INTENSIVE REVIEW

MATERNAL MT 1 abcd✔ 81/100

25.A✔ 50.B✔ 75.A✔

1. B✔ [Link] 51.A✔ 76.B✔
2. C✔ [Link] [Link]
52.A✔
3. B✔ 28.A✔ [Link] 78.D✔
4. D✔ 29.B✔ 54.B✔ [Link]
5. C✔ 30.C✔ 55.B✔ 80.D✔

6. C✔ 31.A✔ 56.B✔ 81.D✔

7. B✔ 32.A✔ 57.B✔ 82.B✔

33.C✔ [Link]
8. B✔ 58.B✔
34.A✔ 84.A✔
9. B✔ 59.C✔
[Link] [Link]
[Link] 60.B✔
[Link] 86.A✔
11.B✔ 61.B✔
[Link] 87.B✔
12.A✔ 62.A✔
38.D✔ 88.A✔
13.B✔ [Link]
39.A✔ 89.C✔
14.A✔ 64.A✔
40.B✔ 90.A✔
15.A✔ [Link]
41.C✔ 91.B✔
16.D✔ 66.C✔
42.C✔ [Link]
17.D✔ 67.C✔
43.B✔ 93.A✔
18.A✔ 68.D✔
44.B✔ [Link]
19.B✔ 69.B✔ [Link]
45.D✔
20.A✔ 70.B✔ 96.B✔
46.D✔ [Link]
21.B✔ 97.C✔
47.A✔ [Link]
22.A✔ [Link] 98.D✔
48.A✔
23.D✔ 74.A✔ 99.D✔
49.B✔
24.C✔ 100. B✔
1. Nurse Rita is providing information to a client on the female reproductive system. While
discussing the uterus and its different layers, the nurse understands that the myometrium has
unique muscle fibers that make it ideally suited for the birth process. The nurse would describe
this layer to the client as:
a. The inner layer of muscle that is in the uterus
b. The middle layer of thick muscle in the uterus
c. The outer layer of muscle that covers most of the uterus
d. The functional layer that lies above the basal layer of the uterus
Clear selection
2. A pregnant client in the first trimester calls a nurse at a health care clinic and reports that she
has noticed a thin, colorless, vaginal drainage. The nurse most appropriately tells the mother
a. To come to the clinic immediately
b. To report to the emergency room at the maternity center
c. That the vaginal discharge may be bothersome but is a normal occurrence
d. To use tampons if the discharge is bothersome
Clear selection
3. The increases activity of the endometrial glands during the luteal phase of the female
reproductive cycle is stimulated by:
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. glycogen
d. prolactin
Clear selection
4. The main function of the ovaries is to
a. secrete hormones that affects the build- up and shedding of the endometrium during the
menstrual cycle
b. channel blood discharged from the uterus during menstruation
c. accommodate the growing fetus during pregnancy
d. produce mature ova
Clear selection
5. The endometrium thickens during which phase of the menstrual cycle?
a. Secretory phase
b. menstrual phase
c. proliferative phase
d. Ischemic phase
Clear selection
6. Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic?
a. Cervical mucus changes
b. Secretion from Skene's glands
c. The action of Doderlein's bacillus
d. Secretions from Bartholin's glands
Clear selection
7. In response to anterior pituitary stimulation, the graafian follicle secretes:
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Prolactin
d. Glycogen
Clear selection
8. Increased levels of Gn- RH stimulate the anterior pituitary to secrete:
a. Progesterone
b. FSH
c. Oxytocin
d. Prolactin
Clear selection
9. Kai is aware that she’s been showing some narcissism since becoming pregnant. Which of her
actions best describes narcissism?
a. Her skin feels ‘pulled thin’ across her abdomen
b. Her thoughts tends to be mainly about herself
c. She feels a need to sleep a lot more than usual
d. She often feels ‘numb’ or as if she’s taken a narcotic
Clear selection
10. A client who’s 5 weeks pregnant reports nausea and vomiting. The nurse reassures the client
that these symptoms probably will subside by:
a. 5 to 8 weeks’ gestation
b. 9 to 12 week’s gestation
c. 14 to 17 week’s gestation
d. 18 to 22 week’s gestation
Clear selection
11. A nurse is collecting data during admission assessment of a client who is pregnant with
twins. The client has healthy 5 year- old child that was delivered at 38 weeks and tells the nurse
that she does not have a history of any type of abortion or fetal demise. The nurse would
document the GTPAL for this client as:
a. G= 3, T= 2, P= 0, A= 0, L= 1
b. G= 2, T= 1, P= 0, A= 0, L= 1
c. G= 1, T= 1, P= 1, A= 0, L= 1
d. G= 2, T= 0, P= 0, A= 0, L= 1
Clear selection
12. A nurse in the maternity unit is caring for a client in the third trimester of pregnancy with a
diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. During the assessment, which finding would indicate the need
for further evaluation?
a. Bleeding gums following oral care
b. Enlargement of the breasts
c. Periods of fetal movement followed by quiet periods
d. Complaints of feeling warm
Clear selection
13. Pen, a nurse-midwife determines that a client is in the second stage of labor and may start
pushing. What marks the beginning of the second stage, and what marks the end?
a. Cervical dilation of 7 to 8 cm; complete cervical dilation
b. Complete cervical dilation; delivery of the neonate
c. Cervical dilation of 7 to 8 cm; delivery of the placenta
d. Complete cervical dilation; delivery of the placenta
Clear selection
14. Jannah, who is in labor receives epidural anesthesia. The nurse should assess carefully for
which adverse reaction to the anesthetic agent?
a. Hypotensive crisis
b. Fetal tachycardia
c. Renal toxicity
d. Increased beat-to-beat variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR)
Clear selection
15. Nurse Venice is aware that one of the following is the most serious adverse effect associated
with oxytocin (Pitocin) administration during labor?
a. Tetanic contractions
b. Elevated blood pressure
c. Early decelerations of fetal heart rate
d. Water intoxication
Clear selection
16. Nurse Olive assessed client for evidence of postpartum hemorrhage during the third stage of
labor. Early signs of this postpartum complication include:
a. an increased pulse rate, decreased respiratory rate, and increased blood pressure.
b. a decreased pulse rate, increased respiratory rate, and increased blood pressure.
c. a decreased pulse rate, decreased respiratory rate, and increased blood pressure.
d. an increased pulse rate, increased respiratory rate, and decreased blood pressure.
Clear selection
17. A nurse is interviewing an antenatal client. Which assessment question would the nurse ask
the client to identify the risk for toxoplasmosis parasite infection during pregnancy?
a. “How many sexual partners have you had since you became sexually active?”
b. “Have you experienced any high fevers or unusual rashes during the first 6 weeks of your
pregnancy?”
c. “Have you been exposed to children with rashes or gastrointestinal symptoms?”
d. “Do you have any cats at home and do you handle the kitty litter?”
Clear selection
18. A pregnant client is seen in the clinic and reports that she has been experiencing pain due to
hemorrhoids. The nurse provides information to the client regarding the hemorrhoids. Which
statement by the client indicates the need for further information?
a. “Hemorrhoids are caused by my changes in hormones and will disappear after my baby is
born.”
b. “It is important to lie down periodically during the day to relieve the pressure.”
c. “The hemorrhoids can be gently pushed back inside the body using a lubricant.”
d. “It is important to drink plenty of liquids and include bulk in my diet.”
Clear selection
19. A nurse provides instructions to a pregnant woman regarding measures to relieve low back
pain. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of these measures?
a. “I will wear an abdominal support.”
b. “I will do the pelvic tilt exercises.”
c. “I need to work at relaxing my abdominal muscles when I stand.”
d. “I need to wear shoes with a higher heel of at least 2 inches.”
Clear selection
20. A nurse is caring for a client in labor. Immediately after delivering a normal healthy
newborn infant, the woman suddenly begins to complain of pain and the nurse notes that the
client is bleeding heavily from the vagina. The nurse suspects uterine inversion and takes which
immediate action?
a. Prepares to administer a tocolytic
b. Places the newborn infant to the mother’s breast to breastfeed
c. Pulls strongly on the umbilical cord
d. Performs fundal massage
Clear selection
21. Clariz arrives at the health care facility, stating that her bed linens were wet when she woke
up this morning. She says no fluid is leaking but complains of mild abdominal cramps and lower
back discomfort. Vaginal examination reveals cervical dilation of 3 cm, 100% effacement, and
positive ferning. Based on these findings, the nurse concludes that the client is in which phase of
the first stage of labor?
a. Active phase
b. Latent phase
c. Expulsive phase
d. Transitional phase
Clear selection
22. A client in labor tells April that she feels a strong urge to push. Physical examination reveals
that her cervix is not completely dilated. The nurse-midwife tells her not to push yet. What is the
rationale for this instruction?
a. Early pushing may cause edema and impede fetal descent.
b. The nurse-midwife isn’t ready to assist her.
c. The fetus hasn’t rotated into the proper position.
d. Pushing at this time may cause rupture of the membranes.
Clear selection
23. A nurse in the postpartum unit is reviewing the records of the clients on the unit. During the
review, the nurse determines that which is most at risk for developing endometritis following
delivery?
a. A primigravida with a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery
b. A gravida II who delivered vaginally following an 18-hour labor
c. A woman experiencing an elective Cesarean delivery at 38 weeks gestation
d. An adolescent experiencing an emergency Cesarean delivery for fetal distress
Clear selection
24. Nurse Divina is aware that the following would be an inappropriate indication of placental
detachment?
a. An abrupt lengthening of the cord
b. An increase in the number of contractions
c. Relaxation of the uterus
d. Increased vaginal bleeding
Clear selection
25. When reviewing a fetal monitor strip, nurse Roy looks for reassuring and nonreassuring fetal
heart rate (FHR) patterns. Which pattern is nonreassuring?
a. FHR that accelerates to baseline tachycardia
b. Baseline FHR that doesn’t increase
c. Variable FHR pattern that begins and ends abruptly
d. Short-term variability that doesn’t decrease
Clear selection
26. Nurse Adrian is aware that an expected fetal adverse reaction to meperidine (Demerol)
during labor is:
a. decreased beat-to-beat variability.
b. bradycardia.
c. late decelerations.
d. none known
Clear selection
27. A newborn infant is diagnosed with Hirschsprung’s disease based on failure to pass
meconium. The nurse observes that the parents are hesitant to hold their infant. Based on this
assessment, an important consideration in working with the parents is to:
a. Observe stools for color and character
b. Help the parents adjust to the congenital disorder
c. Stabilize the newborn’s fluid and electrolyte balance
d. Teach the parents how to administer a barium enema to their newborn
Clear selection
28. Late in the first stage of labor, Olivia receives a spinal block to relieve discomfort. A short
time later, her husband tells the nurse that his wife feels dizzy and is complaining of numbness
around her lips. What do the client’s symptoms suggest?
a. Anesthesia overdose
b. Transition to the second stage of labor
c. Anxiety
d. Dehydration
Clear selection
Situation: Melissa believes that she is pregnant since she missed her period for 2
months. She likewise is experiencing nausea and vomiting with positive pregnant test
result. Ultrasound revealed no fetal parts and no fetal heart activity. HCG titer
revealed abnormally high [Link] Title
29. Symptoms of H Mole include the following except:
a. Persistent nausea and vomiting
b. FHT abnormally high
c. Unusual enlargement of uterus
d. HCG abnormally elevated
Clear selection
30. The main treatment of H mole is:
a. Bed rest
b. Increase IV therapy
c. D and C
d. Oxygen therapy
Clear selection
31. A persistent increase titer level of HCG after removal of H mole may indicate:
a. Choriocarcinoma
b. DIC
c. Uterine rupture
d. Rh incompatibility
Clear selection
32. Nausea and vomiting is considered normal during pregnancy if:
a. It is manifested less than 12 weeks of gestation
b. It can be seen throughout pregnancy
c. It is manifested during impantation only
d. It is manifested during second trimester
Clear selection
33. Which prophylactic drug is most expected to be given to Melissa?
a. Oxytocin
b. Methergin
c. Methothrexate
d. Dexamethasone
Clear selection
34. Discharge teaching for Meliss must include which of the following teaching?
a. Avoid pregnancy for a year
b. Avoid comtraceptive methods
c. A hysterectomy will be required
d. No specific restrictions are necessary
Clear selection
Situation: Andrea, 8 weeks pregnant was diagnosed of threatened abortion.
35. The nurse knows that these are the expected manifestations of threatened abortion
except:
a. none or mild uterine contractions
b. passage of placental tissues
c. slight vaginal bleeding
d. fetal size appropriate for AOG
Clear selection
36. Performance of such nursing action may worsen Andrea’s condition
a. Complete bed rest
b. Monitoring I&O
c. Steroid administration
d. Recommending coital activity
Clear selection
37. Unfortunately, all products of conception were expelled our from Andrea’s vaginal canal.
Assessment done and revealed the following: contracted uterus and closed cervix. No signs of
further bleeding noted within 24 hours. Which is the next appropriate nursing action?
a. Prepare for D&C
b. Administer Betamethasone IM as ordered
c. Secure consent for hysterectomy
d. No further intervention needed
Clear selection
38. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client in the third trimester of pregnancy who was
admitted to the maternity unit with a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placenta. Which of the
following assessment findings would the nurse NOT expect to note if this condition is present?
a. Acute abdominal pain
b. A hard board like abdomen
c. Uterine tenderness
d. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
Clear selection
39. A clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant client. The nurse would
implement teaching related to the risk of abruptio placenta if which of the following information
was obtained on assessment?
a. The client has a history of hypertension
b. The client performs moderate exercise on a regular daily schedule
c. The client is 28 years of age
d. This is the second pregnancy
Clear selection
40. Which of the following are common causes of bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy?
1. Abortion
2. Abruption placenta
3. Placenta previa
4. Ectopic pregnancy
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 & 4
c. 1, 2 & 3
d. 2, 3 & 4
Clear selection
41. When teaching Aling Julia about her pregnancy, you should include personal common
discomforts. Which of the following is an indication for prompt professional supervision?
a. Constipation and haemorrhoids
b. Backache
c. Facial edema
d. Frequent urination
Clear selection
42. A woman who is 9 weeks pregnant comes to the Health Center with moderate bright red
vaginal bleeding. On physical examination, the physician finds the client’s cervix 5cm dilated.
Which term best describes the client’s condition?
a. missed abortion
b. incomplete abortion
c. inevitable abortion
d. threatened abortion
Clear selection
43. A client, 38 weeks pregnant arrives the emergency room. She reports the presence of
bright red vaginal bleeding and denies the presence of pain. Based on this information, the client
may be experiencing:
a. Prolapsed umbilical cord
b. Placenta previa
c. Abruptio Placenta
d. Rupture of membranes
Clear selection
44. Which of the following is not considered as positive assessment of pregnancy?
a. Fetal heart rate heard via stethoscope
b. Fetal movement felt by the mother
c. Fetus can be viewed via ultrasound
d. Fetal movement felt by the examiner
Clear selection
45. Which statement would the nurse make to the client about Striae Gravidarum?
a. Occur in 100% of pregnancies
b. Are silvery streaks that appear especially during the last trimester
c. Can be decreased by a local application of cocoa butter or other types of emollient creams
d. Will fade from their present reddish appearance
Clear selection
46. A client who’s 2 months pregnant complains of urinary frequency and says she gets up
several times at night to go to the bathroom. She denies other urinary symptoms. How should
the nurse intervene?
a. Advise the client to decrease her daily fluid intake
b. Refer the client to a urologist for further investigation
c. Explain that urinary frequency isn’t a sign of urinary tract infection (UTI)
d. Explain that urinary frequency is expected during the first trimester
Clear selection
47. Which of the following would be Maria’s best response to a pregnant client asking if she
can have a “social drink” with her clients 2 to 3 times a week?
a. “It is best to avoid all alcoholic beverages during pregnancy.”
b. “After the first trimester, you may have 3 drinks per week.”
c. “Beer is safer to drink, because it has less alcohol.”
d. “If you’re used to drink alcohol, you may continue during pregnancy.”
Clear selection
48. While discussing the growth and development of the product of conception, a patient asks
nurse Pokwang, “ During what time in my pregnancy is my baby most vulnerable to getting birth
defects? “Pokwang’s best response is:
a. “As your baby is forming in the first 2 months because organ development takes place at this
time.”
b. “Throughout the pregnancy.”
c. “Near the end of your pregnancy.”
d. “Halfway through your pregnancy, around 20 weeks or 5 months.
Clear selection
49. Mrs. Dwarfina, a patient in her 14th week of pregnancy, has presented an abdominal
cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding for the past 8 hours. She has passed several clots. On
further assessment, the speculum revealed 2 to 3 cm cervical dilatation. Nurse Stephanie would
document these findings as:
a. Threatened abortion
b. Imminent Abortion
c. Complete abortion
d. Missed abortion
Clear selection
50. Based on the situation of [Link], Nurse Stephanie would choose which nursing
diagnosis as priority at this time?
a. Knowledge deficit
b. Fluid volume deficit
c. Anticipatory graving
d. Pain
Clear selection
51. Nurse Stephanie is providing information she knows about ectopic pregnancy to the client.
When explaining to Mrs. Griselda and her husband about ectopic pregnancy, which of the
following would be included as the most common site of implantation?
a. Fallopian tube
b. Intestine
c. Interstitial lining
d. Ovary
Clear selection
52. When assessing a 34-year old multigravida client at 34 weeks gestation who experiences
moderate vaginal bleeding, which of the following would most likely alert the nurse that placenta
previa is present?
a. Painless vaginal bleeding.
b. Uterine atony
c. Intermittent pain with
d. Dull lower back pain.
Clear selection
53. Which of the following would be the nurse’s most appropriate response to a client who
asks why she must have a Cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta previa?
a. “You will have to ask your physician when he returns.”
b. “You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.”
c. “The placenta is covering most of your cervix.”
d. “The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and blocking your baby.”
Clear selection
54. The fetal monitor strip shows a fetal heart rate deceleration occurring during the
increment of a contraction, reaching its lowest point at the acme of the contraction, and
returning to the baseline at the decrement of the contraction. This type of deceleration
indicates?
a. Fetal distress
b. Head compression
c. Uteroplacental insufficiency
d. Umbilical cord compression
Clear selection
55. A client comes to labor and delivery at 34 weeks gestation with a moderate amount of
painless vaginal bleeding. Which question should the nurse asks the client first?
a. “Have you had intercourse for the past 24 hours?”
b. “Do you have any uterine contractions?”
c. “Have you had an ultrasound exam?”
d. “Has your doctor checked your cervix?”
Clear selection
56. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruptio placenta?
a. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding
b. Concealed or external dark red bleeding
c. Palpable fetal outline.
d. Soft and non-tender abdomen.
Clear selection
57. The client has noted a positive ballottement in the client’s prenatal record. The nurse
understands that this indicates?
a. a. Periodic uterine contraction.
b. b. Passive movement of the fetus.
c. Fetal kicking felt by the client
d. Enlargement and softening of the
Clear selection
58. Nurse Cisa is measuring the fundic height of a client who is 36 weeks gestation when the
client’s complains of feeling light headed. She determines that the client’s complaint is most
likely caused by:
a. Fear
b. Compression of the vena cava
c. A full bladder
d. Anemia
Clear selection
59. Denice with intrauterine growth retardation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit and
started on an I.V. infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin). Which of the following is least likely to be included
in her plan of care?
a. Carefully titrating the oxytocin based on her pattern of labor
b. Monitoring vital signs, including assessment of fetal well-being, every 15 to 30 minutes
c. Allowing the client to ambulate as tolerated
d. Helping the client use breathing exercises to manage her contractions
Clear selection
60. Lou is in the first stage of labor enters the labor and delivery area. She seems anxious and
tells the nurse that she hasn’t attended childbirth education classes. Her husband, who
accompanies her, is also unprepared for childbirth. Which nursing intervention would be most
effective for the couple at this time?
a. Teach the client progressive muscle relaxation.
b. Instruct the husband on touch, massage, and breathing patterns.
c. Use hypnosis on the client and her husband.
d. Teach the client and her husband about pain transmission.
Clear selection
61. Which of the following physiologic changes during labor makes it necessary for nurse Hazel
to assess blood pressure frequently?
a. Blood pressure decreases as a sign of maternal pain.
b. Alterations in cardiovascular function affect the fetus
c. Blood pressure decreases at the peak of each contraction.
d. Decreased blood pressure is the first sign of preeclampsia.
Clear selection
62. During the fourth stage of labor, Jessica should be assessed carefully for:
a. uterine atony
b. complete cervical dilation
c. placental expulsion
d. umbilical cord prolapse
Clear selection
63. A mother who is 2 days postpartum is routinely assessed for thrombophlebitis by
specifically checking:
a. Fundal height for its location
b. For a positive Homans’ sign
c. Intake and output values
d. Leg circumference for swelling
Clear selection
64. Nurse Mariane is caring for a client who’s in labor. The physician still isn’t present. After the
baby’s head is delivered, which nursing intervention would be most appropriate?
a. Checking for the umbilical cord around the baby’s neck
b. Placing antibiotic ointment in the baby’s eyes
c. Turning the baby’s head to the side to drain secretions
d. Assessing the baby for respirations
Clear selection
65. Vicky, who is in labor shouts to the nurse, “My baby is coming right now! I feel like I have
to push!” An immediate nursing assessment reveals that the head of the fetus is crowning. After
asking another staff member to notify the physician and setting up for delivery, which nursing
intervention is most appropriate?
a. Gently pulling at the baby’s head as it’s delivered
b. Holding the baby’s head back until the physician arrives
c. Applying gentle pressure to the baby’s head as it’s deliverered
d. Placing the mother in the Trendelenburg position until the physician arrives
Clear selection
66. Bernadette, who’s 4 months pregnant asks the nurse how much and what type of
exercise she should get during pregnancy. How should nurse Maricel counsel her?
a. “Try high-intensity aerobics, but limit sessions to 15 minutes daily.”
b. “Perform gentle back-lying exercises for 30 minutes daily.”
c. “Walk briskly for 10 to 15 minutes daily, and gradually increase this time.”
d. “Exercise to raise the heart rate above 140 beats/minute for 20 minutes daily.”
Clear selection
67. Cynthia, who’s 37 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic for a prenatal checkup. To assess the
client’s preparation for parenting, Nurse Dora should ask which question?
a. “Are you planning to have epidural anesthesia?”
b. “Have you begun prenatal classes?”
c. “What changes have you made at home to get ready for the baby?”
d. “Can you tell me about the meals you typically eat each day?”
Clear selection
68. The nurse is monitoring a postpartum client for signs of complications. Which finding
indicates a sign of potential bleeding?
a. Multiparity
b. Precipitous labor and delivery
c. Prolonged labor
d. Soft or boggy uterus
Clear selection
69. Lovelyn, asks the nurse whether she can take castor oil for her constipation. How should the
nurse respond?
a. “Yes, it produces no adverse effects.”
b. “No, it can initiate premature uterine contractions.”
c. “No, it can promote sodium retention.”
d. “No, it can lead to increased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.”
Clear selection
70. A client at 35 weeks’ gestation complains of severe abdominal pain and passing clots. The
client’s vital signs are blood pressure 150/100 mm Hg, heart rate 95 beats/minute, respiratory
rate 25 breaths/minute, and fetal heart tones 160 beats/minute. Nurse Nikki must determine the
cause of the bleeding and respond appropriately to this emergency. Which of the following should
the nurse do first?
Which of the following should the nurse do first?
a. Examine the vagina to determine whether her client is in labor
b. Assess the location and consistency of the uterus
c. Perform an ultrasound to determine placental placement
d. Prepare for immediate delivery
Clear selection
71. When assessing a client during her first prenatal visit, nurse Lucy discovers that the client
had a reduction mammoplasty. The mother indicates she wants to breast-feed. What information
should the nurse give to this mother regarding breast-feeding success?
a. “It’s contraindicated for you to breast-feed following this type of surgery.”
b. “I support your commitment; however, you may have to supplement each feeding with
formula.”
c. “You should check with your surgeon to determine whether breast-feeding would be possible.”
d. “You should be able to breast-feed without difficulty.”
Clear selection
72. When questioned, Alma admits she sometimes has several glasses of wine with dinner. Her
alcohol consumption puts her fetus at risk for which condition?
a. Alcohol addiction
b. Anencephaly
c. Down syndrome
d. Learning disability
Clear selection
73. A clinic nurse has instructed a pregnant client in measures to prevent varicose veins
during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions?
a. “I should wear support hose.”
b. “I should be wearing flat nonslip shoes that have an arch support.”
c. “I should wear panty hose.”
d. “I should wear knee-high hose a long as I don’t leave them on longer than 8 hours.”
Clear selection
74. During each prenatal checkup, Nurse Paul obtains the client’s weight and blood pressure and
measures fundal height. What is another essential part of each prenatal checkup?
a. Evaluating the client for edema
b. Measuring the client’s hemoglobin (Hb) level
c. Obtaining pelvic measurements
d. Determining the client’s Rh factor
Clear selection
75. Which of the following instructions should Nurse June give to a client who’s 26 weeks
pregnant and complains of constipation?
a. Encourage her to increase her intake of roughage and to drink at least six glasses of water per
day.
b. Tell her to ask her caregiver for a mild laxative.
c. Suggest the use of an over-the-counter stool softener.
d. Tell her to go to the evaluation unit because constipation may cause contractions.
Clear selection
76 During the 6th month of pregnancy, Gail reports intermittent earaches and a constant feeling
of fullness in the ears. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
a. A serious neurologic disorder
b. Eustachian tube vascularization
c. Increasing progesterone levels
d. An ear infection
Clear selection
77. April, 2 months pregnant, has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which expected outcome is most
appropriate for her?
a. “Client will accept the pregnancy and stop vomiting.”
b. “Client will gain weight according to the expected pattern for pregnancy.”
c. “Client will remain hospitalized for the duration of pregnancy to relieve stress.”
d. “Client will exhibit uterine growth within the expected norms for gestational age.”
Clear selection
78. When assessing a pregnant client with diabetes mellitus, nurse Gio stays alert for signs and
symptoms of a vaginal or urinary tract infection (UTI). Which condition makes this client more
susceptible to such infections?
a. Electrolyte imbalances
b. Decreased insulin needs
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Glycosuria
Clear selection
79. A pregnant client calls a clinic and tells a nurse that she is experiencing leg cramps and is
awakened by the cramps at night. To provide relief from the leg cramps, the nurse tell the client
to
a. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur.
b. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur.
c. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur.
d. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur.
Clear selection
80. A client has come to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. Nurse Alex should include which of
the following statements about using drugs safely during pregnancy in her teaching?
a. “During the first 3 months, avoid all medications except ones prescribed by your caregiver.”
b. “Medications that are available over the counter are safe for you to use, even early on.”
c. “All medications are safe after you’ve reached the 5th month of pregnancy.”
d. “Consult with your health care provider before taking any medications.”
Clear selection
81. A pregnant client asks how she can best prepare her 3-year-old son for the upcoming birth of
a sibling. Nurse Lou should make which suggestion?
a. “Tell your son about the childbirth about 1 month before your due date.”
b. “Reassure your son that nothing is going to change.”
c. “Reprimand your son if he displays immature behavior.”
d. “Involve your son in planning and preparing for a sibling.”
Clear selection
82. A pregnant client tells a nurse that she has been craving “unusual foods”. The nurse
gathers additional assessment data from the client and discovers that the client has been
ingesting daily amounts of white clay dirt from her backyard. Laboratory studies are performs on
the client. The nurse reviews the laboratory results and determines that which of the following
indicates a physiological consequence of this client’s Practice?
a. Hematocrit: 38%
b. Hemoglobin: 9.1 g/dL
c. Glucose: 86 mg/dL
d. WBC Count: 12,400/mm3
Clear selection
83. A pregnant client visits a clinic for a scheduled prenatal appointment. On assessment the
client tells the nurse that she frequently has a backache, and the nurse provides instructions to
the client regarding measures that will assist in relieving the backache. Which Assessment by the
client indicates a need for further instructions regarding the measures to relieve the backache?
a. A.”I need to maintain good posture “.
b. B.”I should do more exercise to strengthen my back muscles”.
c. C.”I should sleep in a firm mattress”.
d. D.”I should wear low heeled shoes”.
Clear selection
84. A client is scheduled for amniocentesis. When preparing her for the procedure, nurse Vince
should do which of the following?
a. Ask her to void.
b. Instruct her to drink 1 L of fluid.
c. Prepare her for I.V. anesthesia.
d. Place her on her left side.
Clear selection
85. After determining that a pregnant client is Rh-negative, Dr. Smith orders an indirect Coombs’
test. What is the purpose of performing this test in a pregnant client?
a. To determine the fetal blood Rh factor
b. To determine the maternal blood Rh factor
c. To detect maternal antibodies against fetal Rh-negative factor
d. To detect maternal antibodies against fetal Rh-positive factor
Clear selection
86. During a routine prenatal visit, a pregnant client reports heartburn. To minimize her
discomfort, nurse Faith should include which suggestion in the plan of care?
a. Eat small, frequent meals.
b. Limit fluid intake sharply.
c. Drink more citrus juice.
d. Take sodium bicarbonate.
Clear selection
87. A nurse in a maternity unit is reviewing the records of the clients on the unit. Which of the
clients would the nurse identify as being at most risk for developing disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC)?
a. A gravida IV who delivered 8 hours a ago and has lost 500 mL of blood.
b. A gravida II who has just been diagnosed with dead fetus syndrome.
c. A primigravida with mild preeclampsia.
d. A primigravida who delivered a 10-lb baby3 hours ago.
Clear selection
88. Sandy, age 39, visits the nurse practitioner for a regular prenatal check-up. She’s 32
weeks pregnant. When assessing her, the nurse should stay especially alert for signs and
symptoms of:
a. pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).
b. iron deficiency anemia.
c. cephalopelvic disproportion.
d. sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
Clear selection
89. Accompanied by her husband, a patient seeks admission to the labor and delivery area.
The client states that she is in labor, and says she attended the hospital clinic for prenatal care.
Which question should the nurse ask her first?
a. “Do you have any chronic illness?”
b. “Do you have any allergies?”
c. “What is your expected due date?”
d. “Who will be with you during labor?”
Clear selection
90. A client in the first trimester of pregnancy arrives at a health clinic and reports that she
has been experiencing vaginal bleeding. A threatened abortion is suspected, and a nurse
instructs the client regarding management of care. Which statement if made by the client
indicates a need for further education?
a. “I will maintain strict bed rest throughout the remainder of the pregnancy.”
b. “I will avoid sexual intercourse until the bleeding has stopped, and for 2 weeks following the
last evidence of bleeding”.
c. “I will count the number of perineal pads used on a daily basis and note the amount and color
of blood on the pad.”
d. “I will watch for the evidence of the passage of tissue.”
Clear selection
91. A client in pre-term labor does not respond to therapy and must be delivered. The client
begins to cry and says, “I’m so worried about my baby.” The nurse should respond:
a. “You’re receiving the best medical care available.”
b. “All of this must leave you very confused and frightened.”
c. “Think positively; your anxiety will increase your contractions.”
d. “This hospital has a neonatal unit and can handle emergencies.”
Clear selection
92. An active 19-year-old primigravida attends prenatal clinic for the first time. She asks the
nurse if she can continue playing tennis and go horseback riding while she is pregnant. The
nurse should reply:
a. “Continue all usual activities as long as you are comfortable.”
b. “Horseback riding is acceptable, but only until six months’ gestation.”
c. “Tennis is good exercise for you, but horseback riding is too strenuous.”
d. “Tennis and horseback riding are really too strenuous for a pregnant woman.”
Clear selection
93. At twelve weeks gestation the nurse midwife examines a client and finds her uterus is
enlarged and:
a. Just above the symphysis pubis.
b. Buried deep in the pelvic cavity.
c. Three fingers above the symphysis pubis.
d. Causing noticeable bulging of the abdominal wall.
Clear selection
94. A pregnant client tells the nurse that she thinks she has developed an allergy, since her
nose is very often congested and she is unable to breathe. The nurse states:
a. “Using a nasal decongestant once or twice a day will help.”
b. “It is common for women to develop allergies during pregnancy.”
c. “This is not normal; perhaps you have a chronic respiratory infection.”
d. “It is an expected occurrence; the increased hormones are responsible for the congestion.”
Clear selection
95. Which of the following findings on the chart of a client who just delivered would indicate
the client is at risk for developing early post- partum hemorrhage?
a. Post- term delivery
b. Retained placental fragments
c. Premature rupture of membranes
d. Grand multiparity
Clear selection
96. During a pelvic examination, the nurse notes a purple- tinged cervix. The nurse
documents this as which of the following?
a. Piskacek’s sign
b. Jacquemer’s sign
c. Ladin’s sign
d. Chadwick’s sign
Clear selection
97. Margaux, a client who is pregnant for the first time attends the prenatal clinic. Margaux
tells you she is worried about gaining too much weight because she heard that it is bad for her.
Your best response is:
a. Yes that is true. Too much weight gain is detrimental to you and your baby.
b. Don’t worry about gaining weight. The baby needs more energy while growing. Thus, we
encourage you to gain more weight especially on the first trimester.
c. You need to gain weight around 24- 27 lbs., however the pattern of weight gain is more
important than the total weight gain itself.
d. If you gain more than 20 lbs., then we need to cut down your caloric intake.
Clear selection
98. A client called you for her to be enlightened about her diagnosis of preterm labor. Based
on your intelligent understanding of the condition, you appropriately respond saying:
a. “Your cervix is dilating without uterine contractions. It is best for you to stay on complete bed
rest to slow the progress of labor.”
b. “Sorry, your baby is coming out sooner than expected. Prepare all your baby supplies now. You
cannot stop the baby from coming out.”
c. “This is a phenomenon wherein cervical dilatation and effacement occur before the 20th week
of pregnancy.”
d. “The uterine contractions have been changing your cervix and it is too early before you reach
term.”
Clear selection
99. The current approach on Maternal and Child Care is the EmONC approach. Which of the
following is the best description of this approach?
a. It identifies high risk pregnancy for referral during the prenatal period.
b. It considers all pregnancy at risk for complications during childbirth.
c. It has two types: BEmONC and CEmONC
d. All of the above
Clear selection
100. In response to anterior pituitary stimulation, the graafian follicle secretes:
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Prolactin
d. Glycogen