Csat t1s Forum Ias

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PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |
Q.1)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The assumption that developmental outcomes are solely determined by genetic
factors is not correct as per the passage because the developmental outcomes emerge from the complex
and reciprocal interplay between genetic and environmental factors, which interact in complex and often
unpredictable ways to shape the course of development. The passage explicitly states that developmental
outcomes are not predetermined by genetic endowment alone, nor are they solely the inevitable result of
environmental inputs alone.
Statement 2 is correct: The assumption that the developing organism is an active agent in its own
development is correct as per the passage because the passage explicitly states that developmental
systems theory recognizes the developing organism as an active agent of its own development. The model
posits a dynamic and recursive relationship between the individual organism and its environment, with
each shaping and being shaped by the other over time.
Q.2)
Ans) b
The passage states that developmental plasticity refers to the capacity of the developing organism to
modify its own structure and function in response to environmental inputs. This capacity for adaptive
change is not limited to early childhood, but persists throughout the lifespan.
Q.3)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The author emphasizes that to understand a concept, it is important to consider its opposite. For
instance, to understand darkness, one must study light. The author also provides an example of how
understanding destruction can help us understand the concept of coming to be. The author states the
same in the lines of the passage, “Similarly, if we want to understand what coming to be is, we must
investigate what destruction is; if we can define the nature of destruction, we shall be better able to
understand what coming to be is.”
Q.4)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The missing number in the sequence is 13. The pattern in this series is that each number is the sum of the
two preceding numbers.
For example:
1) The first two numbers are both 1
2) The third number is 2 = 1 + 1
3) The fourth number is 3 = 2 + 1
4) The fifth number is 5 = 3 + 2
Following this pattern, we can find the missing number by finding the sum of the two preceding numbers
before it in the series. In this case:
1) The sixth number is 8
2) The seventh number is ? =8+5=13
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Q.5)
Ans) d
Ratio of the speeds is given by = 5 : 4 : 3
For a given distance, speed and time are inversely proportional.
So, their respective time will be in the ration of 1/5 : 1/4 : 1/3
Multiplying with their LCM
which is 60, we get the ratio as 12 : 15 : 20
Give: 12x + 15x + 20x = 94
x=2
Time taken by B to cover the distance = 2 × 15 = 30 minutes.
Q.6)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
After running together for 40 m in the same direction and reaching a point,
A turns right and runs 50 m while B turns left and runs 30 m.
At this point, they are 80 m apart.
Then A turns right and runs 40 m while B turns left and runs 40 m.
This means that they are now both back at their starting point vertically but still 80 m apart. It can be
understood from the given figure:
Q.7)
Ans) b
To determine the day of the week for a future date, we can use the concept of “odd days.” An odd day is a
day that is left over after weeks have been accounted for. For example, if there are 8 days between two
dates, then there is one odd day because 8 days is equivalent to one week and one day.
In our example above, we want to find out which date of June 2100 will be first Sunday if today is Sunday
of 5th June 2022. To do this, we need to calculate the number of odd days between these two dates.
Firstly, we calculate the number of years between these two dates: 2100 - 2022 = 78 years.
Next, we need to account for leap years. A leap year occurs every four years and adds an extra day
(February 29) to the calendar. This means that for every leap year between these two dates, we need to
add an extra odd day.
Between 2022 and 2100 (inclusive), there are 19 leap years: [2024, 2028,… 2096].
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The year 2100 is not considered a leap year because it is divisible by 100 but not divisible by 400.
According to the Gregorian calendar, a year is considered a leap year if it is divisible by 4. However, if the
year is also divisible by 100 (such as 1700, 1800, and 1900), it must also be divisible by 400 to be
considered a leap year (such as 1600 and 2000). Since the year 2100 is divisible by 100 but not divisible by
400, it is not considered a leap year.
So now we can calculate the total number of odd days between these two dates: 78 + 19 = 97.
Since a week has seven days and we can divide these 97 days into complete weeks and odd days. When
we divide 97 by 7 (the number of days in a week), we get 13 with remainder 6.
This means that there are 13 complete weeks and 6 odd days between these two dates.
Thus, 5th June 2100 would be Saturday and 6th June 2100 would be Sunday.
Hence, the correct answer is option b i.e., 6.
Q.8)
Ans) c
Let's assume that statement 1 is true:
In this case, 10 notes of ₹100 amount to ₹1000, and the remaining amount of ₹1000 is to be paid using ₹50
and ₹20 notes. Let's say the number of ₹50 notes used is x, then the number of ₹20 notes used will be (30-
10-x) = (20-x).
The total amount paid using ₹50 and ₹20 notes will be 1000 as 1000 already paid from ₹ 100 notes. This
can be written as
1000 = 50x + 20(20-x) 1000 = 50x + 400 - 20x 30x = 600 x = 20
So, 10 notes of ₹100, 20 notes of ₹50, and 30-10-20=0 notes of ₹20 will be used, which satisfies the given
conditions.
Let's assume statement 2 to be true:
If 15 notes of ₹50 are used, then the total amount paid using ₹50 notes is 15 x ₹50 = ₹750. The remaining
amount to be paid using ₹100 and ₹20 notes is ₹1250 (i.e., ₹2000 - ₹750).
Let's say the number of ₹100 notes used is x and the number of ₹20 notes used is y. Then, we have:
x + y = 15 (since a total of 30 notes are used, and 15 of them are ₹50 notes)
100x + 20y = 1250 (since the total amount paid using ₹100 and ₹20 notes is ₹1250)
Multiplying the first equation by 20 and subtracting it from the second equation, we get:
80x = 950
This equation does not have a whole number solution for x, which means that it is not possible to use a
combination of 15 notes of ₹50, ₹100 and ₹20 notes to pay a total of ₹2000 while using a total of 30 notes.
Now, let's assume that statement 3 is true: In this case, 25 notes of ₹20 amount to ₹500, and the
remaining amount of ₹1500 is to be paid using ₹100 and ₹50 notes. There is no combination possible as
only 5 notes left to be used. No possible combination of ₹100 and ₹50 notes in the number of 5 would be
able to cover 1500 shortfall. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
Q.9)
Ans) c
Since all the numbers given can be simplified in the form of 3 to the power n.
The first number is =322
915 can be written as ((3)2)15 = 330
276 can be written as ((3)3)6 = 318
818 can be written as ((3)4)8 = 332
We can see from the above that 276 is the smallest among the numbers given above.
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Q.10)
Ans) b
Given that a six-digit number N is formed using the digits 0, 3, 6 and 9 only, and each of the digits is used
at least once.
The number is divisible by 18. Therefore, the number has to be divisible by both 2 and 9.
Sum of the digits of the number should either 0 or 6.
We will put 3 at the beginning as 0 can’t be put and 9 and 6 are greater than 3.
Afterwards zero can be put ending with double digit (using 6 and 9) which is divisible by 18. After
repeating three zeros, we are left with two places which can be filled by either 69 or 96.
69 is not divisible by 18 while 96 is.
Thus, Smallest possible such number is 300096.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q.11)
Ans) b
The passage explains that normal science is based on the assumption that the scientific community has
an accurate understanding of the world and is willing to defend that assumption. The passage also notes
that new ideas are often suppressed in normal science because they challenge the prevalent notions. The
author wishes to communicate that scientific progress is hindered by the scientific community’s
resistance as they do not want to lose their tag of ‘experts’.
Q.12)
Ans) c
The gene's-eye view of evolution highlights the importance of the individual gene in driving evolutionary
change. The passage mentions that the gene is the fundamental unit of evolution and the vehicle of
continuity and change. It also describes how the gene is replicated and transmitted from one generation
to the next, with occasional mistakes or variations.
Q.13)
Ans) c
A gene is an abstract unit of heredity that can only be defined in terms of its effects on the reproductive
success of its carriers. The passage states that a gene is not a thing, substance, particle, or material
object, but rather an abstract unit of heredity that can only be defined in terms of its effects on the
reproductive success of its carriers.
Q.14)
Ans) b
Genes and memes are both replicators that can influence human behaviour and shape our worldviews.
The passage discusses how memes, like genes, can be selfish and compete for our attention, influencing
our behaviour and shaping our worldviews. It also highlights the importance of the gene in driving
evolutionary change but emphasizes that humans are active players in the game of life, capable of
choosing our own destinies, creating our own memes, and shaping our own evolution.
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Q.15)
Ans) a
Since the speeds of P and Q are in the ratio 5:4, for every 5 meters that P runs, Q runs 4 meters.
So, when P has completed one lap (500m), Q has run only 400m. This means that P is now 100m ahead of
Q.
After another lap (500m), P will be 200m ahead of Q.
And after two more laps (1000m), P will be 400m ahead of Q which means that he has lapped him once.
Since the race is 5 km long (5000 m),
and each lap is 500 m long,
there are a total of 10 laps in the race.
Since P laps Q once every four laps, over the course of the race he will pass him a total of 2 times.
Q.16)
Ans) d
If we reverse the order of the English alphabet, then A becomes Z, B becomes Y, C becomes X, and so on:
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N M L K J I H G F E D C B A
So, if we apply this rule to the word AHMEDABAD:
A becomes Z
H becomes S
M becomes N
E becomes V
D becomes W
A becomes Z
B becomes Y
A becomes Z
D becomes W
Therefore, AHMEDABAD would become ZSNVWZYZW
Q.17)
Ans) b
In a tournament where a player is eliminated after losing a match and there are no ties or draws, the
total number of matches played would be one less than the number of entrants. This is because in each
match one player is eliminated and the tournament continues until only one player remains as the
winner. So, in a tournament with 128 entrants, there would be 128 - 1 = 127 matches played in total.
Q.18)
Ans) d
Prime numbers: A prime number is a positive integer which has no factors other than 1 and itself.
The first few prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29
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Now, for solving the
46 = 23 × 2
91 = 13 × 7
143 =13 × 11
All these are product of prime numbers while,
153 = 17 × 9
9 is not a prime number.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q.19)
Ans) d
Statement-1 tells us that the sum of x and y is even.
Statement-2 tells us that the difference between x and y is even.
However, neither of these statements alone or together can determine whether x itself is an even integer
or not.
For example, if x = 4 and y = 2 then both x + y = 6 and x - y = 2 are even integers.
In this case x is an even integer.
On the other hand if x = 5 and y = 3 then both x + y = 8 and x - y = 2 are even integers. In this case x is not
an even integer.
Q.20)
Ans) d
Let’s assume the man’s original income is 100.
He spends 75% of it, which means he saves 25 (100 - 75% of 100).
After a 20% increase in his income, his new income would be 120 (100 + 20% of 100).
He increases his expenditure by 10%, so his new expenditure would be 82.5 (75 +10% of 75).
This means his new savings would be 37.5 (120 -82.5).
So overall there is a resultant increase in savings by 50% ((37.5-25)/25 *100).
Q.21)
Ans) d
The passage discusses the assumption that underlies the use of GMOs, that humans are doing the
modification because the humans believe that they have the right to manipulate and control the natural
world for their own benefit.
GMOs are harmful or beneficial, this is a topic of debate. Hence statement 1 is not an assumption.
Statement 2 is a suggestion in the passage (not an assumption) that humans should approach the nature
with respect. so, "Humans should approach the nature with respect" is incorrect.
Q.22)
Ans) d
The passage states that one side i.e. proponents of GMOs believe that these technologies can improve the
nutritional content of food. So point 1 is incorrect. Hence assumption 1 is invalid.
Point 2 is a ‘suggestion’ that human have a complex web of relationship with nature, so Humans having
authoritative relationship with nature is incorrect.
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Point 3- GMOs can reduce the use of pesticides, but it’s nowhere written that it will improve soil health.
So again, it is not an assumption.
Q.23)
Ans) d
In the passage it’s written that ‘our actions have important consequences for the broader ecosystem.’ But
it’s not clear whether ‘all’ or ‘most’ or ‘some’ actions have consequences. Same time, it’s nowhere
mentioned that all actions impact unpropitiously (negatively). Hence statement 1 is invalid assumption.
The passage states that the usage of GMOs has raised questions about the relationship between
technology and nature, there is no conclusion whether relationship is adverse or pro. Hence statement 2
is not a valid assumption.
So, neither 1 nor 2.
Q.24)
Ans) a
There will be three cases when, thereby will be exactly three letters between G and L.
Case-1:
G L
Here G and L can interchange their places in 2 ways among themselves.

And the remaining 5 letters can be placed in 5 remaining places in 5! ways.
So, total number of such arrangements for case-1 is (2x 5!) = 240 ways.
Case-2:
G L
Here again, G and L can interchange their places in 2 ways among themselves.
Case-3
G L
Here once more, G and L can interchange their places in 2 ways among themselves.
Total number of such arrangements where there are exactly three letters between G and L =
240+240+240 = 720 ways.
Q.25)
Ans) d
Code for the figure below:
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From statement 1 and Statement 2, following tree can be made.
In first and second image, G is the common person. Implies G is sister of K and R. That means all three G,
K and R are siblings. But the gender of R and K is not given anywhere. Hence R can be either Uncle or
Aunt of A. So, both the statements are not sufficient to answer the question.
Q.26)
Ans) c
When Rohan runs 930 meters, Sohan runs 620 metres.——-(I)
When Sohan runs 600 meters, Mohan runs 576 metres.————(II)
Now the race is between Rohan and Mohan, so we need to get a relation of distance covered between
Rohan and Mohan.
Given Mohan runs 576 metres, when Sohan runs 600 meters. So we need to find how much Rohan runs
when Sohan runs 600 metres. This can be found by simple unitary method.
Distance covered by Rohan when Sohan runs 600 metres = (930/620) x 600 = 900 metres.—-(III)
So, now we have a direct relation of distance covered between Rohan and Mohan.
That is , when Mohan covers 576 metres, Sohan covers 600 metres and Rohan covers 900 meters.
Rohan : Sohan : Mohan = 900 : 600 : 576
So in a 500 metres race, when Rohan covers 500 metres, by unitary method we can take out distance
covered by Mohan, that is (576/900) x 500 = 320 metres.
So, Rohan will beat Mohan by (500-320) = 180 metres.
Q.27)
Ans) d
Given 4 persons enter inside the train during the journey.
There will be total 6 scenarios:-
1) Person entering at first station can buy tickets for 2nd or 3rd or 4th or 5th or 6th or Jalpaiguri = Total
of 6 ticket sets.
2) Person entering at second station can buy tickets for 3rd or 4th or 5th or 6th or Jalpaiguri = Total of 5
ticket sets.
3) (III)Person entering at third station can buy tickets for 4th or 5th or 6th or Jalpaiguri = Total of 4 ticket
sets.
4) Person entering at fourth station can buy tickets for 5th or 6th or Jalpaiguri = Total of 3 ticket sets.
5) Person entering at fifth station can buy tickets for 6th or Jalpaiguri = Total of 2 ticket sets.
6) Person entering at sixth station can buy tickets for Jalpaiguri = Total of 1 ticket set.
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7) Thus, there are total of (6+5+4+3+2+1) = 21 ticket sets, out of which 4 ticket set has to be bought. This
can be done in 21C4 ( C 21,4) ways = 21! /{(21-4)! X4!} = 5985 ways.
Q.28)
Ans) b
The ratio of wages is inversely proportional to the ratio of number of days required by each to do the
work.
Here, Ratio of number of days taken by Suchitra and Konkana to till the garden = 10:15 = 2:3
Hence, Ratio of wage’s received by Suchitra and Konkana will be = 3:2
Total wage received = Rs 500
Wage received by Suchitra = (⅗)x 500 = Rs 300
Wage received by Konkana =( ⅖) x 500 = Rs 200
Suchitra will earn Rs (300-200) = Rs 100 more.
Q.29)
Ans) c
The given series is of 4 alphabets.
First letter in the series jumps two places backwards i.e., V-2= T, T-2= R, R-2= P, P-2=N, so next, N-2= L
Second letter in the series jumps ahead 3 places i.e., H+3= K, K+3= N, N+3 =Q,
Q+3 =T, so next T+3= W
Third letter in the series jumps two places backwards i.e., Z-3= W, W-3= T, T-3= Q, Q-3= N, so next N-3=
K
Fourth letter in the series has pairs i.e., BB, DD, F_., so next letter will be F
Hence answer is option c.
Q.30)
Ans) c
Arrange them in the queue:
P 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1
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P A B C D E F GHI J
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Step 1: Remove the first person(A) and move the second person(B) to the end of the queue.
P 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
o
s
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t
i
o
n
p C D E F G HI J B
e
r
s
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Step 2: Remove the first person(C) and move the second person(D) to the end of the queue.
Position 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Person E F G H I J B D
Step 3: Remove the first person(E) and move the second person(F) to the end of the queue.
P 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
o
s
i
t
i
o
n
P G H I J B D F
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Step 4: Remove the first person(G) and move the second person(H) to the end of the queue.
P 1 2 3 4 5 6
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i
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i
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o
n
P I J B D F H
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Step 5: Remove the first person(I) and move the second person(J) to the end of the queue.
P 1 2 3 4 5
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ti
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n
P B D F H J
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Here in Step 5, we have moved the person who was originally standing at the end of the queue. i.e. J ( he
was originally at the end of the queue).
Originally F was at 6th position. Now in the last queue the position of F is 3rd.
Q.31)
Ans) c
The passage mentions that recent events like COVID 19 have highlighted the ‘vulnerability’ of global
supply chains to many a factors. It’s nowhere meant that global supply chains are unsustainable. Hence
statement 1 is an invalid assumption.
The passage discusses the benefits and challenges of international trade and commerce, highlighting its
importance as a pillar of economic growth and development. Therefore, the assumption is that
international trade and commerce is a key driver of economic growth. So statement 2 is a valid
assumption.
In the passage it’s stated that ‘there is a rise in protectionist policies and it has led to shift from traditional
rule based system of international trade’. It’s nowhere meant that it is necessary for a country’s economic
success. Hence statement 2 is an invalid assumption.
Q.32)
Ans) d
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The threat of transmissibility of disease is not mentioned anywhere in the passage. So statement 1 is
incorrect.
The passage states that the COVID-19 pandemic exposed the fragility of just-in-time delivery and the
potential for disruption caused by border closures and travel restrictions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
And the ongoing trade tensions between major powers have created an atmosphere of uncertainty and
unpredictability for businesses and investors alike. They are not directly related to Covid 19 pandemic. So,
statement 3 and 4 are incorrect w.r.t the question asked.
Q.33)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is a way of protecting industries as the passage states that countries have started imposing
tariffs and quotas. It is not the reason for protecting industries. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
It’s stated in the passage that the rise of nationalist and protectionist policies has led to a shift away from
the traditional rules-based system of international trade, with countries imposing tariffs, quotas, and
other barriers to protect their own industries, so statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 and 4 are other aspects of global trade, not the reason for protecting industries by the
countries. Hence statement 3 and 4 are incorrect.
Q.34)
Ans) a
The passage discusses how philosophers and scientists have been fascinated by the ‘concept of time’
Some think it as an objective and unchanging force while recent research suggest that it is highly
subjective and can be influenced by a variety of factors, some physicists suggest that time may be a
human construct that helps us make sense of our experiences. Thus, the passage focuses on the idea that
philosophers, scientists, recent researchers and physicists are having their own propositions about time.
Hence option a rightly reflects the crux of the passage.
All other options are just one of the propositions. Hence incorrect.
Q.35)
Ans) a
The formula for angle between hour hand and minute hand is, θ = | 30 H - (11M/2) |,
| | denotes Mode functions, H is the value of hour hand, M is the value of minute hand.
Here in the question, H is 4, since it asks between 4 PM and 5 PM, so it will be in the form of 4:_ _
θ i.e. Angle between H and M is 15°
15 = | 30x4- (11M/2) |
15= | 120- (11M/2) |
For Mod | | we know there would be two cases,
Case 1: 120-(11M/2) = 15 ——- (1)
Case 2: 120-(11M/2) = -15 ——-(2)
From equation (1) we get, M = 19.0909
From equation (2) we get, M = 24.5454
So, there will be two times between 4 PM and 5 PM i.e. at 4:19:09 PM and at 4:24:54 PM when angle
between minute hand and hour hand is 15°.
Q.36)
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Ans) d
Code for the figure below:
Step 1: Use the statements- U is mother of R. R has a sister N.
Step 2: Use the statements- B is spouse of U. S is grand-daughter of B.
Final Step: Use the statements- B has only two kids.

From image of step 1, it is concluded that R and N are children of B and U.
And from statement in the question, it is clear that A and C are children of N and given C has only one
sister. Also, N has only two children A and C. It means S is not the daughter of N. So we get the conclusion
that S is the daughter of R.
Final image:
So, S is the daughter of R.

But R is brother or sister of N is not known as , the gender of R is not clear.
Similarly N can be either sister in law or brother in law of M . She can’t be Aunt of M.
Q.37)
Ans) b
We know that:
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"G" secured the third rank among the girls.
"B" secured the sixth rank in the whole class.
Considering Statement-1, we have 18 Boys and 12 Girls (60% of 30 Students are boys given in statement 1)
and out of 18 boys "B" is among top 4 ("B" was among the top 25% of the boy's merit list - 25% of 18). But in
this case we can't get the relative position of "G" and "B".
Consider Statement-2.
We know that among the top 5, three (3) are boys, then there will be (5-3) =2 other girls candidates. So
"G" is not among the top 5 as "G" secured the third rank among the girls.
It is also known that "B's" rank is 6. So "G" is definitely not at 6th position. G is “definitely below "B.
Hence, Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.
Q.38)
Ans) a
From Image 9, it is evident that Some trendsetter can be girls.

From Image 5 and Image 6, it is evident that some YouTubers are not influencers.
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From Image 8, it is evident that some influencers can be YouTubers.
So, conclusion I is correct.
Q.39)
Ans) d
From Image 3 and 4 it is evident that, All dancers are not doctors.
From Image 3, it is evident that Some doctors are not dancers.
From Image 1(1st image), it is evident that all doctors are not teachers.
From Image 4, it is evident that some doctors are dancers.
Hence none of the conclusion follows.
Q.40)
Ans) a
Step 1- Let’s fix the position of Honey at index 1. And then Use the statements: “No one is facing away
from the centre. Andy sits third to the right of Honey and third to the left of Bob”.
Step 2- Use the statements: Dave sits second to the right of Ebb
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There will be three cases for this. Ebb can’t sit at index 2 and index 5 as then Dave won’t be at his second
right.
Step 3 - Use the statements: Ebb doesn’t sit next to Bob

Now Case 1 and Case 3 are discarded. So now we are left with only one arrangement that is Case 2.
Step 4- Now we have index 2, 6, 8 left.
Use the statements: Farhan is not the neighbour of Ebb and he also does not sit next to Honey. So, Farhan
can’t sit at index 2 and 8.
So Farhan has to be seated at index 6.
Step 5- Use the statements: Gill sits second to the left of Cimon. So, Simon will be seated at index 2, so
that Gill is second to his left.
Dave sits between Farhan and Andy.

Honey sits between Gill and Cimon
Q.41)
Ans) d
The passage states that “many individuals and organisations have taken steps to reduce their carbon
footprint and promote sustainability, progress on a global scale has been slow”. So, it's one piece of
thought which the passage is trying to convey, but not the main idea behind the passage. So, statement 1
is incorrect.
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In the passage it’s stated that “some experts argue that our current economic system, which prioritises
growth and consumption above all else, is fundamentally incompatible with long term ecological stability
“. So, it’s an argument put forward by few experts. It’s not the main idea of the passage. So, statement 2 is
incorrect.
Similarly, it’s a viewpoint of other set of experts who blame power dynamics inherent in global
governance structures, which often favour the interests of wealthy nations and corporations over the
needs of the planet and its most vulnerable inhabitants.’ So, it’s again not the main idea. So, statement 3 is
incorrect.
The passage argues that despite individual and organizational efforts to reduce carbon footprint and
promote sustainability, progress on a global scale has been slow due to issues such as the prioritization of
economic growth and consumption, as well as power dynamics in global governance structures. It
concludes that a growing movement is pushing for systemic change to ensure a liveable future for
generations to come. So, statement 4 is the main idea behind the passage. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Q.42)
Ans) b
In the passage it’s nowhere stated that ‘majority of people are indifferent to environmental issues’, so
statement 1 is incorrect.
The passage implicitly suggests that global governance structures often favour the interests of wealthy
nations and corporations over the needs of the planet and its most vulnerable inhabitants. This is evident
in the statement that "power dynamics inherent in global governance structures often favour the
interests of wealthy nations and corporations over the needs of the planet and its most vulnerable
inhabitants." So, statement 2 is correct.
It’s stated in the passage that a growing movement of activists, scientists and ordinary citizens are
pushing for systemic change. So, it’s not only activists and scientists. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
And it’s nowhere meant that economic growth is inherently unsustainable. Hence statement 4 is
incorrect.
Q.43)
Ans) d
In the passage, It’s mentioned that urban areas have access to better infrastructure and resources, but it’s
nowhere inferred that urban areas get more attention compared to rural areas. So, statement 1 is
incorrect.
Similarly, it’s given in general that shortage of trained teachers is also a challenge. So, it cannot be
inferred that quality of teachers in urban areas is better than rural areas. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
It's also nowhere implicit that India does not have resources to update its education curriculum. It’s just
stated that outdated curriculum is a challenge. So, statement 3 can’t be inferred. Hence statement 3 is
incorrect.
The passage mentions several challenges, including the widening gap between rural and urban education,
outdated curriculum, shortage of trained teachers, and high student-teacher ratio.
and hence, only option d is the right answer.
Q.44)
Ans) a
Page 18 of 30

The passage mentions that “there is a huge shortage of trained teachers in India, which has raised the
already high student-teacher ratio and this hike in the ratio is further impacting the quality of education
in India”. So, statement 1 is correct.
And lack of facilities and shortage of trained teachers are the challenges in improving education. They are
not the outcome of each other. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Shortage of trained teachers is nowhere related to outdated curriculum. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Q.45)
Ans) b
Let the manufacturing price (MP) be Rs 100 per car and number of cars be 100
Total MP = Rs 100 x 100 = Rs 10,000
Selling Price fixed by the manufacturer = Rs (100+ 30)/100 = Rs 130/ car
He sells ½ cars (that is 50 cars) at Rs 130/ car
¼ cars (that is 25 cars) at Rs [130x (100-15)]/100 = Rs 110.5/car
rest ½ cars (that is 25 cars) at Rs [130x (100-30)]/100 = Rs 91/car
Total price earned by selling the cars = (50x130) + (25x110.5) + (25x91) = Rs 11,537.5
Gain = Total price earned by selling the cars - Total Manufacturing Price
= Rs (11537.5-10000) = Rs 1537.5
Gain % = (1537.5/10,000) x 100 = 15.375 %
Q.46)
Ans) c
Given, first car travels 8% of the distance between the showrooms in 3 hrs.———-(I)
Second car covers 7/120 of the distance in 2 hours 30 minutes(5/2hrs). We can convert 7/120 in
percentage distance covered, as we have the percentage distance covered for the first car also.
So (7/120)x 100 = 5.8333%
Implies second car covers 5.833 % of the total distance in 2 hour 30 minutes.
So, using Unitary method,
the distance covered by second car in 3 hours =( 7/120)x (⅖)x 3 = 0.07
Again, converting it to percentage, second car covers 7% of the total distance in three (3) hours ——-(II)
Together first and and second car covers (8+7) =15% of the total distance in three hours.
Again, using Unitary method, we can find the time taken to cover the entire 100% distance:
Time taken to meet each other = (3/15) x 100 = 20 hours.
Given, in 20 hours first car covers the distance of 800 feet.
From equation (1) , in three (3) hours, first car travels 8% of the distance
So in 20 hours, it covers the distance of (8/3)x 20= 160/3 %
From unitary method,
160/3% of distance = 800 feet
So, 100% of the distance = 1500 feet
So, the second car will cover the distance of (1500-800=700) in 20 hours.
So, the speed of second car = 700/20= 35 feet/hour
Q.47)
Ans) c
We can observe that,
Page 19 of 30

When 30 Equipment are arranged then 25 are left.
When 35 equipments are arranged then 30 are left
When 40 equipments are arranged then 35 are left
When 25 equipment are arranged then 20 are left.
So, there is a difference of 5 in each case. Implies five (5) is the remainder in each case.
So, the minimum number of equipments present in the gold gym can be taken out by finding LCM of [(30,
35, 40, 25) -5]
LCM of (30,35,40,25) = 4200
Minimum number of equipments present in the gold gym = 4200-5 =4195
Q.48)
Ans) b
Step 1: Use the statement : Oren is neighbor of Kyle and Nike. For this two possible arrangements are
there- Image 1 and Image 2 .
From image 1, we observe that Pat cannot be immediate right of Kyle in this arrangement.
So, to adhere to the statement ‘Pat is to the immediate right of Kyle’, Image 1 will be discarded. And Pat
will be seated at index 4.
Now, use the statement: Lauren is second to the left of Quinn. Implies Quinn can’t sit at index 5 and 6,
because then Lauren’s condition won’t satisfy. So, Quinn has to be seated at index 7.
Now there are two positions left,
Given Lauren is second to the left of Quinn, so Lauren will sit at index 5. And Manu will sit at the last left
index 6.
Pat is sitting third to the right of Nike.

Quinn is neighbour of Nike.
Page 20 of 30

Manu is not the neighbor of Oren.
Q.49)
Ans) c
Statement 1:
Let age of Mark be x years now. So age of Ryan is 4x.
This cannot give us the age of Ryan 10 years from now. So statement -1 alone is not sufficient.
Statement-2:
4x + 5 = 3(x +5)
Solving, we get x = 10
Implies, present age of Ryan is 4X equals 40.
Hence, 10 years from now age of Rehan equal to 40+10, = 50
So, both statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question.
Q.50)
Ans) d
Case 1: Let’s fix the position of A at index 5.
Step 1: Use the statement: D is standing immediately in front of A. So, D will be at index 4.
P D A
e
r
s
o
n
i 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1
n 0
d
e
x
Step 2: use the statement A is standing between F and H, but not necessarily immediately adjacent to
them. So, let’s put F at index 3 and H at index 6 (not necessarily immediately adjacent is given, implies it
can be immediately adjacent or can’t be)
Now use the statement C is standing behind H. So, C will be at index 7
P F DA HC B G
e
r
s
o
n
i 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1
Page 21 of 30
n 0
d
e
x
Step 3 : Use the statement: B is standing immediately in front of G,so for this G has to be at index 9 or
10. Let’s put G at index 9, Then B will be at index 8.
Now use the statement: J is standing immediately behind I, but is not standing at the either end of the
queue. So, the position of J will be at index 2.
Now, the position remaining for E is 10th position.
P I J F D A Hc B G E
e
r
s
o
n
i 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1
n 0
d
e
x
===================================================================================
=====
Case 2: Let’s fix the position of A at index 6
Step 1: Use the statement: D is standing immediately in front of A. So D will be at index 5.
Person
P F D A HC
e
r
s
o
n
I 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1
n 0
d
e
x
Step 2: Use the statement: A is standing between F and H, but not necessarily immediately adjacent to
them. So, let’s put F at index 4 and H at index 7 (not necessarily immediately adjacent is given, implies it
can be immediately adjacent or can’t be).
And also, it is given that C is standing immediately behind H. So, C is at index 8.
Page 22 of 30

Step 3: Use the statement: J is standing immediately behind I, but is not standing at the either end of the
queue. So, J has to be placed at index 3 or 2 .
Let’s fix index 2 for J, so I will be at index 1.
Now use the statement B is standing immediately in front of G, so for this only position left for G will at
index 10. Then B will be at index 9. So now the last position left will be if E.
P I J E F D A HC B G
e
r
s
o
n
i 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1
n 0
d
e
x
From two cases we observed that position of E cannot be determined with certainty. We need additional
information to find its exact position.
So, data is insufficient.
Q.51)
Ans) b
The passage uses words like "desolate," "forsaken," and "nothingness" to describe the landscape and the
wanderer's emotional state. The tone is one of hopelessness and despair, as the wanderer questions the
worth of her journey and wonders if it's too late to turn back. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.
Q.52)
Ans) c
In the passage it’s stated that “younger generations have begun to adopt a more Westernised world view
“, but it’s nowhere implicitly or explicitly stated that they have lost touch with their traditional values.
Hence statement a is not the crux of the passage, so incorrect.
The passage states that “the shift in the values has led to a tussle between generations, with older
generations lamenting loss of traditional values”, it’s nowhere meant that traditional values are no longer
relevant. Hence statement b is incorrect.
The passage focuses on the clash between traditional and modern values in India and how it has led to
differences between generations due to factors like globalization and modernization. Passage describes
various dimensions of it and its large number of consequences such as rise of nuclear families, old age
homes, depletion of moral values. Hence statement c reflects the crux of the passage.
In the passage it’s stated that “younger generations have begun to adopt a more Westernized worldview”,
but it’s not meant that Western values have completely replaced traditional Indian values in India. So,
statement d is incorrect.
Q.53)
Ans) d
Page 23 of 30

The author of the passage is against” the younger generation's focus on individualism and materialism”.
As this has led to a decline in the importance of family, community, and spirituality in their lives.
This is further leading to decline in society, in form of rising old age homes, rise in number of nuclear
families and declining moral values in grandchildren.
So, the author is against this, as it has huge adverse consequences. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Q.54)
Ans) a
Given, the total number of digits in the number has to be less than the number of digits present in one
million. The number of digits present in one million is seven (7).
Implies the maximum number of digits in the number to be formed will be six (6)
It’s given that numbers are to be framed, so number will begin from single digit.
So, it will include All the numbers of single digit, two digits, three digits, four digits, five digits and six
digits which can be formed using ‘5’, ‘6’, ‘0’
1) Number of ways for selecting single digit =_ 2 (as 0 can’t be chosen)
2) Number of ways for selecting two-digit number = _, _ = 2x3 = 6 (as 1st digit can’t be 0, and 2nd place
can have any of the three digits)
3) Number of ways for selecting three digits number = _, _, _= 2x3x3 = 18 (1st digit can’t be 0, and all
other places can have any of the three digits)
4) Number of ways for selecting four digits number = _, _, _, _ =2x3x3x3 =54 (1st digit can’t be 0, and all
other places can have any of the three digits)
5) Number of ways for selecting five digits number = _, _, _, _, _ =2x3x3x3x3 = 162 (1st digit can’t be 0,
and all other places can have any of the three digits)
6) Number of ways for selecting six digits number = _, _, _, _, _, _ = 2x3x3x3x3x3 = 486 (1st digit can’t be
0, and all other places can have any of the three digits)
7) Number of digits which are less than a million, that is less than 10,00000 will be, Sum of all single digit,
two digits, three digits, four digits, five digits and six digits which have been formed using ‘5’, ‘6’, ‘0’.
8) That is 2 + 6 + 18 + 54 + 162 + 486 = 728
9) Numbers which are less than one thousand are = Sum of single digit, two digits and three digits
number
10) That is 2 + 6 + 18 = 26
Q.55)
Ans) d
Given, telephone number comprises of 7 digits: _, _, _, _, _, _, _
Only available digits are 1, 2, 3
The school decides to use digit ‘3’ twice.
Step 1: it will choose two places, where it will use the digit ‘3’ in C (7,2) ways = 7! / [(7-2)! X2!] = 21 ways.
Step 2: Now it has to fill remaining five places with two digits that is ‘1’ and ‘2’.
This can be done in 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 ways. That is for each place either ‘1’ or ‘2’ can be chosen in’ 2’
different ways.
Step 3: So total number of ways in which this can be done is = 21 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 672
The number of ways = The number of different telephone numbers available to the school authority.
Hence, total 672 numbers are available to the school authority, out of which it can choose one.
Page 24 of 30
Q.56)
Ans) b
Let us consider that the points P and Q coincide on the first line,
R and S coincide on the second line,
X and Y coincide on the third line and
all these coincidences happen at three such points, which are on the same straight line.
So, in such a case, there would be no triangles formed, as all the points will be in a straight line.
So, the minimum number of triangles that can be drawn by joining these points which are on three
parallel straight lines is zero.
Q.57)
Ans) b
Given that after 100 days, she finishes 2 gowns full and one gown half. It means she has finished 2.5 gowns
in 100 days.
So, she has finished 2.5/15 = ⅙ of the orders taken.
To finish ⅙ of the order, it took her 100 days and 45 tailors.
Implies, total 45x100 = 4500-man days were spent to finish ⅙ of the task.
Using Unitary method,
we can calculate that to finish the remaining ⅚ of task she needs = (4500x6) (⅚)= 22500-man days.
She is left with ⅚ of the task and 200 days.
We know the number of days, that is 200 days in which she has to finish the task.
So, number of men required to complete the task in remaining 200 days =22500/200 = 112.5 men
She Already has 45 Tailors. So, she needs to employ (112.5-45) = 67.5 extra tailor.
That would be 68 Tailor.
Q.58)
Ans) c
To find Unit digit, we multiply the Unit digits of the given expression.
That is, 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 6 x 7 x 7 x 8 x 9
It comes out to be 508032
The unit digit of this product is 2
Hence the unit digit of the given expression is ‘2’
Q.59)
Ans) a
When a wire is re-formed from Circle to a square, the perimeter of the square and the circle will remain
the same.
Given, radius of circle(r) = 28 cm, Perimeter of the circle = 2 πr = (2x 22/7x 28) = 176 cm
So, Perimeter of the square = 176 cm
Greatest side possible = 176/4 = 44 cm
Page 25 of 30

Length of the diagonal = √2(side) = √2x(44) = 44√2 cm.
Area of the largest possible square = (44x44) = 1936 square cm.
Q.60)
Ans) b
Let the exam be of 100 marks.
So 40 is the pass marks.
Given Aman has secured 10% marks less than pass marks,
so Aman has secured [40-(40x10/100)] = 36 marks.
Given Bobby has secured 11.11% less than Aman. 11.11%
So marks of Bobby are = [ 36- {36x(11.11/100)}] = 32 marks
Now, Sum of Aman and Bobby marks = 36+32 = 68 marks
Cyrus has to just pass the exam. Implies he needs just 40 marks.
So, he needs 68-40 = 28 marks less than the sum of Aman and Bobby.
Percentage less marks = (28/68)x100 = 41.17%
Q.61)
Ans) c
The author argues that differences in culture and religion often create differences over policy issues that
are less subject to compromise and resolution through negotiations. These differences are less mutable
and hence more capable of creating conflicts in international relations, as opposed to geopolitical
interests which are transitory and subject to conflicting pressures. The author highlights that the
interactions among peoples of different civilizations can enhance civilization consciousness, invigorate
differences and animosities, and increase the involvement of states in the politics of other civilizations.
Q.62)
Ans) b
The author says interactions among peoples of different civilizations enhance the civilization
consciousness of people. So, people become more aware or assertive when they interact with people of
different civilization. So, this is the best possible definition among the options given above.
Q.63)
Ans) a
Statement 1 is correct: In the passage, the author argues that when citizens prioritize their personal
interests over their civic duties, the state becomes vulnerable to collapse. The citizens pay troops to
march out to war and name deputies to meet in council in their place, which leads to their disconnection
from the political process.
Statement 2 is incorrect: “By reason of idleness and money, they end by having soldiers to enslave their
country and representatives to sell it." In the statement “they” are being referred to the citizens and their
idleness and not of representatives. Furthermore, the passage argues that idleness of the citizens would
lead soldiers to enslave the country and representatives selling them.
Q.64)
Page 26 of 30
Ans) b
Let's assume that the total number of voters on the list is "x". According to the question, 75% of the voters
cast their vote. This means that the number of votes cast is 0.75x.
Candidate A got 60% of the votes cast, which means that he got 0.6 * 0.75x = 0.45x votes.
Candidate A won by 1800 votes. This means that the difference between the number of votes received by
A and B is 1800.
Let's assume that candidate B got z votes. Then we have the equation:
0.45x - z = 1800
We also know that the total number of votes cast is 0.75x, which means that:
0.45x + z = 0.75x
Simplifying this equation, we get:
z = 0.3x
Substituting this value of z in the first equation, we get:
0.45x - 0.3x = 1800
0.15x = 1800
x = 12000
Therefore, the total number of voters on the list is 12000.
Q.65)
Ans) d
To find the smallest number greater than 2000 that when divided by 4, 6, 8, or 10 leaves a remainder of 2,
we need to find the least common multiple (LCM) of these numbers and add 2.
The LCM of 4, 6, 8, and 10 is 120. Therefore, any number that leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by
these numbers must be of the form:
120n + 2, where n is a positive integer.
To find the smallest such number greater than 2000, we can start by finding the smallest integer value of
n that makes 120n + 2 greater than 2000.
We have:
120n + 2 > 2000
120n > 1998
n > 16.65
Since n must be an integer, the smallest possible value of n is 17. Therefore, the smallest number greater
than 2000 that when divided by 4, 6, 8, or 10 leaves a remainder of 2 is:
120(17) + 2 = 2042
Q.66)
Ans) c
Let’s suppose the two-digit number is 10x (minimum two-digit number is 10)
p = 10x
q = 10x + 7
Since p*q = 1320
We can write
10x (10x+7) = 1320
x(10x+7) = 132
10x2 +7x -132 = 0
Page 27 of 30

Using factorization method:
10x2 +(40-33)x -132 = 0
10x2 +40x-33x -132 = 0
10x(x+4) -33 (x+4) = 0
(x+4)(10x-33)= 0
Thus either x = -4
Or x = 33/10
Since p is a two-digit number, it cannot be negative, we can ignore the value of -4
If x =33/10 then p = 10*33/10
Thus p = 33
And q = 40
Thus p + q = 73
Q.67)
Ans) d
Statement 1: a + b can be a prime number: This statement is true. For example, let a = 2 and b = 3. Then a +
b = 5, which is a prime number.
Statement 2: a × b can never be a perfect square: This statement is also true. Since a and b are co-prime,
they do not have any common factors. Therefore, the product a × b cannot be a perfect square, because a
perfect square has at least one factor that is repeated.
Statement 3: a - b can be an even number: This statement is also true. For example, let a = 5 and b = 3.
Then a - b = 2, which is an even number.
Q.68)
Ans) a
From 10 am on the 1st day to 4 am on the 5th day there are a total of 114 hours.
As the clock loses 15 min per day, so 23 hours and 45 min of this clock are the same as 24 hours of the
correct clock, i.e. 95/4 hours of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock.
So, 114 hours of this clock = (24×4/95) × 114 hours of correct clock = 115.2 hours of correct clock, which
is equal to 115 hours and 12 minutes.
So, the correct time must be 5:12 am.
Q.69)
Ans) a
After the first transfer of 40 ml orange juice from P to Q, container P has 160 ml orange juice and
container Q has 40 ml orange juice and 200 ml water. The mixture in Q is now 1/6 orange juice and 5/6
water. When 40 ml of this mixture is transferred back to P, it contains (1/6)*40 =20/3 ml orange juice and
(5/6)*40 =100/3 ml water. So now container P has a total of 160 +20/3 =500/3 ml orange juice and
container Q has a total of 200 -100/3 =500/3 ml water.
So the proportion of orange juice in P is o = (500/3)/(600/3) =5/6 and the proportion of water in Q is w
=(500/3)/(600/3) =5/6.
Hence o=w.
Q.70)
Ans) d
Page 28 of 30

Given equation: 20÷4-8×2÷3
But "+" means subtraction, "-" means division, "×" means addition and "÷" means multiplication
After substitution the respective symbols we get
20 × 4 ÷ 8 + 2 × 3 = 16
Q.71)
Ans) b
Desire can be understood through experience. The author argues that desire is a state that can be
observed and analysed through experience. The author clearly says so in the beginning.
Q.72)
Ans) c
In the passage, the author motioned that "A judge must essentially "re-constitute" that text by fashioning
a new one, which is faithful to the old text but also responsive to and informed by the conditions,
constraints, and aspirations of the world in which the new legal problem has arisen" implies that new-one
is explained according to the time. So, (c) best describes.
Q.73)
Ans) c
The passage argues that the problem of a rational economic order is not simply a problem of allocating
resources that are given to a single mind. Rather, it is a problem of utilizing the knowledge that is
dispersed among all the individuals in society. The passage suggests that the best use of resources is
known only to the individual members of society and that the challenge is to secure the best use of these
resources.
Q.74)
Ans) a
Answer can be verified by assuming the values x = 1, y = 3, z = 2.
Let us verify the options:
Option a: Since, y is odd and (x - z) = -1, thus its square would be 1 which is also add. Option a is not true.
Option b: Since y and (x - z) both are odd, y2 (x -z) is also odd. Option b is true.
Option c: Since y and (x - z) both are odd, y (x -z) is also odd. Option c is true.
Option d: Since z and (x - y) both are even, z (x - y)2 is also even. Option d is true.
Q.75)
Ans) d
The pattern is that every number is six more than the last. We can calculate till 23 rd number but that’s
time intensive.
Since each number is six more than the last, the formula can be f(n)=6n.
However, this formula is off by 3 for every number in the given sequence.
Fix this by simply adding 3 in the formula.
The result is f(n) = 6n + 3, which works for every value of n.
Substituting 23 for n in this formula
We get f(23) = 6*23 +3
Page 29 of 30

= 138+3
= 141
Q.76)
Ans) c
There are 21 consonants in the English alphabet. Since each password has to start with a consonant, there
are 21 ways to choose the first character of the password. For the second and third characters which are
non-zero digits, there are 9 choices for each (1-9). Therefore, the total number of passwords that can be
generated is 21 * 9 * 9 = 1701.
Q.77)
Ans) c
Let us assume the two persons who can dance on two categories of songs does so on English and Punjabi
songs.
One person dance on all the three categories of songs.
Number of persons who can dance Only on Punjabi song = 6 - 2 - 1 = 3
Number of persons who can dance Only on English song = 15 - 2 - 1 = 12
Number of persons who can dance Only on Hindi songs = 6 - 1 = 5
Thus, the number of persons who can dance on exactly one category of songs = 3 + 12 + 5 = 20
Number of persons who can dance on two categories of songs = 2
Number of persons who can dance on all the three categories of songs = 1
So, Total number of persons = 20 + 2 + 1 = 23
Q.78)
Ans) c
Number of people who like cricket = P(C) = 20
Number of people who like hockey = P(H) = 15
Number of people who like horse riding = P(HR) = 12
People who like all the three games = P(C ∩ H ∩ HR) = 1
People who like both cricket and hockey = P(C ∩ H) = 5
People who like hockey and horse riding = P(H ∩ HR) = 3
People who like cricket and horse riding = P(C ∩ HR) = 2
Now, n(A ∪ B ∪ C)=n(A)+n(B)+n(C) - n(A ∩ B) - n(B ∩ C) - n(C ∩ A) + n( A ∩ B ∩ C )
So, total number of people in the group = 20 + 15 + 12 - 5 -3 - 2 + 1 = 38
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q.79)
Ans) d
To form a four-digit number using the given digits, we have six choices for the first digit (since any of the
six digits can be used), five choices for the second digit (since one digit has already been used), four
choices for the third digit (since two digits have already been used), and three choices for the fourth digit
(since three digits have already been used). Therefore, the number of four-digit numbers that can be
formed is:
6 × 5 × 4 × 3 = 360
Page 30 of 30

So, there are 360 four-digit numbers that can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6, if each digit
can only be used once in a number.
Q.80)
Ans) b
Let us suppose the total marks = x
Average of 15 students = 145
Thus x/15 = 145 = 2175
Let us suppose the lowest two scores are 9y and 9(y+1)
As per the given information
2175-( 9y +9(y+1))/15-2 = 150
2175-18y-9/13 = 150
2166-18y = 150*13
2166-1950 = 18y
216= 18y
Solving this we get
y = 12
hence lowest score 9y = 9*12 = 108

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Page 1 of 30

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

Here G and L can interchange their places in 2 ways among themselves.

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

From statement 1 and Statement 2, following tree can be made.

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

Step 1: Use the statements- U is mother of R. R has a sister N.

Step 2: Use the statements- B is spouse of U. S is grand-daughter of B.

Final Step: Use the statements- B has only two kids.

So, S is the daughter of R.

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

From Image 9, it is evident that Some trendsetter can be girls.

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

Step 3 - Use the statements: Ebb doesn’t sit next to Bob

Dave sits between Farhan and Andy.

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

Pat is sitting third to the right of Nike.

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

PTS 2024 | B4 | L1 CSAT 1 - Solutions |

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