C, what is the minimum oil temperature limit for takeoff?
15°C provided an icing inhibitor is used and cold weather operations are followed

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Normal takeoff power is limited to _______.
5 minutes

Where is oil filtered and cooled?

Fuel heater/oil cooler (FHOC)

Why can engines only operate for 30 minutes with <1000 lbs of fuel per side?
Potential overheating of the hydraulic fluid

What are the thrust reverser limitations?

Ground operations on paved surfaces only, do not deploy in flight, do not use to back up, do not use for touch-and-go, idle
reverse by 40 kt

APR power initiated by the AUTO system is limited to _______.

10 minutes

Automatic power reserve (APR) on Challenger 350 provides 7323 lbs of thrust up to ____?
ISA +20°C

Automatic power reserve (APR) on Challenger 300 provides 6826 lbs of thrust up to ____?
ISA +20 C

When does automatic APR activate?

APR switch ON, thrust levers in TO detent, and N2 differs by 15% or the engine FADECs lose communication with each other

At what maximum altitude does the engine start envelope begin?

30,000’ MSL

When the engines are running at idle power, what is the danger area of the exhaust?
200’

AVIONICS

Assuming both engine run switches off, both fuel pumps in the automatic mode, and the APU knob selected to RUN, what
EICAS message should appear?
Cyan R FUEL PUMP ON (A)

Name the items monitored by the takeoff configuration warning system.

Flaps, spoilers, parking brake, autopilot, aileron trim, rudder trim, roll and pitch disconnect, and horizontal stabilizer trims
(FASTPD: Flaps, autopilot, spoilers, trims, parking brake, disconnects)

What is the limitation for using FMS performance speeds?

Two FMSs must be available

To what three systems does the GPS provide information?

TAWS, IRS, WX radar

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What does the MultiScan radar use to create threat displays?
Geographic database, time of day, time of year

What radar function is available in Manual mode?

Tilt

What displays when the IRS alignment process is complete?

IRS ALIGNING DO NOT TAXI message and HDG flag on PFD are removed, aircraft heading displays on HSI lubber line, actual
latitude and longitude are displayed on SET POS line of the FMS CDU

What advantage does the GPS have over the basic GPS navigation system when used with the satellite-based augmentation
system (SBAS)?
The GPS can be used as a standalone primary navigation source for enroute and approach operations

An up or down arrow appears only when the target aircraft is climbing or descending at more than ________.
500 ft/min

What does each IRU contain to measure inertial motion in three axes?
Accelerometers and laser gyros

What symbols are used on the TCAS page to represent TCAS supplemental information to a target?
Up arrow, down arrow, plus sign, minus sign (Arrows in “absolute” mode, + or – signs in “relative” mode)

Each IRU unit receives system initialization data from the _______ and altitude and airspeed input from the air _______.
GNSS, ADCs

What does the Smart Landing (SL) function monitor?

Stabilized approach, long landing, altimeter

TAWS has seven modes. Which mode is the windshear function?

Mode 7

What are the limitations in reference to the aircraft terrain awareness and warning system (TAWS)?
Do not use the terrain awareness and warning system for navigation

Regarding the terrain awareness alerting feature, an automatic MFD map mode is commanded when the alert is signaled
within a ________ nm range of the sensed terrain.
10 nm

When flying in RNP airspace, the FMS position error should be less than the RNP value ______% of the time.
95

If the Mach trim is inoperative and the autopilot is engaged, is speed limited?
No

At what latitude is the FMS prohibited for navigation?

North of 73N and South of 60S

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What are required for the FMS to calculate a navigation solution?
A minimum of four satellites with acceptable geometry or three satellites plus air data computer (ADC) altitude

What are routine SRSL callouts?

"On Runway XX," "Approaching XX," "One hundred remaining"

What does the Smart Landing (SL) function generate during approach and landing?
Aural and display messages

What color indicates EICAS engine limits?

Red

On the synoptic page presentation, what color indicates a parameter that exceeds the established limits?
Red

Is the flight path vector is tuned through the REFS 4/4 menu?
No. Through the REFS page 2.

What is the purpose of the % MAC figure after W/B is completed?

To set pitch trim

What is displayed as airspeed information on the PFD?

Reference speeds, Mach number display, low/high speed cues

What result does the calculated trim setting achieve?

Trimmed for V2 on takeoff

With thrust levers in CRZ or CLB, the engines will sync to N1 or N2 when they are within _______.
5% of each other

Which synoptic pages monitor the APU system and services?

Fuel, electrical, and ECS

Primary flight displays integrate which types of displays?

Attitude, air data, navigation information

What does the EFIS consist of?

Four adaptive flight displays

Pressing the CAS switch once on the CCP hides the caution, advisory, and status messages. How and where is a new message
generated?
Automatically, above the white MSGS icon

What conditions must be met to erase data from the cockpit voice recorder?
Parking brake set and hydraulic system powered

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In which mode is the mode S transponder unable to send replies?
Standby mode

When will MACH HOLD adjust N1 within a ±3% of thrust lever position?
When engines are in sync, autopilot is engaged, and level flight in ALT or ALTS

What accompanies warning messages, indicating immediate action is required?

Red indication on the EICAS synoptic page, flashing master WARNING lights, triple chime

What mode does the FD automatically default to when NAV mode is being used and the navigation source is lost?
Basic ROLL mode

What causes the FD command bars to appear on both PFDs?

Any flight director mode selection

The crew can choose to hand fly the aircraft using "raw data" (flight directors not displayed), hand fly the aircraft using the
flight director command bars, or _______.
Couple the autopilot to the flight director

Why do the flight directors display flight guidance cues on the attitude indicators?
To assist the flight crew in maintaining a specified flight path

What is the main function of the AFCS?

Flight guidance

When does the CAS provide visual and aural alerts?

When a red or amber CAS malfunction is detected

Do multifunction displays show synoptic information?

Yes

At what speed does the takeoff CAS message inhibit feature activate?
80 KIAS

At what altitude, or after what duration of time, does the aircraft exit the takeoff CAS message inhibit period?
400 ft AGL or 60 sec, whichever comes first

What is the minimum altitude at which the autopilot may remain engaged during Category 1 precision
approach operations?
80’ AGL

On a glidepath angle of 3.5° or less, what is the lowest altitude that the autopilot may be used?
80’ AGL

What is the minimum altitude at which the autopilot may remain engaged during Category 1 ILS operations with glideslope
angles between 3.5° and 4.5°?
160’ AGL

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What is the minimum altitude at which the autopilot may remain engaged during nonprecision
approach operations?
200’ AGL

What is the autopilot minimum use height for climb, enroute, or descent?
700’ AGL

What backup information does the ISI supply to the pilot?

Altitude, attitude, airspeed indications

When is the emergency locator transmitter automatically activated?

When excessive longitudinal forces occur

Under what circumstances should the flight crew attempt to overpower the autopilot?
Never. Do not intentionally overpower the autopilot.

Where is Delta P (cabin pressure differential) displayed?

EICAS, Summary page, ECS synoptic page

If the passenger door is open, when does a CAS white PASSENGER DOOR message turn amber?
The left engine run switch is moved from the OFF position to the RUN position

What does the amber EMERGENCY EXIT on the EICAS indicate?

Electronic proximity sensors indicate that the emergency exit is not fully closed

When the aircraft is on the ground, the cargo door is not closed and fully locked, and the left engine run switch is in the RUN
position, what indication is displayed on the EICAS?
Amber CARGO DOOR caution CAS

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES

What is the VLO RET (max landing gear retraction speed) for the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
200 KIAS

What is the VLO EXT (max landing gear extension speed) for the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
250 KIAS

What is the VLE (max landing gear extended speed) for the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
250 KIAS

What is the maximum altitude permitted to extend the landing gear?

18,000’ MSL

What is the maximum tire speed?

182 knots groundspeed

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Landing gear downlock safety pins (gear pins) are provided for the ________ landing gear assembly and
the left and right ________ landing gear assemblies
Nose gear, main gear

What type of brakes does the Challenger 300/350 aircraft use?

Carbon brakes

Regarding wheel brakes, what must be calculated before takeoff following a rejected takeoff?
Brake cooling times must be derived from the Performance section of the AFM

In what section of what manual are the brake cooling times charts located?
AFM, Chapter 6 - Performance Data

How much nosewheel steering authority does the pilot have through the rudder pedals?
7°

How much steering authority does the pilot have through the tiller?
65°

With the torque link connected, what is the maximum degree of nose gear rotation left or right of center?
120°

What indications advise the crew that the nosewheel steering (NWS) limit has been exceeded?
CAS message and a visible pin (pin breaks @ 123°)

While towing, the torque links may be disconnected to allow towing at any angle, as long as the NLG shock strut extension
exceeds how many inches of visible chrome?
3.5 inches

Is antiskid operational when using the parking/emergency brake?

No

When looking at the gear position on the EICAS, what does an amber square with amber diagonal lines crossing through it
indicate?
The applicable gear is either not up and locked, not down and locked, and it disagrees with the gear handle commanded
position

Which system provides landing gear position monitoring?

Proximity sensing system (PSS)

The proximity sensing system (PSS) consists of which two subsystems?

Proximity sensing electronic unit (PSEU) and the proximity sensors

Are normal braking and nosewheel steering available in flight?

No. The PSEU disables both normal braking and nosewheel steering after takeoff.

Which hydraulic system normally extends and retracts the landing gear?
Left hydraulic system (that’s why the hyd reservoir is much larger: 13 vs. 9 quarts)

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The brake control unit (BCU) provides antiskid protection down to how many knots on each main wheel?
10 kt

Are normal brakes still operational in the event of a left and right hydraulic failure?
Yes, because of the accumulators (1 application remains with accumulator charge)

What is the proper condition for accurately checking the brake wear indicator pins during preflight?
Parking/emergency brake set and hydraulic system pressurized

In the event of a red NORM BRAKES FAIL (W) EICAS message, braking can be achieved by...
Pulling on the PARK/EMER brake

If the main landing gear door is missing during the walkaround, which document determines remarks or exemptions which
must be observed?
Configuration Deviation List (CDL)

Which landing gear have weight-on-wheels proximity sensors?

Nose gear and both main gear (all 3)

What happens when the LG PULL handle is raised in flight?

Uplocks mechanically released, runaround and dump valve opens, and auxiliary actuators are pressurized from the right
hydraulic system

COMM/NAV

What are the selectable modes in the ATC radio submenu?

TA/RA, TA ONLY, TEST

How is a DME hold executed?

On the CDU via the TUNE page, via the TUNE knob on the Display Control Panel (DCP), or via the DCP submenu or Data
Concentrator Unit (DCU) submenu

What indicates that a NAV radio has failed?

Frequency is indicated in amber color

What is the purpose of the 1/2 button on the display control panel (DCP)?
Enables cross-side radio tuning

What does yellow radio legends on the MFD indicate?

Cross-side tuning is enabled

To which functions does the Challenger 300/350 MFD COM display provide control capability?
Squelch mode selection, COM test function, frequency tuning

The control display unit is one of two ways to control what?

Communication radios, ATC transponders, ADF receivers, NAV frequencies

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In which areas are maintenance interphone panels located?
Forward and rear service panels

Does vertical deviation and scale display on the lower part of the PFD?
No

In which mode selection does the Mode S transponder report neither Mode C nor Mode S?
ALT OFF

What does DME compare and decode?

Slant distance to the DME ground station, relative closure rate, time to station

On the audio control panel, what happens if the EMER/NORM switch is selected to the EMER position?
All audio is routed to the headset, the overhead speaker is deactivated, and the onside COMM is routed directly to the pilot

What indicates that the ELT is transmitting?

CAS message ELT ON and external buzzer

Do audio signals from the aural warning system, TAWS, and TCAS go through the volume control switches
of the audio control panel?
No

Where is the underwater locator device located?

Located on the CVR and FDR

What does the CVR control panel contain?

Headset jack, ERASE button, TEST button/green lamp

BLEED AIR

The _______ panel allows the selection of the APU as the bleed-air source.
AIR COND/BLEED panel

What computer monitors the bleed-air leak detection system?

IASC

To what PSI is intermediate pressure (IP) bleed air regulated?

50 ±3

To what PSI is high-pressure (HP) bleed air regulated?

36 ±3

When must the PACK be operating while on the ground?

When the aircraft electrical power is on (BATT or EXT power on) for more than 30 minutes with OAT >40°C

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For what is high-pressure bleed air used?
Wing anti-ice system

Into what manifold does the ground air cart feed?

The right manifold

PRESSURIZATION & AIR CONDITIONING

What does the PACK provide?

Provides conditioned air for the fuselage compartments

How many ozone converters are installed in the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
Two

What type of air is used for pressurization?

Intermediate air (IP air)

What is the pressurization limitation during takeoff and landing?

1.0 PSID

What is the temperature range in the NORM mode?

15°C to 35°C

What is the temperature range in the manual mode?

10°C to 70°C

What is the guarded EMER DEPRESS PBA for?

For fresh air circulation and if fumes or smoke enter the cockpit

Where is the cabin zone temperature sensor?

Mid cabin right side

Where is the cockpit zone temperature sensor?

On the left side of the center pedestal next to the pilot's right knee

What is the maximum differential pressure on the ground?

0.1 psi

What is the maximum positive differential pressure?

9.4 psi

What is the maximum negative differential pressure?

-0.5 psi

Can Air Source to Trim Air Only be selected on the ground?

No

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Which sources provide air for the air conditioning PACK to operate?
APU, aircraft engines, external ground cart

Where is the outflow valve located?

Front right wing fairing

How is the outflow valve actuated?

DC electric motors

What computer controls the outflow valve?

IASC

What cabin altitude triggers a caution light?

8500’

What cabin altitude triggers a warning light?

9400’

How many feet are added to cabin altitude to readjust for a High Alt mode caution light?
650’

How many feet are added to cabin altitude to readjust for a High Alt mode warning light?
1550’

What indicates that the landing altitude was set automatically?

The landing altitude displays in magenta color

What indicates that the landing altitude was set manually?

The landing altitude displays in cyan color

What is the automatic landing altitude return-to-base criteria?

6000’ or 10 minutes, whichever comes first

How many safety valves does the Challenger 300/350 aircraft have?
Two

What is the purpose of the safety valves?

They prevent over and under pressurization of the cabin

How is the landing altitude normally set?

Automatically by the FMS

How is the landing altitude manually set?

By selecting MAN located on the pressurization panel

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DE-ICE & ANTI-ICE

What manual contains information on de-icing fluid?

Flight Crew Operating Manual 1 (FCOM 1)

What indicates SLD icing conditions?

Ice accumulation on the side windows

Which window/windshield is heated by ESS power only?

Left side window only

Can the Challenger 300/350 aircraft hold in icing conditions with flaps extended?
No

What type of air is used for anti-ice?

High-pressure (HP) air

SLD is an acronym for which term?

Super-cooled large water droplets

What are the limitations for using engine anti-ice on the ground?
Outside air temperature (OAT) on ground and for takeoff 10° or below and visible moisture present

What are the limitations for using engine anti-ice in flight?

Total Air Temperature (TAT) in flight 10°C or below and visible moisture present, except when Static Air Temperature (SAT)
is -40° or below. The engine anti-ice must be on when the ICE DETECTED CAS message is on.

What are the limitations for using wing anti-ice in flight?

TAT in flight 10°C or below and visible moisture present, except when SAT is -40°C(F) or below. Wing anti-ice system must
be ON when ICE DETECTED CAS message is on or in icing conditions and the airspeed is <210 KIAS.

How many ice detectors are installed on the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
Two, one on each side of the fuselage

What manual contains the comprehensive procedures for operating in cold weather?
FCOM 1 Supplement 1 in Cold Weather Operations

How are the windshields heated?

Direct current (DC) power

What are the limitations for using wing anti-ice on the ground?
Outside air temperature (OAT) on ground and for takeoff 5° or below and visible moisture present

How is the wing anti-ice air discharged overboard?

- Vent holes along the bottom side of the wing leading edge

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Must the minimum N1 be monitored with nacelle heat on?
No

Which items are heated when selecting the PROBES pushbutton annunciator (PBA) ON?
Pitot static probes, static ports, TAT probe (weight off wheels only), AOA vanes

Are the leading edges of the horizontal stabilizer heated?

No

What is the difference between an amber and a cyan ICE DETECT CAS message?
Ice has been detected, and anti-ice selected OFF (amber), anti-ice selected ON (cyan)

What is the heat source for the wings?

High-pressure (HP) air

When is the wing anti-ice system not needed in flight?

Above 210K with the ICE DETECT CAS message not illuminated

When should the anti-ice systems be turned on?

Prior to flight into visible moisture and TAT of 10°C or less

Where is the anti-ice control panel located?

On the center pedestal

Is the engine spinner anti-iced?

No

How many dual temperature sensors are in each wing in the wing and anti-ice system?
Two

What is heated using electrical DC power?

Windshields, windows, T2 probes, air data probes, AOA vanes

How is rain removal from the windshields accomplished?

Special coating applied to both the windshields and cockpit windows

Which component controls engine anti-ice functions?

FADEC

What computer controls the anti-ice protection system?

Integrated air system controller (IASC)

How many IASC computers does the Challenger 300/350 aircraft have?
Two

What is used for anti-icing of the wing leading edge and engine intake cowls?
Engine bleed air

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When power is lost to an engine anti-ice valve, what does the valve do?
The valve fails open

When does the automatic "Pull up Pull down" function operate?

On the ground with the main cabin door open

How many independent ice detectors/microprocessors are in the ice and rain protection system?
Two

Can the APU be used to heat the aircraft during an anti-ice application?
No

ELECTRICAL

How many circuit breaker panels are installed on the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
Seven

Where is the CB2 circuit breaker panel located?

Behind the copilot seat

From where does the FADEC obtain power during startup and shutdown?
Aircraft 28 VDC

The permanent magnet alternator (PMA) supplies power to the FADEC at and above _______.
45% N2

Why is the right battery turned on first?

To prevent uncommanded APU start

With all three generators operating in flight, if the left generator drops offline, what automatically happens?
The APU generator automatically switches to the left side and powers the buses

Which other generator normally shares the load with the APU generator?
Right side generator

What does a green AVAIL message on the electrical panel indicate?

GPU is connected and has correct voltage and polarity

What is the minimum battery temperature for takeoff?

-20°C

While on the ground, which electrical buses are powered with only the APU online?
All six buses (ESSENTIAL, MAIN, AUX)

While in flight, with all three generators offline, which buses are powered?
ESSENTIAL only

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While in flight, which electrical buses are powered with only one generator online?
ESSENTIAL and MAIN

What type of power is normally used by the pushbutton switches on the exterior and interior of the aircraft
to close the passenger door?
Left Battery

Where is the battery voltage indicated?

Electrical and summary synoptic page

What is the maximum amperage on the GPU?

1500 amps

What is the maximum amperage for one generator while on the ground?
400 amps

What is the maximum amperage for two or three generators?

400 amps

What is the maximum amperage for one generator while in flight?

500 amps

What is the transient limit for all generators?

600 amps for 5 minutes

What items in the aircraft are powered by the left and right AUX buses?
Cabin DC and AC power, and the copilot side window and foot warmers

If the aircraft is down to essential power only, how long will the batteries last?
1 hour

How long will the standby instrument power the ISI?

3.5 hrs

What is the purpose of the GND SERVICE pushbutton behind the external power access door?
Powers everything behind the avionics racks in the aircraft (i.e., no cockpit avionics on) for aircraft cleaning. Prevents
avionics from overheating if no cooling air is available.

APU

What are the cooling time limitations for APU starts on the ground?
One minute between the first two start attempts and 20 minutes after the third

Do not restart the APU if the RPM is <30% after ________.

30 sec

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What is the maximum speed for starting the APU?
285 knots

What is the maximum altitude at which the APU provides bleed air?
20,000’ MSL

What is the maximum altitude for APU generator use?

30,000’ MSL

What is the maximum operating altitude for the APU?

In air: 37,000’ MSL; on ground: 14,000’

True or False: During APU start, the right battery is isolated from the aircraft system and powers the APU starter
TRUE

Where does the APU obtain fuel for operation?

Right wing collector tank

Is another start attempt permitted after an unsuccessful APU start attempt in the air?
No. Do not attempt another start until after landing.

The APU operates the gearbox-mounted generator, supplies bleed air for air conditioning and pressurization, and _______.
Starts the main engines

The APU bleed valve controls airflow to the aircraft bleed-air system and protects the APU from _______.
Overtemperature condition

What is the primary purpose of the APU load control valve?

To protect the APU from an overtemperature condition

When does the APU surge valve extract air from the APU?
When the load control valve is not open, and air must be removed from the compressor to prevent compressor stall

Which fuel pump delivers fuel under pressure to the APU fuel control unit?
Right DC fuel pump

Is it possible that the surge valve may cause a noticeable hissing-type sound in the APU area?
Yes

Can the APU be used during anti-icing/deicing procedures?

No

To which component are the dual detection loops in the APU enclosure connected?
Fire detection and extinguishing control unit (FIREX-CU)

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In addition to operating the gearbox-mounted generator, what is the other purpose for the APU?
Air conditioning/pressurization and engine start

On the ground, how is the APU remotely shut down?

Remote cutoff switch located behind the external power access door

True or False: In the event of an APU FIRE in flight, the crew gets indication of a fire, but no automatic action occurs
TRUE

When accomplishing the APU fire emergency procedure, which bottle(s) should be discharged to the APU?
Bottle 2

How is the APU bleed valve controlled?

By the APU ECU

FLIGHT CONTROLS

Name the primary flight controls.

Elevators, rudder, ailerons, roll spoilers

What primary flight controls are hydraulically powered?

All of them except the ailerons

Name the secondary flight controls.

Aileron and rudder trims, horizontal stabilizer, flaps, spoilers

Which flight control surface(s) are locked with the gust lock?
Ailerons only

When the aircraft accelerates above _____ kt, the yaw damping function is smoothly disabled until weight is off the wheels.
60 kt

Can the autopilot be engaged independently from the yaw damper?

No

Can the yaw damper be engaged independently from the autopilot?

Yes

The yaw damper system is mechanically limited to how many degrees of rudder deflection?
5°

Is there artificial feel to the rudder?

Yes

The rudder travel limit confines rudder control surface movement as a function of what?
Airspeed

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What powers the lower rudder PCU during a right system failure?
AUX hydraulic system

If a series of defective components causes the available hydraulic pressure to decrease to 0, can the rudder be controlled?
Yes, through cables by mechanical input only (manual reversion)

Can the pilot override the yaw damper command?

No

At what altitude will the half bank mode automatically engage?

31,600’ MSL

What is the maximum altitude the aircraft can fly with the yaw damper inoperative?
- 31,000’ MSL

For approximately how long do the PCUs provide rudder dampening against gust loads after hydraulic pressure is removed?
12 hours

If the elevator split is greater than _____ degrees, an amber ELEVATOR SPLIT caution EICAS message displays.
7.5°

The primary trim has which function(s) that the secondary trim does not have?
Autopilot, configuration trim, variable speed trim, and Mach trim

If primary trim is inoperable, is configuration trim still available?

No

Which trim, primary or secondary, trims faster at takeoff?

Primary trim

Which trim, primary or secondary, trims faster at cruise?

Secondary trim

Do PRI and SEC trim travel at the same rate?

No. Primary trim adjusts according to speed, and secondary trim rate is a constant 0.2° per second.

Are all the multifunctional spoilers operative after a right hydraulic system failure?
No. Outboard flight spoilers are no longer operative.

When extended, the ground spoilers extend to _____ degrees; the multifunction spoilers extend to _____ degrees.
60°; 45°

With the spoilers in the MAX position and flaps extending to the _____ position, the aircraft may exhibit a slight wing dip that
is easily controllable by either pilot or by the autopilot.
20

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Which spoilers are used for lift dumping?
Panels 1 and 8 in MAX, 2 and 7 in EMER

What computer commands the roll spoilers to move?

Spoiler electronic control unit (SECU) computer

Which flight computer controls inboard flight spoilers?

SECU 1

Which flight computer controls the outboard flight spoilers?

SECU 2

What are the three limitations regarding the use of flight spoilers?
Do not select EMER except in an emergency or as a required procedure. Cannot extend in flight below approach speed +8
and not below 500 ft AGL.

What conditions must be met for GROUND SPOILER deployment?

Ground spoilers armed, both throttles at idle, and two of the following must be true: RA <7 ft, weight on wheels, wheel
speed >16 kt

Which spoiler panels move on the ground?

All of them

What is a bent tab?

Bent tabs are positioned on the trailing edge of the aileron surfaces to keep the surface upfloat to a minimum at high
speeds

Which flight control surface does the right yoke operate when pulling the pitch disconnect handle?
The right yoke controls the right elevator

Which flight control surface does the left yoke operate when pulling the pitch disconnect handle?
The left yoke controls the left elevator

Which flight control does the right yoke operate when pulling the roll disconnect?
The right yoke controls the ailerons

Which flight control does the left yoke operate when pulling the roll disconnect?
The left yoke controls the multifunction spoilers only

Can the autopilot be re-engaged after pulling the roll disconnect?

No

The Challenger 300/350 aircraft has how many stick pusher(s) in what location?
One, in the left yoke

Can the stick pusher be overpowered?

Yes

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The Challenger 300/350 aircraft has how many stick shaker(s) in what location?
Two, one attached to each yoke

RVDT is an acronym for what term?

Rotary variable differential transformer (the device in the throttle quadrant that transmits thrust lever angle to the FADEC,
in the yoke that transmits commanded roll angle to the spoilers, on the flap input shafts to transmit flap position to the
flap control unit and position indicator)

Where are the spoiler RVDTs located?

Inside both yokes

What is the maximum altitude at which the flaps can be extended?

18,000’

What are the selectable flap positions?

0, 10, 20, 30

What are VFE airspeeds for flaps 10°, 20°, and 30°?
210, 210, 175, respectively

Normal flap extension from 0 to 30 should not exceed what time limit?
25 seconds

In what situation are ALT flaps needed?

Right hydraulic pressure loss or when directed by procedure

Is the travel time the same using ALT flaps compared with using normal flaps?
No. Using ALT flaps, the flaps run more slowly at FLAPS RATE LOW.

Can spoilers and flaps be used at the same time?

Yes

Do both ailerons have trim tabs?

No, just the left aileron

Why are balance tabs installed?

To reduce the pilot effort needed to move the ailerons

How does manual reversion work?

Automatically, with cables through the PCUs

True or False: Both flight guidance computers must be operational for the autopilot to function
TRUE

True or False: The autopilot will operate normally in secondary trim

FALSE

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What conditions exist while a pilot is depressing the MSW?
Autopilot disengage, all trims inoperative, stall pusher inoperative (except on EASA aircraft)

What should be done if the autopilot fails?

Disconnect the autopilot

FUEL SYSTEM

What is the total fuel capacity with single-point pressure refueling? Gravity refueling?
- 14,150 lbs, 13,000 lbs

If the aircraft is not in level flight, what unit signals the fuel computer with an accurate fuel reading?
Inertial Reference System (IRS)

Single-point pressure refueling is limited to what psig?

55 psig

What is the maximum negative pressure when defueling?

-8 psig

Does the fuel transfer valve need to be opened to refuel?

No

From where does the refueling panel obtain power?

Right BATT bus

How many moving parts are in a jet pump?

None

In order to transfer fuel, the XFER switch must be selected to ________ and one of the pumps selected
to _________.
OPEN; ON

When is fuel transfer prohibited?

Takeoff only

What prevents fuel from traveling outboard during low-wing maneuvers?

Flapper valves

What is the maximum operation altitude for JP-4 or JET B?

16,000’

What is the minimum fuel quantity for a go-around?

500 lbs per side

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What assists the collector tanks in maintaining a full level of fuel?
Respective scavenge ejector

How is the fuel heated?

Engine oil cooler/fuel heat exchanger

How many fuel pumps are installed?

Nine: two engine-driven pumps, two electrical boost pumps, two main ejector pumps, two scavenge pumps,
one APU mechanical pump

How many fuel tanks does the Challenger 300/350 aircraft have?
Two tanks, each divided in three sections: main, collector, and surge tanks

Concerning the fuel venting system, from which area does air from the right wing NACA scoop originate?
Left main tank and right surge tank

How many water sumps are installed in the fuel tanks?

Six

What are the fuel temperature limitations?

50°C maximum bulk fuel temperature; ≥ 45°C, minimum of 2800 lbs, and if <1000 lbs per side, do not operate engines for
more than 30 minutes

For takeoff, a fuel system icing inhibitor must be used when bulk fuel temperatures are below _______.
-20°C unless cold weather procedures are followed

In flight, when does the DC fuel pump come on automatically?

When motive flow pressure is lost from the primary ejector

For Jet A, at what bulk fuel temperature is takeoff prohibited?

-30°C

At what bulk fuel temperature is takeoff prohibited?

50°C

FIRE DETECTION & EXTINGUISHING

On the Challenger 300/350 aircraft, which areas have a fire extinguishing system?
APU, left engine, right engine

How does the engine fire detection system function?

By detecting a drop in resistance caused by an overheat condition

How many fire bottles are installed on the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
Two

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True or False: Both fire extinguishing bottles are equipped with two squibs each
FALSE - Bottle 1 has two squibs; bottle 2 has three squibs

Which fire extinguisher bottle is used for APU fires?

Number 2

When required, can both fire extinguisher containers be discharged into the APU?
No. Only bottle no. 2 can be discharged into the APU compartment.

How many smoke detector(s) are installed on the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?
One, between the lavatory and the cargo compartment

Which areas of the Challenger 300/350 aircraft are monitored with fire detection?
Powerplant, APU, main landing gear wheel wells

What indications illuminate with a left engine fire?

L ENG FIRE switch and Master WARNING light illuminate, Master WARNING chimes, red L ENGINE FIRE (W) CAS message
illuminates, red FIRE EI in the N1 indicator appears, aural "Left Engine Fire" sounds

What happens when the ENG FIRE switch is pressed?

Fuel SOV closes, IP and HP bleed-air SOVs close, hydraulic SOVs close, generator is selected offline, FADEC commands
engine shutdown, both fire bottles arm to the respective engine;
HALFFS: Hydraulics, air, ‘lectrics, fuel, FADEC, squibs)

Pushing the R ENGINE FIRE pushbutton annunciator arms which extinguisher bottle(s) for discharge?
Both bottles 1 and 2

When accomplishing the Engine Fire emergency procedure: if the warning persists, how many seconds should
elapse before the first bottle is discharged after engine shutdown?
10 seconds

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

When armed, do emergency lights automatically illuminate when the right main bus loses electrical power?
Yes

What powers the emergency lights?

Two independent rechargeable battery packs that provide approximately 15 minutes of power

When activated, how long do the PBEs generate oxygen?

15 min

Where are the fire extinguishers located?

Cockpit, galley, lavatory

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Where is the crash ax located?
Behind the copilot (right) seat

What must the crew do if a fire extinguisher is discharged in the flight compartment?
Don oxygen masks with emergency selected

When the emergency light switch is set to ON, what illuminates and displays?
Emergency lights illuminate and amber EMER LIGHTS ON CAS message displays

What is included in the Challenger 300/350 aircraft emergency equipment?

Flashlights, portable breathing equipment, crash axe, fire extinguisher, life vests (2)

HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

At what pressure does the hydraulic system normally operate?

3000 psi

How many hydraulic pumps are installed?

Six: two engine-driven pumps (EDPs), two direct current motor pumps (DCMPs), one auxiliary pump, one power transfer
unit (PTU)

Where is the hydraulic EDP located?

On the engine accessory gearbox

What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the Challenger 300/350 aircraft?

Phosphate Ester Fire-Resistant per BAMS 564-003 Type IV, Skydrol LD-4, Hyjet IV-a Plus is approved for use

How much fluid do the left and right reservoirs contain?

Left: 13 quarts; right: 9 quarts

Why is there more fluid in the left reservoir than in the right?
Gear movement requires more fluid

Which system(s) are powered by the right hydraulic system?

Outboard multifunctional spoilers, outboard ground spoilers, lower rudder PCU, right thrust reverser, outboard brakes,
main landing gear assist actuators, outboard elevator PCUs, normal flap supply, power transfer unit

Which system(s) are powered by the left hydraulic system?

Inboard multifunctional spoilers, inboard ground spoilers, upper rudder PCU, left thrust reverser, inboard emergency
brakes, nosewheel steering actuator, inboard elevator PCUs, alternate flaps, landing gear

What is the purpose of the AUX hydraulic pump?

To power the lower rudder PCU in the event of a right engine failure

PCU is an acronym for what term?

Power control unit

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What is a PTU?
Power transfer unit

What is the main purpose of the PTU?

To retract the gear in the event of a left engine-driven pump failure

What does the PTU power?

Gear and hydraulic motor-driven generator (HMDG) (optional equipment)

From where does the PTU obtain pressure?

Right side hydraulic system

During what condition(s) does the PTU operate?

Left engine-driven pump (EDP) failure, airborne, gear disagree

From where do the left and right DCMPs obtain power?

Right: left ESS bus; left: right main bus

In case of failure of both the left and right hydraulic system, accumulators in both hydraulic brake systems provide pressure
for at least how many brake applications?
One application

What actions prevent hydraulic fluid migration while setting the parking brake?
Ensure both left and right hydraulic systems are pressurized, depress the toe pedals, then pull up on the PARK/EMER brake
handle

LIGHTING SYSTEM

What color does the red beacon light turn to when the aircraft senses weight off wheels?
White strobe

Name the four cockpit lighting zones

Zone 1: pilot panel electroluminescent panels that are part of the glareshield, Zone 2: center pedestal, Zone 3: copilot panel
and a portion of the glareshield, Zone 4: circuit breaker panels

From where is the primary cabin lighting controlled?

Main entryway control panel

OXYGEN SYSTEM

What are the components of the oxygen system?

Oxygen bottles, oxygen masks, distribution system

Where is the oxygen service point located?

On the right side of the fuselage directly forward of the right engine

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When oxygen bottles are full, what does the gauge next to the outside filler port indicate?
1850 psi

In what manual are oxygen duration tables located?

QRH Vol 1 or FCOM Vol 2

Crew oxygen masks are certified to what altitude?

40,000’ MSL

At what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically deliver 100% oxygen under pressure?
35,000’

What are the three modes of operation for the mask oxygen system?
Normal, 100%, Emergency

Which masks receive a reduced rate of oxygen pressure?

Passenger

What is the main difference between the AUTO and DEPLOY positions in the oxygen system?
Flow rate. The AUTO position flow is based on cabin altitude. The DEPLOY position flow is a high constant rate.

In AUTO, at what cabin altitude will the Electropneumatic Actuating Valve (EPAV) deploy the passenger masks?
14,500’ ±500’

When must all flight crew wear oxygen masks with EMERGENCY selected?
If a fire extinguisher is discharged in the flight compartment

With temperatures at or below _______, follow the oxygen system recommended storage procedures if the
aircraft is parked for an extended period.
-5°C

Is prolonged use of passenger masks above 25,000 ft recommended?

No

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