11/06/2025 Code-A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Electric Charges and Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry : Solution, Electrochemistry
Mathematics : Relations and Functions, Inverse Trigonometric Functions

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 25 questions in each part of
equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4
marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-II : This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to
the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
4. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for
you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or
submit your examination.
5. The Questions Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following:
Answered
Not Answered
Marked for Review
Not Visited
Answered and Marked for Review
6. Ensure that the battery in your device is sufficiently charged for serving 3 hr before starting the test. We recommend your device is on
charging mode during the test.
7. Make sure you begin the test with a plan. Start with your strongest section.
8. Go through the entire paper and attempt the questions you know first.
9. Make sure you save at least 5-10 min in the end to revisit your answers. In an online test, you can change your answer at any time.
You can only attempt the test from one device. You will be logged out from the first device if you log in from another device.
10. Don’t change the date and time of the device in between the test.
11. Don’t submit the test before time. Try to use the entire duration of the test wisely.

PHYSICS

Section-I

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

1
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

1. Two isolated charges q and –4q are separated by 4. From a uniform solid sphere of charge Q and radius R, a
distance r. They are performing uniform circular motion sphere of radius is cut out as shown. Find the electric
R

under their mutual electrostatic force alone. What is their 2

angular speed if the mass of each particle is m ? field intensity at the common periphery of the cavity and
solid sphere.
1
(k = )
4πε0

−
− −−
2

(1) √
4kq

3
mr

−
− −−
8kq 2
(2) √
mr3 Q
(1) 4πε0 R
2

−
− −−
2

(3) √
3kq

3 (2)
Q

mr 2
6πε0 R

−−−− Q

(4) √
12kq
2
(3) 8πε0 R
2
3
7mr

2. A block of mass m having charge +Q is released from rest (4) 12πε0 R

2

on a smooth surface at the end of which is an elastic

vertical wall (see figure). The time period of motion of the 5. The equivalent capacitance between a and b (in the
block will be [E is uniform electric field] given circuit) is

−−−
3 2md
(1) 2
√
EQ

−−−
(1) 2 μF
2md
(2) √
EQ (2) 1 μF
−−−
(3) 3√
2md
(3) 4

3
F
μ
EQ

−−−
(4) 5 μF
2md
(4) 2√
EQ
6. The maximum torque on an electric dipole with charges
2µC and –2µC having a separation 20 mm in the region
3. A particle with mass 2.0 mg and charge 3.0 μC is in a with electric field E = 20N/C is
region with uniform electric field (3^i + 4^j ) N/C. The
acceleration of the particle will be (1) 0. 8 μNm

(2)
m/s2
0. 4 μNm
(1) ^ ^
(3 i + 4 j )

(3) 1. 6 μNm
(2) ^ ^
(4.5 i + 6 j ) m/s2
(4) 0. 2 μNm

(3) ^ ^
(1.5 i + 2 j ) m/s2

(4) ^ ^
(2 i + 3 j ) m/s2

2
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

7. The electric field intensity due to an infinite rod with linear 10. Two identical parallel conducting plates, each with area A
charge density λ at a distance r is E. Then the electric and having small separation between them are given
field intensity due to a semi-infinite rod with linear charge positive charges Q1 and Q2 (Q1 > Q2) respectively as
density λ at point P, at a perpendicular distance r is showing in figure. The magnitude of electric field at mid-
point P between the two plates will be

(1) E (Q1 –Q2 )

(1) Aε0

(2) E

2
Q1 + Q2
(2)
Aε0
E
(3) √2
Q1 –Q2
(3) 2Aε0
E
(4) 2√2

Q1 + Q2
(4)
8. A wire with a linear charge density λ forms a quarter of a 2Aε0

circle of radius R and is placed as shown in the figure

with its centre of curvature at the origin O. The electric 11. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in
field at O will be figure is

(1) 2C

(2) 5

3
C

(3) C

(1) ^ ^
λ
[− i + j ]
2π ε0 R
(4) 4C

(2) λ ^ ^
[i + j] 12. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are charged to 120 V and 200
4π ε0 R

V respectively. It is found that by connecting them

(3)
λ ^ ^
[i − j] together the potential of each one becomes zero. Then
√2π ε0 R

(1) 3C1 = 5C2

(4) λ ^ ^
[− i − j ]
(2) 4C1 = 9C2
4π ε0 R

9. Assertion (A): When a neutral conductor is brought near

(3) 9C1 = 4C2
a point positive charge & then earthed. Then first
unearthing & then moving away from positive charge (4) 5C1 = 3C2
builds negative charge on conductor.
Reason (R): Because of positive point charge potential of 13. A helium ion of mass 4m and charge 2e is accelerated
neutral conductor is positive, on earthing potential of from rest through a potential difference V in vacuum. Its
conductor becomes zero. final speed will be
Assertion (A) is true Reason (R) is true & Assertion (A) −−−
(1) (1) 2eV

is correct explanation of R √
m

Assertion (A) is true Reason (R) is true & Assertion (A) −

−−
(2) (2) eV

is not explanation of R √
m

(3) Assertion (A) is true Reason (R) is false

(3) eV

2m

(4) Assertion (A) is false Reason (R) is true

(4) eV

3
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

14. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged and then isolated. 18. Four large, thin, identical parallel conducting plates a, b, c
When a dielectric material is inserted between the plates and d (see figure) have charges 1.0 μC, 2.0 μC, 3.0 μC
of the capacitor, then which of the following does not and 4.0 μC respectively. The charges appearing on the
change left and the right surface of conductor a will respectively
be
(1) Electric field between the plates
(2) Potential difference across the plates
(3) Charge on the plates
(4) Energy stored in the capacitor
15. In a regular polygon of 10 sides, each corner is at a
distance R from the centre. Identical charges are placed
at 9 corners. At the centre, the magnitude of electric field
is E and the potential is V. The ratio V

E
is

(1) 10 R
(2) 9/R

(3) 9

10
R

(4) 9R
16. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacitance C. Half of
space between the plates is filled with di-electric of di-
electric constant K = 2 as shown in figure. The new (1) 4.0 μC, – 3.0 μC
capacitance is C′. Then (2) 5.0 μC, – 4.0 μC
(3) –2.0 μC, 3.0 μC
(4) –3.0 μC, 4.0 μC
19. Three point charges Q1, Q2 and Q3 are arranged as
shown in the figure. The work that needs to be done by
an external agent to separate the charges to a large
distance from each other very slowly will be
(1) C' =
2

3
C

(2) C' =
4

3
C

(3) C' =
2C

(4) C′ = 6C
17. An isolated capacitor of unknown capacitance has been
charged to a potential difference of 100 V. When the
charged capacitor is connected in parallel to an
uncharged 10.0 μF capacitor, the potential difference
across the combination is 30 V. The unknown
capacitance is nearly
(1) 10.0 μF
(2) 4.3 μF
(1) 1.8 mJ
(3) 6.3 μF
(2) –1.8 mJ
(4) 12.3 μF
(3) 6.3 mJ
(4) 4.65 mJ
20. Eight small drops, each of radius r and having same
charge q are combined to form a big drop. The ratio of the
potential of the bigger drop and the smaller drop is
(1) 8: 1
(2) 4: 1
(3) 2: 1
(4) 1: 8

4
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

Section-II

This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
21. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacitance C and 2C 24. Two point like particles of charge Q are fixed at two of the
are connected in parallel and charged to potential 24 V. vertices of an equilateral triangle of sides ℓ. At the third
The battery is then disconnected and the region between vertex a particle of mass m and charge q is released.
the plates of capacitor C is completely filled material of What is the initial acceleration (in m/s2) of this particle?
dielectric constant 2. The potential (in V) difference –
2KQq

across capacitor is now nν. Value of n is (Given = 6√3 , in S I unit, K =

2
) 1

4πε0
ml

22. The electric potential in space is defined as V = 3xy. What 25. Two point charges +Q are placed on the x-axis at
is the magnitude of projection of electric field E along
– – –
x = +
d

2
and x = − as shown in the figure. A third charge
d

2
^ ^
√2( i + j ) at point P ( √2, √2, 0)?
q is placed on the y-axis such that the force on the charge
23. Equivalent capacitance between points A and B is q is maximum. The distance of charge q from the origin is
nC
Value of n is
d
. Value of n, is________.
√n
6

5
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
26. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution will be 29. If the KH values for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO(g) and CH4(g)
highest for
respectively are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10–5 and 0.413, then
(1) + – identify the correct increasing order of their solubilities.
C6 H5 – NH NH3 Cl

(1) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar

(2) Na ( NO3 )
2

(2) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar

(3) LaCl3
(3) Ar < CO2 < HCHO < CH4
(4) C6H12O6
(4) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
27. Consider the following statements
STATEMENT-1 : One molar solution is always more 30. Resistance of 0.1 M KCl solution in a conductance cell is
concentrated than one molal solution. 300 ohm and conductivity is 0.013 S cm–1. The value of
and cell constant is
STATEMENT-2 : The amount of solvent in 1 M and 1 m
aqueous solution is not equal. (1) 3.9 cm–1
In the light of above statement, choose the correct option
(2) 39 m–1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (3) 3.9 m–1
Statement-1
(4) 139 cm–1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(2) Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for 31. Molal depression constant for a solvent is 4.0 K kg mol–1.
Statement-1
The depression in the freezing point of the solvent for
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False 0.03 mol kg–1 solution of K2SO4 is
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (Assume complete dissociation of the electrolyte)

28. Match List-I with List-II. (1) 0.36 K

List-I List-II (2) 0.18 K
Solution of chloroform and Minimum boiling (3) 0.12 K
(A) (I)
acetone azeotrope
Solution of ethanol and (4) 0.24 K
(B) (II) Dimerizes
water 32. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS2 is 512 mm Hg and
Solution of benzene and Maximum boiling that of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A solution of CS2 in
(C) (III)
toluene azeotrope
acetone has a total vapour pressure of 600 mm Hg. The
Solution of acetic acid in false statement amongst the following is
(D) (IV) ΔVmix = 0
benzene
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (1) Raoult's law is not obeyed by this system

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) A mixture of 100 mL CS2 and 100 mL acetone has a
(2)
volume < 200 mL
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Heat must be absorbed in order to produce the
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (3)
solution at 35°C
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) CS2 and acetone are less attracted to each other than
(4)
to themselves

6
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

33. Match the following columns: 38. When 9.65 A current is passed for X minute in molten
Column II AgCl solution and 3.24 g of Ag is deposited at cathode.
Column I (Product on The value of X is (Ag = 108 g/mol)
Electrolysis) (1) 2
Very dilute solution of
(A) (p) O2 evolved at anode (2) 3
HCl
H2 evolved at (3) 4
Very dilute solution of
(B) (q)
NaCl cathode (4) 5
Concentrated solution of 39. Calculate the emf of the following cell
(C) (r) Cl2 evolved at anode
NaCl
∣ ∣
Ag deposited at ∣ ∣
(D) AgNO3 solution (s) (Pt)H2
∣
HCl ∥ CH3 COOH H2 (Pt)
∣
cathode 1 bar ∣
10
–3
M ∥ 0.1 M ∣ 1 bar

(1) A(p); B(p, r); C(q, s); D(p, s) If the dissociation constant of CH3COOH is 10–5.
(2) A(p, q); B(p, q); C(q, r); D(p, s) (1) 0.59 V
(3) A(p, r); B(p, q); C(q, s); D(p, q) (2) –0.59 V
(4) A(p, s); B(p, s); C(q, s); D(p, r) (3) 0.236 V
34. Consider the statements S1 and S2 : (4) 0 V
S1 : Conductivity always increases with decrease in the
concentration of electrolyte. 40. Which of the following binary mixture does not show the
S2 : Molar conductivity always increases with decrease in behaviour of minimum boiling azeotropes?
the concentration of electrolyte.
(1) C6H5OH + C6H5NH2
The correct option among the following is :
(1) S1 is wrong and S2 is correct (2) H2O + CH3COC2H5

(2) S1 is correct and S2 is wrong (3) CH3OH + CHCl3

(3) Both S1 and S2 are wrong (4) CS2 + CH3COCH3
(4) Both S1 and S2 are correct 41. If two liquids A and B form a minimum boiling azeotrope
35. Given below are two statements: at some specific composition, then which statement
Statement (I) : Molal depression constant Kf is given by among the following is correct?
M1 RT f
, where symbols have their usual meaning. A – B molecular interactions are stronger than A – A
(1)
ΔSfu s
and B – B interactions.
Statement (II) : Kf for benzene is less than the Kf for
The total vapour pressure of the mixture is greater
water. (2)
than that corresponding to an ideal solution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below : There is a slight decrease in volume when the two
(3)
components are mixed.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) ΔHmix will have a negative value.

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 42. Zn/Zn2+ (C ) || Zn2+(C )/Zn. For this cell, ΔG is negative
1 2
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect if

36. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity for cations in (1) C1 = C2

water at 298 K is :
(2) C2 > C1
(1) H+ > Na+ > K+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+
(3) C1 > C2
(2) Mg2+ > H+ > Ca2+ > K+ > Na+ (4) C1 ≥ C2
(3) H+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > K+ > Na+ 43. The ΔS° of the reaction happening inside a cell with
standard electrode potential E° is
(4) H+ > Na+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > K+
0

(1) nF (E
0
+
ΔH
)
1

37. If the density of a 5 M solution of KCl is 1.26 g mL–1, then nF T

find the molality of the solution. o

(2) o ΔH 1

(Molecular mass of KCl = 74.55 g mol–1)

nF (– E + )
nF T

(1) 0.74 m (3) o ΔH

o

nF (E – ) T
nF

(2) 1.26 m
o

(3) 7.45 m (4) nF (E

o
+
ΔH

nF
) T

(4) 5.63 m

7
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

44. Consider the reaction :

Reaction I :
2− −
P b(s) + SO (aq) → P bSO4 (s) + 2e
4

Reaction II :
2− + −
P bO2 (s) + SO (aq) + 4H (aq) + 2e
4

→ P bSO4 (s) + 2H2 O(l)

The correct statement is

Reaction I takes place at cathode when battery is in
(1)
use
Reaction II takes place at cathode when battery is in
(2)
use
Reaction II takes place at anode when battery is in
(3)
use
(4) Reaction I takes place at cathode during charging
45. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar
mass = 60 g mol–1) and 1.8 g of glucose (molar mass =
180 g mol–1) in 100 mL of water at 27°C. The osmotic
pressure of the solution is
(R = 0.08206 L atm K–1 mol–1)
(1) 1.64 atm
(2) 2.46 atm
(3) 8.2 atm
(4) 4.92 atm

Section-II

This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
46. The ppm level of F– in a 500 g sample of a tooth paste 49. If 6 moles of electrons are passed through acidulated
– −−
water, the moles of gas discharged is x, Then 2 x is
containing 0.2 g F is X then the value of √X is
50. Equal volumes of 0.01 M CH3COOH and 0.01 M NaOH
47. The concentration of glucose solution in grams per litre
are mixed together. If the molar conductivity of the mixture
which is isotonic to 0.05 M sucrose solution at 300K is
is X, then the value of X

16
is (the conductivity of
48. The temperature coefficient of the cell
CH3COONa in a cell is 6.4 × 10 S cm–1)?
–4
Fe ( s) |FeSO ( aq ) ∣∣AgNO ( aq ) ∣Ag ( s) is 0.005 V/K. The entropy
4 ∣∣ 3 ∣

change (in J/K) accompanying the cell reaction at 298 K

is [F = 96500 C/mol]

8
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
51. Considering only the principal values of the inverse 56. If a function f(x) satisfies f(sinx) + 2f(cosx) = 2x + 5 then for
trigonometric functions, the value of x ∈ (0, 1), f(x) =
tan (cos
−1
(
3
) + 2 sin
−1
(
4
)) is (1) 2 cos
–1
x+
5+π
√10 √17
3

(1) (2) 2cos–1x +

39
5−π
37
3

(2) −
9

53 (3) 2sin–1x + 5+π

(3) 9

53 (4) 2sin–1x + 5π

(4) −
39

37 57. Number of onto functions ‘f’ such that f : A → A if A = {1, 2,

3, 4, 5} and f (i) ≠ i, is
52. The relation a c
; where a, b, c and d are
R = {( , )
b d (1) 48
integers such that b, d ≠ 0 and ad = bc}. Then (2) 44
(1) R is reflexive and symmetric but non-transitive (3) 72
(2) R is reflexive and transitive but non-symmetric
(4) 78
(3) R is symmetric and transitive but non-reflexive
58. Given the relation R = {(2, 3), (3, 4)} on the set {2, 3, 4}.
(4) R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive The minimum number of ordered pairs to be added to R
so that R is reflexive and symmetric is
53.
The principal value of sin
−1
(sin
5π

3
) is (1) 4

(1)
π (2) 5
3

π
(3) 7
(2) 6

(4) 6
π
(3) –
3
59. If tan
−1 x−1
+ tan
−1 x+1
=
π
, then x =
π x+2 x+2 4

(4) –
6
1
(1)
54. Function f : R → R, f (x) = x
2
+x is
√2

(1) One-one, onto (2) −

√2

(2) One-one, into −

−
(3) √
5

2
(3) Many-one, onto
(4) Many-one, into (4) 1

55. Let A = {1, 2, 3}, then the number of possible reflexive 60. Let a function f : R → R, f(x) = x3 + x2 + ax + 6 be
relations defined on set A is bijective, then possible value of a is
(1) 32 (1) – 2
(2) 64 (2) – 5
(3) 128 (3) 5
(4) 16 (4) – 7

9
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

61. The fundamental period of f(x) = |sinx| + |cosx| is 67. If cos–1x + cos–1y + cos–1z + cos–1t = 4 π , then the
(1) π value of x + y + z + t is

(2) 2π (1) 4

(3)
π (2) –4
4

π
(3) Zero
(4) 2

(4) 4

3
62. Let f and g be functions defined by f (x) =
x
,
x+1

g(x) =
x
, then (fog)(x) is 68. The range of f(x) = sin–1x + cos–1x + sec–1x is
1−x

(1) 1

x
, x ∈ R − {0, 1} (1) {
π

2
,
3π

2
}

(2) 1
, x ∈ R − {1}
x−1 (2) (
π

2
,
3π

2
)

(3) x – 1, x ∈ R − {1}

(3) [
π
,
3π
]
(4) x, x ∈ R − {1}
2 2

63. p (4) {−
π
,
π
}
The value of cot (∑
30

r=1
−1
tan (
1

2
)) is q
, where p 2 2

1+n+n

and q are coprime natural numbers. Then the value of p + 69. A function f(x) satisfies f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) – xy – 3
q – 25 is ∀x, y ∈ N and f(1) = 3, then for a natural number n, f(n)

equals
(1) 1
(1)
2
n +n+4

(2) 3 2

(3) 5 2

(2) (n+2)

3
(4) 6
2

64. The function f : R → R defined as f(x) = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – (3) 6− n +n

3) is 2

(4) 2n −n+5

(1) One-one but not onto 2

(2) Onto but not one-one 70. If sin–1 |cos x| – cos–1 |sin x| = λ has at least one solution

(3) Both one-one and onto then λ is equal to

(4) Neither one-one nor onto (1) Zero

π

65. The number of distinct integral values that the expression (2) 2

(sin–1x)2 + (cos–1x)2 can attain is (3) 1

(1) Zero (4) π

(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 11
66. Which of the following function is ODD?

(1) f(x) = sin2x

2

(2) g(x) =
x −1

2
x +1

(3) h(x) = xsinx + x

−−−−−
(4) k(x) = ln (x + √x
2
+1)

Section-II

This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
71. If n(A) = 3, then total number of relations defined on A 72.
If f (x) = , then (f of )(2) is equal to 2x+1

which are both symmetric and reflexive is 3x−2

10
Unit Test for Second Step (Phase-1)-2026_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

73. For the equation cos

−1
x + cos
−1
2x + π = 0 , the number 75. Let A and B be finite sets containing 3 and 2 distinct
of real solutions is elements respectively. The number of relations that can
be defined from B to A is
74. Consider a function f : R → R defined as f(x) = 2x – 3. If

f–1(x) =
x+k

2
, then k is

11