.7.3 Testbank.Document.

Questions Page 1
for Testbank PE4PARTB 25-SEP-2001

The symbols below are used as indicated:

+ add x multiply
- subtract / divide
sqr square root ** exponent
** exponent

NOTE:
Round off to 3 decimal places unless otherwise stated.

Heat Engines, Prime Movers & The Simple Steam Engine

010100020021000B
A prime mover is

a) an electric motor
b) a steam turbine
c) a centrifugal pump
d) an air compressor
e) a boiler

010100020021000C
Large power production plants tend to be of the thermal type
because they can burn solid fuels and:

a) they are the least expensive to build

b) the noise level is much less than internal combustion
engines
c) the heat cycle they use is the most efficient
d) solid fuels are the most plentiful and cheapest
e) require the least amount of manpower

010100020021000C
Whenever feasibly possible, when checking bearings on running
pieces of equipment it is wise to

a) check the oil quality leaving each

b) check the oil quantity leaving each
c) get accustomed to normal running temperature and
vibration by feel
d) smell the normal odours of the running bearing
e) observe the temperature on a thermometer

010100020021000A
One of the first ways to detect a fault in a reciprocating
engine is

a) by sound
b) temperature indication
c) performance efficiency
d) by oil consumption
e) by smell

Steam Turbines I

010100020021000D
A steam turbine's exhaust can often supply a process with
steam because

a) processes always require a lower steam pressure

b) processes never require the high steam temperatures
turbines do
c) turbine exhaust steam is always dry and saturated
d) it is free of oil
e) the steam will be at a temperature above the initial
temperature

010100020021000C
The exhaust steam from a steam turbine is more acceptable for
process than the exhaust from a steam engine because

a) it is much hotter
b) it is easily controlled
c) it is free of oil
d) it is free of moisture
e) it contains more condensate

010100020021000D
Turbines often have segmental carbon ring sealing glands
which are held in place by

a) labyrinths
b) shrouding
c) drive screws
d) garter springs
e) thrust runners

010100020021000D
A steam turbine should trip or shut down when normal
operating speed is exceeded by

a) 250 RPM
b) 3 to 5%
c) 50 RPM
d) 10 to 15%
e) 25 RPM

010100020021000B
Condensing turbines

a) are always impulse turbines

b) will have a vacuum in the last row of rotating blades
c) will use the condensate for heating
d) are very small units
e) cannot have counterflow stages

010100020021000B
Which turbine uses a condenser?

a) back pressure turbine

b) a turbine exhausting to a vacuum
c) a bleeder turbine exhausting at atmospheric pressure
d) a non-condensing extraction turbine
e) a turbine exhausting to atmosphere

010100020021000E
The shrouding installed on the blading of a steam turbine serves
to:

a) cool the blade tips

b) expand the steam
c) stop the steam flow
d) heat the steam
e) confine the steam to the blades
010100020021000A
The turbine overspeed trip:

1. prevents the turbine from vibrating

2. prevents the turbine exceeding the maximum rated speed
3. is operated by a spring loaded pin in the rotating blades
4. will close the steam stop valve
5. should be tested before the turbine is placed in service

a) 2, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 3, 4, 5
e) 4, 5

010100020021000B
The overspeed trip of a steam turbine

a) operates on turbine vibrations due to high speed

b) is installed on all turbines
c) can be adjusted according to the load demand
d) is regulated by exhaust pressure
e) sheds the load in the event of high pressure

010100020021000B
Turbine overspeed trip

a) prevents the turbine from vibrating

b) will close the steam stop valve to the turbine
c) is operated by a spring loaded pin in the rotating blades
d) supplies the operator with rpm indications
e) reduces the turbine speed by increasing the back pressure

010100020021000D
Turbine lubricating oil

a) is not required for small impulse turbines

b) must be changed every four months
c) lubricates the blades
d) can be used to operate the turbine governor
e) should be preheated before use

010100020021000C
The purpose of turbine glands is to prevent

a) water from entering the turbine

b) steam from entering the turbine
c) steam escaping from the turbine
d) steam from entering the lubrication system
e) oil from entering the turbine

010100020021000E
Shaft sealing in high output turbines is done with

a) water seals
b) mechanical seals
c) wear rings
d) packing glands
e) labyrinth seals

010100020021000B
When the steam pressure drop occurs in only the stationary
members or components of a turbine, the turbine is known as

a) a single stage unit

b) an impulse unit
c) a reaction unit
d) a Parsons unit
e) a cross compound reaction unit

010100020021000E
A large reaction turbine will have

a) no thrust bearings
b) steam pressure dropping in only the moving sections
c) blades which are basically symmetrical in cross-section
d) never more than 5 stages
e) steam pressure dropping through moving and stationary
sections

010100020021000D
Turbine speed can be "fine tuned" with a device which will be
limited to about 10% over the rated speed. This device is
the

a) governor valve
b) overspeed governor
c) sentinel valve
d) hand speed control
e) overspeed trip

010100020021000C
Turbine thrust bearings are fixed to the casing and prevent
axial movement of the spindle by contacting a component on
the shaft known as a

a) shaft sleeve
b) labyrinth
c) collar
d) shroud
e) diaphragm

010100020021000D
Shaft sealing carbon glands are

a) lubricated by the main oil pump

b) limited to a temperature of 250 degrees C
c) replaced monthly due to erosion
d) self-lubricating
e) metal sprayed components

010100020021000C
The great majority of steam turbine governing systems utilize
the

a) hydraulic system principle

b) pneumatic system principle
c) mechanical centrifugal principle
d) lever principle
e) bimetal expansion principle

010100020021000B
Reaction turbines

a) have bucket shaped blades

b) have a pressure drop through the moving and stationary blades
c) are used for high pressures only
d) have a pressure drop in the moving blades only
e) have little axial thrust

010100020021000B
Reaction turbines

a) have all of the steam pressure drop take place

in the stationary nozzle
b) have a velocity increase in the fixed blading
c) are used for higher speed only
d) have a velocity decrease through the fixed blading
e) require little blade sealing

010100020021000B
In an impulse turbine

a) the steam flow is reduced through the nozzles

b) the steam pressure is reduced in the nozzles
c) the steam pressure will drop across the blades
d) the steam velocity is increased through the blades
e) the exhaust steam is directed back to the boiler

010100020021000E
The steam turbine that has a pressure drop across
every set of blades is the __________ turbine.

a) double-stage impulse
b) single-stage impulse
c) topping
d) back pressure
e) reaction

010100020021000D
When starting a steam turbine it is customary practice to

a) analyze the oil for water prior to rolling

b) turn on all cooling water systems first
c) place the speed control system in service once the unit
is rolling
d) test the overspeed trip as soon as running speed is
attained
e) stop the auxiliary oil pump as soon as steam begins to
turn the unit

Cooling Towers

010100020021000D
The average amount of water volume which evaporates from a
cooling tower is

a) 2%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 5%
e) 3.5%
010100020021000A
Natural draft cooling towers operate most effectively in
large open spaces and

a) where wind is relatively constant

b) where relative humidity is high
c) where a large body of water is nearby
d) require a windbreak
e) must not be in direct sunlight

010100020021000B
Excessive wind velocity in a natural draft cooling tower may
cause

a) louvers to become broken

b) high water drift or losses
c) rotation reversal of the fan
d) over-cooling of the water
e) under-cooling of the water

010100020021000C
Compared to a crossflow tower, a counterflow tower

a) is not as tall
b) has much less capacity
c) requires less floor space
d) requires more fan power
e) has a higher pressure drop

010100020021000E
Water contained in the airstream at the discharge of a
cooling tower is removed

a) with centrifugal separators

b) by a series of chevron dryers
c) by refrigeration means
d) by a series of baffles
e) with drift eliminators

010100020021000C
A cooling tower which requires neither fan nor fill is the

a) natural draft unit

b) counterflow induced unit
c) venturi unit
d) crossflow unit
e) forced draft unit

010100020021000E
A valve which prevents water flow over the fill of a tower
during cold weather should not be closed until the
temperature reaches

a) - 0.5 degrees C
b) + 0.5 degrees C
c) + 5 degrees C
d) + 20 degrees C
e) + 27 degrees C

010100020021000B
To prevent cooling tower basin water from freezing during
cold weather many units are equipped with

a) ethylene glycol antifreeze systems

b) electric basin heaters
c) propane burners
d) ice defrosters
e) warming tapes

010100020021000D
You are replacing the cooling tower fan motor bearings
because

a) the motor was running single phase

b) windings in the motor were faulty
c) a noise which sounded like a bad bearing was heard
d) the rotor was rubbing the stator
e) the gear reducer pinion shaft was misaligned

010100020021000D
Scaling is not as severe in towers when compared to boilers
because

a) tower water does not evaporate

b) there are not as many dissolved solids in tower water
c) pressure is not as high
d) temperatures are not as high
e) water is constantly being aerated
Gas Turbines I

010100020021000C
A gas turbine compressor is usually

a) centrifugal type
b) downstream of the turbine
c) dynamic axial design
d) downstream of the combustor
e) driven by a motor

010100020021000A
The compressor on the gas turbine

a) can be driven by the load turbine

b) is always of the axial type
c) is always a multi-stage compressor
d) is always independently driven
e) is always a reciprocating type

010100020021000C
The combustion chamber of a gas turbine

a) increases the pressure of the compressed air

b) is heated between the load turbine and the compression turbine
c) burns fuel with excess air
d) is water cooled
e) rotates at shaft speed

010100020021000D
Many typical steam plant auxiliaries are eliminated with a
gas turbine due to its

a) small size
b) high speed
c) high power to weight ratio
d) simplicity
e) low oil consumption

010100020021000B
Gas turbines are very popular where

a) noise does not present a problem

b) water is scarce
c) industrial sites are small and in congested areas
d) thermal pollution is of major concern
e) natural gas is plentiful

010100020021000B
Gas turbines are ideal when considering

a) long warm-up periods

b) emergency power generation
c) automotive power
d) cooling water pump operation
e) good thermal efficiency

010100020021000A
A two shaft gas turbine

a) has the load turbine downstream from the compressor turbine

b) has the first turbine drive the prop on a turbo-prop engine
c) is always an open cycle type
d) is always a closed cycle type
e) does not require a starting motor

010100020021000C
A gas turbine is not self-starting. It must be rotated at
__________ of its maximum speed before fuel is turned on.

a) 10% to 30%
b) 15% to 30%
c) 20% to 30%
d) 25% to 30%
e) 25% to 50%

010100020021000C
Early gas turbines were handicapped by

a) metal not being able to withstand high speed centrifugal

forces
b) the inability to get enough air into the combustion
chamber
c) metals not standing the high temperatures involved
d) their high operating speeds
e) their inadequate power capability

010100020021000D
The temperature to which the air can be raised at the turbine
inlet is
a) an indication of a unit's power
b) directly related to the unit's size
c) a function of the air compressor input
d) an indication of the unit's efficiency
e) important for proper compressor performance

010100020021000A
The output power of a gas turbine is directly related to the

a) mass of gas passing through the turbine per second

b) temperature at the turbine inlet
c) mass of the unit
d) slippage between the turbine and compressor
e) turbine exhaust temperature

010100020021000E
The low installation cost of a gas turbine is

a) due to cheap materials in the blades

b) due to short fuel lines
c) because no fuel pump is required
d) because no electrical wiring is required
e) because less auxiliary equipment is needed

010100020021000C
Some of the characteristics which make the gas turbine a better
choice over other prime movers are:

1. low maintenance
2. minimum cooling water
3. high thermal efficiency
4. rapid start-up and loading

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 2, 3, 4

010100020021000E
The air side of a gas turbine regenerator is located

a) before the compressor

b) after the combustion chamber
c) between the turbine and combustion chamber
d) between the turbine and atmosphere
e) downstream of the compressor

010100020021000D
A gas turbine performs most effectively if

a) lube oil is of the proper viscosity

b) cooling water temperature is kept low
c) ambient air temperature is high
d) ambient air temperature is low
e) loaded immediately after starting

010100020021000B
A combined steam and gas turbine arrangement can be termed

a) an ideal system
b) a cogeneration system
c) a once through system
d) ideal relative to system efficiency
e) a high capacity system

010100020021000B
The purpose of a regenerator is

a) to clean the exhaust gases

b) to improve the efficiency of the turbine
c) to increase the temperature in the combustion chamber
d) to lower the temperature in the combustion chamber
e) to recirculate the exhaust gases back through the compressor

Internal Combustion Engines I

010100020021000B
In a compression ignition engine the fuel is ignited by

a) an electric spark
b) the compressed air temperature
c) the atomized fuel
d) a cross-combustor
e) compressed air pressure

010100020021000C
Diesel engine governing is accomplished by
a) varying the fuel quality
b) carburetion
c) varying the fuel quantity
d) fuel atomizing air quantity
e) fuel atomizing air pressure

010100020021000C
The fuel for a diesel engine is

a) light fuel oil

b) vaporised by a carburettor
c) mechanically atomized by high pressure
d) atomized before the cylinder
e) mixed with air before the cylinder

010100020021000A
Four-stroke cycle engine valves are

a) operated by cams
b) of the pressure differential variety
c) a number of ports in the cylinder wall
d) often termed reed or channel valves
e) always open as the piston travels upwards

010100020021000C
An engine which develops one power stroke with every other
turn of the crankshaft is the

a) two stroke diesel engine

b) type which requires pre-mixing lube oil and fuel
c) four stroke natural gas engine
d) V type engine
e) external combustion unit

010100020021000A
Four cycle engine lubrication is usually

a) forced by pump
b) by gravity oilers
c) by the scoop method
d) by the dip tube method
e) by grease fitting

010100020021000C
An example of an engine which gives high torque at low speeds
would be that of a

a) chain saw
b) two cycle snowmobile
c) four stroke motocross motorcycle
d) two cycle lawnmower
e) two cycle transit bus

010100020021000D
A two cycle engine

a) must always have lube oil premixed with the fuel

b) can never have a crankcase lubrication system
c) can never be operated in an inverted position
d) "pops" twice as often as an equivalent cylinder four
stroke engine
e) gives one power stroke every other crankshaft revolution

010100020021000A
Pre-mixing lube oil and fuel or having a special lube oil
injection system is typical of the average

a) snowmobile engine
b) automobile engine
c) aircraft engine
d) tractor engine
e) heavy equipment engine

010100020021000E
A major difficulty encountered with a two-stroke cycle engine
is

a) the high torque at low speeds

b) maintenance of many moving parts
c) the difficulty in cold weather starting
d) the high speeds compared to an equivalent four stroke
engine
e) exhausting the spent gases from the cylinder

010100020021000E
A two cycle gasoline engine

a) has more moving parts than a four cycle

b) produces twice as much power as a four cycle
c) must have two cylinders
d) does not require exhaust valves
e) is of more simple construction than a four cycle

010100020021000C
Cylinder scavenging

a) is more efficient in a 2 cycle engine than a 4 cycle type

b) is scoring the cylinder by a broken piston ring
c) is the removal of exhaust gases from the cylinder
d) prevents the air from entering the cylinder
e) removes excessive oil from the cylinder walls

010100020021000A
The purpose of a spark plug is

a) to ignite the fuel air mixture in a gasoline engine

b) to produce power for the compression stroke
c) to prewarm the engine
d) to raise the ignition point of the fuel
e) to ignite the air in the cylinder

010100020021000B
Compression ignition engines

a) need suction end discharge valves

b) will compress air only on the compression stroke
c) need a carburettor to mix the fuel with the air
d) will compress air only on the power stroke
e) require a spark timing device

010100020021000E
The injection pump of a diesel engine is driven by

a) piston action
b) the governor
c) the wrist pin
d) the gudgeon pin
e) the camshaft

010100020021000D
Ignition in a diesel engine is started by

a) a glow plug
b) a spark plug
c) a starter motor
d) compression in the cylinder
e) air injection

010100020021000A
Using a compressed air starting motor is a popular method of
starting a

a) large stationary diesel engine

b) small two stroke engine
c) jet engine
d) high performance engine
e) natural gas engine

010100020021000D
When using compressed air to each cylinder for starting
purposes, the pressure is approximately

a) 520 kPa
b) 255 kPa
c) 3,030 kPa
d) 2,100 kPa
e) 435 kPa

010100020021000C
Reduction in sealing qualities between the piston rings and
cylinder wall by the lube oil may be the result of

a) low cooling water temperature

b) high lube oil viscosity
c) high cooling water temperature
d) high carbon residue of the lube oil
e) wrong fuel being used

Types of Pumps

010100020021000E
A pump is capable of suction lift due to

a) its ability to convert kinetic energy into potential

energy
b) the speed at which it operates
c) its input power
d) its size
e) atmospheric pressure
010100020021000C
Centrifugal pumps do not develop good suction lift because

a) atmospheric pressure is usually too low

b) the pumped medium relative density is too high
c) their internal component clearances are too high
d) the speed is too low
e) they favour pressure rather than volume

010100020021000A
It is generally accurate to say that

a) 9.8 kPa pressure results from every metre of water depth

or height
b) a water height or depth of 10.34 metres results in 1 kPa
c) 1 kPa will result from a water head of 9.8 metres
d) 10.21 kPa will result from 1 metre of static water head
e) atmospheric pressure has no bearing on static water head

010100020021000E
Preferably, dynamic pumps should be located

a) directly under the liquid source when suction lift is

involved
b) above the liquid source when suction head is involved
c) above the liquid source when suction lift is involved
d) at the liquid source level when suction lift is involved
e) below the liquid source when suction head is involved

010100020021000E
The vertical distance from the liquid surface up to the pump
centre-line plus the vertical distance from the pump
centre-line up to the surface of the liquid in the discharge
tank is

a) static discharge head

b) static suction head
c) suction lift
d) total discharge head
e) total static head

010100020021000A
The difference between static suction head and static
discharge head is
a) total static head
b) static discharge head
c) static suction head
d) equivalent head
e) dynamic head

010100020021000B
When a pump discharges into a vessel operating at 300 kPa,
the 300 kPa is referred to as

a) dynamic head
b) equivalent head
c) discharge head
d) friction head
e) total head

010100020021000B
The total static head of a pump

a) is the capacity of the pump

b) is the difference between the static suction head and
the static discharge head
c) is the discharge pressure in metres
d) is all the parts of the pump casing
e) is the discharge head of the pump

010100020021000B
When a reciprocating pump discharges while its piston or
plunger moves in only one direction, it is termed a

a) positive displacement unit

b) single acting unit
c) dynamic unit
d) double acting unit
e) duplex unit

010100020021000D
Centrifugal pumps convert rotating mechanical energy into
kinetic energy then

a) discharge the kinetic energy

b) back to mechanical energy
c) absorb the energy
d) into potential energy in the form of pressure
e) into centrifugal force

010100020021000C
A hot water heating system circulator should

a) be directly coupled
b) have its own vibration-free base
c) be very quiet in operation
d) develop an extremely high differential pressure
e) not run continuously

010100020021000A
The capacity of a centrifugal pump

a) varies with discharge pressure

b) can be altered by speed variation only
c) indicates that the unit is a positive displacement type
d) should be varied by suction valve manipulation
e) is fixed and can only be altered by changing the impeller

010100020021000B
Centrifugal pump power requirements are decreased when

a) discharge pressure is decreased

b) the litres moved per minute is decreased
c) the casing pressure drops
d) the discharge velocity is high
e) the discharge head is at minimum

010100020021000C
A rotary pump

a) is a variety of dynamic unit

b) never has discharge pulsations
c) should be equipped with a relief valve
d) has the highest capacity of any pump
e) never requires cylinder lubrication

010100020021000B
When starting-up a rotary pump you must be sure that the

a) discharge valve is closed

b) discharge valve is open
c) pump is filled with air
d) pump is at the correct temperature
e) pump suction valve is closed

010100020021000C
Rotary pumps:

1. are high pressure pumps

2. must be primed
3. use mechanical seals
4. are positive displacement pumps

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 3, 4

010100020021000E
A double-acting pump

a) has two pistons on the pump end

b) will always be driven by the steam pistons
c) has two pistons on the driver end
d) will have two slide valves
e) is a positive displacement pump

010100020021000B
A volute type pump

a) is a positive displacement pump

b) has a progressively expanding spiral casing
c) reduces the velocity in the discharge nozzle
d) is more costly than diffuser pumps
e) is a regenerative type pump

010100020021000D
A diffuser pump:

1. has stationary guide vanes surrounding the impeller

2. has a higher efficiency than a volute type
3. has high suction lift
4. does not have to be primed

a) 1
b) 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
e) 4

010100020021000C
Turbine pumps:

1. are high capacity pumps

2. are high pressure pumps
3. has the liquid gain energy in a number of impulses

a) 1
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
e) 1, 3

010100020021000A
A centrifugal pump consists of

a) an impeller surrounded by a casing

b) a piston moving to and fro in a cylinder
c) gears rotating in a housing
d) sliding vanes
e) pulsating disc

010100020021000E
The capacity of a centrifugal pump should only be reduced by

a) throttling the suction valve

b) closing in the suction valve
c) closing in both the suction and discharge valves
d) opening the pump casing vent valve
e) closing in the discharge valve

010100020021000B
Cavitation of a pump refers to, when:

a) the pump is filled with air

b) the pump is filled with vapour
c) the oil ring is damaged
d) the suction valve is open
e) the pump is steam driven

010100020021000D
Rotary pumps:
 1. have tight clearances on all moving parts
2. deliver high pressure liquid without pulsations
3. are positive displacement units
4. should not be started with discharge closed

a) 1
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 2, 3

010100020021000E
If a pump is cavitating what can you do to prevent
or reduce the cavitation?

a) close the casing vent valve

b) open the vent valve and close the suction valve
c) partially close the suction valve
d) close the discharge valve
e) raise the suction pressure

010100020021000D
A positive displacement stand by-pump will have

a) the vent and drain valves open

b) the suction valve closed and the discharge valve open
c) the suction valve open and the discharge closed
d) the suction valve open and the discharge valve open
e) the suction valve and the discharge valves closed

010100020021000B
Pumps handling cryogenic materials operate

a) as staged units
b) at extremely low temperatures
c) nearly always as dynamic units
d) as tandem units
e) as high speed units

010100020021000A
A circulating pump is usually

a) connected with some type of heat exchanger system

b) a once through device
c) mounted to the piping
d) a small capacity unit
e) a high head unit

010100020021000C
A multi-stage pump would be used

a) when the lift is great

b) when a greater volume must be pumped
c) when the head is great
d) when the temperature of the water being pumped is high
e) whenever there is sufficient boiler room floor space

010100020021000B
Turbine pumps are best suited for

a) low capacity low pressure service

b) low capacity high pressure service
c) high capacity high pressure service
d) high capacity low pressure service
e) heavy viscous fluids

Pump Operation and Maintenance

010100020021000A
Pump wear rings are installed on an impeller by set screws,
threading or

a) shrinking
b) welding
c) brazing
d) soldering
e) forging

010100020021000C
Wear rings are usually constructed of

a) ceramics or aluminum
b) graphite or bronze
c) bronze or cast iron
d) steel or alloy steel
e) wrought iron or pig iron
010100020021000B
Wearing rings:

1. are used on impellers

2. are used on the casing
3. give protection to the shaft
4. reduce the maintenance cost of the pump

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3
e) 3, 4

010100020021000E
A stuffing box:

1. stops air leaking into the casing when the pressure is

below atmospheric
2. decreases leakage out of the casing when the pressure
is above atmospheric
3. is always supplied with a lantern ring
4. is filled with packing

a) 1, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 4

010100020021000B
Mechanical seals:

1. are used where leakage is objectionable

2. replace stuffing boxes
3. provide a better seal than packing
4. are less costly than stuffing boxes

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 2, 4

010100020021000D
Compression type packing:
 1. prevents air from entering the pump
2. reduces the maintenance cost on pumps
3. protects the shaft from scoring and corrosion
4. is used with all mechanical seals

a) 1
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2
e) 1, 3

010100020021000C
Lantern rings:

1. prevent liquid leakage from the pump

2. are fed by a liquid
3. provide a seal to prevent air from entering the pump
4. are mostly used on high lift pumps

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 3, 4
e) 1, 2

010100020021000C
The seal cage on the shaft of a centrifugal pump

a) holds the shaft packing against the shoulder of the stuffing box
b) assists in reducing shaft vibration
c) distributes sealing water to the packing
d) prevents water from leaking out of the pump casing
e) reduces suction pressure drop

010100020021000B
The main advantage of a pump using a mechanical seal is

a) lower first cost

b) less maintenance
c) less lubrication
d) smaller shaft required
e) increases discharge pressure
010100020021000D
A slight leakage is desired between the pump shaft and
packing of the majority of pumps in order to

a) prevent the ingress of atmospheric air

b) increase the pump capacity and efficiency
c) prevent wearing of the wear rings
d) lubricate the surfaces
e) prevent the pump from vapour locking

010100020021000B
If a stuffing box is to prevent the ingress of air, it is
equipped with

a) a vacuum breaker
b) a seal cage
c) a bushing
d) a thrust collar
e) an anti-air siphon

010100020021000E
Any leakage occurring through the surfaces of a mechanical
seal will

a) not be visible to the operator

b) result in an audible sound and be readily noticed
c) be indicated by pump vibrations
d) be axial to the shaft
e) be radial to the shaft

010100020021000D
The component of a mechanical seal which prevents axial
leakage is

a) the seal ring

b) packing
c) the mating ring
d) the O-ring
e) a diaphragm

010100020021000E
What size of packing should you use, to repack a pump gland having the
following dimensions:
stuffing box bore ------------- 8.6 cm
pump shaft diameter ------------- 6.7 cm
a) .5 cm
b) 1.9 cm
c) .675 cm
d) 1.6 cm
e) .95 cm

010100020021000B
New pump packing should be installed

a) tight enough to stop leakage

b) loose enough to allow leakage for lubrication
c) every shut down
d) every year
e) every time prior to start-up

010100020021000B
Flexible couplings will compensate for

a) overheating of packing
b) axial shaft misalignment
c) bearing failure
d) shaft eccentricity due to a badly bent shaft
e) impeller imbalance

010100020021000A
Shaft misalignment during operation of a pump can be caused
by bearing wear, thermal expansion, and

a) shaft flexing
b) throttling of the discharge valve
c) overloading the pump
d) loss of lubricant
e) improper installation

010100020021000D
Proper priming and venting of a pump is important, especially
if

a) the medium being pumped is high temperature

b) the medium being pumped contains suspended solids
c) the pump has a stuffing box and lantern ring
d) a mechanical seal is used
e) oil or other low flash point lubricant is being pumped
010100020021000B
Priming of a centrifugal pump refers to

a) removal of water from pump

b) filling the pump casing with liquid and removing the air
c) lifting the pump
d) closing the vent on the pump casing
e) starting the pump driver

010100020021000D
Priming a water pump means

a) raising the suction line to the level of the water

b) removing the foot valve to allow the water to flow through
c) closing the discharge valve before starting the motor
d) filling the pumps casing and suction line with water
e) the water is foaming in the pump

010100020021000B
If the packing gland of a centrifugal water pump is leaking too
much, you should

a) tighten up the gland until all leakage has been stopped

b) tighten up the gland but permit a slight amount of leakage
c) tighten up the gland as far as is possible
d) throttle the suction valve a little
e) tighten up the gland until there is 10% leakage

010100020021000E
When lubricating equipment, the operator should also check for:

1. unusual machine noises

2. unusual consumption of lubricant
3. excessive heat in bearing housing
4. excessive leakage of lubricant

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 3, 4

010100020021000C
Most pump failures, damage, or both occurs

a) after about six months of continuous service

b) due to vapour-binding
c) during initial start-up
d) due to wrong rotation
e) because of inadequate operator training

010100020021000C
When a pump is operating, your inspection should include the
following:

a) you must check the impeller

b) you must be sure the suction valve is closed
c) you should check the discharge pressure
d) you must be sure the drain valve is open
e) you should check the oil pressure

010100020021000E
A plugged impeller symptom or result will be

a) air leaks in suction line and stuffing boxes

b) wrong direction of rotation
c) loss of prime
d) an overheated stuffing box
e) no liquid being delivered

010100020021000A
If pump speed is too high

a) the driver may be overloaded

b) discharge pressure will be below normal
c) no liquid will be delivered
d) the pump will lose its prime after starting
e) there will be air or gas in the liquid

010100020021000D
If a pump is running and has no discharge pressure, what will
you do?

a) close the suction valve a little

b) open the lubrication valve
c) check the lubricant level
d) check to see if the suction valve is open
e) close the discharge valve
010100020021000A
You discover that your feed water pump is not delivering sufficient
water. A possible cause is

a) the impeller is plugged

b) the suction lift is too low
c) the discharge head is not high enough
d) there is too much water in the pump
e) the foot valve is fully open

Air Compression

010100020021000A
Compressed air machinery would most likely be used in

a) coal mines
b) residential garages
c) home furnace control systems
d) agricultural applications
e) tool and die shops

010100020021000D
Compressed air tools tend to be

a) heavier than equivalent electrical tools

b) damaged by overloading
c) hot after prolonged operation
d) more expensive than electrical tools
e) less compact than electrical tools

010100020021000A
In a centrifugal compressor the kinetic energy is converted
to potential energy in the

a) volute, diffuser, or both

b) intercooler
c) diffuser only
d) compressor cavity
e) volute only

010100020021000D
The compressor which would favour volume over pressure would
be the
a) rotary lobe
b) screw
c) axial
d) centrifugal
e) sliding vane

010100020021000B
Positive displacement air compressor types are

a) centrifugal compressors
b) gear compressors
c) axial compressors
d) multi-stage centrifugal compressors
e) not capable of producing high discharge pressures

010100020021000D
Single stage reciprocating air compressors

a) must have an air receiver

b) could be of the rotary type
c) do need an intercooler
d) could have two cylinders
e) have a smooth discharge delivery

010100020021000E
A belt driven lubricator is very popular on a

a) reciprocating double acting unit

b) screw unit
c) rotary lobe unit
d) centrifugal unit
e) sliding vane unit

010100020021000B
Higher gearing is commonly used on

a) rotary lobe units

b) screw units
c) sliding vane units
d) reciprocating units
e) centrifugal units

010100020021000A
Relative to a dry-pipe fire system, an automatic air supply
shall be connected so that proper pressure can be maintained
in each system, is a statement of the
a) National Fire Protection Association Code
b) Industrial Accident Prevention Association
c) Canadian Standards Association
d) Occupational Health and Safety
e) Society of Municipal Fire Marshalls

010100020021000D
In order to protect the driver, a start-stop air compressor
should be equipped with

a) an intercooler
b) an automatic blowdown system
c) safety heads
d) pre-start automatic unloading
e) manual cylinder bleed petcocks

010100020021000A
The valves on a reciprocating compressor are opened by

a) a pressure difference
b) the cam shaft
c) the eccentric
d) hydraulic pressure
e) a timing gear

010100020021000C
Compressor unloaders

a) could close the discharge valve

b) must be used on centrifugal compressors
c) could keep the suction valve open
d) activate the stop and start button
e) are located on the driver of the compressor

010100020021000B
Where pistons move in a cylinder it is necessary
for the lubricant to provide

a) tension
b) sealing
c) alignment
d) shock reduction
e) vapour venting
010100020021000C
An air compressor which gives two compression strokes per
crankshaft revolution is

a) multistaged two cylinder

b) multicylinder single acting
c) single cylinder double acting
d) a compound unit
e) single acting

010100020021000A
To reduce air temperature between stages, we would use

a) an intercooler
b) an aftercooler
c) a receiver
d) a converter
e) a chiller

010100020021000B
An air receiver used in an air compression, system will perform the
following functions:

1. act as a storage vessel

2. eliminates pulsation in discharge lines
3. will separate out water from the air
4. controls the temperature of the air before it enters
the system

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000C
An air compressor auxiliary which will decrease the power
requirement is the

a) receiver
b) diffuser
c) intercooler
d) variable compression ratio head
e) aftercooler

010100020021000B
Intercoolers should be equipped with

a) moisture separators
b) safety valves
c) baffles
d) vents
e) automatic blowdowns

010100020021000C
Intercoolers

a) cool the air in the cylinders

b) are used on all compressors
c) should have a safety valve
d) are required to cool compressor lubricating oil
e) cool the air at the inlet valves

010100020021000A
Intercoolers

a) must have a drain

b) are more efficient when cooled with air than with water
c) are used on double acting single stage compressors
d) help increase the volume of the air
e) should use an antifreeze solution

010100020021000D
Air receivers

a) must have a gage glass

b) must have a thermometer
c) must have a high pressure alarm
d) must have a safety valve
e) must have a high water alarm

Lubrication Principles

010100020021000A
Relative to lubrication, one place where wear is beneficial
is

a) new babbit bearing surfaces which wear smooth

b) on pump wear rings
c) on the oil pump sealing surfaces
d) on the cylinder walls of internal combustion engines
e) in antifriction bearings

010100020021000D
The intermeshing of gear teeth is a place where lubrication

a) corrosion reduction is very important

b) friction reduction is very important
c) sealing is very important
d) shock absorption is very important
e) temperature control is very important

010100020021000D
The lubricant performs a number of functions. Indicate which
of the following are the most important:

1. reduce wear
2. temperature control
3. reduce corrosion
4. reduce friction

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000D
A material which is commonly used as a solid lubricant is

a) tallow
b) molybdate sulphide
c) lime
d) molybdenum disulphide
e) sodium carbonate

010100020021000E
Grease is not a suitable lubricant

a) if the atmosphere contains a lot of moisture

b) when the atmosphere is dusty
c) if corrosion protection is desired during downtime
d) in the food industry
e) if a large amount of cooling is desired

010100020021000C
A semi-solid lubricant:
a) can only be used for high temperature services
b) has a low viscosity
c) is less likely to drip or splash from bearings
d) has a low pour point
e) is best suited for heat removal

010100020021000E
Lubricant for an anti-friction bearing is

a) mineral oil
b) graphite
c) calcium or lime base grease
d) not required
e) barium and lithium base grease

010100020021000D
Which type of grease is the cheapest and most commonly used?

a) lithium base
b) teflon base
c) paraffin base
d) calcium base
e) silicon base

010100020021000A
The property of an oil which indicates its ability to support
a load is

a) viscosity
b) viscosity index
c) pour point
d) floc point
e) consistency

010100020021000A
If an oil's viscosity changes much with little temperature
change then it will have a

a) low viscosity index

b) high pour point
c) high carbon residue
d) high viscosity index
e) low pour point

010100020021000D
Which of the following has the greatest effect on
the viscosity of a lubrication oil?

a) pressure
b) load
c) flow
d) temperature
e) speed

010100020021000D
The resistance of a liquid to internal deformation
or shear is known as:

a) pour point
b) viscosity index
c) flash point
d) viscosity
e) friction resistance

010100020021000A
Which type of oil produces higher fluid friction?

a) a high viscosity oil

b) a low viscosity oil
c) a low viscosity oil with a high flash point
d) synthetic oils
e) all mineral oils

010100020021000A
Oil additives

a) should not affect all other characteristics greatly

b) will always affect the pour point greatly
c) should be used as little as possible
d) are not a component of most lube oils
e) never lose their effect during use of the oil

010100020021000B
If you desire an oil to flow at a much lower temperature you
would most likely add

a) a viscosity index improver

b) pour point depressants
c) a dispersant
d) a thickening agent
e) low viscosity oil
010100020021000C
High capacity steam turbine oils should

a) have a low specific heat

b) have a very high viscosity
c) be fire resistant
d) have a low pour point
e) mix well with water

010100020021000B
Air compressor oil should

a) have a very low viscosity

b) have low carbon residue
c) have a low flash point
d) not contain anti-oxidants
e) have high shock absorption characteristics

010100020021000A
High viscosity oils are normally used for the following applications:

a) low speed, high load

b) low speed, low pressure
c) high speed, high load
d) high speed, low temperature
e) high temperature, low load

Types of Bearing Lubrication

010100020021000C
A lubricant characteristic which will indicate its ability to
support a heavy load at low speed is

a) viscosity index
b) pour point
c) viscosity
d) density
e) relative density

010100020021000E
A form of lubrication which requires continual motion of a
shaft or surface is

a) boundary lubrication
b) alemite fitting lubrication
c) forced lubrication
d) zerk fitting lubrication
e) fluid film lubrication

010100020021000A
Fluid film lubrication

a) is used for heavy loads

b) removes all friction in the bearing
c) is used on all anti-friction bearings
d) is used only during low ambient temperature conditions
e) is used for light loads

010100020021000B
Fluid film lubrication

a) is always used with a high viscosity oil

b) is also called flood lubrication
c) is always used with a grease lubricant
d) is different from flood lubrication
e) does not separate the metal surfaces

010100020021000E
In a forced lubrication system, a pump supplies oil
_________________ for the bearings.

a) by gravity
b) to an oil sump
c) to a drip feeder
d) to a wetted wick
e) under pressure

010100020021000D
Large journal or sleeve bearings have grooves

a) in the high pressure area of the bearing babbit

b) cut into the bearing housing
c) for distributing lubricant evenly just after the pressure
area
d) in the non-pressure area
e) cut in them for cooling purposes

010100020021000B
A large journal bearing which is running hotter than normal
can be cooled by

a) direct application of cool water

b) loosening the bearing caps
c) decreasing the viscosity of the oil by cooling it
d) adding pour point depressant to the oil
e) using CO vapour
2

010100020021000B
A thrust bearing which does not utilize the oil wedge
principle of lubrication is the

a) Michell type
b) collar type
c) flotation type
d) Kingsbury type
e) vertical type

010100020021000B
One of the main functions of the lubricant in a sealed,
grease type antifriction bearing is

a) wear reduction
b) sealing
c) shock absorption
d) cooling
e) surface separation

010100020021000E
A journal bearing

a) controls thrust movement

b) does not require lubrication
c) improves suction pressure
d) does not require a housing
e) supports a shaft

010100020021000A
Thrust bearings:

1. are used on reaction turbines

2. prevent the turbine rotor moving axially
3. are always installed on both ends of the rotor shaft
4. are lubricated with the same oil as the main bearings
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 3, 4

010100020021000C
The lubricant for an anti-friction bearing

a) will separate the moving parts completely

b) must be cooled
c) could be a semi-solid lubricant
d) prevents axial trust
e) should have a high viscosity

010100020021000B
A collar thrust bearing:

1. can support more load than a Michell thrust bearing

2. can prevent a rotating shaft from moving in both axial
directions
3. has boundary lubrication
4. is an anti-friction type bearing

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000B
A thrust bearing

a) prevents radial movement of the shaft

b) prevents axial movement of the shaft
c) must be installed on both ends of the shaft
d) has a volute casing
e) should rotate opposite to the shaft

010100020021000A
An anti-friction bearing

a) could be a thrust bearing

b) is a bearing containing white-metal alloy
c) is a sleeve bearing
d) receives larger amounts of oil
e) cannot operate in an oil bath

010100020021000E
A collar thrust bearing

a) must have a shiny surface

b) can support more load than a michell thrust bearing
c) is an anti-friction type bearing
d) is used with steam turbines only
e) has boundary lubrication

010100020021000C
A type of anti-friction bearing is the __________ bearing.

a) spiral
b) elliptical
c) ball
d) sleeve
e) journal

010100020021000C
Using pressurized air to blow out a cleaned bearing

a) should only be done when ventilation is maximum

b) must be done only while the bearing is hot
c) will cause the bearing to become "pitted"
d) requires high pressure air
e) can not cause damage to or affect our skin in any way

010100020021000A
When replacing or removing an antifriction ball bearing, the
applied force should

a) not be transmitted through the bearing balls

b) always be against the inner race
c) always be against the outer race
d) be applied suddenly and fully
e) be made only after heating the bearing

010100020021000E
Applying installation forces through the balls of a bearing
can cause
a) bearing misalignment
b) false brinelling
c) cracking or breaking of the balls
d) improper lubrication
e) brinelling

010100020021000D
A normal antifriction bearing temperature operating range is

a) 150 to 160 degrees C

b) 120 to 250 degrees C
c) 20 to 50 degrees C
d) 65 to 70 degrees C
e) 80 to 120 degrees C

010100020021000B
When grease is used in an antifriction bearing, the bearing
housing should not be filled more than __________ full.

a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
e) completely

010100020021000D
Causes of anti-friction bearing failures are:

1. improper fitting
2. false brinelling
3. high operating temperature
4. poor quality lubricant

a) 1, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 3, 4

Basic Electricity

010100020021000C
In an atom the electrons
a) orbit around each other
b) are repelled by the neutrons
c) are attracted to the protons
d) are large in size when compared to the protons
e) orbit only the neutrons

010100020021000A
When a number of electrons pass a given point over a specific
time period the energy may be referred to as

a) an ampere
b) voltage
c) an ohm
d) power or watts
e) electromotive force

010100020021000A
A basic law of electricity is, unlike charges attract each
other and like charges

a) repel each other

b) hold each other
c) attract each other
d) are neutralized
e) reduce power output

010100020021000B
The flow of electrons in a uniform direction is called

a) voltage drop
b) electrical current flow
c) potential difference
d) electromotive force
e) direct current

010100020021000C
Since the discovery of electrons, it has been determined that
electrons are a negative charge and flow from

a) positive to negative
b) north to south
c) negative to positive
d) a lower potential to a higher potential
e) the battery to the source

010100020021000D
An open circuit is one in which

a) a switch is closed
b) the current flows through the resistance
c) the wires are bare
d) a switch is open
e) voltage may exit

010100020021000A
A triple pole single throw switch is one

a) which opens and closes three wires of an electric circuit

b) that has three magnetic poles
c) which is used for three phase circuits only
d) which cannot be operated manually
e) which requires three toggles

010100020021000E
The purpose of having an upward movement of a switch handle to
close the switch is

a) to have the handle out of the way

b) to meet the requirements of the electrical act
c) because it is easier to operate when opening the switch
d) it indicates the condition of the circuit
e) to prevent the switch from closing due to gravity

010100020021000C
The battery of an electrical circuit

a) gives a load to the circuit

b) withholds neutrons from the circuit
c) supplies electromotive force
d) maintains lighting for the circuit
e) decreases the resistance

010100020021000D
The unit of measure for electrical current flow is the

a) Ohm
b) Watt
c) Volt
d) Ampere
e) Electron
010100020021000E
Atoms that have greater numbers of electrons in the outer shell
are

a) positively charged
b) good conductors
c) not good insulators
d) neutrally charged
e) not good conductors

010100020021000B
Electrons are negatively charged particles

a) flowing through the atoms centre

b) orbiting about the nucleus of an atom
c) firmly attached to the neutrons of an atom
d) which can easily flow through insulators
e) which seek open circuits

010100020021000D
_____________ current flow is from positive to negative.

a) Reversed
b) Generated
c) Static
d) Conventional
e) Electron

010100020021000A
If an electrical ___________________ is placed across a
conductor, the electrons will drift from the negative end
towards the positive end of the conductor, assuming the
electron theory.

a) potential
b) current
c) resistance
d) wire
e) meter

010100020021000B
A material that conducts electrical current is called

a) a volt
b) a conductor
c) a circuit
d) an electromotive force
e) a conduit

010100020021000A
The electrical pressure that causes current flow through a
circuit is

a) electromotive force
b) very high voltage
c) the ohm
d) the watt
e) amperage

010100020021000D
The flow of electrons in a uniform direction from atom to atom
through a circuit, is known as

a) electromotive force
b) potential difference
c) a short circuit
d) current
e) voltage drop

010100020021000E
An insulator is material that will not _________________
an electrical current.

a) reduce
b) retard
c) resist
d) slow
e) conduct

010100020021000E
A closed electrical circuit will

a) not allow current to flow

b) contain an open switch or relay contact
c) be series only
d) be parallel only
e) allow current to flow

010100020021000D
An electrical device which is designed to start and stop
current flow is the

a) potentiometer
b) fuse
c) circuit breaker
d) switch
e) resistor

010100020021000A
Ohms Law can be stated as

a) E = IR
b) R = I/E
c) I = R/E
d) volts equals ohms divided by amperes
e) watts times ohms equals volts

010100020021000C
The voltage drop across a 20 ohm resistor with 10 amps
flowing would be

a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 200
d) 20
e) 150

010100020021000C
In an equivalent circuit developed from a multi-resistor
series circuit

a) the resistance will be the reciprocal sum of the original

resistances
b) voltage drop will be the same as for each of the original
resistances
c) the sum of voltage drops across the original resistances
will be equal to the voltage drop of the equivalent circuit
d) original circuit resistances will each have to be the
same as the equivalent resistance
e) amperage flowing will be different than the original
circuit amperage flowing through each resistance

010100020021000A
Three resistances of 20, 50 and 80 ohms make up a series
circuit. Supply voltage is 400. The current flowing would
be

a) 2.67 amps
b) 20 amps
c) 8 amps
d) 5 amps
e) 60 amps

010100020021000B
Equivalent resistance is decreased

a) when voltage is decreased

b) when a circuit is in parallel
c) if the amperage is increased
d) when a circuit is in series
e) when a circuit is opened

010100020021000C
Three resistors of 20, 60 and 120 ohms are connected in
parallel and the circuit amperage is 60. The applied voltage
would be

a) 7,200
b) 12,000
c) 800
d) 3.33
e) 0.33

010100020021000C
The unit for opposition to current flow is the

a) volt
b) ampere
c) ohm
d) watt
e) newton

010100020021000E
The voltage required to force a current of 15 amps through a
resistance of 5 ohms would be

a) .33 volts
b) 3 volts
c) 7.5 volts
d) 33 volts
e) 75 volts
010100020021000A
Current flow is

a) proportional to the applied voltage

b) proportional to the resistance
c) reversed by a resistance
d) increased by a decrease in applied voltage
e) inversely proportional to the applied voltage

010100020021000B
When one ampere of current flows through a resistance by the
application of one volt the resistance will be

a) one watt
b) one ohm
c) one kilowatt
d) one ampere
e) one kilovolt ampere

010100020021000C
Current flow is inversely proportional to the

a) voltage
b) amperage
c) resistance
d) wattage
e) conductance

010100020021000D
The value of the current flow in an electric circuit, where
the voltage is 12 volts and the resistance is 3 ohms is

a) 4 watts
b) 36 amperes
c) .25 amperes
d) 4 amperes
e) 3.6 amperes

010100020021000A
The total resistance of three resistances in a series
circuit can be given as

a) R1 + R2 + R3
b) 1/R1 + 1/R2 + R3
c) R1/1 + R2/2 + R3/3
d) R1 x R2 x R3
e) (R1 x R2 x R3)/3

010100020021000B
The equivalent resistance of three resistances 10 ohms,
25 ohms and 50 ohms connected in parallel is

a) .16 ohms
b) 6.25 ohms
c) 85 ohms
d) 18.75 ohms
e) 62.5 ohms

010100020021000C
A conductor's resistance is

a) directly proportional to its cross-sectional area

b) directly proportional to its diameter
c) inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area
d) not affected by the cross-sectional area
e) measured in micro-Newtons

010100020021000A
Most conductors tend to

a) increase in resistance with increase in temperature

b) decrease in resistance with increase in temperature
c) shrink when heated
d) melt when voltage is applied
e) oscillate when voltage is applied

010100020021000D
If the applied voltage in a circuit is 120 volts
and the current flow is 3 amperes the resistance
of this circuit is

a) 40 Watts
b) .025 Ohms
c) 360 Ohms
d) 40 Ohms
e) 25 Watts

010100020021000C
Voltage is

a) the rate of current flow

b) the rate of electron flow
c) electromotive force
d) the rate of Ohm flow
e) required for current resistance

010100020021000A
Electromotive force

a) is capable of moving a quantity of electrons at

some rate per period of time
b) is able to move ohms through a resistance
c) is increased by a resistor
d) is increased by a voltage drop
e) induces resistance to an open circuit

010100020021000C
An ampere is the _______________ of current flow.

a) cause
b) resistance
c) measurement
d) cause of reduction
e) cause of increase

010100020021000E

_______________________ is an electromotive force.

a) Amperage
b) The ohm
c) Power
d) The watt
e) The volt

010100020021000B
Under normal circumstances, the heat produced by the electrical
wires of a circuit is very small due to the

a) large diameter of the conductor

b) low resistance of the conductor
c) long length of the conductor
d) insulation wrapped around
e) small diameter of the conductor
010100020021000C
The force required to produce a current of one ampere through
a resistance of one ohm, is

a) one watt
b) one megawatt
c) one volt
d) one kilovolt
e) one ampohm

010100020021000B
The unit of current flow is the

a) watt
b) ampere
c) ohm
d) volt
e) hertz

010100020021000A
The opposition a device or material offers to the flow of
electric current, is known as:

a) a resistance
b) a short circuit
c) a voltage drop
d) an insulator
e) counterflow

0503000200420006600;95;
An electric motor is designed for a current of 30 amperes
with an applied voltage of 220 volts.

a) calculate the power consumed

b) calculate the efficiency of the motor if the rated output

is 6.27 kW

Answers:

a) = __________________ watts

b) = __________________ %

010100020021000D
What power is dissipated by a resistor with a supply voltage of
120 volts and current of 8 amperes?

a) 960 ohms
b) 15 ohms
c) 15 watts
d) 960 watts
e) 96 kilowatts

010100020021000A
Electrical power can be determined by the formula

a) P = IE
b) I = ER
c) E = IR
d) R = EI
e) P = IR

010100020021000B
The basic unit of mechanical or electric power is the

a) volt
b) watt
c) ampere
d) ohm
e) Newton

010100020021000E
The voltage required to be supplied to a 12 kW motor drawing
24 amperes is

a) 5 kilovolts
b) 50 kilovolts
c) 288 volts
d) 2 kilovolts
e) 500 volts

010100020021000D
If the power dissipated by a resistor is 1.2 kW when supplied with
110 volts, the amperage will be

a) 91.666 amperes
b) 1320 amperes
c) 19.006 amperes
d) 10.909 amperes
e) 132 amperes

010100020021000B
Neglecting the efficiency of a 15 kW motor connected to a 400
volt supply, the amperage will be

a) 26.667 amperes
b) 37.5 amperes
c) .0375 amperes
d) 3.75 amperes
e) 2.667 amperes

010100020021000D
The watt is an electrical unit of measure for

a) resistance
b) current flow
c) potential difference
d) power
e) magnetic flux strength

010100020021000C
The basic unit of electrical power is the watt, which is the
result of

a) volts plus amperes

b) volts times ohms
c) volts times amperes
d) ohms times amperes
e) ohms plus amperes

Magnetism and Electromagnetism

010100020021000B
Magnetic flux can be said to be

a) lines of force within a magnet and flowing N to S

b) lines of force outside a magnet and flowing N to S
c) a zone of lines outside a magnet
d) lines of force flowing S to N outside a magnet
e) lines of force flowing in a magnet

010100020021000A
Current flow direction and intensity will
a) affect magnetic field direction and intensity
b) affect the voltage
c) affect the resistance of a circuit
d) not affect electromagnetic field direction
e) not affect electromagnetic field intensity

010100020021000C
When a material or substance does not form a magnetic flux
easily it is said to have

a) permeability
b) resistance
c) reluctance
d) low field reactance
e) low magnetic flux

010100020021000E
The space or zone around a magnet through which lines of
force travel is termed

a) magnetic flux
b) permeability
c) reluctance
d) magnetic strength
e) magnetic field

010100020021000B
Faraday discovered

a) the Right Hand Rule for conductors

b) that a conductor will have a voltage induced if it cuts
magnetic flux
c) the Left Hand Rule for motors
d) the Right Hand Rule for generators
e) that current flows from positive to negative

010100020021000C
If a conductor is held stationary and a magnetic field is
moved across it, it forms what is known as

a) motor action
b) electromagnetism
c) generator action
d) transformer action
e) conduction
Magnetism and Electromagnetism

010100020021000D
When a conductor is moved to cut magnetic flux lines at an
angle of 90 degrees

a) maximum resistance to current flow is attained

b) current will flow with the least resistance
c) motor action will be experienced
d) voltage generated will be maximum
e) motion will be easiest

010100020021000D
When magnetic flux lines travel and meet in opposing
directions the result can be

a) generator action
b) electromagnetism
c) solenoid action
d) motor action
e) reluctance

010100020021000A
A conductor supplied with current while in a magnetic field
will

a) tend to move at right angles to the flux lines

b) tend to remain stationary
c) want to move with the flux lines
d) have a current induced into it
e) form a solenoid

010100020021000D
If two unlike poles are placed adjacent to each other there is

a) a force of repulsion between the magnets

b) a development of iron filings between the magnets
c) a reversal of the north and south poles of each magnet
d) a force of attraction between the magnets
e) a production of AC power

010100020021000E
When current flows in a conductor
a) A.C. voltage is generated
b) the voltage is reduced in the conductor
c) no heat can be generated
d) all magnetic forces are dissipated
e) a circular magnetic field is set up around the conductor

010100020021000C
The total number of lines of force per square metre
in a magnetic field is

a) known as the EMF

b) controlled by varying the temperature
c) called the magnetic flux
d) determined by the north magnetic pole
e) depends on the force of gravity

010100020021000D
Magnetic field direction and intensity depend on the

a) temperature of the EMF

b) EMF of the magnet
c) copper content of the magnet
d) direction and intensity of current flow
e) specific heat of the conductor

010100020021000D
When like poles of a magnet are placed adjacent to each other
they will

a) be attracted to each other

b) bend
c) increase in temperature
d) repel each other
e) have no reaction

010100020021000E
A property of a magnet is that it will always point in the north
and south direction, when

a) submerged in oil
b) charged with electricity
c) it is demagnetized
d) in the presence of iron filings
e) freely suspended in the air
010100020021000D
Iron and steel may be magnetized by rubbing the metal with

a) stainless steel
b) steel wool
c) a brass rod
d) a magnet
e) an iron filing compound

010100020021000E
The property which determines whether or not a material will
be easily magnetized or not is called

a) reaction
b) conductivity
c) fluctuation
d) magnetism
e) permeability

010100020021000B
The property of resistance to conducting magnetic lines of force
is known as

a) resistance
b) reluctance
c) impedance
d) repulsion
e) voltage drop

010100020021000C
The maximum voltage generated by a single loop DC generator
occurs when the conductor is cutting the magnetic lines of
force at an angle of

a) zero degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 90 degrees
d) 120 degrees
e) 180 degrees

010100020021000D
When using Fleming's Left Hand Rule, the index finger
represents

a) generator action flux direction

b) motor action motion direction
c) generator conductor motion direction
d) motor action flux direction
e) motor action direction of current flow

010100020021000E
A current carrying conductor being moved by a
magnetic field is the principle known as

a) magnetic flux
b) electrolysis
c) hydro-electrics
d) generator action
e) motor action

010100020021000A
The direction of the ______________ due to motor action
may be determined using the Left Hand Rule.

a) force
b) current
c) resistance
d) rotation
e) applied voltage

010100020021000D
The minimum voltage generated by a single loop DC generator
occurs when the conductor is cutting the magnetic lines of
forces at an angle of

a) 45 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 120 degrees
d) 180 degrees
e) 270 degrees

010100020021000B
The right hand rule is used to

a) indicate the speed of a rotor

b) determine the direction of induced current flow
c) determine the frequency of an alternator
d) determine the direction of motor rotation
e) determine magnetic flux rotation
Electrical Metering Devices

010100020021000D
Batteries

a) do not pose any immediate electrical hazards

b) produce a steady AC voltage
c) produce a varying DC voltage
d) produce a steady DC voltage
e) produce a varying AC voltage

010100020021000D
The most common measurement made with a meter is

a) amperage
b) watts
c) resistance
d) voltage
e) capacitance

010100020021000A
When using an electrical meter to check that a circuit is
safe to work on, it is important to verify the proper scale,
current, or both that is being used because

a) it may appear that no voltage or current is present and

therefore safe
b) the meter will be damaged
c) the user will be subjecting himself or herself to danger
d) the main high voltage transformer circuit will be opened
e) electrical wiring will be damaged by fire or overheating

010100020021000C
A clamp-on ammeter measures current flow by using

a) differential voltage
b) differential current flow between two conductors
c) a basic transformer principle
d) a portion of circuit resistance
e) electromagnetism

010100020021000A
Clamp-on ammeter readings may be inaccurate if

a) jaws are dirty or misaligned

b) circuit voltage is too high
c) circuit resistance is too low
d) circuit power is too high
e) conductor insulation is too thick

010100020021000C
A kilowatt hour meter has a small motor which

a) turns at a constant speed

b) slows down as power consumption increases
c) has a speed proportional to power consumption
d) moves the meter demand pointer
e) indicates the multiplier to be used when reading the
meter

010100020021000E
Utility companies have a surcharge to their customers based
on

a) the maximum voltage used

b) the maximum amperage used
c) system capacitance
d) transformer efficiency
e) peak demand

010100020021000D
A voltmeter is connected to a circuit

a) in series
b) in series and parallel
c) in series and shunt
d) in parallel
e) between the last resistance and the source

010100020021000C
Ammeters are connected with the negative or black
lead connected to the

a) positive side of the circuit

b) north pole of the circuit
c) negative side of the circuit
d) switch of the circuit
e) neutral wire of the circuit

010100020021000D
When reading the dials of a power meter, read
a) them in the sequence shown by the letters under each
b) them from left to right
c) the ones which rotate clockwise first
d) them from right to left
e) them only at the request of the utility company

010100020021000E
The black demand pointer of a power meter

a) moves the red pointer

b) always reads the current demand
c) resets automatically
d) indicates the amperage being drawn
e) must be manually reset

010100020021000C
A power meter

a) reads the actual power consumed

b) does not require a multiplying factor
c) reads only a small percentage of the actual load
d) will calculate the actual cost of the power
e) does not take into account the system voltage

Motors and Generators

010100020021000C
The electromagnetic field for a DC machine is termed the

a) armature
b) yoke
c) field poles
d) brush gear
e) commutator

010100020021000D
There are three main types of DC generators; series, shunt
and compound wound. Each is

a) separately excited
b) capable of constant voltage regardless of load
c) not excited by load current
d) self-excited
e) supplied with DC from batteries
010100020021000E
Alternators must run at constant speed in order to maintain

a) current
b) power
c) voltage
d) resistance
e) frequency

010100020021000A
The output voltage of a shunt dc generator may be varied by
adjusting the

a) field rheostat
b) brakes
c) output current
d) number of poles
e) main breaker disconnect

010100020021000B
The main components of a DC machine are the yoke or frame
which supports the __________________ and the rotor
which is called an armature.

a) wiring
b) field poles
c) rheostat
d) fuse box
e) generator

010100020021000A
In order to produce the strength of magnetic flux required in
larger DC machines

a) electromagnets are used

b) copper switches are used
c) permanent magnets are used
d) the field windings are double wound
e) booster transformers are used

010100020021000E
The armature core of a DC machine is built up of laminations
of

a) copper bars
b) mica sheets
c) reinforced carbon plates
d) electromagnets
e) silicon steel plates

010100020021000B
A shunt type DC generator has __________ output voltage.

a) very high
b) nearly constant
c) very low
d) erratic
e) smooth

010100020021000E
The magnetic field in a DC machine may be supplied by permanent
magnets in small units. Large DC machines use field poles that
are essentially

a) insulators
b) resistors
c) non-magnetic
d) flux resistant
e) electromagnets

010100020021000A
The three main types of DC generators are the:

1. compound wound
2. parallel wound
3. series wound
4. reverse wound
5. shunt wound

a) 1, 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 5
d) 3, 4, 5
e) 2, 4, 5

010100020021000D
The load current has no effect on the field excitation of a

a) compound wound generator

b) series wound generator
c) shunt wound generator
d) separately excited generator
e) reverse wound exciter

010100020021000B
Three factors which control the electromotive force developed
by a DC generator are the:

1. size of the frame

2. speed with which conductors cut the magnetic lines of
force
3. number of conductors cutting the magnetic lines of force
4. diameter of the conductors
5. strength of the magnetic flux
6. diameter of the armature

a) 1, 3, 6
b) 2, 3, 5
c) 2, 5, 6
d) 1, 4, 6
e) 3, 4, 6

010100020021000A
The voltage produced in each phase of a three phase generator
is displaced by __________ electrical degrees from the other
phases.

a) 120
b) 90
c) 60
d) 30
e) 0

010100020021000A
The field strength of an alternator can be adjusted by varying
the amplitude of the DC power supplied to the

a) rotating field
b) stator windings
c) alternator frame
d) rotating stator
e) shaft

010100020021000B
The field strength of an alternator may be changed by
varying the amplitude of the DC power, supplied to the
rotating field by:

1. the use of a field rheostat

2. a reducing gear
3. changes of the input frequency
4. electronic control

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000C
An advantage of having an alternator with a rotating field is,
that the size of the rotating mass is

a) constant
b) increased
c) reduced
d) removed
e) easily heated

050500020021000
Determine the speed of a synchronous motor operating with a line
frequency of 60 Hz where the motor has ## poles.

Answer = ____________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
P(2,14,2)
.SOLUTIONS
N=60*60/(P/2);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",N:3,.01

010100020021000D
The connection provided on DC motors to supply the armature with
power

a) are slip rings

b) are field poles
c) is a rheostat
d) is a commutator
e) is a rotating conductor

010100020021000C
The space around a magnet, through which the imaginary magnetic
lines of force are considered to travel, is known as the

a) flux field
b) clearance space
c) magnetic field
d) planetary field
e) charged field

010100020021000A
A common use for a DC generator is

a) power supply for an elevator

b) an automobile alternator
c) power supply for a machinist lathe
d) power factor correction
e) computer room power supply

010100020021000C
In a series wound DC generator

a) brushes do not change AC to DC

b) there are no field poles
c) load current passes through the field windings
d) the shunt winding taps in after the series winding
e) the shunt winding taps in before the series winding

010100020021000A
A rheostat or "voltage regulator" of a DC shunt wound
generator is used to

a) regulate the strength of the electromagnetic field

b) regulate the speed of the generator
c) regulate the current to the load
d) change the AC to DC
e) change the unit into a DC motor

010100020021000A
When synchronizing an alternator; voltage, phase and
frequency must all be the same as well as

a) phase sequence
b) speed
c) current
d) power
e) capacity
010100020021000C
The field rheostat in a DC generator is used to adjust the
_______________ of the motor.

a) direction of rotation
b) current
c) output voltage
d) torque
e) slip

010100020021000E
The coils or windings on a DC machine armature, are placed in
_____________ cut in the face of the armature.

a) bars
b) holes
c) pairs
d) sequence
e) slots

010100020021000B
The commutator of a DC machine is made of copper bars
mounted in

a) glass
b) micanite
c) steel plates
d) fibre-glass
e) carbon rings

010100020021000A
The field rheostat changes the _______________________ in
a DC generator.

a) output voltage
b) input voltage
c) output current
d) input resistance
e) horse power

010100020021000D
A compound wound DC generator has a combination of shunt and
___________________ characteristics, depending on the
predominance of each type of winding.
a) parallel
b) resistive
c) reverse wound
d) series
e) AC

010100020021000B
The strength of the magnetic field produced in a shunt wound
generator

a) is weak
b) is fairly constant
c) fluctuates
d) is regulated by an external AC supply
e) cannot be varied

010100020021000C
A compound wound DC generator may have three characteristics
which are a:

1. decreasing output voltage versus load

2. no amperage requirement
3. constant output voltage
4. supplementary AC requirement
5. rising output voltage versus load

a) 1, 2, 4
b) 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 3, 5
d) 1, 4, 5
e) 2, 3, 4

010100020021000E
The output voltage rises sharply from minimum load to full load
conditions for DC wound generators, if constructed with one of
the following systems:

a) shunt
b) compound
c) parallel
d) anti-friction bearing
d) series

010100020021000D
The rotating field of an alternator is obtained by exciting
the windings on the rotor with

a) AC power
b) stator current
c) magnetic particles
d) DC power
e) carbon poles

010100020021000B
The stator of an alternator is built of ________________
mounted in a frame.

a) copper alloys
b) silicon steel
c) carbon ring
d) asbestos impregnated silver
e) non-metallic materials

010100020021000D
A 6 pole alternator producing 60 Hz power must turn at

a) 1800 rpm
b) 2400 rpm
c) 1000 rpm
d) 1200 rpm
e) 600 rpm

010100020021000E
Alternators are constructed to use slip rings made of
brass or

a) copper
b) carbon
c) mica
d) silicon
e) steel

010100020021000C
The number of cycles per unit of time measured in Hz, is known
as

a) time delay
b) commutation
c) frequency
d) alternation
e) motor speed

010100020021000E
_____________________ are used on motors and generators
to set up a magnetic field.

a) Insulated wires
b) Transformers
c) Carbon rings
d) Mica strips
e) Field poles

010100020021000D
A rheostat is also known as a

a) voltage regulator
b) resistance regulator
c) current controller
d) variable resistor
e) flux field regulator

010100020021000B
Shunt wound DC motors are common where speed must remain
constant regardless of load such as on

a) automobile starters
b) machinist lathes
c) portable drills
d) traction engines
e) grinders

010100020021000D
Three types of DC motors are shunt, series and

a) reverse wound
b) armature
c) stator
d) compound
e) cross compound

010100020021000D
Compound motors combine the characteristics of shunt and
______________ motors, as desired by the designer.

a) AC
b DC
c) parallel
d) series
e) three phase

010100020021000A
The ________________________ of a DC machine is built up
of laminated steel plates mounted on the shaft. The coils
are connected to a commutator mounted on one end of the
rotor shaft.

a) armature
b yoke
c) bearings
d) coils
e) rheostat

010100020021000D
The yoke that supports the main components of the DC machine
is frequently made of

a) copper or brass
b) mica and carbon
c) copper and carbon
d) cast steel or iron
e) aluminum

010100020021000E
Synchronous motors have construction that is identical to

a) reciprocating equipment
b) gas turbines
c) air driven motors
d) centrifugal fans
e) alternators

010100020021000D
An AC motor which will drop out of synchronism and simply
trip when overloaded is the

a) slip-ring induction motor

b) induction motor
c) wound rotor induction motor
d) synchronous motor
e) single phase motor
010100020021000D
Permanent magnets are used for

a) the largest DC motors and generators

b) constant speed alternators
c) variable speed alternators
d) the smallest DC motors and generators
e) ensuring less maintenance

010100020021000C
Brush gear for DC machines have brushes made from carbon
because they:

1. are softer
2. wear to a smooth finish
3. are low cost
4. can produce large quantities of heat
5. have a low coefficient of friction

a) 2, 3, 5
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 5
d) 3, 4, 5
e) 2, 4, 5

010100020021000D
A rheostat is used to __________ the field strength in a DC
machine.

a) stop
b) make
c) heat
d) vary
e) remove

010100020021000D
Synchronous motors are used to

a) start alternators
b) reduce the power factor of a power system
c) prevent the need for a DC source of power
d) improve the power factor of a power system
e) drive variable speed loads

010100020021000D
To transfer the power to or from the rotor of alternators or
some AC motors

a) field poles are employed

b) rheostats are used
c) a commutator is used
d) slip rings are employed
e) antifriction bearings are employed

010100020021000C
Apparent power is the power

a) used for the actual work

b) generated by rotating equipment
c) supplied by the utility
d) caused by system capacitance
e) resulting from system inductance

Transformers

010100020021000A
When AC action causes a counter current in a coil it is
termed

a) self inductance
b) capacitance
c) hysteresis
d) current generation
e) electromagnetic induction

010100020021000C
When magnetic flux produced by one coil induces an EMF in a
second coil it is called

a) self inductance
b) electromagnetic induction
c) mutual inductance
d) capacitive reactance
e) inductive reactance

010100020021000B
A transformer works on the principle of

a) reverse polarity
b) magnetic induction
c) DC power flowing in one direction
d) straight polarity
e) automatic induction

010100020021000E
If E / E = N / N then N will equal
p s p s s

a) E / N E
p p s

b) E E / N
p s p

c) N E E
p s p

d) N E / E
p p s

e) N E / E
p s p

010100020021000C
Three major losses which occur in a transformer are iron
losses, copper losses and

a) cooling losses
b) heat losses
c) flux leakage
d) capacitive losses
e) inductive losses

010100020021000C
Copper losses in a transformer are reduced by

a) using fan cooling

b) using oil cooling
c) using larger diameter wire
d) reducing the primary voltage
e) increasing the secondary voltage

010100020021000D
An active current transformer should never

a) be inspected until properly grounded

b) have its primary circuit opened
c) produce excessively high voltages
d) have its secondary circuit opened
e) have its secondary connected to a meter

010100020021000E
A phenomena produced by electronic switchgear which can
result in excessively high voltages in transformers are known
as

a) capacitive reactance
b) inductive reactance
c) phase lag
d) reactive voltage losses
e) harmonic distortion

010100020021000D
A device used to change the voltage and current from one level
to another, is known as a/an

a) conductor
b) resistor
c) alternator
d) transformer
e) power booster

010100020021000C
An instrument transformer used to measure voltage is called a

a) current transformer
b) step down transformer
c) potential transformer
d) step up transformer
e) resistance indicator

010100020021000E
Transformers are rated in terms of:

1. Volt amperes
2. Kilowatts
3. Kilovolt amperes
4. Ohms

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 3, 4
e) 1, 3

010100020021000A
The capacity of a transformer can be increased by:

1. submerging the core and windings in a tank of oil

2. submerging the core and windings in a tank of water
3. forced air cooling the oil in a heat exchanger
4. wrapping the core with a thermal insulation
5. forced air cooling of the core

a) 1, 3, 5
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 4, 5
d) 2, 3, 4, 5
e) 2, 4, 5

010100020021000C
A transformer has a primary voltage of 500 volts and 20 turns
on the primary winding. If the secondary winding has 5 turns
the voltage of the secondary is

a) 2000 volts
b) 2500 volts
c) 125 volts
d) 100 volts
e) 4 volts

010100020021000E
The voltage induced in the secondary windings of the
transformer, is ________________ turns ratio of the
transformer.

a) directly proportional to the

b) reversed to the
c) made with the
d) repelled by the
e) inversely proportional to the

010100020021000E
Current transformers step down the current rather than the

a) resistance
b) flux strength
c) conductance
d) number of poles
e) voltage

010100020021000A
Transformer cooling oil has

a) a very high specific heat

b) a poorer insulating characteristic than air
c) a very high fire point
d) no factors which necessitate better wire insulation
e) a very low safety hazard

010100020021000C
Some of the hazards of transformer cooling oil can be
compensated for by adding

a) chelates
b) anti-foaming substances
c) chlorinated hydrocarbons
d) freons
e) organic compounds

010100020021000D
Transformers should be inspected at least

a) quarterly
b) bi-annually
c) semi-annually
d) annually
e) tri-annually

Electrical Distribution Circuits

010100020021000C
A typical extra low voltage device would be a

a) toaster
b) set of tree lights
c) door bell
d) dry cell battery charger
e) night light

010100020021000C
A prime factor in determining the voltage to be used in a
circuit is

a) transformer capacity
b) peak demands
c) degree of access to equipment
d) the number of motors involved
e) the resistance of the circuit

010100020021000B
Low voltage systems may have an acceptable voltage variation
of plus or minus

a) 10%
b) 5%
c) 1.5%
d) 7.5%
e) 12.5%

010100020021000E
The ability of an electrical circuit to store a charge of
electricity even after the circuit is opened is termed

a) hysteresis
b) grounding
c) inductance
d) reactance
e) capacitance

010100020021000C
When working with high voltage systems, the minimum distance
of approach should be

a) 1 metre
b) 5 metres
c) 2 metres
d) 3 metres
e) 0.5 metres

010100020021000B
The best type of diagram for showing supply and distribution
systems is the

a) riser diagram
b) one-line diagram
c) elementary diagram
d) connection diagram
e) terminal and connection diagram

010100020021000C
An electrical distribution system is composed of service,
feeders and

a) secondary circuits
b) primary circuits
c) branch circuits
d) trunk circuits
e) tertiary circuits

010100020021000B
The utility's responsibility will not go beyond the

a) first branch line

b) first overcurrent device
c) primary transformer
d) first trunk circuit
e) motor control centre

Introduction to Instrumentation

010100020021000B
When a process variable has no method of sending information
to the final control element the system is known as

a) an automatic system
b) an open loop system
c) a cascading system
d) feedback system
e) feedforward system

010100020021000D
An open loop control system requires

a) a transducer and a recorder

b) minimum deviation from set point
c) a very small amount of dead time or lag
d) constant attention
e) two final control elements
010100020021000C
A process variable which is adjusted in order to maintain or
achieve some desired value of another variable is termed the

a) process variable
b) final variable
c) manipulated variable
d) controlled variable
e) transmitting variable

010100020021000E
A control loop controller

a) does not require a set point value

b) sends a signal to a primary element
c) measures the manipulated variable value, eliminating the
need of a primary element
d) will always eliminate deviation
e) constantly compares input signals to the set point

010100020021000E
A common air pressure range for pneumatic control systems is

a) 3 to 15 kPa
b) 20 to 100 psi
c) 20 to 30 kPa
d) 40 to 60 psi
e) 20 to 100 kPa

010100020021000B
A very important requirement for a pneumatic control system
is

a) maximum transmitter output signal pressure must be

maintained
b) air supply must be clean and dry
c) tubing diameters must be kept large
d) noise attenuation must be used at each bleed device
e) a proper sized compressor which will run continuously

010100020021000D
The apparatus which converts current signals to pneumatic and
pneumatic to current signals is called a
a) converter
b) inducer
c) inverter
d) transducer
e) transformer

010100020021000D
A control device which will change one form of energy into
another form of energy is the

a) controller
b) logic device
c) primary element
d) transducer
e) transmitter

010100020021000A
A device which will cause a visible light signal to become an
instrument analog signal is the

a) photoelectric transducer
b) transmitter
c) controller
d) final element
e) current-to-pneumatic transducer

010100020021000B
A "control" should be considered as a special device which

a) sends or transmits a positive rather than negative signal

b) tries to maintain a set point
c) is a logic device capable of making decisions
d) notifies operators of errors or faults in a system
e) leaves a hard-copy record of a system's performance

010100020021000C
Automatic systems which can make decisions are termed

a) annunciation systems
b) indicating systems
c) logic systems
d) open loop systems
e) go-go systems
Introduction to Process Measurement

010100020021000A
An inclined manometer is commonly used

a) when very low pressures or vacuums are being measured

b) to measure high pressure differentials
c) in conjunction with a flexible rubber diaphragm
d) when reading accuracy is not critical
e) for measuring level

010100020021000D
A Bourdon tube is often in the shape of a spiral so that

a) its final output has less travel

b) gears can be used for final output
c) higher pressures can be sensed
d) more power and travel of the output occurs
e) its sensitivity will be decreased

010100020021000C
When a diaphragm device is used for boiler water level
measurement, the boiler pressure is compensated for or
off-set by

a) using a bellows on the HP side

b) a spring which balances the differential pressure
c) applying the pressure to both sides of the diaphragm
d) reversing the reference and variable legs
e) joining the reference and variable legs upstream of the
device

010100020021000E
One of the most widely used process variables in a system is

a) temperature
b) pressure
c) density
d) purity
e) flow

010100020021000C
In a glass stem thermometer the space above the liquid is
usually

a) nitrogen
b) argon
c) maximum vacuum
d) partial vacuum
e) approximately 50% air

010100020021000D
A thermocouple will produce a DC millivoltage which

a) will be read on a pressure scale

b) will be fully proportional to a temperature difference
c) increases as temperature decreases
d) is not quite proportional to temperature differences
e) varies inversely with temperature

010100020021000E
The Bourdon tube is often shaped in the form of a "C", having an
arc span of about

a) 180 degrees
b) 360 degrees
c) 200 degrees
d) 90 degrees
e) 270 degrees

010100020021000B
The purpose of a spiral or a helix Bourdon tube is

a) to increase the pressure rating

b) to provide a greater degree of rotation
c) to decrease the degree of rotation
d) to decrease the linear motion
e) to reduce fluttering of the indicator needle

010100020021000C
Glass thermometers with a mercury fill are sometimes
pressurized with nitrogen so

a) that they can be used in a horizontal position

b) that they can be used at a very low temperature
c) that they can be used at higher temperatures
d) the vaporizing temperature of the mercury is lowered
e) the mercury level is suppressed

010100020021000E
Temperatures are measured by
a) wattmeters
b) bourdon tubes
c) thermowells
d) pressure differential
e) thermocouples

010100020021000D
The variable area meter consists of

a) a fluid being measured, flowing through the tube from the

top to the bottom
b) a float across which the differential pressure varies
c) a tube which is of constant area
d) a tapered tube in which the fluid being measured flows
through the tube from the bottom to the top
e) an opening that can be varied as required

010100020021000E
A bimetal thermostat reacts to changes of

a) pressure
b) flow
c) humidity
d) heat
e) temperature

010100020021000B
When a float is used for measuring level, and installation
within a vessel is impractical, a device often used is the

a) float manometer
b) float cage
c) differential head meter
d) diaphragm level indicator
e) head transmitter

010100020021000D
Relative to flow, velocity is kinetic energy and when
velocity increases, the

a) pressure and potential energy, will also increase

b) cross-sectional area of the piping will be increased
c) the mass quantity flowing per second will decrease
d) potential energy in the form of pressure will decrease
e) density will decrease
010100020021000C
Liquid must be in its vapour form

a) in order to measure density

b) if purity is to be measured
c) when a chromatograph is being used
d) when conductivity is measured
e) when resistance or reluctance is being measured

010100020021000B
A chromatograph uses electronic devices which

a) utilize electrical current as a measurement base

b) have inverse resistance properties relative to
temperature
c) increase in resistance as temperature rises
d) work in conjunction with a thermocouple
e) are made of chromel and alumel

010100020021000D
The electrical output from a thermocouple is measured by a

a) milliampmeter
b) wattmeter
c) milliwattmeter
d) millivoltmeter
e) power meter

010100020021000B
A thermocouple consists of

a) a filament that is compared to the object being measured

b) two dissimilar wires connected together to form a hot
and a cold junction
c) two dissimilar wires connected to a battery
d) two similar wires separated by another metal
e) bourdon tubes and non-conductive metals

Basic Control Loop Components

010100020021000B
A flapper-nozzle assembly is basic to all

a) controllers
b) transmitters
c) recorders
d) pneumatic devices
e) actuators

010100020021000C
The nozzle receives a constant air supply pressure of
approximately

a) 140 psi
b) 20 kPa
c) 140 kPa
d) 210 kPa
e) 30 kPa

010100020021000A
The output pressure signal of a transmitter relay is usually

a) direct and proportional to nozzle pressure

b) a function of supply pressure
c) inversely proportional to nozzle pressure
d) fed to a final element of a loop
e) the same as the primary element output signal

010100020021000A
A two-position controller compares conditions to a set point
and

a) will start or stop a process

b) desired value
c) will modulate the final element
d) can automatically readjust the set point
e) will maintain final element position at 50%

010100020021000E
When controller output is proportional to the amount of
deviation, the controller is

a) derivative only
b) integral
c) two-position
d) proportion plus reset plus rate
e) proportional

010100020021000B
A proportional only controller

a) cannot maintain maximum value of the final element

b) cannot maintain set point except at 50%
c) can be compared to the cruise control on an automobile
d) will maintain measured variable at set point
e) will respond fully when deviation is high

010100020021000B
A recorder utilizing a spiral Bourdon tube will have a pen
movement

a) linear to the tube travel

b) proportional to the change in tube pressure
c) angular to the tube travel
d) range of 0 to 24 hours
e) range of 0 to 7 days

010100020021000D
When a recorder receives a signal from a transmitter, the
recorder incorporates a

a) signal reverser
b) pneumatic relay
c) flapper-nozzle assembly
d) capsule or bellows
e) transducer

010100020021000A
When an operator uses CRT displays, the computer control
panel

a) often has a number of dedicated recorders

b) will be equipped with graph limiters
c) will not have printout capabilities
d) has only single trend display
e) will not be connected to the transmitter signal

010100020021000B
A control valve

a) is always normally closed

b) is a form of variable resistance in a piping system
c) is nearly always reverse acting
d) must be part of a cascade control system
e) can, by itself, be part of a split range control loop

010100020021000D
A valve actuator

a) cannot be reverse acting

b ) will always have one side of the diaphragm open to
atmosphere
c) is a two-position device
d) position is a function of controller output
e) causes a valve to always fail open

010100020021000D
Most solenoid valves are unlike globe valves in that upstream
line pressure will

a) act to open the valve

b) be less than downstream pressure
c) be sensed by a transmitter
d) act to close the valve
e) pass through a restriction or nozzle

Basic Boiler Instrumentation and Control Systems

010100020021000B
On a packaged boiler a number of electrical switches
connected in series can be categorized as

a) controls
b) interlocks
c) start-up devices
d) programmer controls
e) detectors

010100020021000D
A combustion air proving switch

a) senses O content of the air

2

b) senses flue gas pressure

c) detects O in flue gas
2

d) senses windbox pressure

e) senses air temperature

010100020021000A
A lead sulphide cell is sensitive to IR rays and

a) its resistance to current flow varies inversely with ray

emissions
b) its resistance to current does not change during
operation
c) will not sense steady IR rays, only pulsating ones
d) will not respond to glowing hot refractory
e) must be replaced at least monthly

010100020021000C
To operate the type of flame failure device which incorporates
a lead sulphide cell, it must receive

a) heat from flame

b) ultraviolet rays
c) infrared rays
d) heat and radiation
e) a digital signal

010100020021000B
The function of a flame failure device is to

a) shut off the fuel supply when the pressure gets too high
b) shut off the fuel when the burner flame goes out
c) shut off the fuel when the fuel temperature is high
d) shut off the feedwater supply to the boiler
e) de-energize the fan and feedwater systems

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a flame sensing device?

a) thermopile
b) heat sensing control
c) stack relay
d) cut-off valve
e) scanner
010100020021000D
A flame failure device

a) must be installed on every high pressure boiler

b) will shut off the steam leaving the boiler
c) will control the pressure of the boiler
d) will shut off the fuel to the burner
e) will shut down the flame in the boiler

010100020021000E
Boiler modulating feedwater control flow rate depends on

a) level set point

b) control valve position
c) actual level
d) feedwater pressure
e) set point, level, and valve position

010100020021000B
With single element feedwater control the level transmitter
output is

a) received by a final element

b) proportional to drum level
c) sent to a selector station
d) constant regardless of level
e) a function of steam flow

010100020021000E
The second element of a two element feedwater control system
compensates for or offsets

a) level variation
b) differential feedwater pressure
c) differential steam flow rate
d) feedwater temperature variation
e) shrink and swell

010100020021000A
A boiler control transfer or selector station

a) can be used to manually override automatic control loops

b) can be changed from manual to automatic without balancing
c) is located upstream of the controller in a control loop
d) output is directed to the primary element of a loop
e) must be operated in manual mode for only short periods

010100020021000C
An automatic feedwater regulator is used to

a) take the place of the boiler feed pump

b) activate the low water fuel cut off
c) maintain a constant water level in the boiler
d) control the chemical feed treatment to the boiler
e) control the feedwater pump output

010100020021000A
In a two element feedwater control the following items are
measured:

a) boiler water level and steam flow

b) feedwater flow and steam flow
c) boiler water level and feedwater flow
d) boiler water level and fuel flow
e) temperature and volume of feedwater

010100020021000C
On a steam boiler with single element feedwater control,
the following item is measured:

a) steam flow
b) feedwater flow
c) boiler water level
d) fuel flow
e) feedwater pressure

010100020021000A
An automatic boiler ON-OFF or operating control switch has an
adjustment for cut-in or cut-out value and another for

a) a differential between the two

b) manual or automatic control
c) rate of modulation
d) high steam pressure limit
e) rate of feedback

010100020021000E
A packaged steam boiler modulating combustion control system
will routinely
a) maintain drum level within a desired range
b) maintain flue gas temperature at some set point
c) alter fuel flow without changing the air flow
d) satisfy all load demands regardless of capacity
e) maintain boiler steam pressure within a desired range

010100020021000A
Modulating combustion control will

a) change air and fuel flow proportionally to steam pressure

change
b) always be at set point when demand is at 50%
c) alter only the air flow if a selector station is on
manual
d) respond to changes in atmospheric pressure
e) always be a cascading control system

010100020021000B
Modulating pressure control

a) will shut down and start up the burner

b) will control the fuel and air flow to the boiler
c) will control the temperature of the furnace
d) can be used on small boilers only
e) will control the pressure of the boiler

010100020021000C
Modulating combustion control on a heating boiler is accomplished
by

a) shutting down or lighting up the burner as pressure or

temperature rises or falls
b) regulating the air flow to control combustion
c) changing the amount of fuel and air to the burner
d) opening or closing the forced draft damper
e) regulating the fuel and feedwater flow

Low-water Fuel Cutoffs

010100020021000C
A float operated low-water fuel cutoff has its switch
separated from boiler pressure by
a) a float cage
b) a mercury envelope
c) a flexible diaphragm
d) a siphon
e) packing

010100020021000B
A mercury switch bulb is under high vacuum and contains inert
gas

a) so it will not explode

b) to prevent corrosion of the contacts
c) to decrease electrical resistance
d) so contacts will not overheat
e) because the switch is normally closed

010100020021000C
A float operated level control

a) will recognize swell and shrinkage and correct the feedwater flow
b) will have the float in the boiler drum
c) is only used on small boilers
d) is used on firetube boilers only
e) must be used when a boiler is manually operated

010100020021000A
Overheating of boiler heating surfaces due to low water

a) is the main cause of boiler failure

b) will cause a furnace explosion
c) can be eliminated with a low-water fuel cutoff
d) cannot occur if the boiler is a hot water unit
e) can be prevented with proper water treatment

010100020021000D
A low water fuel cut-off is fitted to a boiler to prevent

a) damage to the radial stays in the steam dome

b) the fire from shutting off too quickly and damaging the boiler
c) shutting off the water when there is no fuel
d) damage to the boiler from an overheated condition
e) damage to the boiler from over pressure

010100020021000E
The purpose of a low water fuel cut-off is to
a) shut off the feedpump when the water level gets too high
b) shut off the fuel supply when the burner flame goes out
c) shut off the fuel supply when the water pressure is too low
d) start the stand-by feedwater pump when level is low
e) shut off the fuel supply when the water level gets too low

010100020021000A
A low water fuel cut-off may be activated by

a) lowering the water level in the boiler

b) lowering the water level with the try cocks
c) lowering the water level in the gage siphon
d) lowering the water with the surface blowdown
e) lowering the water level in the sight glass

010100020021000E
The CSA code states that a boiler not under continuous
attendance must be equipped with a low-water fuel cutoff
which

a) must be a normally open switch

b) can also activate an alarm
c) may be equipped with isolation valves
d) must be a manually reset device
e) serves no other purpose

010100020021000A
A low-water fuel cutoff which serves no other purpose

a) cannot be equipped with isolation valves

b) must be a normally closed switch
c) must be a manually reset switch
d) must be a float activated switch
e) cannot be an electrical conducting type

010100020021000C
A low-water fuel cutoff switch should close the automatic
fuel valve(s) when the water level is

a) at the lowest permissible water line

b) at the lowest visible water line
c) 1 to 2.5 cm above the bottom gage glass nut
d) 1 to 2.5 cm below the gage glass nut
e) 76 mm above the lowest permissible water line

010100020021000B
A hot water boiler low-water fuel cutoff

a) should be tested weekly during routine boiler operation

b) cannot be tested during routine boiler operation
c) cannot be tested
d) should be located on the expansion tank
e) must have a normally closed switch

010100020021000C
The drain of a hot water boiler low-water fuel cutoff should
be opened to flush out any debris

a) annually
b) daily
c) weekly
d) monthly
e) each shift

010100020021000B
To test a low water fuel cut-off

a) call for an electrician who specializes in boiler controls

b) lower the water level until the burner shuts down
c) connect an ammeter to the mercury switch
d) test the water column with a test gage
e) shut off the fuel to the boiler

010100020021000A
The float chamber of the low water cut-off is blown out often
to prevent

a) the chamber collecting sediment

b) the electric wiring from deteriorating
c) the mercury from oxidizing
d) the magnets rusting
e) water hammer to the chamber

010100020021000C
The most reliable method of checking or testing a low-water fuel
cut off is to

a) manually trip the cut-off linkage to shut off the burner

b) blow the float chamber down to see if the burner will cut
out
c) lower the water in the boiler to the level where the
burner should cut out
d) blow the low water cut-off down through the water column until
the burner cuts out
e) blow down the sight glass to see if the burner goes out

010100020021000C
The low water cut-off can be tested by

a) raising steam pressure

b) shutting off the fire
c) shutting off the feedwater
d) opening the safety valve
e) closing the steam discharge valve

Boiler Programming Controls

010100020021000C
Automatic boiler programming controls

a) must incorporate a modulating control system

b) do not require interlocking devices
c) require an ON-OFF or two-position control switch
d) cannot make use of high-low fire control
e) are not interconnected with the water level control
system

010100020021000D
An interrupted pilot of an automatic boiler

a) burns continuously, like that in a home furnace

b) lights before the main burner and goes out with it
c) is one which has been extinguished by a flame scanner
d) lights, completes a trial, and extinguishes after a main
flame trial
e) must be manually ignited

010100020021000C
The function of a programming control is

a) to supervise feedwater supply to the boiler

b) to regulate the fuel supply to the burner
c) to regulate combustion controls during start-up
d) control the boiler blowdown rate
e) to regulate fuel, air, and water supply to the boiler

010100020021000D
Boiler furnaces are purged

a) so that the programmer has time to verify permissiveness

of interlocks
b) in order to ensure combustion gases are fully removed
prior to ignition
c) while the operator is given the opportunity to check fuel
and water systems
d) so that combustibles are fully removed prior to ignition
e) to cool any glowing refractory

010100020021000A
Automatic boiler liquid fuel manual valves should be opened

a) prior to pre-purging
b) after pre-purge and just prior to pilot ignition
c) immediately after completion of the pilot flame trial
d) after the automatic main burner fuel valve opens
e) with the automatic main burner fuel valve

010100020021000A
The operating pressure control will control the

a) steam pressure in the boiler

b) gas pressure to the burner
c) water pressure to the boiler
d) boiler furnace pressure
e) steam pressure in the steam header

010100020021000C
The second from last step in an automatic boiler programmed
shutdown sequence is

a) timer shutdown
b) main flame trial
c) post purge
d) operating control switch contacts closing
e) flame failure switch contacts opening

010100020021000C
With automatic fuel fired boiler programmed control the
normal firing period begins approximately

a) 44 seconds after FD fan starts

b) 75 seconds after FD fan starts
c) 60 seconds after FD fan starts
d) 10 seconds after pilot extinguishes
e) 47 seconds after pre-purge

010100020021000A
On a gas fired automatic boiler a normal programmed start-up
takes approximately

a) 105 seconds
b) 55 seconds
c) 27 - 40 seconds
d) 120 seconds
e) 70 seconds

010100020021000C
During a programmed start-up if an ignitor spark is visible
but no flame appears the operator should suspect

a) a boiler low water level

b) the main burner manual fuel valve is closed
c) the pilot manual fuel valve is closed
d) the scanner lead sulphide cell is weak
e) the boiler steam pressure operating control switch is open

010100020021000A
If a shutdown occurs during normal firing of a boiler and the
steam pressure is below the normal cut-out value, the problem
could be

a) the sensing line to the combustion air proving switch has

broken
b) main flame trial failure
c) pilot flame trial failure
d) ignitor transformer failure
e) high steam pressure limit switch tripped

010100020021000A
On a boiler with high-low fire control, if the damper
positioning switch is in the wrong position
a) the damper motor may not operate
b) a pre-purge will not occur
c) a high fire main flame ignition could occur
d) nothing will happen when the manual start switch is
closed
e) the pre-purge period will last indefinitely unless the
problem is corrected

Introduction to Process Computer Applications

010100020021000B
The main function of a mainframe computer system is to

a) evaluate systems by comparison

b) rapidly process large amounts of data
c) perform only a specific dedicated task
d) produce "hypothetical" solutions to problems
e) act as a networking switch

010100020021000A
A typical use of a mainframe computer system in a process
would be

a) the operation of a modulating control valve

b) acting as a "host" computer
c) producing hard copies of a plant system
d) producing graphics of a plant system
e) storing information onto a floppy disk

010100020021000E
Sharing and transferring information between computers is
termed

a) analogging
b) multiplexing
c) plotting
d) number crunching
e) networking

010100020021000D
A multiplexing sequence may be repeated as high as

a) once per hour

b) twice per minute
c) twice per second
d) four times per second
e) fifty times per second

010100020021000B
Computer "soft keying" is

a) done only with lap top units

b) done to make the computer quicker and easier to use
c) a method of pressing a key twice before a result is
obtained
d) the same as using a mouse or joystick
e) a system used to tint graphics

010100020021000C
A digital input computer is protected from harmful voltages
by means of

a) splitter bars
b) fuses
c) isolating circuits
d) circuit breakers
e) stand-alone devices

010100020021000B
Transmitters which transmit digital codes directly to a
computer are known as

a) digital transmitters
b) smart transmitters
c) analog transmitters
d) pneumatic transmitters
e) AND-OR devices

010100020021000E
The common standard control modes for a plant control system
are

a) integral and derivative

b) proportional and reset
c) proportional, reset, and integral
d) reset, integral, and rate
e) derivative, proportional, and integral
010100020021000A
Inputs for logic and supervisory computer functions are
mainly

a) by switch contacts
b) actions of an operator using the keyboard
c) stored on a disk which is required for operation
d) controlled by relays
e) non-decision making

010100020021000D
Computer "Run Time Totals" are commonly used

a) in graphic displays
b) for inventory control
c) for logic supervisory systems
d) for maintenance management
e) with a MODEM

Watertube and Tubular Heating Boilers

010100020021000D
The combustion chamber of a serpentine tube watertube boiler
is

a) equipped with gas power burners

b) located above the tube
c) surrounded by the tube
d) located below the tube
e) enclosed by a non-insulated metal casing

010100020021000D
One of the reasons that industrial type watertube boilers are
seldom selected for low pressure heating plants is

a) high fuel consumption

b) low overall efficiency
c) poor water circulation
d) high cost
e) poor steam production

010100020021000C
A membrane waterwall
a) is usually not gas-tight
b) consists of a metal sheeting in front of the tubes
c) has metal connecting the tubes
d) has firebrick in front of the tubes
e) is applicable to an externally fired boiler

010100020021000E
What limits the height of a packaged boiler is

a) building ceiling height

b) internal furnace dimensions
c) firing capacity
d) boiler design
e) transportation requirements

010100020021000C
The use of bent tube boiler designs allows the furnace wall
to be lined with tubes, thereby exposing more of the heating
surface to

a) convection heat
b) conducted heat
c) radiant heat
d) residual heat
e) latent heat

010100020021000D
The bent tube boiler design allows the tubes to be attached
radially on the outside of the

a) furnace
b) superheater
c) economizer
d) shell or drum
e) air preheater

010100020021000C
In a low pressure serpentine tube watertube boiler, the
serpentine tubes are attached to upper and lower headers with
__________ connections.

a) welded
b) pressure sealed
c) threaded
d) seamless
e) nozzle

010100020021000B
The furnace walls in a bent-tube watertube boiler are formed
by water filled tubes and these walls are called

a) furnace walls
b) water walls
c) fireside walls
d) waterside walls
e) radiant walls

010100020021000D
A reason for preferring copper tubing in a tubular boiler is

a) low cost
b) high metal expansion rate
c) ease of replacement of the tubes
d) corrosion resistance
e) elimination of feedwater treatment

010100020021000B
An initial problem with the tubular boiler being used as a
steam unit was

a) metals which would not stand up to the temperatures

involved
b) dissolved impurities forming scale on the tube
c) metals not standing up to the pressures involved
d) inadequate capacities
e) inability to maintain pressure

010100020021000E
An advantage of a packaged low pressure tubular or watertube
boiler is

a) its ability to meet load changes due to its heat reserve

b) its less critical water treatment requirement
c) its lower initial cost
d) easier waterside maintenance
e) safety due to the low volume of water it contains

010100020021000D
One of the advantages of the low pressure serpentine tube
watertube boilers is
a) ease of feedwater treatment
b) excellent water circulation
c) low cost
d) ease of replacement of defective tubes
e) virtually no operational supervision required

010100020021000C
One of the advantages of the low pressure serpentine
watertube boiler is

a) virtually no maintenance required

b) virtually eliminates feedwater treatment
c) virtually eliminates expansion and contraction stresses
d) virtually no operational supervision required
e) virtually no need for tubes replacement

010100020021000A
A reason for preferring copper tubing in a tubular boiler is

a) faster heat transfer rate

b) because of its good ductility
c) its ability to withstand high temperature
d) scale does not adhere to it
e) its lower cost than steel

010100020021000C
A packaged tubular steam boiler often has a steel sheathing
in front of the waterwall tubes due to

a) the high radiant energy from the flame

b) overheating of the tubing due to poor circulation
c) the erosive action of the flame
d) the high corrosion action of the combustion process
e) the formation of superheated steam in the tubing

010100020021000A
In order to keep salt concentrations within safe limits the
packaged tubular steam boiler utilizes

a) an automatic blowdown
b) a desalinator
c) a water softener after the condensate receiver
d) a mixing chamber before the heating coil
e) a liquid flow control device
010100020021000B
A disadvantage of the watertube or tubular boiler is

a) its long warm-up period

b) water treatment monitoring
c) its thermal stresses
d) the foundation requirements due to mass
e) its high maintenance cost

010100020021000A
The copper tube tubular boiler

a) can be gas or oil fired

b) has a one part heating surface
c) has the furnace in the upper section
d) is highly susceptible to corrosion
e) is capable of very large capacities

Cast-iron Sectional and Modular Boilers

010100020021000A
Sectional cast-iron boiler sections are connected with

a) push nipples
b) modules
c) victaulic couplings
d) unions
e) threaded fittings

010100020021000C
Cast-iron boiler sections maximize heat transfer by

a) utilizing as few passes as possible

b) vertical firing
c) exposing as large a surface as possible to the hot gases
d) utilizing an external furnace
e) using four push nipples per section

010100020021000A
Boiler water legs

a) increase the heating surface

b) surround the furnace entirely
c) make water treatment less critical
d) support the boiler on concrete piers
e) make waterside maintenance easier

010100020021000D
Boiler sections are held together with

a) cap bolts
b) torque tubes
c) pipe unions
d) tie rods
e) stays

010100020021000C
The ratio of heat released to heat transferred to boiler
water is known as

a) combustion efficiency
b) heating surface efficiency
c) boiler efficiency
d) section ratio
e) enthalpy transfer ratio

010100020021000C
Most low capacity cast-iron boilers

a) cannot be site assembled

b) can withstand higher pressures
c) will pass through standard size doorways
d) are factory assembled as packaged units
e) require special foundations

010100020021000E
The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler are
connected by

a) tie rods
b) tie nipples
c) hydraulic jacks
d) steel studs
e) push nipples

010100020021000D
The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler
are held together by
a) cast iron pipes
b) push nipples
c) steel studs
d) tie rods
e) push studs

010100020021000B
In a vertical sectional boiler the sections are placed

a) one above the other

b) side by side
c) 45 degrees to each other
d) 90 degrees to each other
e) 180 degrees to each other

010100020021000D
The sections of cast iron boilers are mainly designed to
obtain maximum

a) water space
b) steam space
c) water circulation
d) heat transfer
e) steam output

010100020021000A
The fins cast on the flat surface of the sections of a cast
iron sectional boiler are used for the purpose of increasing
the

a) effectiveness of heat transfer

b) steam capacity
c) water capacity
d) water circulation
e) steam output

010100020021000E
To prevent flue gases from escaping in a cast iron sectional
boiler, the spaces between the sections are sealed with high
temperature

a) silicon chalking
b) foam insulation
c) plastic insulation
d) putty
e) asbestos rope

010100020021000C
Heating boilers attain maximum efficiency only when they are
operated

a) intermittently at 90% of the load

b) intermittently at half load
c) continuously at full load
d) continuously at half load
e) continuously at 75% of the load

010100020021000A
Modular cast-iron boiler water flow is

a) continuous through all modules

b) connected in series
c) intermittent, occurring only while the unit is firing
d) always vertically upwards
e) done without the use of headers or manifolds

010100020021000B
In a cast iron modular heating boiler, the operation of the
burner of each module is controlled by a __________ which
starts or stops modules in sequence as load demand increases
or decreases.

a) temperature sensor
b) step controller
c) thermostat
d) temperature transmitter
e) flow controller

010100020021000E
A cast-iron boiler disadvantage is

a) it is subject to corrosion
b) its difficult assembly
c) its extremely high cost
d) its high ductility
e) its pressure limitations

010100020021000D
A cast-iron boiler advantage is
a) its high factor of brittleness
b) light weight resulting in lesser foundation requirements
c) its ability to withstand high pressure
d) the choice of assembly location
e) their large capacity

010100020021000B
Cast-iron boiler capacity

a) is very large compared to steel boilers

b) can be increased by simply adding sections
c) cannot be increased once assembly is completed
d) is not a function of section numbers
e) can be increased by increasing section size

Firetube Heating Boilers

010100020021000C
One of the earliest firetube boilers was the

a) locomotive boiler
b) firebox boiler
c) HRT boiler
d) Haycock boiler
e) marine boiler

010100020021000C
An internally fired boiler

a) is less efficient than an externally fired unit

b) utilizes a high amount of refractory, firebrick, or both
c) has the furnace surrounded by water
d) must be a watertube type
e) requires a setting

010100020021000E
The forerunner of the modern packaged firetube boiler was
the

a) horizontal return tubular boiler

b) locomotive boiler
c) firebox boiler
d) Sterling boiler
e) Scotch Marine boiler

010100020021000A
Initially the firetube boiler was not up to manufacturing
expectations because

a) too many equipment suppliers were involved in its

manufacture
b) the boiler plate was inferior
c) there were no legislative standards set
d) the unit was constructed at the factory
e) tradesmen were not licensed and properly qualified

010100020021000A
Smaller firetube boilers are low cost and

a) have simple rugged construction

b) require very critical water treatment
c) are not very suitable for ON-OFF operation
d) do not cause much damage on waterside rupture
e) reach operating pressures very quickly from cold start

010100020021000A
When a packaged firetube boiler is used as a power boiler
rather than a heating unit

a) it will have a much stronger design

b) only the burner will be changed or different
c) it cannot be used as a hot water unit
d) vibrations will be greater thereby requiring stronger
foundations
e) more accessories will have to be added

010100020021000E
The steam pressure must not exceed _________ kPa for a boiler
to be considered a heating boiler.

a) 15
b) 25
c) 50
d) 100
e) 103

010100020021000D
The temperature of a boiler must not exceed __________
degrees Celsius or the pressure exceed 1130 kPa for it to be
considered a heating boiler.

a) 250
b) 212
c) 150
d) 121
e) 103

010100020021000B
To maintain high gas velocities throughout all gas passes in
a four-pass firetube boiler, the cross-sectional area of each
succeeding pass is

a) increased
b) decreased
c) doubled
d) tripled
e) quartered

010100020021000C
A firetube boiler commonly used for hot water heating systems
in residences and small apartments is the

a) Scotch firetube packaged unit

b) HRT unit
c) steel plate vertical unit
d) firebox unit
e) tubular unit

010100020021000E
A steel plate vertical firetube unit is divided into two
sections and the upper part is often called the

a) reversing section
b) furnace
c) expansion tank
d) flue gas collector section
e) heat exchanger

010100020021000E
When the hot combustion gases travel through boiler tubes which
are surrounded by the boiler water, the boiler is called a

a) watertube boiler
b) tubular boiler
c) packaged boiler
d) coil type boiler
e) firetube boiler

010100020021000C
Packaged firetube boilers

a) are not very rugged relative to portability

b) have very specific design pressures to meet customer
needs
c) require relatively small building volumes
d) require special foundations or footings
e) have maintenance access difficulties

010100020021000D
When a packaged firetube boiler is used as a hot water unit

a) it can be constructed of thinner material for a given

pressure
b) an atmospheric burner must be used
c) it will not require an expansion tank
d) forced circulation is required
e) the water column and gage glass must be raised slightly

010100020021000D
The advantages of a packaged boiler are:

1. lower freight costs because of less handling

2. lower initial cost because they are mass produced
3. quality control is easier to implement
4. the boilers can be factory tested before being sent
to the customer
5. it requires little time to put the unit into operation
at the plant site

a) 1, 3
b) 2, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
e) 2, 3, 4, 5

010100020021000C
The chief advantage of a packaged boiler is that it can be

a) operated without supervision

b) operated without any water treatment
c) mass produced
d) operated without any pumps
e) assembled on location at the plant site

010100020021000C
One of the advantages of the firetube boiler over the
watertube and tubular boiler is in the

a) fuel and combustion area

b) water consumption area
c) water treatment area
d) electricity consumption area
e) operation safety area

010100020021000A
The advantage of a vertical firetube boiler is that it
requires

a) very little floor space

b) no fuel handling equipment
c) very small amount of fuel for combustion
d) no water treatment
e) very small amounts of water to produce steam

Oil Burners for Heating Boilers

010100020021000D
The reducing of oil into very small particles is termed

a) fluidization
b) fractionation
c) turbulence
d) atomization
e) distillation

010100020021000B
Before atomization can occur, heavy oils are heated to
approximately

a) 203 degrees C
b) 95 degrees C
c) 115 degrees C
d) 75 degrees C
e) 150 degrees C

010100020021000E
An air atomizing burner utilizes an air pressure of
approximately

a) 15 kPa
b) 150 kPa
c) 75 kPa
d) 95 kPa
e) 100 kPa

010100020021000D
An air atomizing compressor is usually

a) a variable displacement type

b) a centrifugal type
c) an axial type
d) a positive displacement type
e) a regenerative type

010100020021000A
The capacity of a constant capacity mechanical atomizer is a
function of

a) orifice size
b) pump speed
c) pump size
d) supply pressure
e) oil viscosity

010100020021000B
A modulating pressure atomizer has its return oil flow
regulated by

a) a modulating valve to the burner

b) a modulating valve in the return line
c) a solenoid valve in the return line
d) a temperature control valve to the burner
e) pump speed

010100020021000A
To which of the following oil burners is the oil supplied under
high pressure?

a) mechanical atomizing burner

b) air atomizing burner
c) rotary cup burner
d) steam atomizing burner
e) multi-spud burner

010100020021000C
When using mechanical fuel oil atomization

a) 70 kPa steam pressure is required at the burner

b) 35 to 40 kPa oil pressure is required
c) high pump pressure is required
d) steam pressure is required to keep the bypass open
e) dry saturated steam or superheated steam should be used

010100020021000A
Oil burners can be divided into three classes:

1. air and steam atomizing burners

2. mechanical or pressure atomizing burners
3. centrifugal or rotary cup burners
4. atmospherical pressure burners
5. gravitational pressure burners

a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 1, 2, and 4
c) 2, 3, and 4
d) 3, 4, and 5
e) 2, 3, and 5

010100020021000B
The compressed air used as atomizing air in the air atomizing
oil burner is also called

a) secondary air
b) primary air
c) pre-mixed air
d) pre-compressed air
e) post-copressed air

010100020021000B
The two basic varieties of mechanical atomizing oil burners
are:

1. variable capacity burner

2. constant capacity burner
3. modulating burner
4. stationary burner
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 5
e) 4 and 5

010100020021000D
A multi-burner cluster has secondary and tertiary nozzles
ignited by

a) an igniter spark
b) an intermittent pilot flame
c) an interrupted pilot
d) the primary burner
e) a continuous pilot

010100020021000B
When a greater than normal amount of combustible mixture is
ignited the result may be

a) a boiler explosion
b) a puff-back
c) a negative furnace pressure
d) a too rapid boiler warm-up
e) liquid fuel entering the furnace

010100020021000C
A fuel filter consists of

a) a cartridge
b) wool felt
c) three main parts
d) a Y-strainer
e) a canister

010100020021000D
Burner light oil supply pressure range is approximately

a) 50 to 100 kPa
b) 150 to 250 kPa
c) 300 to 550 kPa
d) 550 to 700 kPa
e) 700 to 850 kPa

010100020021000B
A relief valve is placed on the discharge of a fuel oil pump
a) because the pump is a dynamic type
b) so burner design pressure is not exceeded
c) so burner capacity is maintained
d) to prevent pump rupture
e) to prevent over-firing of the boiler

010100020021000B
A time delay oil valve

a) opens when the pump starts

b) opens once ignition is verified
c) opens on flame failure
d) is located on the return line
e) is upstream of the pressure regulating valve

010100020021000C
In order to prevent the possibility of a furnace explosion it
is important that the furnace is __________ before the
igniter is energized and fuel is supplied to the burner
nozzle(s).

a) pre-heated
b) post-heated
c) purged
d) cooled
e) pressurized

010100020021000E
Intermediate and high fire burner nozzles have higher
capacities than the primary burner nozzle

a) to give greater firing variations

b) to prevent pressure surges
c) to prevent ignition puff-backs
d) because of the pump being of the positive displacement
type
e) to allow better boiler warm-ups

010100020021000A
Oil flow rate to a modulating burner is regulated by

a) a return line modulating valve

b) a PRV on the burner line
c) pump speed
d) pump capacity
e) firing rate

010100020021000C
The minimum distance from furnace to oil storage tank is

a) 7m
b) 5.2 m
c) 2.1 m
d) 4.7 m
e) 9.8 m

010100020021000E
Maximum static pressure in a fuel oil line is approximately

a) 10 kPa
b) 15 kPa
c) 80 kPa
d) 35 kPa
e) 70 kPa

Gas Burners for Heating Boilers

010100020021000C
The main function of a gas burner is

a) atomization of the fuel

b) a source of ignition

c) provision of O -fuel contact

2

d) regulation of the fuel flow

e) air flow control

010100020021000B
An atmospheric burner has air entering around the burner
which is termed

a) primary air
b) secondary air
c) atomizing air
d) combustion air
e) tertiary air

010100020021000D
The amount of pre-mix air to an atmospheric burner should be

a) 10 to 12%
b) 5 to 8%
c) 20 to 30%
d) 30 to 40%
e) 40 to 50%

010100020021000A
A refractory burner disadvantage is

a) high initial cost

b) too much fuel preheat
c) low radiant heat
d) low combustion efficiency
e) overheating of boiler metal

010100020021000A
A very popular packaged boiler gas burner is the

a) ring burner
b) non-articulated burner
c) post mix atmospheric burner
d) mechanical atomizing burner
e) cluster nozzle burner

010100020021000D
An atmospheric burner head which is very popular on heating
boilers is the

a) refractory type
b) star type
c) ring type
d) rectangular type
e) ribbon ring type

010100020021000A
When a gas fired burner is burning fuel properly

a) it will have a blue flame with short yellow tips

b) the furnace will pulsate
c) there will be no turbulence
d) it will have a long bright yellow flame
e) the induced draft fan can be shut off

010100020021000D
Gas burners for heating boilers can be divided into two
general classes and they are the

a) pre and post turbulence burners

b) before and after burners
c) pre and post purge burners
d) pre and after mix burners
e) pre and post combustion burners

010100020021000B
The Venturi tube in the atmospheric burner mixing head has a

a) gradually decreasing cross-sectional area

b) gradually increasing cross-sectional area
c) sharply decreasing cross-sectional area
d) sharply increasing cross-sectional area
e) uniformly distributed cross-sectional area

010100020021000E
__________ burner heads are most common for use in heating
boilers.

a) Oval
b) Circular
c) Semi-circular
d) Triangular
e) Rectangular

010100020021000B
One of the advantages of the refractory (gas) burner is the

a) low cost
b) gas and air mixture is thoroughly preheated before it
enters the furnace
c) flue gases are recirculated back to the furnace to
increase the furnace temperature
d) flue gases are thoroughly post-heated before they
leave the furnace
e) flame is directed to areas where it is needed the
most

010100020021000D
The purpose of the deflector vanes in the centre of a ring
(gas) burner is to

a) atomize the gas particles

b) increase the gas velocity
c) decrease the air velocity
d) promote turbulence of the gas and air mixture
e) increase the temperature of the furnace

010100020021000A
One of the advantages of using natural gas as a fuel in a
boiler is

a) that no storage space is required

b) the low cost
c) the abundance in supply
d) the portability
e) that no transmission lines are required

010100020021000C
An intermittent pilot

a) lights the main flame then extinguishes

b) must be manually ignited
c) lights the main flame and remains on with it
d) remains on when the main flame extinguishes
e) lights a pilot flame then extinguishes

010100020021000C
The pilot burner for gas fired heating equipment can be:

1. manual
2. continuous
3. intermittent
4. interrupted
5. automatic

a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 2, 3, and 5
c) 2, 3, and 4
d) 3, 4, and 5
e) 1, 2, and 5

010100020021000E
The __________ pilot is most often used on small boilers.

a) interrupted
b) intermittent
c) automatic
d) manual
e) continuous

010100020021000D
Large capacity burners

a) require high flow on ignition

b) are very safe relative to puff-back
c) require only a small pilot flame
d) should have minimum flow on ignition
e) are too hazardous and not recommended

010100020021000B
A hydramotor valve

a) opens and closes quickly

b) helps to prevent puff-backs
c) uses air as its working medium
d) should not be the last fuel valve to open
e) closes slowly

010100020021000A
A solenoid type fuel valve

a) is held closed by fuel pressure

b) always opens rapidly
c) is held closed by electrical current
d) closes slowly
e) does not have positive shut-off

010100020021000B
If the power is cut off to an automatic gas valve, the valve
will be

a) closed slowly
b) closed immediately
c) closed slightly
d) closed half-way
e) opened widely

010100020021000A
The advantage of a motorized (hydramotor) gas valve is that
the valve opens __________ thus preventing "furnace puff".
a) slowly
b) quickly
c) immediately
d) slightly
e) half-way

Basic Fittings for Low-pressure Steam Boilers I

010100020021000C
A function of a Bourdon tube gage hairspring is

a) return the tube to its zero position

b) keep the pointer on zero
c) eliminate backlash
d) return the pointer to zero
e) eliminate pointer linearity

010100020021000A
An LP steam pressure gage range shall be between

a) 210 and 420 kPa

b) 300 and 450 kPa
c) 200 and 500 kPa
d) 210 and 460 kPa
e) 150 and 300 kPa

010100020021000E
An inspectors' test connection

a) should be located upstream of a siphon

b) should be of 12.7 mm NPT size
c) is required on all boilers
d) shall be located adjacent to the gage
e) is not mandatory on LP boilers

010100020021000D
When installing a siphon it

a) must be perpendicular to the piping

b) must be dry
c) should be downstream of an inspectors' test connection
d) should be first filled with water
e) shall be as close to the boiler as possible

010100020021000B
An indication of a pressure gage not performing properly is

a) the needle fluctuating

b) the needle not returning to zero on depressurizing
c) a dial which rotates
d) a reading which is not the same as some other gage
e) the safety valve popping when gage reads normal

010100020021000A
When using a dead weight tester, the effect of friction

a) is reduced by rotating the platform

b) will cause a higher than desired reading
c) is negligible
d) is eliminated with a lubricant
e) is compensated for mathematically

010100020021000D
The working medium in the dead weight tester is

a) air
b) water
c) heavy oil
d) medium weight oil
e) alcohol

010100020021000D
An essential fitting between the boiler and the
steam pressure gage is

a) a check valve
b) a gate valve
c) a gage glass
d) a siphon
e) a steam trap

010100020021000E
A steam pressure gauge is graduated in

a) pascals
b) pascals per square metre
c) kilograms per square centimetre
d) kilograms per hour
e) kilopascals

010100020021000C
The prime importance of boiler fittings are

a) economics
b) efficiency
c) safety
d) convenience
e) ease of operations

010100020021000A
All boiler fittings not properly or clearly identified should
be

a) rejected
b) used for low pressure services only
c) used for low temperature services only
d) used for supplying low pressure water to softeners
e) accepted for a lower pressure or temperature rating

010100020021000C
The purpose of the test connection on a boiler pressure gauge
is to

a) unplug the siphon tube

b) test a sample of steam for purity
c) install the boiler inspector's pressure gauge
d) inject live steam to the gauge
e) vent air from the pressure gauge

010100020021000A
As the boiler pressure increases, the bourdon tube of the
pressure gauge will

a) tend to straighten
b) compress more
c) become less circular in cross-section
d) become smaller in diameter
e) tend to twist

010100020021000E
The cross-section of a Bourdon tube is generally

a) circular
b) round
c) cylindrical
d) spherical
e) oval
010100020021000D
An essential fitting between the boiler and the steam
pressure gauge is a

a) check valve
b) gate valve
c) gauge glass
d) siphon
e) steam trap

010100020021000C
The purpose of the pipe siphon installed between the boiler
and the pressure gauge is to prevent

a) air from entering the gauge

b) water from entering the gauge
c) hot steam from entering the gauge
d) air from entering the boiler
e) hot steam from entering the boiler

010100020021000A
According to the ASME code, the scale on the dial of the
steam gauge for a low pressure steam heating boiler shall be
graduated to not less than

a) 210 kPa
b) 420 kPa
c) 510 kPa
d) 640 kPa
e) 720 kPa

010100020021000B
According to the ASME code, the scale on the dial of the
steam gauge for a low pressure steam heating boiler shall be
graduated to not more than

a) 210 kPa
b) 420 kPa
c) 510 kPa
d) 640 kPa
e) 720 kPa

010100020021000B
An LP steam boiler safety valve shall not be smaller than

a) 110 mm
b) 12.7 mm
c) 76 mm
d) 25.4 mm
e) 101.6 mm

010100020021000D
In order to ensure a safety valve seats properly, it uses

a) seat rings
b) a huddling chamber
c) a blowdown ring
d) guides and bushings
e) a test lever

010100020021000A
The force of the steam pressure acting on the safety valve
disc is a function of

a) disc area
b) huddling chamber volume
c) seat diameter
d) percent valve opening
e) blowdown ring diameter

010100020021000C
The minimum blowdown of an LP safety valve is

a) 96% of the set pressure

b) 5% of the set pressure
c) 14 kPa
d) 2 kPa
e) 101.3 kPa

010100020021000C
Popping pressure of an LP safety valve may be adjusted

a) any amount
b) no more than the allowed blowdown
c) up to 5%
d) up to 7.5%
e) by anyone

010100020021000D
The blowdown on a safety valve is adjusted by turning the

a) inspector's seal
b) valve disc
c) adjusting nut
d) adjusting ring
e) valve seat

010100020021000C
What does the boiler inspector install to prevent tampering with
a safety valve setting?

a) a restraining order
b) a gag
c) a seal
d) a plug
e) a cover plate

010100020021000E
The lip on a safety valve

a) allows it to close slowly

b) is only required if the steam is superheated
c) supplies a drain lip for condensate to collect on
d) makes the valve stronger
e) allows it to "pop" open

010100020021000D
A safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be smaller than

a) 25 mm
b) 19 mm
c) 38 mm
d) 13 mm
e) 30 mm

010100020021000D
According to the ASME code, steam heating boilers shall have
one or more safety valves, adjusted and sealed to discharge
at a pressure not exceeding __________ kPa.

a) 100
b) 101
c) 110
d) 103
e) 105
010100020021000A
According to the ASME code, the valve seat diameter of the
safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be smaller
than

a) 12.7 mm (1/2 in.)

b) 25.4 mm (1 in.)
c) 38.1 mm (1 1/2 in.)
d) 50.8 mm (2 in.)
e) 63.5 mm (2 1/2 in.)

010100020021000E
According to the ASME code, the valve seat diameter of the
safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be larger
than

a) 25.4 mm (1 in.)
b) 38.1 mm (1 1/2 in.)
c) 50.8 mm (2 in.)
d) 63.5 mm (2 1/2 in.)
e) 110 mm (4 1/2 in.)

010100020021000E
For a steam heating boiler, the safety valve shall be such
that, with the fuel burning equipment installed and operated
at maximum capacity, the pressure cannot rise more than
___________ kPa above the maximum allowable working pressure
when all steam outlets are closed.

a) 103
b) 101
c) 100
d) 55
e) 34

010100020021000D
The safety valve shall be installed in __________ position
and located in the highest practicable part of the boiler
proper.

a) the highest
b) the lowest
c) a mid
d) a vertical
e) a horizontal
010100020021000C
An LP safety valve lever test should be performed

a) weekly
b) semi-annually
c) monthly
d) daily
e) quarterly

010100020021000C
LP boiler safety valves can be repaired

a) only when authorized by the inspector

b) by anyone qualified to do so
c) by a qualified boiler operator after permission from the
inspector
d) by a licensed boiler operator
e) by only the manufacturer

010100020021000B
An operator should check that a boiler safety valve will open
at its set pressure by

a) sending for the inspector to bring his or her test gage

b) increasing the boiler pressure until the valve opens and
noting the pressure on the pressure gage when the valve opened
c) putting a piece of pipe over the lifting lever and lifting the
valve off its seat when the seat pressure is reached
d) connecting the boiler to an air compressor during shut down and
raising the pressure in the boiler until the set pressure is
reached
e) listening to the alarms of the set pressures

010100020021000B
Testing the safety valve by means of the try lever method, is
considered good practice when carried out on a

a) weekly basis
b) monthly basis
c) six monthly basis
d) yearly basis
e) bi-weekly basis

010100020021000C
If a safety valve leaks after a try lever test, the operator
should

a) plug the safety valve outlet

b) reduce the boiler pressure
c) operate the try lever several times to blow away foreign
material
d) fit a gag to the safety valve
e) reduce boiler pressure and call the team leader

010100020021000D
If you found the safety valve on your heating boiler stuck in the
closed position while the boiler was in operation, the best thing
to do is

a) tap it gently with a bronze hammer to free it

b) reduce the boiler pressure and continue operating
c) report it to the shift team leader
d) shut down the boiler and repair or replace the safety valve
e) put the boiler on hand control and notify the inspector

Basic Fittings for Low-pressure Steam Boilers II

010100020021000C
LP steam boilers must be equipped with a marker indicating
the

a) maximum water level line

b) low water fuel cut-off line
c) lowest permissible water line
d) lowest visible water line
e) fireline

010100020021000D
A gage glass may be surrounded by a number of thin rods

a) when the boiler is a high pressure unit

b) to protect the operator from injury
c) to prevent cold draft damage
d) to protect the glass from damage
e) if the glass is attached to a water column

010100020021000E
Quick-closing gage glass valves
a) prevent loss of water automatically should glass rupture
b) should be installed on all boilers
c) will not permit gage glass blowdown
d) are designed to prevent operator injury
e) require 90 degrees for full travel

010100020021000B
A disadvantage of a gage glass safety-shutoff valve is

a) the glass cannot be blown down

b) it requires more maintenance
c) it cannot withstand high pressure
d) loss of water is not prevented
e) it makes gage glass replacement more difficult

010100020021000D
Should the steam line or water line to a gage glass become
plugged with sludge

a) gage glass level will drop in both cases

b) gage glass level will drop in the first case and rise in
the second
c) gage glass level will remain where it was
d) the gage glass will read high
e) gage glass level will rise in the first case and drop in
the second

010100020021000B
Water column supply line crosses will

a) permit piping inspection

b) allow for piping cleaning and inspection
c) replace safety shut-off valves
d) be installed only on boilers not under continuous
supervision
e) prevent gage glass blowout

010100020021000B
Gage glass rupture may be caused by

a) maximum allowable boiler pressure

b) a cold draft
c) a sudden pressure drop
d) warming the boiler up too quickly
e) improper boiler water treatment
010100020021000D
When gage glass nuts are leaking

a) the gage glass should be replaced

b) they should be tightened immediately
c) new packing should be installed
d) the glass should be isolated and depressurized before
tightening
e) they should be replaced

010100020021000A
When the water connection between boiler and gage glass becomes
plugged, the water level in the glass will show a level after
a while, that is

a) higher than the level in the boiler

b) lower than the level in the boiler
c) the same as the level in the boiler
d) fully filled
e) lower than the bottom of the sight glass

010100020021000A
The lowest visible part of the water gauge glass shall be at
least __________ mm above the lowest permissible water level
recommended by the manufacturer.

a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
e) 125

010100020021000D
The ASME code states that each steam boiler shall have one or
more water gauge glasses attached either directly to the
boiler or to a water column by means of valve fittings not
less than __________ mm pipe size.

a) 75
b) 51
c) 24
d) 13
e) 10

010100020021000B
On a multiple steam boiler heating system, a stop valve must
be placed at each boiler outlet to

a) permit slower system warm-ups

b) allow boiler isolation from the system
c) prevent steam from entering another boiler
d) allow each boiler to supply only a part of the system
e) permit different system pressures

010100020021000A
Boiler outlet valves are usually

a) gate valves because of their low resistance to flow

b) gate valves because of the ability to control flow
c) globe valves because of their throttling capability
d) globe valves because of their low flow resistance
e) installed in tandem

010100020021000B
An outside screw and yoke valve

a) is always a gate valve

b) readily shows its operating position
c) is difficult to lubricate
d) requires no packing
e) has a non-rising stem

010100020021000B
The quick closing valves on the water gauge requires only
a/an __________ of a turn of the valve spindle to change the
valve from the full open to the full closed position and vice
versa.

a) eighth
b) quarter
c) one-third
d) fifth
e) half

010100020021000D
The feedwater pipe, before it enters the boiler must be
fitted with a __________ valve adjacent to the boiler.

a) stop
b) gate
c) globe
d) check
e) plug

010100020021000E
A boiler feedwater stop valve

a) should never be used to control water level

b) is used to isolate the deaerator
c) should be a globe valve
d) should be located close to the feedwater pump
e) is used to isolate the feedwater line

010100020021000B
A globe valve should be used in the feedwater line

a) at all times
b) whenever it may be used for control purposes
c) if it is of the OS&Y type
d) when the system is of multiboiler installation
e) because of its low flow resistance

010100020021000B
A stop valve is fitted between the boiler and the feed water check
valve

a) to regulate the feedwater to the water column

b) for isolation and to provide a positive shut-off
c) if the boiler is a hot water boiler
d) if the boiler is gas fired
e) to provide feed water regulation to the boiler

010100020021000D
Boiler water foaming may be the result of

a) low pH
b) excessive blowdown
c) low TDS
d) high TDS
e) dissolved gases

010100020021000C
Boiler blowdown lines have a specific size range based on

a) water impurities
b) the amount of blowdown required
c) boiler capacity
d) operating pressure
e) line length

010100020021000B
Boiler blowdown piping

a) can be reduced in size after the blowdown valves

b) must be full size to the point of discharge
c) must be at least 51 mm in size
d) can have valves of a smaller size than piping
e) may discharge to the sewer system

010100020021000C
A steam boiler is blown down in order to

a) clean the soot and carbon out of the firebox and tubes
b) lower the operating water level in the boiler
c) discharge sediment and scale forming matter from the boiler
d) test the rated relieving capacity of the safety valves fitted
to the boiler
e) locate the steam level

010100020021000D
The purpose of the small vent valve or cock located on top
of the shell or on top of the water column on most boilers is

a) to allow water to escape from the boiler when the boiler

is being filled with air
b) to allow air in to the boiler when the boiler is being
filled with water
c) to allow water to escape before the steam stop valve is
opened during the warm-up period
d) to allow air to escape from the boiler when the boiler is
being filled with water
e) to allow water into the boiler when the boiler is being
drained or cooled preventing the formation of a vacuum

Basic Fittings for Hot Water Boilers

010100020021000C
A pressure or altitude gage for a hot water boiler

a) must be equipped with a siphon

b) shall have a dial scale at least 3 times the maximum
allowable working pressure
c) does not require a siphon
d) must have a temperature dial
e) must be of 51 mm pipe size

010100020021000A
When a closed expansion tank is used and the system is cold

a) the auto fill valve will maintain a system minimum

pressure
b) the tank level will be high
c) there will be no air in the tank
d) the possibility of air in the system will be high
e) the tank should be manually filled

010100020021000D
An altitude gage on hot water heating boilers is used to indicate

a) expansion tank temperature

b) boiler temperature
c) furnace draft
d) height of the highest radiator in system
e) the height of the boiler

010100020021000D
Siphon is not required between a pressure or an altitude
gauge and a hot water boiler since these boilers are

a) filled with steam

b) partially filled with steam
c) partially filled with air
d) filled with water
e) filled with water and air mixtures

010100020021000B
The lever handle of the shut-off cock between a pressure or
altitude gauge and a hot water boiler should be __________ to
the pipe in which it is located when the cock is open.

a) perpendicular
b) parallel
c) adjacent
d) opposite
e) tangent

010100020021000A
The scale on the dial of a pressure gauge should be graduated
to not less than __________ times the maximum allowable
working pressure.

a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 2.5
d) 3.0
e) 3.5

010100020021000E
The dial of a pressure gauge on a hot water boiler indicating
SI units can be graduated in

a) metres of mercury
b) mm of water
c) mPa
d) psi
e) kPa

010100020021000E
When the pressure pointer of a closed system reads lower than
the altitude pointer the

a) system is full of water

b) expansion tank level will be high
c) boiler is being over-fired
d) gage is faulty
e) system requires water

010100020021000D
The temperature indicator of a hot water boiler should
indicate water temperature

a) at the boiler inlet

b) in the expansion tank
c) midway through the system
d) at the boiler outlet
e) in the boiler

010100020021000B
On a pressure temperature indicator, if the pressure pointer
falls below the altitude pointer

a) the atmospheric pressure is low

b) the system is low on water
c) the boiler is too full
d) the water is too hot
e) the water is too cold

010100020021000A
Hot water heating boilers must be equipped with a

a) thermometer
b) fusible plug
c) return trap
d) blow down tank
e) steam pressure gage

010100020021000E
With the fusible plug type of temperature relief device, the
fusible plug will melt at __________ degrees Celsius and
allow hot water to escape.

a) 131
b) 121
c) 101.3
d) 100
e) 99

010100020021000D
The expansion and contraction rod type of temperature relief
device will open the valve at __________ degrees Celsius and
close it at __________ degrees Celsius.

a) 99 and 80
b) 100 and 71
c) 101.3 and 75
d) 99 and 71
e) 100 and 80

010100020021000B
A boiler pressure relief valve

a) shall be installed on the boiler

b) can be installed anywhere in the system but preferably
close to the expansion tank
c) must be at least 51 mm pipe size
d) does not require annual checking or testing
e) can be installed with an isolation valve

010100020021000A
For hot water boilers operating up to 414 kPa, a pressure
relief valve opening pressure variation may be as much as
a) 14 kPa
b) 5%
c) 14%
d) 5 kPa
e) 10%

010100020021000E
A hot water boiler is protected from over pressure by means of

a) a safety pop valve

b) a high limit pressure control
c) an expansion valve
d) an air release valve
e) a safety relief valve

010100020021000A
ASME Section IV, states that each hot water heating boiler
shall have at least one officially rated pressure relief
valve set to relieve at or __________ the maximum allowable
working pressure of the boiler.

a) below
b) 6% above
c) 1.5 times
d) twice
e) 10% above

010100020021000E
Hot water boilers have stop valves in their inlet and outlet
piping

a) to allow for better warm-ups

b) to prevent water from entering another in-service unit
c) so that each boiler can have separate water treatment
d) to permit annual maintenance
e) so that the boiler can be drained without draining the
system

010100020021000C
Boiler stop valves shall be

a) of the OS&Y type

b) globe valves
c) identified with durable tags
d) installed on horizontal piping
e) throttled during operation

010100020021000B
During warm-up of a cold hot water boiler excessive pressure
build-up is prevented by

a) a very slow warm-up

b) an expansion tank
c) a pressure relief valve
d) opening the boiler outlet valve
e) venting the system

010100020021000D
In a closed expansion tank system an air separator

a) removes air from the system

b) is installed at the boiler inlet
c) is installed at the boiler outlet
d) directs air into the expansion tank
e) is not required

010100020021000C
In a hot water heating system, the closed type expansion tank
should be

a) kept full of water

b) open to the atmosphere
c) partly filled with water
d) isolated from the system
e) closed and independently heated

010100020021000B
When a closed type expansion tank on a hot water boiler is completely
filled with water and the water in the system is raised in tempera-
ture so that it expands, the result will be that

a) the boiler expands

b) the pressure build-up opens the safety relief valve
c) the heating system becomes noisy
d) the circulating pump will stop
e) the expansion tank will expand

010100020021000C
An expansion tank is used to
a) store steam
b) increase water temperature
c) allow for the expansion of the water
d) provide more efficient water circulation
e) allow free expansion of the steam

010100020021000D
The head of water in the hot water heating system employing
an open type of expansion is referred to the vertical
distance from the gauge of the boiler to the level in the
__________, which is considered the highest level of the
water in the system.

a) steam drum
b) top row of tubes
c) auto-fill valve
d) expansion tank
e) hot water outlet valve

010100020021000C
An automatic fill valve

a) will maintain maximum system pressure at all times

b) is a mandatory fitting
c) is not mandatory
d) opens only when expansion tank level is low
e) can be used with an open tank system

010100020021000A
A closed expansion tank is usually equipped with

a) a gage glass
b) a pressure relief valve
c) an automatic fill valve
d) a circulating pump
e) a thermometer

Hot Water Steam Heating Boiler Operations

010100020021000B
Before starting up a new boiler or one that has been out of
service the following must be ensured
a) the manufacturer's recommendations are read
b) the boiler has a valid inspection certificate
c) the fuel is shut off
d) the boiler control is in the OFF position
e) the boiler is cold

010100020021000D
It is very important that boilers should be

a) warmed up quickly to prevent condensation

b) warmed up quickly to prevent scale build-up
c) lit only when cool
d) warmed up slowly to prevent thermal shock
e) warmed up at a rate of one degree every five minutes

010100020021000A
When cutting in an additional boiler into the heating system

a) the stop values in the supply and return lines are both
closed
b) the supply valve is open slightly, the return line closed
c) the supply and return lines are open
d) the supply valve only is closed
e) the supply and return line valves are both open slightly

010100020021000D
One of the most important points that should be observed
before a new boiler is started and put into continuous
operation is to

a) check and make sure all valves are opened

b) check and make sure all valves are closed
c) make sure the vent is in the open position
d) make sure the inspection certificate is valid
e) make sure the startup is on schedule

010100020021000D
When preparing a boiler for startup and the boiler is
equipped with a modulating combustion control, it is best to

a) set the manual-auto switch to "auto"

b) set the manual-auto switch to "auto" and set the flame
control switch in the lowest position
c) set the manual-auto switch to "auto" and set the flame
control switch in the highest position
d) set the manual-auto switch to "manual" and set the flame
 control switch in the lowest position
e) set the manual-auto switch to "manual" and set the flame
control switch in the highest position

010100020021000B
If the low-water fuel cutoff and/or the high limit control
are equipped with a trip-out device on a boiler, it is
recommended as part of the startup preparation to

a) dismantle the device and check for lose wires

b) push the reset button to assure that the switches are
closed
c) check the low-water fuel cutoff and make sure all the
mercury switches are working properly
d) check that the high limit switches are set high enough
e) dismantle the high limit switches and overhaul if
necessary

010100020021000D
In hot water boiler operation the maximum operating
temperature should never exceed

a) 77 degrees C
b) 87 degrees C
c) 100 degrees C
d) 121 degrees C
e) 131 degrees C

010100020021000C
The pressure relief valve on a hot water heating boiler
should be set

a) 25% lower than operating pressure

b) 10% lower than operating pressure
c) 25% above operating pressure
d) 20% lower than operating pressure
e) at the operating pressure

010100020021000C
A gradual increase in stack temperature is an indication of

a) poor burner operation

b) too much excess air
c) unclean heating surfaces
d) poor damper operation
e) all of the above

010100020021000D
The discharge pressure of steam heating pressure relief
valves should never exceed

a) 14.7 kPa
b) 121 kPa
c) 93 kPa
d) 103 kPa
e) 153 kPa

010100020021000A
How often would you test the low level fuel cut-off on a low
pressure steam heating boiler by blowing out the float chamber?

a) daily
b) monthly
c) semi-annually
d) annually
e) bi-weekly

010100020021000E
Should any abnormal condition occur during light-off or the
temperature building-up period

a) continue to run the boiler but reduce the steam and fuel
valve settings
b) stop running the boiler immediately and open the vent
valve
c) stop running the boiler immediately and open the
feedwater valve
d) continue to run the boiler but reduce the load and close
the steam valve
e) shut down the boiler immediately and close the stop
valves in the fuel lines

010100020021000C
There are two conditions that may occur during the warm up
period which may seem to be abnormal to the operator but will
disappear after the boiler heats up. These conditions are

a) uneven expansion and thermal shock

b) fluctuation of water and steam pressures
c) slight smoking and condensation
d) high stack and hot water/steam temperature
e) low stack and hot water/steam temperature

010100020021000B
During the warm-up period of a heating boiler the main burner
goes out. The operator should

a) shut down the boiler immediately, purge the boiler, and

restart it.
b) shut down the boiler, close the fuel valves, and
determine the cause of the problem
c) try to re-light the burner immediately
d) check the altitude gage to ensure there is enough water
in the system
e) clean the burner, purge the boiler, and restart it

010100020021000E
Thermal shock to boilers can be reduced by

a) warming up boilers slowly

b) keeping the boiler free of scale build-up
c) covering the tube sheets with refractory
d) not allowing full flow of cold water into a warm hot
water boiler
e) all of the above

010100020021000B
The most important rule in safe operation of a steam heating
boiler is

a) operate the burner properly

b) keep the water level in the boiler at the proper level
c) maintain the proper operation of automatic controls
d) maintain the correct level in the altitude gage
e) ensure air is kept out of the system

010100020021000B
To reduce the effects of uneven expansion and thermal shock
and to protect a boiler against damage during startup, one of
the precautions that should be taken is

a) always heat up the boiler quickly

b) always warm up the boiler slowly
c) make sure the vent is opened
d) make sure the steam is closed
e) always open the fuel valve slowly

010100020021000D
It is recommended that the differential between the safety
relief valve set pressure and the operating pressure of a hot
water boiler be kept to a minimum of 69 kPa (10 psi) or
__________ % of the relief valve setting.

a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
e) 30

010100020021000A
Smoking conditions during the operation of a boiler can be
caused by

a) improper air/fuel ratio

b) steam demands too great
c) low water conditions
d) too much combustion air
e) not enough fuel

Steam Heating Equipment

010100020021000C
Unit heaters differ from convectors in that they use _______
to increase heat transfer.

a) metal fins
b) natural circulation
c) blowers
d) copper tubes
e) brass tubes

010100020021000A
Convectors use ________ to increase heat transfer.

a) metal fins
b) radiators
c) blowers
d) copper tubes
e) brass tubes
010100020021000C
In fin coil type heaters, individual room temperature is
controlled by

a) switches
b) automatic valves
c) dampers
d) air relays
e) supply ducts

010100020021000D
Unit ventilators use

a) only outside air for heating

b) only inside air for heating
c) natural draft
d) a mixture of inside and outside air
e) fin coil heaters

010100020021000D
The difference between a convector and a radiator is

a) the way they transfer heat

b) the way the heating medium goes through
c) the method of control
d) that one is made of cast iron and the other of steel or copper
e) the way the heating and cooling is distributed

010100020021000A
Large areas such as warehouses, are usually heated with

a) unit heaters
b) radiators
c) convectors
d) open heaters
e) space heaters

010100020021000A
Air can be removed from steam heating systems by

a) air vents
b) a steam trap
c) an air separator
d) an air header
e) a dip tube

010100020021000E
A radiator valve is used to control the amount of

a) air leaving the radiator

b) condensate leaving the radiator
c) steam leaving the radiator
d) air entering the radiator
e) steam entering the radiator

010100020021000E
A radiator trap is a device that is used to

a) allow only air to leave the radiator

b) vent steam from the radiator
c) depressurize a radiator
d) allow only steam to leave the radiator
e) allow only water to leave the radiator

010100020021000C
The vacuum pump performs the following function:

a) supplies water to the condensate receiver

b) supplies steam to the boiler
c) returns the condensate (water) back to the boiler
d) returns the condensate water to the condensate receiver
e) none of the above

010100020021000A
The level in the condensate receiver is automatically
controlled by a

a) float switch
b) pressure reducing valve
c) gate valve
d) drain valve
e) sight glass

010100020021000C
The purpose of a radiator trap is to

a) control steam flow into the radiator

b) control steam flow leaving the radiator
c) drain condensate from the radiator
d) remove the air from the radiator
e) trap the radiant heat in the system

010100020021000B
Air vents are used to

a) trap excess air

b) expel the air from heating systems
c) trap volatile liquids
d) expel impurities from boilers
e) expel the moisture from heating systems

010100020021000E
The purpose of a radiator trap is to

a) stop the flow of steam

b) assist circulation within the radiator
c) control the temperature of a radiator
d) enable the radiator to be isolated
e) pass condensate and retain steam in the radiator

Steam Heating Systems

010100020021000C
The piping and heating units of a steam heating system must
be so arranged that

a) the condensate can flow freely to the heating units

b) the air can be kept at the top of the heating units
c) steam can flow freely to all heating units
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

010100020021000B
In a gravity return system the boiler should be placed

a) well above the highest radiator

b) well below the lowest radiator
c) on an elevated platform
d) at the same level as the radiators
e) in a central location

010100020021000C
The Hartford Loop prevents the water in the boiler from

a) exceeding the maximum temperature

b) exceeding the highest safe level
c) dropping below a safe level
d) contamination by impurities in the returning condensate
e) flowing out through the steam main

010100020021000A
All supply and drain lines of a steam heating system must be
pitched to

a) allow for drainage of condensate

b) allow collection of air at the highest points
c) prevent corrosion
d) allow for temperature expansion
e) all of the above

010100020021000C
When starting up a steam heating boiler it should be filled
to

a) the maximum level

b) 3/4 of a gage glass
c) 1/2 of a gage glass
d) 1/4 of a gage glass
e) the very bottom of the gage glass

010100020021000D
If the water level falls too low during operation of a steam
heating boiler the operator should

a) tell his or her supervisor

b) add more water immediately
c) operate the safety valve
d) shut the boiler down
e) lower the flame and add water to bring it up to a safe
level

010100020021000E
In the case of radiators and convectors, the main sources of
trouble are the

a) air vents
b) air traps
c) push nipples
d) connecting rods
e) valves and traps
010100020021000D
Finned convectors should be kept free of

a) air
b) steam
c) corrosion
d) dust
e) all of the above

010100020021000B
Slow or insufficient heat throughout a building heated by
steam can be caused by

a) too high a firing rate

b) too low a firing rate
c) air leaks
d) the feedwater being too cold
e) oversized piping

010100020021000A
Slow or insufficient heat in one or more rooms in a steam
heated building can be caused by a

a) faulty steam trap

b) faulty float switch
c) faulty heater
d) faulty vacuum switch
e) faulty sight glass

Hot Water Heating Systems

010100020021000C
The maximum temperature of water in a gravity hot water
system is

a) 65 degrees C
b) 70 degrees C
c) 77 degrees C
d) 87 degrees C
e) 67 degrees C

010100020021000B
In a forced circulation system the expansion tank
allows the system to operate at
a) a vacuum
b) a pressure well above atmospheric pressure
c) pressures above sea level
d) the lower floors
e) absolute pressures

010100020021000E
A forced hot water circulating system can be classified as
the following type:

a) loop system
b) one pipe system
c) two pipe direct return system
d) two pipe reverse return system
e) all of the above

010100020021000A
In a one pipe hot water system the fitting that directs the
water to each converter is called the

a) diverter
b) trap
c) vent valve
d) separator
e) lead

010100020021000C
In a radiant heating system the maximum surface temperature
is

a) 10 degrees C
b) 20 degrees C
c) 30 degrees C
d) 40 degrees C
e) 50 degrees C

010100020021000A
In radiant heating system changes are

a) difficult to make
b) easy to make
c) as easy to make as in any other heating system
d) dependent on availability of materials
e) dependent on location
010100020021000E
Automatic snow melting systems can use

a) hot water and antifreeze mixed

b) electric resistance heating
c) infrared lamps mounted above sidewalks and ramps
d) hot water and ethylene glycol mixed
e) all of the above

010100020021000C
Snow melting systems are usually filled with

a) water only
b) methanol and water
c) ethylene glycol and water
d) steam
e) warm air

010100020021000A
Advantages of the forced circulation hot water heating
systems are

a) reduction in pipe size and greater heat storage capacity

b) high pressure piping and controls
c) high vacuum in the return lines and pumps
d) higher make-up and better chemical control
e) low water make-up and better temperature control

010100020021000B
A hot water boiler of the same output is

a) larger than a steam boiler

b) smaller than a steam boiler
c) the same size as a steam boiler
d) taller than a steam boiler
e) shorter than a steam boiler

010100020021000B
In a hot water system compared to a steam heating system, if
there is a leak damage will

a) be greater in the steam system

b) be greater in the hot water system
c) be about the same in either system
d) depend on where the boiler is located in the system
e) be minimal due to the automatic drain system
010100020021000E
Which of the following use a boiler in the system?

1. steam heating
2. electric heating
3. steam to hot water system
4. hot water heating

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 4
d) 3, 4
e) 1, 3, 4

- Hot Water Heating System Equipment and Operation

010100020021000B
Diverter fittings are used in the supply lines to heating
units

a) to compensate for a low heating load

b) when a higher heating output is required from the heating unit
c) when the distance from the boiler to heating unit is short
d) when there are no balancing valves installed in the supply
line
e) when a hydraulic balance must be corrected

010100020021000A
An air separator should always be installed in

a) a horizontal pipe
b) a cross tee
c) a vertical pipe
d) an expansion tank
e) a converter

010100020021000D
The air removed by the air separator is vented to the

a) air space at the top of the boiler

b) nearest convector
c) dip tube
d) expansion tank
e) relief valve
010100020021000E
To ensure that each zone circuit has the proper flow of water
to provide the required heat a:

a) flow control valve is used

b) diverter fitting is used
c) gate valve is used
d) pressure reducing valve is used
e) balancing valve is used

010100020021000D
The temperature control on a steam to hot water converter, controls

a) the pump speed

b) the steam temperature
c) the water flow
d) the steam control valve
e) the firing rate

Hot Water Heating System Equipment and Operation

010100020021000C
Excessive pressure build-up due to a rise in temperature and
the resulting expansion of the water in the system is
prevented by the use of

a) a float tank
b) a relief valve
c) an expansion tank
d) a cushion valve
e) a safety valve

010100020021000A
To prevent corrosion in the expansion tank it is sometimes
filled with

a) nitrogen
b) air
c) oxygen
d) helium
e) hydrogen

010100020021000E
Improper location of the circulating pump and expansion tank
can cause

a) the circulating pump to cavitate

b) some points in the system to be under negative pressure
c) air to be drawn into the system
d) vapour bubbles to form in the circulating pump
e) all of the above

010100020021000A
The expansion tank is normally attached to the

a) boiler or the hot water supply line near the boiler

b) highest point in the system directly above the boiler
c) supply line after the circulating pump
d) supply line above the lowest convector
e) return line directly before the boiler

010100020021000D
The minimum reading on an altitude gage of a boiler in a
large plant is from the top of the boiler to the highest
point in the system plus

a) 0.6 m
b) 0.8 m
c) 1.0 m
d) 1.2 m
e) 1.4 m

010100020021000B
The purpose of a pressure reducing valve is to

a) level out the flow of steam or hot water

b) automatically reduce pressure and maintain it
c) reduce water hammer in a heating system
d) maintain hot water at a required pressure
e) to reduce the feedwater pressure to the boiler

010100020021000B
What type of boiler would you expect to find in a hot water
system, incorporating a converter?

a) hot water boiler

b) steam boiler
c) forced circulation boiler
d) reverse flow boiler
e) once through boiler

Warm Air Heating System Equipment

010100020021000B
In a warm air heating system the cold air return registers
are located

a) in exterior walls
b) in interior locations
c) under windows
d) in floors
e) in ceilings

010100020021000A
The major disadvantage of an electric resistance coil furnace
for warm air heating is

a) the high cost of electricity

b) the danger from electric shock
c) the high cost of maintenance
d) the large size of the furnace
e) the location of electrical wiring

010100020021000E
Lowboy furnaces are just over

a) 1.0 m in height
b) 0.8 m in height
c) 1.4 m in height
d) 1.6 m in height
e) 1.2 m in height

010100020021000C
The advantage of having duct furnaces instead of a large
central furnace is

a) less initial cost

b) easier installation
c) better control of heat in each zone of the building
d) that they require less space
e) lower maintenance costs

010100020021000C
The power supply for an electric resistance coil furnace is
a) 60 V
b) 120 V
c) 240 V
d) 220 V
e) 480 V

010100020021000A
In a fin-coil heat exchanger the primary source of heat for
the exchanger is

a) steam or hot water

b) gas
c) oil
d) solar
e) radiant

010100020021000D
A type of directly fired space heater is

a) a unit heater
b) a floor furnace
c) a wall furnace
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

010100020021000B
High efficiency furnaces and heaters range in annual fuel
utilization efficiency (AFUE) from

a) 94 - 98%
b) 80 - 95%
c) 70 - 75%
d) 60 - 70%
e) 50 - 60%

010100020021000B
In high efficiency furnaces if the temperature of the flue
gas drops below 65 degrees C the

a) flue gas will condense

b) water vapour will condense
c) furnace burner will shut down
d) furnace burner will start up
e) furnace vent will close
010100020021000A
In a pulse combination furnace the stated efficiency is

a) 94 - 98%
b) 80 - 95%
c) 70 - 75%
d) 60 - 70%
e) 50 - 60%

Warm Air Furnace Components and Maintenance

010100020021000D
Heat exchangers in gas fired furnaces are made of

a) brass
b) copper
c) aluminum
d) steel
e) cast iron

010100020021000E
Air filters can be divided into two groups

a) mechanical and rotating drum

b) electronic and steam
c) dry and wet
d) steam and rotating drum
e) mechanical and electronic

010100020021000B
Electronic filters will remove

a) all particles from the air

b) fine particles from the air
c) odour producing gases from the air
d) smoke from the air
e) all of the above

010100020021000C
The perimeter loop system of furnace ducting is ideal for a
building with

a) no insulation in the walls

b) concrete walls
c) no basement
d) low head room in the basement
e) no cold air returns

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a type of outlet in a warm air
heating system?

a) a grill
b) a register
c) a ceiling diffuser
d) a perforated panel
e) all of the above

010100020021000D
Supply outlets should always be located

a) in walls
b) in floors
c) in ceilings
d) to best prevent cold drafts
e) in baseboards

010100020021000C
In a warm air heating system, the heated air should enter the
rooms preferably via the

a) high wall registers on the inside wall

b) baseboard registers on the inside wall
c) baseboard registers on the outside wall
d) high wall registers on the outside wall
e) unit heaters on the outside wall

010100020021000C
Sleeve bearings on furnace fans require

a) no lubrication
b) grease every six months
c) a few drops of oil every six months
d) a few drops of oil monthly
e) flood lubrication

010100020021000A
Furnace heat exchangers should be checked for corrosion
because

a) carbon monoxide could leak into the building

b) the holes reduce the furnace efficiency
c) cold air could leak into the building
d) too much air would enter the furnace
e) the air will become too dry for comfortable heating

010100020021000B
Insufficient heat throughout a building is likely caused by

a) too high an air flow

b) insufficient heat input
c) poorly insulated ducting
d) a missing filter
e) poor humidity control

Ventilation and Air Filters

010100020021000D
Actual ventilation rates may vary per person from

a) 0.5 to 0.6 cubic metres/min

b) 0.5 to 0.75 cubic metres/min
c) 0.2 to 1.2 cubic metres/min
d) 0.14 to 1.5 cubic metres/min
e) 1.0 to 1.5 cubic metres/min

010100020021000B
Ventilation can be divided into two basic methods:

a) forced and natural

b) mechanical and natural
c) forced and mechanical
d) natural and warmed air
e) natural and cold air

010100020021000A
Natural ventilation is improved by the use of a roof

a) ventilator
b) radiator
c) grille
d) louver
e) panel
010100020021000B
Mechanical ventilation can be divided into which types?

a) natural air intake, natural exhaust

b) mechanical air intake, natural exhaust
c) natural air intake, mechanical exhaust
d) natural intake, natural exhaust
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
In a mechanical air intake, natural exhaust ventilation
system the pressure in the building is

a) well below atmospheric pressure

b) slightly below atmospheric pressure
c) at atmospheric pressure
d) slightly above atmospheric pressure
e) well above atmospheric pressure

010100020021000C
Living organisms that must be removed from the air are

a) insects and pollen

b) bacteria and insects
c) bacteria and spores
d) pollen and spores
e) pollen and bacteria

010100020021000E
Mechanical filters can be divided into two broad classes:

a) wet and dry

b) rotating and stationary
c) dry and viscous
d) corrugated and smooth
e) throwaway and renewable

010100020021000D
Viscous filters are highly efficient in the removal of

a) fine dust, fumes, and smoke

b) bacteria and spores
c) cooking odours
d) dust and pollen
e) mists and fogs
010100020021000B
Electrostatic filters are highly efficient in the removal of

a) dust and pollen

b) fine dust, smoke, and fumes
c) bacteria and spores
d) lint
e) mists and fogs

010100020021000C
Ultraviolet light is used to remove __________ from the air.

a) dust and pollen

b) fine dust and smoke
c) bacteria and spores
d) mists and fogs
e) lint

Infrared and Electric Heating

010100020021000D
Infrared radiant energy is directed towards

a) ceilings
b) walls
c) windows
d) floors
e) doors

010100020021000A
Infrared heaters are usually mounted

a) overhead
b) on walls
c) in floors
d) under windows
e) over doors

010100020021000B
Gas-fired infrared heaters use the principle of

a) heating a gas
b) heating a solid surface
c) heating a liquid
d) heating a porous material
e) all of the above

010100020021000B
In an internally fired, gas fired infrared heater, the
surface temperature is about

a) 300 degrees C
b) 400 degrees C
c) 500 degrees C
d) 600 degrees C
e) 700 degrees C

010100020021000D
A low temperature catalytic heater contains a layer of

a) metal impregnated with a catalyst

b) wool fibre impregnated with a catalyst
c) plastic fibre impregnated with a catalyst
d) glass wool impregnated with a catalyst
e) porous glass impregnated with a catalyst

010100020021000B
The quartz lamp heating element will respond

a) instantaneously
b) in a few seconds
c) in about one minute
d) in about thirty seconds
e) in about three minutes

010100020021000D
The main disadvantage of electric heating is the

a) high maintenance cost

b) poor local temperature control
c) expensive installation
d) high operating cost
e) all of the above

010100020021000E
In an open wire type heating element the resistance wire is
made of

a) tungsten
b) magnesium oxide
c) mica
d) steel
e) nickel-chromium

010100020021000B
Electrical heating can be divided into two general groups:

a) floor and wall

b) direct and indirect
c) wall and baseboard
d) radiant panel and infrared
e) direct and infrared

010100020021000C
In an electric snow melting unit, a thermostat should be used
to automatically shut the system down when the outdoor
temperature is above

a) 0 degrees C
b) 1 degrees C
c) 2 degrees C
d) 3 degrees C
e) 4 degrees C

010100020021000D
The basic types of heating systems are:

1. steam heating
2. hot water heating
3. warm air heating
4. electric heating

a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 3, 4

Heating Boiler Feedwater Controls

010100020021000B
When a boiler equipped with a combination feedwater control
and low-water cutoff device shuts down, due to a low-water
condition

a) the feedwater flow will also stop

b) level must be restored to above the cutoff line before
the unit can be restarted
c) it can be restarted by simply resetting the cutoff switch
d) a manual reset switch must be used
e) a prepurge will not be necessary

010100020021000C
An electric feeder valve will

a) eliminate the need for a low-water fuel cutoff

b) prevent a low-water trip
c) open before the low-water cutoff line is reached
d) require manual action to open
e) open after the unit trips on low-water

010100020021000E
A float operated mechanical feeder valve should

a) be a normally closed valve

b) open just after the low-water cutoff switch opens
c) be located above the water column
d) not be deemed a stand-by device
e) not open until the level is well below the feed pump
cut-in level

010100020021000A
In nearly all LP steam heating systems the feedwater

a) is usually condensate
b) requires daily close scrutiny of chemical values
c) is a high make-up percentage
d) must be deaerated
e) requires preheating in an economiser

010100020021000D
A Hartford loop will

a) eliminate the need for venting a steam heating system

b) ensure continuous circulation of a hot water system
c) prevent steam from entering a steam pressure gage
d) prevent boiler water level from going below the LPWL
e) prevent the draining of an expansion tank

010100020021000C
Because of variations in flow rate, nearly all large steam
heating plants utilize
a) an economiser
b) a deaerator
c) a condensate receiver
d) multiple boilers
e) steam pressure regulating valves

010100020021000A
Heating plants with multiple boilers often have

a) independent boiler feedwater control from a header

b) individual feedwater systems
c) feedwater pressure regulating valves for each boiler
d) separate condensate receivers
e) a common feedwater control valve

010100020021000A
Dissolved oxygen in condensate

a) will cause pitting in a boiler

b) can cause pitting on the return lines
c) causes grooving of the condensate lines
d) cannot be removed with chemicals
e) necessitates the installation of a deaerator

010100020021000A
Neutralizing amines

a) raise the pH of condensate

b) lower the pH of boiler water
c) eliminate boiler pitting
d) can cause return grooving
e) absorb carbon dioxide

010100020021000B
The result of a condensate receiver which is too small could
be

a) high boiler water level(s)

b) loss of condensate to the sewer
c) loss of make-up water
d) unacceptable high steam pressures
e) low make-up water flow rates

010100020021000C
A feedwater make-up system should
a) utilize demineralizers
b) utilize a deaerator
c) be able to satisfy normal firing needs
d) always be softened water
e) be able to satisfy the needs of at least one boiler in a
multiboiler plant

010100020021000A
Equalizing lines on a condensate receiver float chamber

a) will dampen level fluctuations

b) keep receiver level equal to boiler level
c) maintain make-up flow equal to condensate flow
d) eliminate the need for a make-up level control valve
e) maintains equal flow of condensate to multiple boilers

010100020021000B
A condensate receiver low level cutoff switch will

a) act to open a make-up solenoid

b) stop the feedpump thereby preventing damage to it
c) act to close boiler fuel valve(s)
d) sound an alarm
e) cause the make-up valve to close

Heating Boiler Operating Controls

010100020021000B
An ON-OFF steam boiler

a) will maintain a fairly constant steam pressure

b) operates most efficiently at continuous firing
c) will cycle on and off based on temperature
d) must have a low capacity
e) cannot operate in a multiboiler system

010100020021000C
A modulating control steam heating boiler

a) is always fully automatic

b) will have a wide operating pressure range
c) has very efficient operation
d) will have a constant combustion air flow rate
e) cannot operate in a multiboiler system
010100020021000A
An operating control switch for an ON-OFF boiler

a) uses a differential spring to reduce cycling

b) can only have its cut-in setting adjusted
c) has an unadjustable span between cut-in and cut-out
d) utilizes a resistance coil
e) operates in conjunction with a modutrol motor

010100020021000E
A levelling indicator is found on

a) the casing of a heating boiler

b) a low-water fuel cutoff switch
c) a boiler feedwater pump
d) a modutrol motor
e) an ON-OFF operating control switch

010100020021000B
An item found upstream of an operating control switch is a

a) modutrol motor
b) siphon
c) combustion air proving switch
d) test connection for an inspector
e) feedwater pressure gage

010100020021000B
On a multiburner boiler the high fire nozzle will

a) be in operation on start-up
b) operate continuously when steam demand exceeds boiler
capacity
c) be ignited by a pilot flame
d) respond to electrical resistance
e) operate regardless of where the manual over-ride switch
is set

010100020021000D
A manual "high-low" switch should be switched to "high" or
"auto"

a) as soon as the main flame has stabilized

b) prior to ignition of the main flame
c) when pressure is too low
d) when the boiler has been properly warmed up
e) during boiler pre-purge

010100020021000A
A resistance control or "potentiometer" for modulating
control

a) works in conjunction with a modutrol motor

b) utilizes a mercury switch
c) senses steam temperature
d) can only be used on a fully automatic boiler
e) can operate only in the vertical position

010100020021000A
A potentiometer control

a) varies electrical current to a modutrol motor

b) will start and stop a boiler
c) cannot have its settings adjusted
d) eliminates the need for a high limit control
e) will not result in simultaneous adjustment of air and
fuel

010100020021000E
A high limit control switch

a) is necessary on all boilers

b) activates after the safety valve opens
c) is a normally open switch
d) usually does not require manual resetting
e) must be used when a boiler is not under continuous
supervision

010100020021000C
Prior to a boiler safety valve popping during routine boiler
operation

a) a try lever test should be performed

b) the pressure gage should be checked
c) the high limit switch should open
d) the feedwater pump should stop
e) the high level alarm should sound

010100020021000C
A hot water boiler operating control can be a pressure switch
a) which is normally open
b) which is sensitive to the expansion and contraction of
boiler water
c) utilizing a closed liquid filled system
d) sensitive to steam pressure
e) sensitive to boiler water pressure

010100020021000B
A thermal element is

a) used to measure pressure

b) capable of sensing temperature and converting it to a
pressure signal
c) a type of open system
d) used to measure heat content
e) commonly termed an "aquastat"

010100020021000B
An aquastat

a) senses water level

b) is like a thermal element without a capillary tube
c) can be located away from its point of measurement
d) measures water flow
e) is a modulating device

010100020021000E
A low fire switch

a) is a type of manual over-ride

b) takes no part in the start-up of an automatic boiler
c) is a normally closed switch
d) utilizes a thermal element for its operation
e) acts as an interlock to ensure minimum damper setting

010100020021000C
What is the purpose of the high limit temperature control on
a hot water boiler?

a) to take over operating the boiler if the water level

control fails
b) to allow you to take off the operating control for
maintenance without shutting down the boiler
c) to shut down the burner if the water temperature rises
too high
d) to prevent the pressure in the boiler rising above 210
 kPa gage
e) to limit high pressure and temperature from developing in
the boiler

010100020021000C
Combustion air safety switches are commonly found

a) on natural draft boilers

b) on hot water boilers only
c) on boilers utilizing a forced draft fan
d) on gas fired boilers only
e) as noninterlocking devices and take no part in a startup

010100020021000E
A high gas pressure fuel cut-off switch

a) closes when gas pressure is too high

b) is never a manual reset device
c) must be located upstream of an automatic fuel valve
d) is a normally open switch
e) opens when gas pressure is too high

010100020021000A
A test lead or "jumper wire" is required when testing

a) high steam pressure or water temperature limiting

controls
b) a high gas pressure fuel cut-off switch
c) a safety valve with the test lever
d) the low water fuel cut-off switch
e) a low gas pressure fuel cut-off

010100020021000D
Quickly closing the main burner manual cock valve during
boiler operation should check the

a) flame scanner
b) combustion air proving switch
c) low gas pressure fuel cut-off
d) high gas pressure fuel cut-off
e) low fire interlock switch

010100020021000E
The combustion air proving switch

a) should be checked when air flow is minimum

b) should not be checked while the boiler is in the purge
cycle of start-up
c) is a normally closed switch
d) must always be a manual reset device
e) should be checked when air flow is maximum

Heating Boiler Combustion Controls

010100020021000B
Fuel should be shut off immediately if it fails to ignite

a) to save fuel
b) to prevent furnace explosions
c) to prevent spills
d) to save power
e) to prevent boiler corrosion

010100020021000B
A thermocouple

a) consists of two similar wires

b) produces an electric signal
c) senses infrared light from the flame
d) senses changes in fuel line pressure
e) senses changes in air pressure

010100020021000C
Thermocouples are connected in series to

a) monitor more than one flame source

b) increase the sensitivity of the detection system
c) generate a higher voltage
d) provide a spare thermocouple in case of failure of one
e) none of the above

010100020021000C
A flame rod

a) forms an electric circuit with the rod, flame and relay

b) is used for gas and oil fired burners
c) forms an electric circuit with the rod, flame and burner
d) senses the temperature of the flame
e) is used to light the main burner

010100020021000D
A flame scanner
(1) requires a photoelectric cell
(2) responds to temperature changes
(3) requires a clear line of sight to the flame
(4) produces a steady voltage signal

a) all of the above are correct

b) 1 & 2 are correct
c) 1, 2, & 4 are correct
d) 1 & 3 are correct
e) none of the above

010100020021000B
The function of a flame failure device is to

a) shut off the fuel supply when the pressure gets too high
b) shut off the fuel when the burner flame goes out
c) shut off the fuel when the fuel temperature is high
d) shut off the feedwater supply to the boiler
e) de-energize the fan and feedwater systems

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a flame sensing device?

a) thermopile
b) heat sensing control
c) stack relay
d) cut-off valve
e) scanner

010100020021000D
A flame failure device

a) must be installed on every high pressure boiler

b) will shut off the steam leaving the boiler
c) will control the pressure of the boiler
d) will shut off the fuel to the burner
e) will shut down the flame in the boiler

010100020021000C
The maximum allowable temperature for the water in a hot
water heating boiler is

a) 100 degrees C
b) 150 degrees C
c) 120 degrees C
d) 170 degrees C
e) 250 degrees C

010100020021000E
High limit temperature controls

a) increase air flow to the boiler if temperature limits are

exceeded
b) open a 3-way mixing valve to add cold water to the hot
water to reduce the water temperature
c) are required on steam boilers
d) are required under Section II of the ASME Codes
e) shut off the fuel if the water temperature is too high

010100020021000C
Flame rods

a) should be cleaned of deposits regularly

b) should not be exposed to temperatures above 100 degrees C
c) should shut off the fuel within four seconds of flame
failure
d) are very reliable and maintenance free
e) require frequent filing of electrical contacts to prevent
corrosion build-up and failure of the device

010100020021000E
All flame safeguard devices

a) activate an alarm system if flame failure is detected

b) require a photoelectric cell
c) are limited to temperatures comfortable to the hand
d) monitor the pilot flame and main burner simultaneously
e) close the main fuel valve in case of pilot flame failure
or main burner failure

010100020021000E
Flame safeguard devices

a) are all unaffected by heat

b) should be kept as far away from the fire as possible
c) should not be cleaned except by a qualified serviceman
d) should be kept cool enough to be touched by hand
e) should be tested following the manufacturers instructions
Pneumatic Controls for Heating Systems

010100020021000A
The device used to maintain a constant pressure throughout a
pneumatic control system is called a

a) reducing valve
b) control regulator
c) pneumatic valve
d) balancing valve
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
Pneumatic controllers are divided into two basic classes

a) direct and indirect

b) off/on and proportional
c) positive and negative action
d) bleed and non-bleed
e) reset and gain

010100020021000A
A pneumatic control system

a) uses a sensing device to change pressures in the control

line
b) requires an intermittent air supply
c) always uses pressure actuated final controlled devices
d) is not used to control air flow for ventilation
e) is seldom used to control humidity

010100020021000B
In a non-bleed type controller the device that senses a
change in room temperature is called a

a) sensing valve
b) bellows
c) set point gage
d) temperature switch
e) feedback switch

010100020021000C
In a self-contained control system the energy for operation
is provided by

a) electricity
b) air pressure
c) the reaction of the sensing device
d) a bellows
e) a bleed type nozzle

010100020021000C
Parallel blade dampers are usually used for

a) changing the direction of the air flow

b) varying the amount of air flow
c) turning the air flow on or off
d) proportional operation
e) mixed air control (outside and inside air)

010100020021000E
An example of final control device for a heating system is a

a) slide-gate
b) pump
c) fan
d) set of louvers
e) all of the above

010100020021000D
The most common type of damper operator is a

a) slide
b) ramp
c) bellows
d) piston
e) pilot positioner

010100020021000B
An example of an auxiliary device for a pneumatic control
system would be a

a) reducing valve
b) three way air valve
c) damper
d) pump
e) bellows

010100020021000D
A pneumatic relay can also be called a

a) selector switch
b) air reservoir
c) bleed type controller
d) cumulator
e) pneumatic-electric switch

Electric Controls for Heating Systems

010100020021000D
A device used to position dampers and control valves is
termed

a) a controller
b) a relay
c) a transformer
d) an actuator
e) a temperature controller

010100020021000E
Thermostats may be classified according to their

a) application
b) type of temperature sensing element
c) type of control action provided
d) temperature range
e) all of the above

010100020021000A
On-off thermostats are equipped with

a) an open contact switch

b) a high temperature switch
c) a low temperature switch
d) a high voltage switch
e) a low voltage switch

010100020021000D
A bimetal thermostat's operating range is between

a) 5 and 40 degrees C
b) 0 and 50 degrees C
c) 0 and 40 degrees C
d) 10 and 32 degrees C
e) 50 and 90 degrees C

010100020021000E
A room thermostat should be mounted on an inside wall about

a) 0.5 m above the floor

b) 0.75 m above the floor
c) 1.0 m above the floor
d) 1.25 m above the floor
e) 1.5 m above the floor

010100020021000B
Pressure controllers can be divided into two classes

a) high and low temperature

b) high and low pressure
c) high and low flow
d) inside and outside mounting
e) all of the above

010100020021000A
An example of a controlled device would be

a) a damper motor operating air louvers

b) a hot water boiler
c) a radiator
d) a steam boiler
e) a thermostat

010100020021000C
Control motors are divided into two classifications

a) large and small

b) AC and DC
c) valve operators and damper operators
d) high voltage and low voltage
e) pump and fan controllers

010100020021000D
In a basic electrical control system the device that senses a
drop in air temperature is called the

a) final controlled device

b) pneumatic temperature sensor
c) humidistat
d) thermostat
e) regulator

010100020021000E
In a basic electric control system an example of a controlled
device is

a) a fuel valve
b) a louver
c) a diverter valve
d) an electric switch
e) all of the above

010100020021000B
An electronic control system is comprised of a

a) meter, sensor, and valve

b) sensor, controller, and final control element
c) sensor, transmitter, and thermostat
d) controller, thermostat, and sensor
e) thermostat, electronic controls, and furnace

010100020021000A
An advantage of an electronic control system is that

a) the controllers can accept a wide variety of inputs

b) they are inexpensive to operate
c) they are inexpensive to install
d) the controllers can be used outdoors
e) it is very compact

010100020021000D
An example of a final control element is a

a) thermostat
b) fire eye
c) relay
d) damper
e) thermocouple

010100020021000B
An electronic controller is

a) not part of the electronic control system

b) used to position an actuator
c) used to generate a set point
d) a type of sensor
e) used only in pneumatic systems

010100020021000B
The electrical resistance of a thermistor will

a) decrease when cooled

b) decrease when heated
c) increase when heated
d) remain constant with temperature changes
e) none of the above

010100020021000B
Resistance temperature devices can provide a relatively
linear resistance variation from

a) -60 to 80 degrees C
b) -40 to 120 degrees C
c) -40 to 250 degrees C
d) 0 to 100 degrees C
e) 40 to 100 degrees C

010100020021000E
Transmitters or transducers can measure

a) temperature
b) air flow
c) air flow velocity
d) water flow
e) all of the above

010100020021000C
A pressure sensor converts pressure changes into

a) an electrical signal
b) a change in electrical resistance
c) variables such as voltage, current, or resistance
d) air pressure
e) a temperature change

010100020021000D
Electronic controllers can be divided into two types

a) on or off
b) modulating and direct acting
c) indirect and direct acting
d) on or off and modulating
e) actuators and relays

010100020021000C
A transducer is a device that is used to

a) generate a set point

b) produce an off or on signal
c) convert an electronic signal to a pneumatic output
d) amplify an electronic signal
e) filter an electronic signal

Lighting Systems

010100020021000D
A luminaire is a

a) type of light reflector

b) type of light refractor
c) lamp ballast
d) complete lighting unit
e) type of lamp

010100020021000D
When designing a lighting system which of the following
should be considered?

a) initial cost
b) operating cost
c) maintenance cost
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

010100020021000A
Ambient lighting can be improved by two types of lighting:

a) direct and indirect

b) natural and artificial
c) fluorescent and incandescent
d) reflective or refractive
e) general or local

010100020021000C
Direct lighting systems

a) have a higher initial cost than indirect lighting

b) have greater glare control
c) are more energy efficient than indirect lighting
d) produce shadow free light
e) blend with the environment

010100020021000E
When control for multiple locations is required

a) a 4-way switch is used

b) an off-on switch is used
c) two 2-way switches are used
d) three or more one-way switches are used
e) two 3-way switches and two 4-way switches are used

010100020021000E
An advantage of low voltage switching is

a) that local and remote control of lights is permitted

b) the wiring does not require conduits
c) changes are simple and economical
d) a and b are correct
e) a, b and c are correct

010100020021000C
Occupancy sensors are

a) semi-automatic switches
b) self-regulating switches
c) automatic switches
d) modulating switches
e) packaged switches

010100020021000C
Most dimmer switches sold today

a) divert some current through a variable resistor

b) can be used with incandescent or fluorescent lighting
c) save most of the power not being used by the luminaire
d) can control the lighting level from 0 - 100%
e) are not cost effective as energy savers

010100020021000D
The life safety code requires that emergency lighting be
provided for means of exit in

a) places of assembly of less than 300 people

b) all occupied spaces indoors
c) all multiple residence units
d) all educational and institutional occupancies
e) office buildings with occupancies of 300 or more people

010100020021000A
In large buildings approximately what percentage of the
electrical load is lighting?

a) 60%
b) 65%
c) 70%
d) 75%
e) 80%

Building Water Supply Systems

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about a constant pressure
system with Pneumatic Tank is false?

a) Water entering directly into the pump suction is

discharged into pressurized tank.
b) This system is primarily used in larger buildings.
c) A system controller automatically starts a standby pump
in the event of pump failure.
d) The system has a pressure regulator to maintain a
relatively constant pressure above the water level
inside the tank.
e) Air must continuously be introduced into the tank.

010100020021000D
The system which has a storage tank above the highest fixture
in the system is called

a) an upfeed system
b) a constant pressure system with suction tank
c) a tankless constant pressure system
d) a downfeed system
e) a direct pressure system

010100020021000C
When the maximum building demand for water is always less
than the maximum flow available from a municipal or local
distribution system which of the following systems can be
used?
a) A constant pressure system with suction tank
b) A constant pressure system with pneumatic tank
c) Tankless constant pressure system
d) A downfeed system
e) A gravity system

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about Non-Circulating hot
water systems is true?

a) The systems have a return line.

b) The systems are used in large residential buildings.
c) The systems eliminate hot water stagnation.
d) The systems contain a differential fire recoil element.
e) The systems force large amounts of water to be wasted
before hot water is available in each fixture.

010100020021000A
Which of the following is not an element found in a
circulating hot water system?

a) A fire recoil element

b) Air vents
c) Heaters
d) Back flow valves
e) Return Piping

010100020021000B
In a circulating hot water system the municipal distribution
systems and/or local storage tanks are used for which of the
following reasons.

a) Cold water supply only

b) Water supply to heaters only
c) Hot water supply from municipal heating stations
d) Both cold water and heater water supply
e) Water meter rationing

010100020021000B
In a circulating hot water system automatic air vents serve
which of the following functions?

a) They cool the water in the storage tank to increase the

temperature differential to increase circulation.
b) They remove air that is released when water is heated.
c) They supply air to cooling water in the storage tank.
d) They are required for adequate water aeration.
e) None of the above.

010100020021000C
The backflow prevention method which consists of two
independently acting check valves with an automatic operating
pressure differential relief valve located between the two
check valves is called

a) air gap backflow prevention

b) double check valve
c) reduced pressure principal device
d) atmosphere vacuum breaker
e) PVB

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about pressure relief
valves is false?

a) The valve may be installed anywhere in the hot water

system close to the heater or tank.
b) The valve must be directly connected to a drain or vent
pipe.
c) The valve is opened by pressure in the line surpassing a
preset pressure set on the spring in the valve.
d) The valve is automatically closed when the water line
pressure drops below the spring pressure setting.
e) None of the above.

010100020021000B
Temperature relief devices are effective in eliminating the
following problem:

a) scale build-up in the system

b) flashing of water into steam when faucets are opened
c) venting off air released from water during heating
d) inadequate heating of the water
e) water stagnation

Sanitary Drainage Systems

010100020021000D
Drain traps serve which of the following purposes:
i) to seal the outlet fixture
ii) to prevent back flow of sewer gas
 iii) to deflect grease and oil for separate disposal

a) ii) only
b) i) only
c) both i) and iii)
d) both i) and ii)
e) i), ii) and iii)

010100020021000A
Which of the following has a trap as an integral part of the
fixture?

a) water closet
b) sink
c) storm drain
d) sewer
e) sump pump

010100020021000A
Sewer smells coming from a floor drain in a washroom can be a
problem if the floors of the washroom are not cleaned often.
Which of the following courses of action is the simplest way
to stop the smell from coming out of the drain?

a) Pour a pail of water in the drain.

b) Cover the drain opening.
c) Sanitize the washroom.
d) Flush the drain with caustic soda.
e) Improve the washroom's ventilation.

010100020021000C
Negative pressure in a drainage system may result in which of
the following problems?

a) clogging of drain pipes

b) scale of build-up in water closets
c) drawing out of sealing liquids in traps
d) forcing of sewer gases through traps
e) collection of sediment in drain traps

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements is true?

a) Branch line connections to the waste stack should be

connected at an angle of more than 45 degrees.
b) The stack vent prevents sewer gas from being vented
 through the roof.
c) The stack vent and loop vents allow equalization of
pressure in the system.
d) In multi-story buildings one stack is used for venting
and waste disposal.
e) Most buildings have several waste and soil stacks with
each stack providing drainage for all the sections of
the building.

010100020021000E
Corrugations in outside aluminum sheet metal conductors is
required

a) to increase flow speed of storm water.

b) to decrease potential for blockage.
c) to eliminate corrosion.
d) to allow water flow if there is scale build-up.
e) to permit expansion.

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about footing drains is
true?

a) Installed to prevent an accumulation of ground water

around the building foundations.
b) Used to reduce the hydrostatic pressure on the walls
below ground level.
c) Perforated or porous pipe is used to collect the water
near the footings
d) The collected water is drained to a remote area or into a
sump.
e) All of the above

010100020021000D
The blow off valve in a storage heater is used to

a) eliminate pressure build-up in the heater.

b) monitor unsafe temperatures.
c) release steam should the heater malfunction to avoid
flashing of steam in the fixtures.
d) remove sediment carried to the heater through the water
line.
e) shut off the flow of gas if the flame and pilot light are
extinguished.

010100020021000B
What is the correct sequence, from start to finish, needed to
replace a washer in a faucet?
i) Unscrew the packing nut and remove the spindle.
ii) If the valve seat is smooth and serviceable, replace
the spindle and tighten the packing nut.
iii) Remove the washer from the end of the spindle.
iv) Shut off the water at the nearest isolation valve.
v) Place the new washer on the end of the spindle.

a) i, ii, iii, iv, v

b) iv, i, iii, v, ii
c) v, iv, iii, ii, i
d) iv, i, v, ii
e) v, ii, i, iv, iii

010100020021000C
The pounding or banging of pipes and shuddering of fixtures
caused by a shock wave resulting from a sudden stop of water
flow in a pipe results in which of the following sounds?

a) chattering of faucets
b) whistling of faucets
c) water hammer
d) hissing in the pipes
e) creaking of the pipes

Thermodynamics of Refrigeration

010100020021000D
In the case of a simple ice box which of the following heat
transfers is correct?

a) Air loses latent heat, ice does not gain any heat.
b) Air loses sensible heat, ice does not gain any heat.
c) Air loses sensible heat, ice gains sensible heat.
d) Air loses sensible heat, ice gains latent heat.
e) Air loses latent heat, ice gains latent heat.

010100020021000E
Which of the following is an example of a loss of latent
heat?

i) water evaporating
ii) ice melting
iii) refrigerant evaporating
 iv) air cooling

a) iv only
b) iii only
c) i, iii, and iv
d) both i and iii
e) none of the above

010100020021000B
The function of the condenser is to

a) vaporize the liquid refrigerant

b) change high pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid
c) pressurize low pressure refrigerant vapour
d) vent off vaporized refrigerant
e) lower the liquid refrigerant pressure

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about low-side pressure and
temperature is false?

a) The evaporation temperature of the refrigerant should be

5 - 10 degrees C higher than that of the cooled medium.
b) For a given amount of heat transfer an oversized
evaporator can be operated at a higher temperature.
c) The low side pressure depends on the type of evaporation
used.
d) The evaporation temperature of the refrigerant will be
higher if the evaporator lowers the refrigerant pressure.
e) All of the above.

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about high-side pressure
and temperature is true?

a) The heat flow is from the cooling medium to the hot

refrigerant.
b) The condensing temperature of the vapour is 15 - 20
degrees C higher than the temperature of the medium
used in the condenser.
c) The condensation temperature of the refrigerant will be
lower if the pressure of the vapourized refrigerant is
lowered.
d) The condenser functions by taking latent heat from the
surrounding air and adding it as sensible heat to the
refrigerant.
e) None of the above

010100020021000C
The rate at which a system will remove heat from the
refrigerated medium is defined as

a) coefficient of performance
b) net refrigerating effect
c) refrigeration capacity
d) compression ratio
e) differential efficiency

010100020021000B
Refrigerant mediums will evaporate

a) when pressure is increased

b) when temperature is increased
c) when they are diluted
d) when temperature is decreased
e) when heat is removed

010100020021000C
One tonne of refrigeration is

a) 13958 kJ per day

b) 100 kJ per minute
c) 233 kJ per minute
d) 13958 J per hour
e) 335 J per second

010100020021000E
If a cooled medium had an evaporation temperature of 2
degrees C, the evaporation temperature of the liquid
refrigerant should be approximately

a) 2 degrees C
b) 6 - 8 degrees C
c) 1 degree C
d) 0 degrees C
e) -8 to -3 degrees C

010100020021000B
Which column in the refrigerant table lists the absolute
pressure in kPa?

a) Column 1
b) Column 2
c) Column 3
d) Column 4
e) None of the above

Refrigerants

010100020021000A
Which of the following characteristics is common in all of
the group B refrigerants?

a) High toxicity
b) High flammability
c) Average Flammability
d) Low Toxicity
e) Low flammability

010100020021000C
R-22 (Freon-22) is nontoxic and nonflammable. Which group
does it belong to?

a) Group A2
b) Group B4
c) Group A1
d) Group A3
e) Group B2

010100020021000B
What is the name of the refrigerant that has the following
characteristics? It is nonflammable, odourless, nontoxic, it
does not have a corrosive effect on metal if water is present
and at atmospheric pressure it has a boiling point of -40.6
degrees C.

a) Ammonia
b) Freon-22
c) Sulphur Dioxide
d) Butane
e) Propane

010100020021000D
The ideal commercial refrigerant should

a) have a low latent heat capacity

b) have a high boiling point
c) have high condensing pressure
d) be environmentally friendly
e) be the least costly

010100020021000D
Ammonia refrigerants

a) have high sensible heat capacity

b) mix well with oil
c) are very expensive
d) are well suited for industrial refrigeration
e) are ideally suited to copper piping systems

010100020021000E
The refrigerant R-11 belongs to the following group

a) group "A2"
b) group "B1"
c) group "A3
d) group "2B"
e) group "A1"

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of
heat?

a) entropy
b) enthalpy
c) density
d) volume
e) all of the above

010100020021000D
The property which has to be known for the calculation of the
size of control valve and piping etc, is

a) specific volume
b) enthalpy
c) refrigerating effect
d) density
e) boiling point

010100020021000A
The refrigerating effect of a refrigerant is
a) equal to its latent heat of vaporization
b) greater than its latent heat of vaporization
c) less than its latent heat of vaporization
d) equal to its specific heat capacity
e) equal to its specific volume

010100020021000B
The standard refrigeration cycle is used to compare refrigerants and
machines operating under comparable conditions. These standard
conditions are:

a) 1030 kPa and atmospheric pressure

b) 30 degrees Celsius condensing and -15 degrees Celsius evaporating
c) 30 kPa and atmospheric pressure
d) -30 degrees Celsius condensing and 15 degrees Celsius evaporating
e) 30 kPa and atmospheric temperature

010100020021000B
The latent heat of fusion of ice

a) is the sensible heat required to melt ice

b) is 335 kJ per 1 kg
c) is 335 kJ per 1 ton
d) is the latent heat required to evaporate ice
e) is 4.2 kJ per gram

010100020021000E
The ability of a refrigerant to be dissolved into oil and
vice versa is called

a) moisture reaction
b) enthalpy
c) density
d) leakage tendency
e) miscibility

010100020021000D
Which of the following is not a physical property of
refrigerants?

a) Toxicity
b) Odour
c) Leakage tendency
d) Density
e) Explosiveness
010100020021000C
Ammonia is the only commonly used refrigerant which has the
physical property of

a) miscibility
b) enthalpy
c) flammability
d) density
e) low condensing pressure

010100020021000B
Molecular mass is a dependent factor in which of the
following physical properties?

a) miscibility
b) leakage tendency
c) toxicity
d) flammability
e) explosiveness

010100020021000E
Freon 22 refrigerant

a) is not miscible with oil

b) is mostly used in packing plants
c) is corrosive on copper
d) is corrosive on aluminum
e) is a heat transferring medium

Compression Refrigeration Systems

010100020021000D
Which of the following are principal parts in a closed cycle
compression refrigeration system?
i) Absorber
ii) Evaporator
iii) Compressor
iv) Condenser

a) both i and ii
b) iii only
c) i, ii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv
e) i, ii, iii
010100020021000A
Raising the condensing point (saturation temperature) of the
refrigerant vapour above the temperature of the cooling
medium is the function of the

a) compressor
b) condenser
c) evaporator
d) absorber
e) refrigerant

010100020021000A
Which of the following is NOT a component of the low pressure
side of the system?

a) compressor discharge
b) evaporator
c) downstream side of the regulating valve
d) medium to be cooled
e) all of the above

010100020021000C
The temperature in the evaporator

a) depends on pressure in the receiver

b) will decrease when the compressor stops
c) depends on the pressure in the evaporator
d) depends on the ambient temperature
e) is controlled by the charging valve

010100020021000B
A purpose of a liquid refrigerant control or regulating valve
is

a) to drain the receiver

b) to regulate the refrigerant flow to the evaporator
c) to maintain a constant level in the receiver
d) to regulate the cooling water to condenser
e) to isolate the high side from the low side

010100020021000B
Refrigerant condensers

a) are always water cooled

b) cool the gas refrigerant discharged from the compressor
c) have a safety valve
d) remove sensible heat only from the refrigerant
e) are not required for freon type refrigerants

010100020021000D
For a direct expansion system which of the following
statements is true?

a) The evaporator in this system is never in direct contact

with the material or space being refrigerated.
b) For large systems calcium chloride brine is cooled by the
evaporator then pumped to the area being refrigerated.
c) Water cooled by the chiller evaporation coils is used to
refrigerate at temperatures below 0 degrees C.
d) The evaporator can be located in air circulating ducts
communicating with the material or space being refrigerated.
e) Water cooled by the chiller evaporation coils is used to
refrigerate at temperatures equal to 0 degrees C.

010100020021000E
The primary difference between direct and indirect
refrigeration systems is the

a) type of heat transfer medium

b) type of refrigerant
c) evaporator pressure
d) compressor location
e) evaporator location

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about a system that
circulates warm brine or water back to a chiller tank is
true?

a) The system is a direct refrigeration system.

b) The evaporator in the system is located in direct contact
with the material being refrigerated.
c) The brine or water is the refrigerant.
d) The evaporator cools the brine or water.
e) All of the above.

010100020021000B
The type of brine used for skating and hockey rink
refrigeration systems is usually

a) calcium sulphate
b) calcium chloride
c) calcium carbide
d) calcium nitrate
e) sodium chloride

010100020021000C
Refrigerant evaporators

a) always have the refrigerant on the shell side

b) are located between the expansion valve and the receiver
c) may have brine pumped past the coils in an indirect system
d) may be of the walk-in type
e) are usually oil cooled

010100020021000B
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a factory
assembled packaged refrigerant?

a) Components are designed to match each other.

b) Parts can be ordered and installed separately.
c) The unit is more compact.
d) Space requirements are minimized.
e) The unit is equipped with all the required auxiliary
equipment.

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about the economisers is
false?

a) It controls the flow of liquid refrigerant from the low

pressure evaporator to the high pressure condenser.
b) It is composed of two chambers.
c) The upper float chamber is connected to the bottom of the
condenser.
d) The economiser float chamber is connected via the motor
to the second stage inlet of the compressor.
e) Liquid refrigerant levels in each chamber are controlled
by a float operated valve in the evaporator.

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a result of an economiser on the
refrigeration system?

a) an intercooling effect on the compressor

b) reduction of the power required for compression in the
second stage compressor
c) reduction of flash vapour in the evaporator
d) increase in the refrigerating capacity of a system
e) all of the above

010100020021000B
In actual systems there will be a gradual pressure drop
through each side of the system due to

a) the economiser
b) friction in the evaporator, condenser, and piping
c) decomposition of refrigerants
d) coefficients of expansion of system components
e) superheating effects

Refrigeration Compressors

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a function of the compressor in
a refrigeration system?

a) draw low pressure refrigerant out of the evaporator

b) draw low temperature refrigerant out of the evaporator
c) lower the temperature of the refrigerant
d) maintain sufficiently low pressure in the evaporator
e) raise the pressure of the refrigerant

010100020021000E
Which of the following is the compressor responsible for
doing?

i) Maintains a high pressure in the condenser

ii) Maintains a low pressure in the evaporator
iii) Raises the pressure of the refrigerant

a) i only
b) both i and iii
c) both ii and iii
d) iii only
e) i, ii, and iii

010100020021000A
In a refrigeration system, the purpose of the compressor is to

a) establish two pressure levels

b) reject the heat from the system
c) absorb the heat into the system
d) regulate the flow of the refrigerant
e) heat the refrigerant

010100020021000A
Which of the following compressor types uses impellers to
draw in vapour?

a) Centrifugal compressors
b) Rotary compressors
c) Reciprocating Compressors
d) None of the above
e) All of the above

010100020021000D
One negative factor of Hermetic type reciprocating
compressors is

a) the compressor and motor are mounted within the same

housing
b) the motor is cooled by the low pressure, low temperature
vapour being drawn into the housing
c) it does not have or require shaft sealing
d) field servicing is not possible
e) the compressor is driven by an electric motor

010100020021000A
In a rotating vane design rotary compressor, a good seal is
maintained between the vanes and the cylinder by

a) centrifugal force
b) the oil
c) high pressure refrigerant vapour
d) low pressure suction
e) the eccentric rotor size

010100020021000B
For a Helical Rotor Design rotary compressor which of the
following statements is true?

a) The compressor consists of 3 opposing grooved rotors.

b) The driving rotor has less helical lobes than the driven
rotor has flute.
c) The vapour is drawn in via the closed space between the
driving rotor and the casing.
d) The cylinders around the rotor screws must be
 considerably larger in diameter than the screws.
e) All of the above

010100020021000C
Piston displacement is defined as

a) the distance along which the piston travels

b) the cylinder bore
c) the volume of refrigerant that can be circulated through
all the cylinders per unit time
d) piston stroke length
e) the revolutions per minute of the compressor motor

010100020021000B
Refrigerant compressors

a) must have inter-coolers

b) could be a centrifugal type
c) are of the positive displacement type only
d) are used with vapour absorption systems only
e) discharge directly into the evaporator

010100020021000A
Pistons and connecting rods are found in which of the
following types of compressors?

a) Reciprocating
b) Rotary
c) Centrifugal
d) Both Rotary and Centrifugal
e) Both reciprocating and centrifugal

0503000200210001.037 %.05;
Consider a single stage, single acting reciprocating compressor.
Calculate the piston displacement in cubic metres per minute, if
given the following:

piston stroke 12 cm
piston diameter 10 cm
piston speed 1100 working strokes per minute

Answer = ____________________ cubic metres per minute

010100020021000C
A typical stationary crankshaft seal consisting of a metallic
bellows soldered at one end to a ring (seal nose) which bears
either against a shoulder on the shaft or against a seal ring
on the shaft is called a

a) packing gland seal

b) diaphragm seal
c) bellows seal
d) rotating mechanical seal
e) setscrew seal

010100020021000E
In rotating mechanical seals the sealing ring is held in
position by

a) a nut, bolt, and washer

b) centrifugal force
c) oil suction
d) high pressure refrigerant vapour
e) a spring

Heat Exchangers for Refrigeration Systems

010100020021000B
The two types of evaporators, dry evaporators and flooded
evaporators differ principally in what respect?

a) the dry evaporator cannot cool liquids

b) method of refrigerant circulation
c) type of refrigerant used
d) size of the evaporator
e) field maintenance availability of the types

010100020021000A
An evaporator that contains only a small amount of liquid
refrigerant at any time is what type of evaporator?

a) Dry evaporator
b) Flooded evaporator
c) Wet evaporator
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

010100020021000E
Refrigerant evaporators

a) are only used in ammonia systems

b) are part of the high side of the system
c) are used to transfer oil
d) are only used with very high pressure refrigeration systems
e) are used to transfer heat

010100020021000D
The evaporator which increases heat exchange by crimping thin
metal plates to its form is which type of evaporator?

a) Plate surface
b) Bare tube
c) Shell and tube
d) Finned tube
e) none of the above

010100020021000C
An evaporator which can easily be cleaned and defrosted
manually without interrupting the cooling process is which
type of evaporator?

a) Bare finned
b) Finned
c) Plate surface
d) Shell and tube
e) None of the above

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about the shell and tube
evaporator type is false?

a) It is also known as a chiller.

b) This type of evaporator cools mainly liquids.
c) The refrigerant is circulating in the shell in the
flooded operation.
d) Refrigerant vapour is drawn out of the evaporator by the
compressor.
e) The liquid to be cooled circulates through the tubes in
the direct-expansion operation.

010100020021000A
Air-cooled condensers of large capacity are found mainly in
which of the following locations?

a) roof tops
b) closed rooms with low air circulation
c) warm dry rooms
d) cold rooms with low air circulation
e) any of the above

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about double tube
condensers is true?

a) It consists of two separate tubes side by side.

b) It cannot be used with air cooled condensers.
c) Water flow in the inner tube is in the opposite direction
of the flow of refrigerant.
d) It has the highest efficiency of the water-cooled
condensers.
e) It is a small condenser for a large capacity system.

010100020021000B
The condenser which is very expensive to clean and requires
the tubes to be cleaned with acid and neutralized is the

a) shell and tube condenser

b) shell and coil condenser
c) double tube condenser
d) evaporative condensers
e) baffle condensers

010100020021000C
The amount of water used in an evaporative condenser is only
a small percentage of that used in a water condenser of the
same capacity. This is due primarily to what?

a) Evaporating condensers also use air to cool the

refrigerant.
b) The evaporating condensers spray refrigerated water onto
condensing coil.
c) Water evaporating requires a large amount of latent heat.
d) Water being recirculated.
e) None of the above.

010100020021000A
The common types of water-cooled condensers used in
refrigeration systems are:

1. the shell and tube

2. the shell and coil
3. the double tube
4. the plate surface
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000E
Defective condenser operation is a result of the presence of
all of the following except

a) scale forming chemicals

b) dirty cooling water
c) noncondensible gases
d) low coolant circulation
e) compressor lubricating oil

010100020021000B
The purpose of a condenser in a refrigeration system is

a) to remove the sensible heat from the refrigerant

b) to remove the latent heat from the refrigerant
c) to cool the liquid refrigerant
d) to vaporize the liquid refrigerant
e) to reduce the pressure in the evaporator

Refrigeration Metering Devices & Capacity Controls

010100020021000A
The most widely used refrigerant control which consists of a
bellows or a diaphragm chamber connected to a temperature
sensing bulb by means of a small capillary tube is a/an

a) thermostatic expansion valve

b) automatic expansion valve
c) low pressure float valve
d) hand operated expansion valve
e) high pressure float valve

010100020021000E
Which of the statements about automatic expansion valves is
false?

a) The valve maintains constant pressure in the evaporator

during compressor operation regardless of the load.
b) When the compressor stops the valve automatically shuts
off.
c) A spring exerting a downward force on the diaphragm tends
to open the valve.
d) The spring force is countered by evaporator pressure
acting downward against the diaphragm which closes the valve.
e) The control may be used with multiple cooling coils
connected to the same compressor.

010100020021000C
Which control is used to maintain a constant level of liquid
refrigerant in a flooded evaporator in the liquid reserve
tank?

a) thermostatic expansion valve

b) automatic expansion valve
c) low pressure float valve
d) hand operated expansion valve
e) high pressure float valve

010100020021000D
The simple control which restricts the flow of liquid from
the condenser to the evaporator and maintains a pressure
difference between the two units by using a considerable
pressure drop resulting from resistance between the devices
length and small bore is called

a) a high pressure float valve

b) a low pressure float valve
c) a bypass line
d) a capillary tube
e) an external float chamber

010100020021000D
In a system controlled by a high pressure float valve
insufficient liquid will cause which of the following
results?

a) automatic system shut down

b) boosting the compressors pressure
c) liquid being carried over to the compressor with the
vapour
d) starving the evaporator and reducing the capacity of the
system
e) all of the above
010100020021000D
One method of controlling the capacity of reciprocating
compressors is to bypass the discharge from one or more
cylinders back to the suction side of the compressor. The
control is called

a) compressor unloading
b) dampering
c) suction throttling
d) cylinder bypass
e) sectional evaporating

010100020021000C
Sectional evaporators control the capacity of the evaporator
by which of the following means?

a) Varying the quantity of air being cooled passing over the

evaporator coils.
b) Intermittent operation of the compressor.
c) Divided multipart evaporators which have refrigerant
control valves which can be shut off independently as the
load decreases.
d) Switching gears in the compressor.
e) Decreasing suction in the compressor.

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about evaporator dampers is
true?

a) These dampers decrease the resistance to the passage of

air.
b) When the damper is closed the quantity of air passing
over the evaporator coils is at a maximum.
c) Depending on the damper position the quantity of air
passing through the duct varies widely.
d) Multispeed blowers cannot be used in combination with
evaporator dampers.
e) None of the above.

010100020021000A
The type of operation which stops the compressor when the
desired low temperature of the substance to be cooled is
reached and starts the compressor up again when the
temperature rises to a set level is called

a) intermittent operation
b) continuous operation with reduced output
c) cylinder bypass operation
d) unloading operation
e) variable guide operation

010100020021000C
The control which is replacing suction throttling and
operates by swirling the refrigerant in the same direction as
the compressor impeller, resulting in a reduction of power
required by the compressor is which of the following
controls?

a) Hot gas bypass

b) Cylinder bypass
c) Variable Inlet Guide Vanes
d) Damper control
e) Compressor unloader

Refrigeration Cycle Controls

010100020021000B
Starting, stopping or unloading of the compressor is usually
done by all of the following operating controls except

a) temperature actuated control

b) viscosity activated control
c) pressure activated control
d) humidity activated control
e) All of the above can control the starting, stopping or
unloading of the compressor.

010100020021000D
The operating control which uses a bimetal element is a

a) fluid expansion actuating control

b) pressure actuated control
c) humidity actuated control
d) temperature actuated control
e) solenoid actuated control

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about pressure stats is
false?

a) The control is connected to the suction line of the

 compressor.
b) The control consists of a switch actuated through a
linkage arrangement connected to a bellows or diaphragm.
c) A pressure-stat can be used in conjunction with an
automatic expansion valve.
d) When the pressure drops to the minimum allowable the
switch acts opposite to a thermostat and opens.
e) A pressure-stat cannot be used with a capillary tube.

010100020021000A
The operating control which consists of a hygroscopic element
made of material similar to multiple strands of human hair is
called a

a) humidistat
b) thermostat
c) fluid expansion regulator
d) pressure-stat
e) bimetal element

010100020021000E
Which of the following actuating control valves is
electromagnetically operated?

a) Thermostat valve
b) Fluid expansion regulator valve
c) Evaporator pressure regulating valve
d) Condenser cooling water regulating valve
e) Solenoid valve

010100020021000A
In many cases evaporator pressure must not be allowed to drop
below a certain level to prevent which of the following
results?

a) frosting of coils
b) evaporator valve lock
c) tubing implosion
d) overheating of the evaporator
e) overheating of the compressor

010100020021000E
Safety controls serve what function?

a) They stop operation if the temperature gets too high.

b) They stop operation when the pressure gets too high.
c) They stop operation when the pressure is too low.
d) They stop operation when the temperature is too low.
e) All of the above

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about flow switches is
false?

a) They are used on chilled water.

b) They are used as lockout switches when flow is
insufficient.
c) They are operated by the force exerted on a flexible vane
immersed in the liquid flowing in the line.
d) They can only be used to regulate liquid flow (i.e. not
air flow).
e) They can be used to close flow indicator circuits.

010100020021000C
The safety control which uses a current transformer with a
resistor in the motor circuit is known as

a) high motor temperature cutup

b) low oil sump temperature protection
c) motor overload protection
d) solenoid valve
e) high oil temperature cutout

010100020021000D
Oil pressure failure switches are used to perform which of
the following functions?

a) Keep oil from freezing at low pressure.

b) Prevent compressor startup if the oil heater fails.
c) Separate refrigerant dissolved in the oil from the
lubricant.
d) Shut down the compressor when the oil pressure drops
below the minimum.
e) Keep the oil pressure at a level where the oil will
not freeze.

Refrigeration Accessories

010100020021000D
A simple trap located in the suction line before the
compressor that collects liquid, where it evaporates and
returns to the compressor as a gas, is called

a) an oil separator
b) a strainer-drier
c) a distributor
d) an accumulator
e) a stop valve

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about strainers is false?

a) The strainer is installed in the suction line.

b) Piping must be disconnected to clean the strainer.
c) Hermetic type compressors are equipped with a built-in
suction strainer.
d) Strainers typically consist of a fine mesh screen basket.
e) Strainers prevent foreign particles from damaging
compressor valves.

010100020021000C
A chemical dot placed under the glass lens of a sight glass
which is exposed to the liquid serves what function?

a) To monitor liquid flow

b) To monitor refrigerant levels
c) To monitor the presence of moisture
d) To monitor the presence of foreign particles
e) To monitor the pressure levels

010100020021000A
The function of vibration absorbers is to

a) lower noise levels

b) reduce pipe hammer
c) increase longevity of the system
d) insulate piping and make the system more efficient
e) allow the load on the system to increase dramatically
without straining the components in the system

010100020021000B
Which of the following pipe joints should be used for high
pressure 1 1/4 inch or smaller piping?

a) welded
b) screwed
c) soldered
d) flared
e) none of the above

010100020021000E
Moisture in a system can result in which of the following?

a) formation of ice
b) acid formation
c) corrosion
d) deterioration of motor insulation
e) all of the above

010100020021000E
The accessory which maintains efficient heat transfer by
collecting oil that coats the tubes of the condenser is
called

a) a strainer
b) a strainer-drier
c) an oil scrubber
d) a filter
e) an oil separator

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about pressure gages is
true?

a) They indicate pressures and corresponding temperatures in

a system.
b) Dials on refrigeration pressure gages do not indicate
saturation temperature.
c) Only one pressure gage is required for each system.
d) The pressure gage will not work if the system is equipped
with pulsation dampeners.
e) None of the above.

010100020021000C
A direct expansion type evaporator that has more than 1
refrigerant circuit in it requires what to have even
refrigerant flow in each circuit?

a) A stop valve
b) A purge valve
c) A distributor
d) A purge valve
e) A thermal regulator
010100020021000D
Emergency discharge is used to counter which of the following
problems?

a) Dangerously low system pressures

b) Toxic refrigerant leaks
c) Combustion of flammable refrigerants
d) Dangerously high system pressures
e) All of the above

010100020021000B
The emergency discharge line in a refrigeration system

a) is located only on the condenser

b) should have a shut-off valve outside the building
c) is required on all sizes of refrigerating units
d) is located on the evaporator
e) is a vented sewer line

Compression Refrigeration System Prestart-up Procedures

010100020021000B
Higher than normal head pressure is undesirable for all of
the following reasons except

a) it increases power consumption

b) it decreases condenser capacity
c) it reduces compressor capacity
d) it overstresses compressor parts
e) it is detrimental to compressor lubrication

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about Manual Purging
Systems is false?

a) They must be operated on a regular schedule.

b) The receiver and condenser should be purged separately.
c) Purging rids the system of noncondensable gases.
d) Refrigerant vapour in the purger is always expelled with
the noncondensable gases.
e) Gas being vented into the atmosphere must pass through a
water beaker.

010100020021000E
The chilling coil in an automatic purger has a primary
function to

a) lower the operating temperature of the purger

b) keep the system cooling while being purged
c) increase the efficiency of the system
d) keep discharge through the coil at the lowest available
suction pressure
e) separate refrigerant vapour from the noncondensable gases
to be purged.

010100020021000C
When using lighted sulphur candles to test for ammonia leaks in a
refrigeration system, the presence of ammonia will be indicated by

a) a cloud of yellow smoke

b) light brown smoke
c) heavy white smoke
d) heavy black smoke
e) light red smoke

010100020021000D
Leak testing for tightness under pressure of a refrigeration system

a) is done by the manufacturer

b) is done with oxygen
c) is done with ammonia
d) is done with an inert gas
e) is done with softened water

010100020021000C
Leak testing on a refrigeration system

a) is done with a sulphur stick for freon refrigerant

b) is done with litmus paper for freon
c) is done with a sulphur candle for ammonia
d) must be done with the compressor running
e) is done with a vacuum on the system

010100020021000D
Which of the following is not a recommended step for the
procedure in which dry nitrogen is used for a system leak
test?

a) Remove controls and relief valves which may be damaged by

the test pressure.
b) Connect the nitrogen cylinder to the system charging
valve.
c) Close the liquid line shut-off valve.
d) Open the liquid line shut-off valve.
e) Set the pressure reducing valve for the minimum design
pressure of the high side.

010100020021000B
A sulphur candle is a test for

a) freon leaks
b) ammonia leaks
c) air leaks
d) vacuum seal
e) CFC leaks

010100020021000E
Before charging a system which of the following needs to be
done?

a) Interlocks need to be tested

b) Controls need to be set
c) Controls need to be set
d) Required valves need to be opened
e) All of the above

010100020021000A
The initial refrigerant charge is given where on the system?

a) The high side of the system

b) The low side of the system
c) The evaporator
d) The expansion valve
e) The heat exchanger

010100020021000C
Frost formation on the suction line indicates what?

a) Moisture in the system

b) "Copper-Plating" on the bearings and compressor exhaust
valve
c) Overcharging the system
d) Thermostat controlled solenoid deterioration
e) Inadequate levels of refrigerant in the system

010100020021000D
The liquid line shutoff valve is

a) used when purging the system

b) a regulating valve
c) used to relieve pressure
d) required to be closed when charging the system
e) on top of the receiver

010100020021000B
Charging a refrigeration system

a) is done with the expansion valve closed

b) is done by adding refrigerant between the liquid shutoff
valve and the expansion valve
c) is done with the compressor shut down
d) is done between the condenser and the receiver
e) is done between the suction valve and the compressor

010100020021000E
When charging a refrigeration system it

a) should be done to the condenser

b) should be done with the cooling water shut off
c) should be done to the receiver
d) should be done with the compressor off
e) should be done with the liquid line shutoff valve closed

010100020021000B
When initially charging a refrigeration system

a) it must be done with the liquid line shutoff valve open

b) it is done with a liquid refrigerant
c) it must be done after the unit is shut down
d) it must be done at the compressor suction
e) water should be added to dilute the refrigerant

010100020021000E
What can cause a high discharge pressure with refrigeration
systems?

a) low evaporator level

b) too much cooling water to the condenser
c) over-purging the unit
d) when unit runs continuously
e) unit over-charged with refrigerant
010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about adding oil to a
system is true?

a) Oil is added by charging it into the crankcase.

b) Because the crankcase is pressurized it is not possible
for air to get in the system when adding oil.
c) Oil cannot be added while the compressor is in operation.
d) The system must be recharged, purged and repressurized
after the oil has been added.
e) None of the above.

010100020021000C
It is very important to open oil drain valves and plugs in
the crankcase for which of the following reasons?

a) The oil is very hot.

b) The oil is very cold.
c) Residual pressure in the crankcase may blow refrigerant
vapour and oil out.
d) Old oil is contaminated with refrigerant and may be very
acidic.
e) Oil can never be drained below the critical minimum
level.

010100020021000B
Oil added to refrigeration compressors

a) is done when the compressor discharge valve is closed

b) is done with a vacuum on the crankcase
c) is done with the equalizing valve closed
d) is done with the charging line open
e) must be preheated

Compression Refrigeration System Operations

010100020021000D
Which of the following steps is not a step in the startup of
a reciprocating or rotary compressor refrigerating system?

a) Check oil level in the compressor, it should be at or

above the centre of the sight glass.
b) Check the setting of high and low pressure cutout
switches.
c) Open all shutoff valves in the system except bypass
 valves used elsewhere in the system.
d) Valves in lines connecting suction gages should be
closed.
e) Check oil level in the compressor; it should be below the
centre of the sight glass.

010100020021000A
To avoid liquid slugging in a direct expansion evaporator
after shutting down a reciprocating or rotary compressor
refrigerating system which of the following measures needs to
be taken?

a) Pump down the evaporator

b) Fill the compressor with liquid refrigerant
c) Fill the evaporator with refrigerant vapour
d) Open all the suction valves on the connecting condenser
line
e) Discharge all the condenser refrigerant into the
evaporator

010100020021000C
Which of the following steps is NOT part of the startup
procedure of centrifugal compressor refrigerating systems.

a) Check the refrigerant levels.

b) Open the stop valves in the chilled water system.
c) Open the main circuit breakers.
d) Open the makeup water valve.
e) Operate the oil pump for at least 10 minutes before
starting the compressor.

010100020021000B
A centrifugal compressor refrigerating system can be stopped
simply by pressing the stop button unless which of the
following circumstances is true?

a) The system is automatically controlled.

b) The system's auxiliary equipment is not electrically
interlocked.
c) The system's auxiliary equipment can be stopped
simultaneously.
d) The compressor can be shut down at the same time as the
other equipment.
e) None of the above.

010100020021000E
The safety control in a centrifugal compressor which ensures
the compressor to only be started under a no-load condition
is called

a) low oil pressure cutout switch

b) condenser high pressure cutout
c) chilled water flow switch
d) motor demand limiter
e) vane closed switch

010100020021000C
If a compressor fails to start but the motor is running,
which of the following could be a cause?

a) The control circuit is open

b) The compressor is seized
c) The coupling is sheared or broken
d) The motor is burned out
e) The starter is defective

010100020021000A
A system of regularly scheduled inspections and lubrications
along with the adjustments, minor parts replacement and minor
repairs necessary to keep the refrigerating plant and
equipment in good operating condition is defined as

a) preventative maintenance
b) safety controls
c) routing operation
d) regular maintenance
e) none of the above

010100020021000E
Checking the condition of electrical starters and contactors
is categorised under which of the following maintenance
schedules?

a) Daily maintenance
b) Weekly maintenance
c) Monthly maintenance
d) Semi-annual Maintenance
e) Annual maintenance

Absorption Refrigeration Systems

010100020021000D
In an Ammonia Absorption System what is used as the
absorbent?

a) Ammonia
b) Air
c) Lithium Bromide
d) Water
e) Freon

010100020021000B
Which of the following is not found on the low side of an
ammonia system?

a) Evaporator
b) Generator
c) Absorber
d) Cooling water
e) Low pressure ammonia vapour

010100020021000C
Ammonia systems are seldom used for air conditioning purposes
in large buildings mainly because

a) ammonia systems require too much maintenance

b) ammonia systems are too expensive
c) ammonia is too toxic
d) ammonia does not provide sufficient cooling power for
large operations
e) ammonia systems require a separate power supply not
available in most large buildings

010100020021000C
In comparing absorption and compression systems which of the
following comparisons is true?

a) Pumps in absorption systems require more electrical

power.
b) Absorption systems require less space than compression
systems.
c) Cooling water requirements are larger for an absorption
system than for a compression system.
d) More equipment and piping are required for a compression
system.
e) Slugs of liquid carried over from the evaporator do not
damage the compression system but can ruin an absorption
 system.

010100020021000D
In a Lithium Bromide System which of the following is the
refrigerant?

a) Lithium Bromide
b) Ammonia
c) Freon-22
d) Water
e) None of the above

010100020021000A
In order to lower the boiling point of the refrigerant it is
important that the system maintain

a) an extremely high vacuum

b) very high pressure
c) very low temperatures
d) very fast refrigerant flow
e) high absorbent circulation

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about Lithium bromide
systems is false?

a) Lithium bromide solution has the ability to absorb water

vapour readily.
b) The operating cycle in the system is continuous.
c) Evacuating the system lowers the boiling point of water.
d) As water vapour is absorbed by the Lithium Bromide the
vacuum decreases.
e) System efficiency is increased by forcing water through a
spray header.

010100020021000D
The absorber is equipped with a pump for which of the
following reasons?

a) To force water into a finely divided state

b) To keep the cycle pressure constant
c) To decrease the refrigerant evaporation point
d) To speed the absorption of water vapour
e) To decrease contact between absorbent and refrigerant

010100020021000B
What is the function of the concentrator (generator)?

a) To cool the refrigerant vapour

b) To increase the absorbency potential of used Lithium
Bromide
c) To speed up the evaporation of the refrigerant
d) To cool the concentrated absorbent
e) To exchange heat between the high temperature refrigerant
vapour and the atmosphere

010100020021000E
Most absorbency systems are put in place where there is cheap
excess or waste heat available. What is this heat primarily
used for?

a) To pressurize the system

b) To maintain the continuous vacuum
c) To decrease the evaporation point of the refrigerant
d) To run the pumps which force the water through the
sprayers
e) To evaporate the water out of the weak Lithium Bromide

Absorption Refrigeration System Operation & Maintenance

010100020021000C
This occurs when the temperature of a strong but still
unsaturated solution is lowered so far that its salt
concentration exceeds the maximum concentration possible at
the lower temperature.

a) Ionization
b) Dissociation
c) Crystallization
d) Vapourization
e) Neutralization

010100020021000A
When the temperature of a solution increases, which of the
following statements is true?

a) The vapour pressure is high

b) Less water molecules leave the solution
c) The solubility of the salt decreases
d) The concentration decreases
e) The equilibrium constant decreases

010100020021000D
The concentration of Lithium Bromide in an absorption
refrigerating system will change during which of the
following steps?

a) Going through the expansion valve

b) Going through the suction valve
c) Cooling through the heat exchanger
d) Absorbing water vapour in the absorber
e) None of the above

010100020021000E
Concentration of the Lithium Bromide can be most easily
controlled by which of the following means?

a) Controlling the volume of water sprayed into the

absorber.
b) Controlling the temperature in the cooling tower.
c) Controlling the amount of weak Lithium Bromide pumped
into the generator.
d) Controlling the pressure in the vacuum between the
evaporator and the absorber.
e) Controlling the temperature in the generator.

010100020021000C
Which of the following is NOT a result of having
noncondensable gases in the absorption systems?

a) Corrosion
b) Oxidation of Lithium Bromide
c) Lower than normal temperatures of the chilled water
leaving the evaporator
d) Reduction in capacity of the system
e) Crystallization in the heat exchanger

010100020021000E
Which of the following are elements of a mechanical purging
system?
i) purge pickup tube
ii) purge chamber
iii) manual shutoff valve
iv) safety solenoid valve
v) oil trap
 vi) vacuum pump

a) i and ii only
b) i, ii, and v only
c) iv and vi only
d) i, iii, and v only
e) all of the elements

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a step in the seasonal prestart
service?

a) clean all cooling and chilled water strainers

b) add water treatment chemicals
c) turn on energy sources
d) check the purge pump
e) check the magnetic strainers

010100020021000D
During seasonal startup, when should the purge pump be
started?

a) Simultaneously with the absorption unit

b) One half hour before the absorption unit is started
c) At least 24 hours after the compressor is started
d) About one half hour after the absorption unit is started
e) Only when noncondensables are detected in the system

010100020021000B
When shutting down the refrigeration system for a weekend or
less which of the following is a correct shutdown procedure?

a) Drain the cooling water circuit

b) Close the manual steam or hot water supply valve
c) Service the purge pump
d) Open all disconnect switches
e) Turn off the air supply to the pneumatic control system

010100020021000D
If there is a crystallization upon shutdown a possible
corrective action is to

a) add octyl alcohol charge

b) purge the system
c) adjust cooling tower control
d) check pump operation
e) reduce steam pressure

Psychrometric Properties of Air

010100020021000C
Air is approximately what composition by volume?

a) 79% N and 21% CO

2 2

b) 79% O and 21% N

2 2

c) 79% N and 21% O

2 2

d) 79% CO and 21% O

2 2

e) 79% H and 21% H O vapour

2 2

010100020021000B
Dalton's Law of partial pressure states that

a) for every pressure there is an equal and opposite

pressure
b) in a mixture of two or more gases each will exert a
partial pressure which is equal to the pressure that it
would exert if it filled that space alone
c) the pressure exerted by two or more gases on the walls of
the containing vessel is equal to a constant
d) the sum of the mass of air and water vapour in a vessel
is equal to the total pressure
e) water vapour must be included when calculating air
pressures

010100020021000A
Relative humidity is

a) the ratio of water vapour in the air compared to the

total amount water vapour the air could contain at a
given temperature
b) equal to the dry bulb temperature divided by the wet
bulb temperature
c) equal to the wet bulb temperature divided by the dry bulb
temperature
d) the ratio of the mass of water vapour divided by the mass
of dry air
e) the ratio of the mass of water vapour divided by the mass
of wet air

010100020021000E
The dewpoint is the

a) temperature at which dew forms on the grass

b) temperature at which water vapour will start to be
absorbed into the air
c) temperature at which water will start to evaporate
d) pressure below which water vapour will start to condense
out of the air
e) temperature below which water vapour will start to
condense out of the air

010100020021000D
The volume of standard air is

a) 0.533 kg/cubic metres of dry air

b) 0.633 kg/cubic metres of dry air
c) 0.733 kg/cubic metres of dry air
d) 0.833 kg/cubic metres of dry air
e) 0.933 kg/cubic metres of dry air

010100020021000C
The heat content of air is called the

a) temperature of the air

b) humidity of the air
c) enthalpy of the air
d) psychrometry of the air
e) entropy of the air

010100020021000D
Psychrometry is

a) the study of the behaviour of people

b) the study of the behaviour of air
c) the study of the behaviour of water vapour
d) the study of the behaviour of mixtures of air and water
vapour
e) the study of the behaviour of ideal gases
010100020021000C
The composition of pure dry air is generally taken to be

a) 23.2% oxygen and 76.8% nitrogen by volume

b) 21% oxygen and 79% nitrogen by weight
c) 23.2% oxygen and 76.8% nitrogen by weight
d) 24% oxygen and 76% nitrogen by volume
e) 21% oxygen and 79% carbon dioxide by volume

010100020021000B
Air conditioning involves

a) only the cooling of the air in a conditioned space

b) the control of the air temperature, the control of
humidity, air circulation, and the removal of
contaminants
c) only the control of air temperature
d) only the control of humidity and temperature
e) only air purification

010100020021000A
The term "relative humidity" applies to

a) the percentage of moisture in the air as compared to the amount

of moisture the air can hold at a specific temperature
b) the weight of the moisture in the air
c) the dryness fraction of the air
d) the amount of moisture in the air
e) the amount of humidity in the air

010100020021000D
A device for measuring relative humidity is called

a) a dew point tester

b) an R.H. gauge
c) an aspirating gauge
d) a psychrometer
e) a chronometer

010100020021000A
The difference between the wet and dry bulb readings is
called the

a) wet bulb depression

b) relative humidity
c) dewpoint
d) correction factor
e) dry bulb depression

010100020021000C
Which law describes the existence of moisture in the air in
vapour or evaporated state?

a) Newton's laws of gravity

b) 1st law of Thermodynamics
c) Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures
d) 2nd law of Thermodynamics
e) Boyle's Ideal Gas Law

010100020021000A
Absolute or specific humidity is

a) the actual mass of moisture present in a specific amount

of air
b) the maximum mass of moisture that a specific amount of
air can hold
c) the ratio of the mass of moisture contained in a specific
amount of air to the maximum amount of moisture this
specific amount of air can contain
d) the mass of moistrue present in a specific amount of air
at that absolute temperature
e) a specific amount of air saturated with moisture

010100020021000B
Relative humidity is

a) the actual mass of moisture present in a specific amount

of air
b) the ratio of the mass of moisture contained in a specific
amount of air to the maximum amount of moisture this
specific amount of air can contain
c) the maximum mass of moisture that a specific amount of
air can contain
d) the ratio of the mass of air contained in a specific
amount of moisture to the maximum amount of air this
specific amount of moisture can contain
e) a specific amount of air saturated with moisture

010100020021000E
Dewpoint can be best defined as
a) the absolute temperature at which air, upon heating, will
evaporate moisture
b) the absolute temperature at which air, upon cooling, will
vaporize moisture
c) the temperature that air will begin to evaporate moisture
d) the atmospheric pressure at which air will condense
moisture
e) the temperature at which air, upon cooling, becomes
saturated and will begin to condense out water vapour
below this temperature

010100020021000D
Dry-bulb temperature is

a) the absolute temperature corresponding to the atmospheric

pressure
b) the dewpoint temperature
c) not required to find the relative humidity
d) the temperature of the air measured with an ordinary
thermometer
e) the same as the wet-bulb temperature if the relative
humidity is less than 100%

010100020021000A
Wet-bulb temperature is

a) the temperature indicated by a thermometer having its

bulb covered by a water-wetted wick or cloth and the wet
bulb is exposed to a rapidly moving stream of air
b) the same as the dry-bulb temperature if the relative
humidity is less than 100%
c) the dewpoint temperature
d) always less than the dry bulb temperature
e) not required to find the relative humidity

010100020021000D
What is wet-bulb depression?

a) lowering of the thermometer bulb into water

b) sum of the wet-bulb temperature and the dry-bulb
temperature
c) decrease in relative humidity
d) difference between the dry-bulb temperature and the
wet-bulb temperature
e) decrease in the absolute humidity
010100020021000E
Psychrometers are

a) instruments used to determine the purity of air

b) meters used to measure air speed
c) meters used to measure the density of air
d) instruments used to measure atmospheric pressure
e) instruments used to determine the relative humidity of
air

010100020021000B
Which of the following instruments use a battery-operated fan
to draw air over the thermometer bulbs?

a) hydrometer
b) aspirating psychrometer
c) sling psychrometer
d) dry psychrometer
e) potentiometer

010100020021000C
The specific volume of air is

a) the volume of 1 kg of air at atmospheric pressure

expressed in cubic centimetres
b) the volume of 1 gram of air at atmospheric pressure
expressed in cubic metres
c) the volume of 1 kg of air at atmospheric pressure
expressed in cubic metres
d) the volume of 1 kg of air at any pressure
e) the volume of 1 gram of air occupied at any temperature
and pressure

010100020021000D
Standard air is

a) the volume of 1 kg of air at 15 degrees Celsius and 100

kpa
b) the mass of 1 cubic metre of air at atmospheric
conditions
c) the volume of 1 kg of air at ambient temperature and
atmospheric pressure
d) the volume occupied by 1 kg of dry air at 21 degrees
Celsius and atmospheric pressure at sea level or 101.325
kpa
e) the mass of 1 cubic metre of dry air at 20 degrees
 Celsius and atmospheric pressure

010100020021000A
Enthalpy of air depends on

a) the pressure, temperature, and relative humidity of the

air
b) the relative humidity of the air only
c) the pressure and temperature of the air only
d) the air velocity
e) the temperature of the air only

010100020021000A
To find various properties of air

a) a psychrometric chart is used

b) a Ringleman chart is used
c) a Mollier chart is used
d) a dewpoint chart is used
e) an enthalpy chart is used

010100020021000D
In the SI (metric) system the enthalpy of air is measured in

a) degrees C
b) %
c) BTU's/kg of dry air
d) kJ/kg of dry air
e) kW/kg of dry air

010100020021000E
The dry-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychrometric
chart

a) along the left vertical axis

b) along the right vertical axis
c) along the saturation line and slope downward to the right
d) along the top horizontal axis
e) along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart

010100020021000C
The wet-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychrometric
chart

a) along the right vertical axis

b) along the left vertical axis
c) along the saturation line and slope downward to the right
d) along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart
e) along the top horizontal axis

010100020021000B
The dewpoint temperature scale is read on a psychrometric
chart

a) along the top horizontal scale

b) along the saturation line, same scale as wet-bulb
temperature, but is plotted along horizontal lines
c) along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart
d) along the right vertical axis
e) along the left vertical axis

010100020021000A
Relative humidity is plotted on a psychrometric chart

a) on lines curved upwards from the lower left to the right

side of the chart
b) along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart
c) on vertical lines and read along the horizontal scale at
bottom of the chart
d) on horizontal lines and read along the left side scale
e) along the saturation line and plotted along horizontal
lines

010100020021000C
Specific humidity is

a) the ratio of the actual amount of water vapour present in

the air to the amount of water vapour the air can contain
when it is saturated
b) the same as specific volume of humid air
c) the actual moisture content of air expressed as kg of
moisture per kg of dry air
d) the ratio of dry air to moisture
e) the moisture content of air of 100% relative humidity

010100020021000B
Specific humidity scale on a psychrometric chart is

a) along the horizontal axis at the bottom of the chart

b) along the vertical axis of the chart and right side of
chart
c) along the horizontal axis at the top of the chart
d) along the left saturation line
e) along the vertical axis of the chart and left side of
chart

010100020021000D
Specific volume on a psychrometric chart

a) is plotted on vertical lines and read on the horizontal

scale at bottom of the chart
b) is plotted on horizontal lines and read on the vertical
scale at left side of the chart
c) is plotted on horizontal lines and read on the vertical
scale at right side of the chart
d) has its lines originate on the volume scale along the
horizontal axis and they slope steeply upwards to the
left of the chart
e) is plotted on vertical lines and read on the horizontal
scale at the top of the chart

010100020021000A
Enthalpy values are found on a psychrometric chart by

a) plotting a line through the required point on the chart

parallel to the lines of the two enthalpy scales, one on
the left side and the other on the right side of chart
b) plotting a horizontal line from one of the enthalpy
scales
c) plotting a vertical line from one of the enthalpy scales
d) simply reading values on one of the enthalpy scales
e) plotting a line from one of the enthalpy scales

Application of the Psychrometric Chart and Comfort Condition

010100020021000B
Which of the following properties cannot be found on the
psychrometric chart?

a) dewpoint temperature
b) partial pressure
c) specific humidity
d) enthalpy
e) relative humidity

010100020021000C
The intersection between the line running vertically from the
point on the dry-bulb scale and the downward diagonally
running line from the wet-bulb scale is defined as

a) the Dewpoint temperature

b) the partial pressure
c) the reference point
d) the specific volume
e) the relative humidity

010100020021000E
During sensible heating which of the following results is
true?

a) dry-bulb temperature lowers

b) wet-bulb temperature remains constant
c) relative humidity increases
d) enthalpy remains constant
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about cooling and
dehumidification is false?

a) Air washers are used to dehumidify air.

b) When air leaves the washer it will be close to 100%
relative humidity.
c) The spray water carries off the latent heat of
condensation of the water vapour in the air.
d) Dry bulb temperatures are increased.
e) Dewpoint temperatures are lowered.

010100020021000B
Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity
if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees Celsius and the
wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees Celsius.

a) 50%
b) 58%
c) 52%
d) 68%
e) 62%

010100020021000C
Using the psychrometric chart, find the dewpoint temperature
if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.

a) 20 degrees C
b) 14 degrees C
c) 11.5 degrees C
d) 10 degrees C
e) 16 degrees C

010100020021000D
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.

a) 0.009 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air

b) 0.008 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
c) 0.010 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
d) 0.0085 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
e) 0.0085 kg of dry air per kg of water vapour

010100020021000E
Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the
dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.

a) 40 kJ/kg
b) 45 kJ/kg
c) 55 kJ/kg
d) 50.5 kJ/kg
e) 42 kJ/kg

010100020021000B
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume if
the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.

a) 0.859 cubic metres / kg

b) 0.842 cubic metres / kg
c) 0.90 cubic metres / kg
d) 0.80 cubic metres / kg
e) 0.87 cubic metres / kg

010100020021000C
Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 25 degrees C.
a) 50%
b) 90%
c) 100%
d) 95%
e) 60%

010100020021000A
Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 62%
b) 70%
c) 52%
d) 72%
e) 75%

010100020021000A
Using the psychrometric chart, find the dewpoint temperature
if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 17.5 degrees C
b) 14 degrees C
c) 20 degrees C
d) 16 degrees C
e) 19 degrees C

010100020021000C
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 0.12 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air

b) 0.012 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
c) 0.0125 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
d) 0.013 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
e) 0.0115 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air

010100020021000B
Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the
dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 55 kJ/kg
b) 57 kJ/kg
c) 60 kJ/kg
d) 50 kJ/kg
e) 65 kJ/kg

010100020021000E
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume, if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 0.84 cubic metres / kg

b) 0.852 kg / cubic metres
c) 0.85 cubic metres / kg
d) 0.90 cubic metres / kg
e) 0.862 cubic metres / kg

010100020021000A
During sensible heating the dry-bulb temperature and the
wet-bulb temperature are raised, and

a) the dewpoint remains unchanged

b) the specific humidity is increased
c) the specific humidity is decreased
d) the dewpoint temperature increases
e) the dewpoint temperature decreases

010100020021000E
During sensible heating, only

a) the relative humidity remains unchanged

b) the relative humidity increases
c) the dewpoint temperature increases
d) the specific volume increases
e) the relative humidity decreases

010100020021000D
During sensible cooling

a) relative humidity decreases

b) enthalpy increases
c) wet-bulb temperature increases
d) relative humidity increases
e) dewpoint temperature increases

010100020021000A
If 5.0 cubic metres/second of air enters a heating coil at 20
degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and leaves the
heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the mass of
air flowing?

a) 5.94 kg/sec
b) 6.84 kg/sec
c) 5.0 kg/sec
d) 6.2 kg/sec
e) 5.4 kg/sec

010100020021000C
If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil
at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and
leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the
volume of air leaving the coil?

a) 5.94 cubic metres per second

b) 5.0 cubic metres per second
c) 5.17 cubic metres per second
d) 4.2 cubic metres per second
e) 5.72 cubic metres per second

010100020021000E
If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil
at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and
leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the
change in enthalpy?

a) 52 kJ/kg
b) 42 kJ/kg
c) 15 kJ/kg
d) 20 kJ/kg
e) 10 kJ/kg

010100020021000B
If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil
at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and
leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the
heating capacity of the coil?

a) 52 kW
b) 59.4 kW
c) 42 kW
d) 65.2 kW
e) 51.7 kW

010100020021000C
Evaporative cooling is

a) heating and humidification of the air

b) heating and dehumidification of the air
c) cooling and humidification of the air
d) cooling and dehumidification of the air
e) cooling of the air only

010100020021000C
The comfort of human beings is affected by the atmospheric
conditions surrounding them. Which of the following is not
an atmospheric condition which affects comfort?

a) Temperature
b) Relative humidity
c) Saturation temperature
d) Air movement
e) Air cleanliness

010100020021000A
The body needs considerable time to adjust when moving from
one space to another when temperature and humidity conditions
vary widely. This may be described as

a) shock effect
b) comfort zone
c) comfort condition
d) effective temperature
e) air/motion effect

010100020021000E
The comfort of human beings is affected by

a) temperature
b) relative humidity
c) air cleanliness
d) air movement
e) all of the above

010100020021000C
Shock Effect is

a) a constant dry-bulb temperature of 25 degrees C

b) a constant effective temperature of 15 degrees C
c) the discomfort felt when a person moves from a much hotter
space to a much cooler space or vice versa
d) more apparent in the winter
e) a constant wet-bulb temperature of 20 degrees C

010100020021000B
Air used for ventilating purposes in an office building should be
kept within certain range of relative humidity as indicated below.

a) 30 to 50
b) 30 to 70
c) 40 to 50
d) 50 to 60
e) 10 to 30

010100020021000E
An increased air flow increases heat loss of the body by
which of the following methods:
i) convection
ii) conduction
iii) evaporation

a) only
b) ii only
c) i and iii
d) i and iii
e) i, ii, and iii

010100020021000C
An average effective temperature chart can be applicable
under the following conditions except when

a) customary indoor clothing is worn

b) the heating method is warm air
c) activity is high or heavy muscular work is being done
d) the heating method is steam
e) the heating method is hot water

010100020021000B
A measure of comfort which involves the combined effects of
the dry-bulb temperature, relative humidity and air movement
is defined as

a) comfort zone
b) effective temperature
c) comfort condition
d) shock effect
e) psychrometric climate
010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about effective temperature
is true?

a) It can be easily determined by using a thermometer.

b) Relative humidity does not affect the relative
temperature.
c) For each combination air velocity remains constant.
d) The test involved people all dressed in different amounts
of clothing for each combination.
e) Charts with metric units cannot be used for making
adjustments in SI units.

010100020021000E
The relative humidity should be maintained between

a) 50% and 80% during the winter

b) 20% and 60% during the winter
c) 40% and 75% during the summer
d) 25% and 60% during the summer
e) 30% and 70% during the summer and the winter

010100020021000E
Effective temperature is defined as a measure of comfort
which involves

a) the effects of relative humidity

b) the effects of air movement
c) the effects of dry-bulb temperature
d) the effects of wet-bulb temperature
e) all of the above

010100020021000D
During the winter, the majority of people feel comfortable
when the effective temperature is between

a) 15 and 19 degrees C
b) 20.5 and 24 degrees C
c) 19 and 24 degrees C
d) 17.2 and 21.7 degrees C
e) 16 and 19.5 degrees C

010100020021000E
During the summer, the majority of people feel comfortable
when the effective temperature is between
a) 17.2 and 21.7 degrees C
b) 16 and 19.5 degrees C
c) 15 and 19 degrees C
d) 21 and 25 degrees C
e) 19 and 24 degrees C

Fans for Air Distribution Systems

010100020021000B
The group of fans which consist of a rotor or wheel having
several radial blades, which is mounted on a shaft within the
fan housings is

a) Axial flow
b) Centrifugal
c) Both Axial flow and Centrifugal
d) Archial flow
e) None of the above

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a centrifugal fan?

a) backward inclined fan wheel

b) forward curved fan wheel
c) the propeller fan
d) radial blade fan
e) backward inclined airfoil blade fan

010100020021000D
Two fan wheels are rotating at the same speed. One wheel has
forward curved blades and the other has backward inclined
blades. The velocity of the air leaving the forward curved
blades is considerably higher for which of the following
reasons?

a) The centrifugal force of the forward curved blades is

higher.
b) The forward motion of the forward curved blades is
higher.
c) The air resistance of the backward curved blades is much
lower.
d) The inclination of the blades in the forward curved fan
increases the resultant force vector while the backward
curved blade inclination decreases the resultant vector.
e) All of the above.

010100020021000E
When comparing the tube axial fan with the vane axial fan the
main difference between the two is the

a) noise output
b) location of the fans in the system
c) location of the fan bearings
d) size of the two units
e) motion of the discharge air

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about fan performance
curves is false?

a) They are plotted from theoretical calculations.

b) The curve is a plot of static pressure against air volume
delivery.
c) The curve is a plot of horse power against air volume
delivery.
d) The curve is a plot of static efficiency against air
volume delivery.
e) The curve range is from shutoff to free delivery.

010100020021000C
When a fan outlet is considered fully open which of the
following statements is true?

a) Air volume delivery is considered a minimum.

b) The pressure volume curve of a backward inclined fan
increases.
c) There is free air volume delivery.
d) The power requirements for a forward curved fan are at a
minimum.
e) Vane axial fans have maximum horsepower requirements.

010100020021000A
Which of the following devices has a de-clutching feature?

a) A fluid drive
b) An outlet damper control
c) A variable inlet vane control
d) A variable speed motor control
e) A V-belt drive
010100020021000E
The two general groups of fans are

a) rotary positive displacement and centrifugal

b) reciprocating and centrifugal
c) reciprocating and axial flow
d) positive displacement and axial flow
e) centrifugal and axial flow

010100020021000E
Centrifugal fans are classified as

a) backward inclined
b) straight
c) backward inclined with airfoil blades
d) forward curved
e) all of the above

010100020021000D
Axial flow fans are classified as

a) centrifugal and propeller

b) vane axial and centrifugal
c) tube axial and rotary positive displacement
d) vane axial, tube axial, and propeller
e) centrifugal and turbine

010100020021000A
Forward curved centrifugal fans

a) operate at a lower speed than backward inclined fans for

the same air volume
b) operate at a higher speed than backward inclined fans for
the same air volume
c) require less horsepower than backward inclined fans to
deliver a specified air volume
d) are more efficient than backward inclined fans
e) are quieter than backward inclined fans

010100020021000B
Backward inclined centrifugal fans

a) are noisier than forward curved fans

b) are quieter than forward curved fans
c) are less efficient than forward curved fans
d) operate at lower speeds than forward curved fans
e) require more horsepower than the forward curved fans to
deliver a specified volume of air

010100020021000D
The vane axial flow fan

a) has a more spiral air flow than the tube axial fan
b) has more turbulent air flow than the tube axial fan
c) has lower efficiency than the tube axial fan
d) has a less spiral air flow, less friction, and better
efficiency than the tube axial fan
e) is not suitable for duct mounting

010100020021000A
The fan which discharges maximum air delivery at the lowest
power requirement and is used mainly to produce large air
movements at low pressures is

a) the propeller fan

b) the tube axial fan
c) the backward inclined blade fan
d) the radial blade fan
e) the forward curved blade fan

010100020021000B
The devices which are used to minimize vibration problems and
premature wearing of the belts are called

a) direct drives
b) V-belt drives
c) belt guards
d) fluid drives
e) outlet damper controls

010100020021000D
Control of the static pressure and horsepower requirements at
a given speed is obtained by using

a) direct drives
b) fluid drives
c) outlet damper control
d) variable inlet vane control
e) belt guards

010100020021000C
Backward inclined airfoil fans
a) are mostly used for low capacity, high pressure
applications
b) are mostly used for high capacity, low pressure
applications
c) are mostly used for high capacity, high pressure
applications
d) have a lower initial cost than the plain backward
inclined fan
e) are less efficient than the plain backward inclined fan

010100020021000B
Forward curved fans

a) require larger size shafts than backward inclined fans

b) are desirable when air handling units have two or more
fans mounted on a common shaft
c) operate at higher speeds than backward inclined fans
d) are quieter than backward inclined fans
e) are more desirable for large fans

010100020021000D
The propeller axial flow fan is used

a) for low capacity, high pressure applications

b) for low capacity, low pressure applications
c) for high capacity, high pressure applications
d) for high capacity, low pressure applications
e) in ducted air distribution systems

010100020021000E
The propeller axial flow fan

a) is the least economical fan used to produce high

capacity, low pressure air movements
b) is used in ducted air distribution systems
c) is used in commercial air conditioning ducting
d) requires the least power at minimum air delivery
e) finds application in unit heaters, air-cooled condensers,
and as an exhaust fan for ventilation purposes

010100020021000A
The tube axial flow fan

a) has higher friction losses in ducts than the straight air

flow of a centrifugal fan
b) has lower friction losses in ducts than the centrifugal
fan
c) is quiet in operation
d) produces lower pressure than the propeller fan
e) is not suitable for duct mounting

010100020021000B
Axial flow fans

a) have maximum horsepower requirements at maximum or free

air delivery
b) have minimum horsepower at maximum or free air delivery
c) are quieter than centrifugal fans
d) are the least economical fans used to produce high
capacity, low pressure air movements
e) are not the logical choice to move large volumes of air
at low pressures

010100020021000C
What are the three different kinds of pressure developed by a
fan?

a) static pressure, head pressure, suction pressure

b) velocity pressure, head pressure, suction pressure
c) static pressure, velocity pressure, total pressure
d) head pressure, suction pressure, total pressure
e) static pressure, head pressure, total pressure

010100020021000A
Static pressure exerted by air is measured by connecting

a) a manometer at right angles to the air duct

b) a bourdon tube pressure gage to the air duct
c) a pressure gage with the opening facing air flow
d) a manometer with the opening facing the air flow
e) a manometer to the fan

010100020021000B
Velocity pressure exerted by the air is measured by
connecting a

a) manometer at right angles to the air duct

b) manometer with the opening facing the air flow in the air
duct
c) manometer to the fan
d) bourdon tube pressure gage to the air duct
e) pressure gage at right angles to the air duct

010100020021000D
Total pressure exerted by the air is the sum of

a) suction pressure and velocity pressure

b) head pressure and suction pressure
c) head pressure and velocity pressure
d) static pressure and velocity pressure
e) head pressure, suction pressure, and velocity pressure

Air Conditioning Duct Systems

010100020021000C
A ventilation V system leading from a fume hood in a
chemistry lab would have which duct material used for its
ductwork?

a) Galvanized steel sheet metal

b) Aluminum sheet metal
c) Cement asbestos
d) Black steel sheet metal
e) Fiberglas

010100020021000A
Ducts of large dimensions must be diagonally creased to

a) provide stiffness
b) allow gradual duct size change
c) decrease duct weight
d) increase air velocity
e) decrease air friction in the duct work

010100020021000B
Short radius elbows should be provided with

a) stiffeners
b) turning vanes
c) mitre elbows
d) positive lock dampers
e) flexible connections

010100020021000D
The main function of an air conditioning duct system is
a) to only transmit return air from the space to be
conditioned
b) to only transmit supply air from the air handling
apparatus
c) to only transmit air to the refrigeration compressor
d) to transmit supply and return air between the air
handling apparatus and the space to be conditioned
e) to transmit air from the refrigeration compressor to the
condenser

010100020021000B
Classifications of air conditioning ducts include

a) low pressure and medium pressure

b) low pressure, medium pressure, and high pressure
c) medium pressure and high pressure
d) absorption and compression
e) heating and cooling

010100020021000E
Medium and high pressure duct systems require less space than
low pressure duct systems, but this feature is partly offset
by

a) higher operating cost and higher initial cost of air

handling apparatus
b) costly special control devices and costly noise
suppressing devices
c) higher first cost for special equipment required to
reduce the air velocity before distribution to the air space
d) more costly fabrication and installation of ductwork
e) all of the above

010100020021000E
Fibreglass ducts are used

a) in high pressure systems

b) to handle air with high moisture levels or oil and grease
c) where its heavy weight is not a problem
d) where high strength is required
e) in some low pressure systems

010100020021000D
Materials used in sheet metal ducts are

a) only copper
b) only aluminum
c) only stainless steel
d) galvanized or black steel, aluminum, copper, and
stainless steel
e) only galvanized or black steel

010100020021000E
Ducts are fabricated of

a) sheet metal
b) cement asbestos
c) plastic
d) fibreglass
e) all of the above

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about duct leakage losses
is true?

a) The effects of air leakage in supply air ducts are the

same as those in return ducts.
b) Air leakage varies from 40% to 45%.
c) Leakage inspection can only be done after the duct is
covered in insulation.
d) Losses from bare supply air ducts within the conditioned
space have a substantial impact on loss calculations.
e) Losses due to air leakage from furred supply air ducts
within the conditioned space can only be evaluated on the
basis of judgement.

010100020021000C
Seepage in return air ducts turned within the conditioned
space may have what kind of effect?

a) It will add to the amount of air needed to supply the

cooled space.
b) It will ruin the duct's insulation.
c) It will increase the load on the air system in terms of
volumes of air.
d) It will increase the load on the air system in terms of
pressure.
e) It will create a loss of cooling effect.

010100020021000A
When all supply air duct is outside the conditioned space
there is a certain leakage. This leakage must be calculated
how?

a) It must be added to the calculated room sensible heat

load.
b) It need not be considered in loss calculation.
c) It must be subtracted from the return air duct leakage.
d) It must be added to the return air duct leakage.
e) It must be added to the calculated room specific latent
humidity load.

010100020021000D
Semi-rigid fibrous glass blankets attached to the insides
of the ducts are in place to mainly

a) restrict spread of smoke

b) insulate
c) act as fire retardants
d) attenuate airborne noises
e) stop leakage in the seams of the duct work

010100020021000C
Supply air duct leakage loss calculations include

a) 20% leakage loss when all the supply air duct is outside
the conditioned space
b) losses from bare supply air ducts within the conditioned
space
c) 10% leakage loss when all the supply air duct is outside
the conditioned space
d) 5% leakage loss when all the supply air duct is outside
the conditioned space
e) 10% leakage loss when some of the supply air duct is
outside the conditioned space and some inside

010100020021000A
Return air duct leakage calculations include

a) 3% seepage if the return air duct is outside the

conditioned space
b) 3% seepage if the return air duct is both inside and
outside the conditioned space
c) 10% leakage if the return air duct is inside the
conditioned space
d) 3% leakage if the return air duct is inside the
conditioned space
e) 5% seepage if the return air duct is outside the
 conditioned space

010100020021000B
Duct liners

a) eliminate corrosion
b) reduce the noise level of air flowing in the duct system
c) reduce fire hazard
d) increase erosion to the duct
e) increase the pressure

010100020021000B
A mixing box is an example of which kind of damper?

a) A manual damper
b) A modulating damper
c) A two-position damper
d) A relief damper
e) A louver

010100020021000D
The function of a check valve is similar to the function of
which type of damper?

a) A manual damper
b) A modulating damper
c) A two-position damper
d) A relief damper
e) A louver

010100020021000A
The purpose of dampers in an air handling system is

a) to control the flow of air

b) to regulate refrigeration compressor speed
c) to control the flow of water in a hot water heating
system
d) to regulate the fire in heating boilers
e) to control the flow of water in a water cooling system

010100020021000C
Dampers in air handling systems

a) may only be manual and modulating

b) may only be modulating
c) may be modulating, manual, or two position
d) may only be manual and two position
e) may only be two position

010100020021000E
Modulating dampers in air handling systems are used

a) as mixing boxes to proportion the amounts of two

different air flows such as outdoor air and recirculated
air
b) to modulate the volume of conditioned air needed to meet
load requirements
c) as face dampers to modulate the volume of air that goes
through a cooling or heating coil
d) as bypass dampers to throttle the balance of the constant
total air flow around a heating or cooling coil
e) all of the above

010100020021000B
Relief dampers

a) allow air flow in both directions

b) allow air flow in one direction only
c) allow air mixing
d) are the same as bypass dampers
e) are the same as face dampers

010100020021000C
Damper designs include

a) only parallel blade types

b) only single blade types
c) opposed blade, parallel blade, and single blade types
d) only opposed blade types
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
Parallel blade dampers

a) are used only in small sizes with low velocity air

b) are used when modulation of air flow is required
c) have blades linked so adjacent blades rotate in opposite
directions
d) are often used on mixing boxes where two sets of dampers
are mounted with blades direct
e) are not suited for two position damper operation
010100020021000D
Air louvers

a) are often used for mixing boxes

b) are always used for fire and smoke dampers
c) are suited for two position damper operation
d) are used in fresh air intake openings to minimize the
amount of water and snow entering the air handling system
e) are used as relief dampers

010100020021000E
Which of the following is NOT a function of terminal air
distribution devices?

a) Distribute the air to the spaces

b) Provide uniform space temperatures
c) Control or counteract the effects of conduction,
convection, and radiation
d) Provide adequate air motion
e) Create local still pockets of air

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a function of terminal air
distribution devices?

a) provide uniform space temperatures

b) provide adequate air motion to prevent local still
pockets of air without excess drafts
c) maintain comfortable conditions mainly along the ceiling
and outside walls within the occupied zone
d) distribute the air to the spaces
e) control or counteract the effects of conduction,
radiation, and convection

010100020021000C
Functions of terminal air distribution devices are
accomplished

a) only by diffusion
b) only by diffusion and aspiration
c) by aspiration, entrainment, induction, and diffusion
d) only by entrainment and diffusion
e) only by entrainment and aspiration
Coil Types

010100020021000C
Which type of coil circuiting is designed to produce a high
heat capacity with a limited water quantity?

a) Single serpentine
b) Double serpentine
c) Half serpentine
d) Face velocity
e) Steam coil

010100020021000A
Air venting is required for which of the following reasons?

a) To assure adequate water distribution in supply and

return lines
b) To assure adequate air distribution in supply lines
c) To assure adequate air distribution in return lines
d) To maintain face velocity
e) All of the above

010100020021000E
Steam Coils must be designed to:
i) constantly eliminate air
ii) constantly eliminate condensate
iii) constantly eliminate noncondensable gases
iv) constantly maintain face velocity
v) constantly eliminate air venting

In order to provide uniform steam distribution to the

individual tubes, which of the above design parameters
is/are true?

a) ii, iii, and v

b) iii only
c) ii and iv
d) i, iii, iv, and v
e) i, ii, and iii

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about steam distributing
coils is true?

a) The coils never freeze

b) The coils distribute steam evenly over the entire coil
c) The coils are used when steam cannot be throttled
d) The coils cannot be used where freezing air temperatures
are frequently encountered over the coil
e) The coils can only have same end connections

010100020021000A
To obtain full rated capacity of water coils what should be
done?

a) Connect the water supply for counterflow

b) Connect the water supply for parallel flow
c) Decrease the number of fins per unit length of coil
d) Connect the coils with a staggered tube design
e) Increase face velocity

010100020021000B
Fin spacing of 6.35 to 1.814 mm is most normally used in
which of the following cases?

a) Direct expansion coils for low temperature applications

b) Steam and hot water heating coils
c) Chilled water cooling coils
d) Cooling refrigerant coils
e) Refrigerant condenser coils

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about water coils is false?

a) Coils should be hooked up in a counterflow arrangement.

b) Coils need to be able to vent air.
c) Adequate air velocity over the finned surface must be
maintained.
d) Circuiting should minimize the performance of the water
flow versus the pressure drop through the coil.
e) The bottom connection should always be the water inlet.

010100020021000D
A factor limiting the number of fins that can be used on
coils is

a) the diameter of the tube

b) the temperature of the fluid in the tube
c) the material that the tube is made of
d) the resistance to airflow
e) the direction the fluid is flowing in the tube
010100020021000E
Proper performance of heating and cooling water coils depends
on

a) adequate air velocity over the finned surface

b) counterflow arrangement of air and water
c) air venting from the system and the coil
d) tube circuiting and finning
e) all of the above

010100020021000C
With counterflow arrangement of air and water

a) the water supply connection is on the same side as the

entering air
b) it decreases the heat transfer efficiency
c) the water supply connection is on the same side as the
leaving air
d) the water return connection is on the same side as the
leaving air
e) the heat transfer efficiency is the same as with
parallel arrangement of air and water

010100020021000A
The most commonly used types of water coil circuiting are

a) single serpentine, double serpentine, and half serpentine

b) full circuit, double circuit, and triple circuit
c) single serpentine, double serpentine, and triple
serpentine
d) parallel and serpentine
e) parallel, counterflow, and serpentine

010100020021000D
Single serpentine water coil circuiting is used

a) where the water velocity in the tubes is less than

0.3 m/s
b) where the water velocity in the tubes is more than
2.4 m/s
c) for any water velocity in the tubes
d) where the water velocity in the tubes is between 0.3 and
2.4 m/s
e) in applications requiring high water velocities and low
water pressure drops
010100020021000B
Double serpentine water coil circuiting is used

a) where the water velocity in the tubes is less than

0.3 m/s
b) where the water velocity in the tubes is more than
2.4 m/s
c) for any water velocity in the tubes
d) where the water velocity in the tubes is between 0.3 and
2.4 m/s
e) in applications requiring low water velocities and low
water pressure drops

010100020021000E
Half serpentine water coil circuiting is used

a) in applications requiring high water velocities and low

water pressure drops
b) where the water velocity in the tubes is more than
2.4 m/s
c) where the water velocity in the tubes is between 0.3 and
2.4 m/s
d) for any water velocity in the tubes
e) where the water velocity in the tubes is less than
0.3 m/s

010100020021000B
To assure proper air venting, the

a) return water connection should be at the bottom of the

coil
b) supply water connection should be at the bottom of the
coil
c) supply water connection should be at the top of the coil
d) vent should be located at the lowest points of the
supply and return lines, and of the coils
e) double serpentine water coil circuit should be used

010100020021000E
Which one of the following methods is not a method of
ensuring uniform steam distribution in steam coils?

a) installation of distributing plates within the steam

header
b) "steam distributing" coils
c) installation of individual orifices into the supply end
 of each tube
d) once called "non-freeze coils"
e) controlling the face velocity of the air flowing over
coils

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about coil surfaces is
false?

a) Air flows across the fins

b) Finned coils are more compact than smooth tube coils of
the same capacity
c) Fins increase the contact surface area between the
airstream and the tubes
d) All fins must be crimped
e) Finned coils are less expensive than smooth coils of the
same capacity

010100020021000C
To ensure effective heat transfer which of the following is
the most vital element?

a) The fin must be crimped

b) Highly conductive material used in fins
c) A good bond must exist between the tube and fin
d) High fin spacing
e) Low fin spacing

010100020021000D
Which of the following is a limiting factor for the number of
fins that can be used?

a) Temperature of steam in coils

b) Temperature of chilled water in the coils
c) Fin material
d) Resistance to airflow
e) Face velocity

010100020021000C
Finned tube coils in air handling systems are often called

a) fish coils
b) bare tube coils
c) extended surface coils
d) cooling coils
e) heating coils
010100020021000B
Fin surface area is called

a) primary surface area

b) secondary surface area
c) tube surface area
d) heater surface area
e) none of the above

010100020021000A
Two types of modern coils used for heating and cooling
services in air handling systems are

a) the continuous-plate finned surface and the spiral-finned

surface
b) the bare tube and the spiral-finned surface
c) the continuous-plate finned surface and the bare tube
d) the bare tube and the insulated tube
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
Flat-finned surface type coils are normally used for

a) steam heating purposes

b) water heating purposes
c) high temperature application
d) low temperature application where ice may form
e) greater turbulence of air at the fin surface

010100020021000C
Rippled-finned surface type coils

a) are often used for low temperature application where ice

may form
b) decrease the heat transfer efficiency
c) increase the heat transfer efficiency by creating more
turbulence at fin surfaces
d) have no effect on heat transfer efficiency
e) are not used in air handling systems

010100020021000D
Face velocity is the

a) velocity of the supply water to the coil

b) velocity of the air before it enters the coil
c) velocity of the air after it leaves the coil
d) average velocity of the air flowing over the face area of
the fin surface
e) velocity of the return water from the coil

Coil Operation

010100020021000C
To prevent freezing of downstream equipment in a coil
handling a large amount of outdoor air, which of the
following is required?

a) A long coil length

b) A vacuum breaker
c) A preheat coil
d) An oversized coil
e) Two-position damper motor

010100020021000A
It is good practice to select steam coils which require at
least 40% of coil capacity when air temperature is 1 degree C
for which of the following reasons?

a) Steam flow is high enough at high temperature and

prevents build-up and freezing of condensate
b) The load on the circulating fan is kept from overheating
c) The mixing valve will never cut out if capacity stays
above 40%
d) To avoid hot condensate splashing
e) None of the above

010100020021000D
Steam coils with a short tube length of 1.1 m or less

a) are more likely to freeze, even if the steam trap is

properly chosen
b) are not recommended because they are more likely to
freeze
c) are more likely to freeze, even if the coil is properly
piped and sloped
d) are less likely to freeze if the steam trap is properly
chosen and the coil is properly piped
e) are less likely to freeze regardless of steam trap choice
and coil piping
010100020021000B
Steam coils with long tube lengths

a) have the greatest freezing problems at extremely low

temperatures such as -35 degrees C
b) have the greatest freezing problems at temperatures of
about -2 to -1 degrees C
c) have freezing problems at any temperature
d) are not likely to freeze at any temperature
e) are less likely to freeze than steam coils with short
tube lengths

010100020021000A
Freezing problems in steam coils with long tube lengths,
handling a large amount of low temperature outside air

a) are minimized by using preheat coils controlled by an

outdoor temperature controller
b) are minimized by using modulating control valves to
control the steam heating coil output
c) are best minimized by using a two-position control valve
to control coil output
d) are minimized by using an oversized coil
e) are minimized by using an oversized control valve

010100020021000E
To prevent freezing of the steam coil when steam pressure at
the coil inlet is too low or is lost

a) a second preheat coil is installed at the outside air

inlet
b) a modulating steam control valve is installed at the coil
inlet
c) a two-position steam control valve is installed at the
coil inlet
d) the fan output is increased
e) provisions are made to stop the fan and close the outdoor
air dampers

010100020021000B
It is good design practice to select a steam coil size

a) so that 100% of the coil capacity is needed when the air

temperature entering the coil is -1 degrees C
b) so that at least 40% of the coil capacity is needed when
the air temperature entering the coil is -1 degree C
c) so that at least 80% of the coil capacity is needed when
the air temperature at the coil inlet is -1 degree C
d) so that at least 10% of the coil capacity is needed when
the air temperature at the coil inlet is -5 degrees C
e) so that it is twice the size that is required to handle
the heating load

010100020021000D
The purpose of a vacuum breaker used with steam coils is to

a) ensure positive air pressure in the conditioned space

b) ensure negative air pressure in the conditioned space
c) prevent excessive temperatures within the steam coil
d) prevent possible freezing caused by a vacuum or negative
pressure in the steam coil
e) ensure proper operation of the steam control valve

010100020021000B
In a hot water coil which of the following is not included
for providing a good guideline for the correct application of
the system with minimal possibility of freeze-up?

a) Positive air venting of the coil is essential

b) The air velocity should exceed 10 m/s
c) A constant flow of water should be fed to the coil
d) The water velocity should exceed 0.8 m/s
e) The water temperature should be maintained at a
reasonable preset temperature

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a cause of freezing in hot
water coils?

a) failure of the circulating pump

b) very low circulating water velocity
c) very high circulating water velocity
d) failure of the heat source
e) poor air venting of the coil

010100020021000A
The purpose of the "freeze-stat" temperature controller used
with hot water coils is to

a) close the outside air dampers and stop the fan if the
heat source fails or the low limit temperature controller
malfunctions
b) increase the hot water flow through the coil if outside
air temperature is too low
c) increase the heat source temperature if the outside air
temperature decreases
d) open the outside air dampers wide when the outside air
temperature rises
e) increase the fan output if the return air temperature is
too low

010100020021000D
The purpose of the flow switch or sail switch used with hot
water coils is to

a) stop the fan and close the outside air dampers if the low
limit temperature controller malfunctions or the heat
source fails
b) open the outside air dampers wide when the outside air
temperature rises
c) increase the heat source temperature if the outside air
temperature decreases
d) close the outside air dampers and stop the fan if the
flow of water is interrupted due to pump failure or
closing of the hand valves
e) increase the hot water flow through the coil if the
outside air temperature is too low

010100020021000B
The flow arrangement best suited for hot water coils is

a) the counterflow arrangement because it is more efficient

b) the parallel flow arrangement because it gives better
protection against freezing
c) one in which the cold air enters the coil where the
coldest water is flowing
d) the half serpentine
e) the triple bypass flow arrangement

010100020021000E
The use of ethylene glycol solution will result in which of
the following:
i) Lower heat transfer rate
ii) Better protection against freezing
iii) Increased friction losses in the coil and piping
iv) The requirement of a larger pump with more horsepower

a) i and iv
b) i and iii
c) i and iv
d) iii only
e) i, ii, iii, and iv

010100020021000D
For a glycol system using hot water as its heat source which
of the following statements is false?

a) Valve V-3 will be opened to feed a constant flow of hot

water to the converter.
b) Hot water temperature should not exceed 100 degrees C.
c) Temperature controller TC-1 opens V-3 when the
temperature outside drops to 10 degrees C.
d) Flow Switch FS automatically starts the glycol pump
automatically after V-3 is opened.
e) Provide flanges or unions and manual shutoff valves to
facilitate coil removal.

010100020021000E
Ethylene glycol used in glycol coils

a) has a higher heat transfer efficiency than hot water

b) has less friction losses in the coil and piping than hot
water
c) requires a smaller pump and less horsepower than hot
water
d) has much lower pressure drops through the coil and piping
e) has a lower heat transfer efficiency than hot water

010100020021000B
Glycol coils using ethylene glycol

a) give reasonable heat transfer efficiency at low glycol

velocity
b) are not recommended for use in heating and air
conditioning systems in the food industry
c) use direct fired boilers as their heat source
d) do not use steam-glycol converters as their heat source
e) are used only for heating purposes and are not used for
cooling purposes

010100020021000D
A thermostat which is sometimes installed in the return air
duct serves which main function?
a) To limit temperature of the heated outside air
b) To control the throttle of the steam in the tubes
c) To sense the temperature of the steam in the coils
d) To minimize temperature fluctuations in discharge air
e) To heat recirculated air

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about vacuum breakers is
false?

a) They are used to prevent freeze-ups caused by negative

pressure in the coil.
b) The vacuum breaker must be installed before the control
valve and as near as possible to the outlet connection
of the coil.
c) Check valves used as vacuum breakers may be left open to
the atmosphere.
d) Check valves used as vacuum breakers may be connected to
the return header.
e) Vacuum breakers are essential for satisfactory
functioning of the steam trap.

010100020021000E
The greatest fears in hot water coil installations handling
subfreezing air are:
i) pipe expansivity
ii) outside air temperature being too low
iii) failure of the circulating pipe
iv) water viscosity being too high
v) failure of the heat source

a) i, ii, and iv
b) i, ii, and iii
c) iii only
d) i, iv, and v
e) iii and v

010100020021000B
Which of the following is not an installation recommendation
for steam traps?

a) Base steam trap selection or the pressure difference

across the trap and a minimum capacity corresponding to
three times the coil condensate rate.
b) Locate the steam trap so that its outlet is at least 30
cm (12 in) above the coil return connection.
c) Trap each coil separately.
d) Install a strainer near the inlet of each trap.
e) Drip the steam supply main through a steam trap into the
return condensate main.

010100020021000C
Steam coil piping and trapping

a) is the same as for hot water and glycol coils

b) only handles steam and non-condensable gases
c) differs from the hot water and glycol coil because it
carries more fluids: steam, air, water, and
non-condensable gases
d) are installed in the horizontal position whenever
possible
e) can be supported directly by the coils

010100020021000A
Steam coils

a) should be installed with tubes in a vertical position to

ensure positive condensate drainage
b) when installed in the horizontal position, do not have to
be pitched toward the return
c) are installed exactly the same as are glycol coils
d) do not require a vacuum breaker
e) do not require air venting

010100020021000C
Which of the following steam traps are preferred for use with
steam coils operating at low and medium steam pressure?

a) inverted bucket
b) dynamic
c) F & T trap (float and thermostatic)
d) thermostatic only
e) none of the above

010100020021000A
The inverted bucket steam trap is

a) used when the coil steam pressure is higher than 172 kpa
or 25 psig
b) used when the flow is modulated
c) used when the coil steam pressure is lower than 172 kpa
or 25 psig
d) recommended when condensate flows by gravity into a
return main at atmospheric pressure
e) more expensive than the F & T trap

010100020021000D
A modulating control valve

a) can be oversized
b) is used for steam coils where the condensate is lifted to
an overhead return
c) is used for steam coils when the entering air temperature
is below 1.5 degrees C
d) can be used to control steam coils when the entering air
temperature is above 1.5 degrees C
e) is not used to control steam coils at any air inlet
temperature

010100020021000C
Air vents are

a) not required when an inverted bucket steam trap is used

b) not required on the steam mains if an inverted bucket
steam trap is used at the steam coil
c) not required at the steam coil if a float and
thermostatic (F & T) trap is used at the steam coil with
an atmospheric return and the steam main is adequately
vented
d) not required anywhere if a float and thermostatic (F & T)
trap is used at the steam coil
e) required only with hot water coils

Humidification

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a result of very low humidity?

a) Throat and nose membranes drying up

b) Static electricity build-up
c) Evaporation of moisture on the skin decreases
d) At sufficiently high room temperatures people still feel
cool
e) Wood furniture and floor squeaks and cracks

010100020021000D
If air at 13 degrees C can hold a maximum of 0.0032 kg of
moisture per kilogram of air, what is the relative humidity
if the air contains 0.0015 kg of moisture per 1 kg of air?

a) 100%
b) 2.13%
c) 0.4%
d) 47%
e) 32%

010100020021000A
The outside temperature 18 - 25 degrees C is saturated (Air
at -25 degrees C holds a maximum of 0.0005 kg of moisture/kg
of water). This air is drawn into the building and heated to
21 degrees C (air at 21 degrees C holds a maximum of 0.015 kg
of moisture/kg of water). What is the relative humidity of
the air inside?

a) 3.3%
b) 0.015%
c) 0.5%
d) 10.6%
e) 4.5%

010100020021000D
Humidity in the air

a) increases when the air temperature decreases

b) increases when the air pressure decreases
c) decreases when the air pressure increases
d) decreases when the air temperature decreases
e) remains constant with air temperature changes

010100020021000A
Relative humidity is the amount of

a) moisture contained in the air compared to the maximum

amount of moisture the air is capable of holding at the
stated temperature
b) moisture contained in the air compared to the maximum
amount of moisture the air is capable of holding, air
temperature being irrelevant
c) air contained in the air-moisture mixture compared to the
maximum amount of air the air-mixture moisture is capable
of holding at the stated temperature
d) air compared to the amount of moisture in the air at any
temperature
e) moisture contained in the air at 0 degrees C

010100020021000B
The purpose of humidification is to

a) add humidity to the air during the cooling season

b) add humidity to the air during the heating season
c) remove moisture from the air during the heating season
d) remove moisture from the air during the cooling season
e) add moisture to the air during the cooling season

010100020021000C
Relative humidity

a) increases when the air temperature is raised without the

addition of moisture to the air
b) remains the same when the air temperature is raised
c) decreases when the air temperature is raised without the
addition of moisture to the air
d) remains the same when the air temperature is lowered
e) decreases when the air temperature is lowered without the
addition of moisture to the air

010100020021000E
Humidification in residences equipped with ducted warm air
heating systems

a) is not necessary because the humidity does not change

with heating
b) requires separate humidifiers for each heated area
c) is accomplished by installing a second heating system,
such as hot water
d) is supplied sufficiently by normal living processes such
as cooking, washing, and breathing
e) is provided for by placing a single humidifier in the
furnace plenum or in the warm air duct

010100020021000D
The residential humidifier which is commonly used in the
supply plenum of smaller warm air furnaces and consists of a
shallow tray partially filled with water is called a

a) bypass humidifier
b) welted element humidifier
c) steam grid humidifier
d) pan type humidifier
e) power type humidifier

010100020021000C
Which type of humidifier breaks water up into a mist or fog?

a) A bypass humidifier
b) A welted element humidifier
c) An atomizing humidifier
d) An air washing humidifier
e) A steam grid humidifier

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about Air washers is false?

a) Air washers can cool air.

b) Air washers can remove tobacco smoke.
c) Air washers can dehumidify air.
d) Air washers can heat air.
e) Air washers can clean air.

010100020021000D
To keep humidifiers in top condition the plates of plate type
units should be cleaned by soaking them in a slightly acidic
solution and then washing them in soapy water to

a) remove dirt
b) remove grease
c) remove soot
d) remove mineral salts
e) remove corrosion on the plate

010100020021000C
Dehumidification occurs in an Air washer when which of the
following occurs?

a) If the level in the bottom tank drops lower than the

minimum level
b) If water temperature is heated above the dry bulb
temperature
c) If spray water is cooled to a temperature below the dew
point
d) Heating of the spray water
e) None of the above

010100020021000E
It is not recommended to use an on-off switch for steam grid
humidifiers because

a) fogging would occur

b) overheating would occur
c) misting would occur
d) wide fluctuations in relative humidity would occur
e) all of the above

010100020021000D
Humidifying units which use a small fan to draw warmer air
from the furnace plenum or from the room, force the air
through the wetted pad, and return the air to the room, are
called

a) pan type humidifiers with plates

b) atomizing humidifiers
c) bypass type humidifiers
d) power type wetted element humidifiers
e) industrial pan type steam grid humidifiers

010100020021000D
The types of humidifiers used for residential purposes are

a) air washers, wetted element, and atomizing

b) pan, atomizing, and air washers
c) pan, hot water, and air washers
d) atomizing, wetted element, and pan
e) pan, steam, and atomizing

010100020021000C
Pan type humidifiers with plates

a) consist of rotating plates in a pan partially filled with

water
b) are placed in individual rooms to humidify the individual
rooms
c) consist of a shallow pan, partially filled with water in
which absorbent plates are placed and the pan is
installed in the supply plenum of smaller warm air furnaces
d) consist of plates in a pan through which water is sprayed
by a spinning disc or cone
e) can be a power type or a bypass type

010100020021000B
Wetted element humidifiers
a) are the same as pan type humidifiers
b) can be either the power type or the bypass type
c) have stationary plates placed in a tray and placed in
individual rooms
d) have a lower humidification rate than the pan type
humidifiers
e) are the same as the atomizing humidifiers

010100020021000A
Atomizing humidifiers

a) break up the water for humidification into small

particles by either a spinning disc or spray nozzle and
are placed either in the warm air supply duct or in the
area to be humidified
b) spray water through plates to atomize the water
c) spray water through rotating pads to atomize the water
d) can be either the power type or the bypass type
e) have a lower humidification rate than the pan type
humidifiers

010100020021000E
A disadvantage of the atomizing humidifier is

a) it has a lower humidification rate than the pan type

humidifier
b) its evaporation plates clog up due to the salt left
behind after evaporation
c) it can be used only as an individual area or room
humidifier
d) its evaporation plates have to be replaced regularly
e) the salts that were in the water before atomization and
evaporation settle as white dust in rooms and ducts

010100020021000D
Air washers used in air conditioning systems

a) only clean the air

b) only clean and cool the air
c) only humidify and dehumidify the air
d) humidify, heat, cool, dehumidify, and clean the air
e) only humidify, cool, and clean the air

010100020021000C
Air washers used in air conditioning systems achieve heating
and humidification by
a) cooling the spray water to a temperature below the dew
point of the entering air
b) cooling the spray water to a temperature below the dry
bulb temperature
c) heating the spray water to a temperature above the dry
bulb temperature of the entering air
d) heating the entering air above its dry bulb temperature
e) cooling the entering air below its dry bulb temperature

010100020021000B
Air washers used in air conditioning systems achieve cooling
and dehumidification by

a) heating the spray water to a temperature above the dry

bulb temperature of the entering air
b) cooling the spray water to a temperature below the dew
point temperature of the entering air
c) cooling the entering air below its dry bulb temperature
d) heating the entering air above its dry bulb temperature
e) heating the spray water to a temperature above the dew
point temperature of the entering air

010100020021000A
Which is not a method employed to maintain the desired
temperature of the spray water in air washers used in air
conditioning systems?

a) an electric heater and fan

b) part of the spray water is recirculated and hot or cold
water is added as required
c) the spray water if recirculated through a heat exchanger
and is cooled by chilled water
d) the spray water is recirculated through a heat exchanger
and is heated by hot water
e) a heating or cooling coil is directly mounted in the sump
of the washer

010100020021000C
Steam grid humidifiers used in air conditioning systems
achieve humidification by

a) the installation of a steam coil in the entering air

stream
b) the installation of a water coil in the entering air
stream
c) injecting steam in the supply air stream
d) injecting steam into the spray water of an air washer
e) injecting steam directly into the rooms to be humidified

Air Conditioning Systems I

010100020021000C
The category of air conditioning which is responsible for
getting outside air into the building to replenish the oxygen
supply for the occupants is

a) heating
b) cooling
c) ventilation
d) humidification
e) air circulation

010100020021000D
To offset the heat gain through the building's exterior shell
from solar radiation, the atmosphere surrounding the
building, and from internal sources of heat, what is required?

a) a humidifier
b) a heat source
c) ventilation
d) a cooling source
e) a dehumidifier

010100020021000E
A small residence located in a tropical climate may require
which of the following elements of an air conditioning
system:
i) heating
ii) cooling
iii) humidification
iv) dehumidification
v) ventilation

a) i and ii
b) i, iii, and v
c) ii and iii
d) iv and v
e) ii, iv, and v

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about air handling units is
true?

a) In any system the air is mainly conditioned in the units

b) The units can only heat air
c) The units only circulate
d) For each function there needs to be a separate air
handling unit
e) None of the above

010100020021000B
The intake section arrangement which draws in room air,
conditions it, and then returns it into the room is called

a) fixed percentage outdoor air circulation

b) full recirculation
c) 100% outdoor air circulation
d) mixed air circulation
e) blended circulation

010100020021000C
The unitary air conditioning system which uses a direct
expansion refrigeration system to provide cooling and
dehumidification in a local area without ductwork is called

a) a unit ventilator
b) a rooftop unit
c) a window air conditioner
d) a high velocity terminal reheat system
e) a multizone system

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about the unit ventilators
is false?

a) The units are used in areas with limited available floor

space
b) The units provide individual room temperature control
c) The units provide cooling only
d) The units provide heating
e) Room air is mixed with outside air

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about central air
conditioning systems is false?
a) Central systems are used in large buildings.
b) All the major equipment in central systems is located in
a central mechanical room in the building.
c) Air is conditioned in the main mechanical room and
distributed by duct work.
d) The central system is able to utilize large central
equipment with high efficiency and low initial cost.
e) Unitary systems are able to control noise and vibration
better than central systems.

010100020021000A
The most common system installed in most residences where the
furnace is located in the basement and provides conditioned
air via ducts to each room is called

a) a forced air system

b) a single zone, constant air volume system
c) a low velocity terminal reheat system
d) a multizone system
e) a unit ventilator

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about multizone systems is
true?

a) The cooling coils are installed in-line

b) The dampers are out of phase by 10 degrees
c) When the hot deck is fully opened the cold deck is fully
closed
d) The system cannot operate a humidifier
e) All of the above

Air Conditioning Systems II

010100020021000D
Supplementary units located in each zone provide

a) ventilation
b) humidity control
c) air circulation
d) heating
e) filtering

010100020021000C
In a constant air volume system with perimeter heating which
of the following elements are fluids in the air handling
unit?
i) Heating coils
ii) Cooling coils
iii) An air mixing section
iv) Filters
v) A humidifier
vi) A dehumidifier

a) i, ii, iii, and iv

b) i, ii, v, and vi
c) ii, iii, iv, and v
d) i, iii, and v
e) iii only

010100020021000D
A system used extensively in hotels and motels due to its
minimal space requirement, relatively low initial cost, and
high degree of individual zone control is called

a) a hydronic heat pump system

b) an induction system
c) a variable volume system with perimeter heating
d) a fan coil unit with make up air system
e) a compartmental atomizing system

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about fan coil units makeup
air systems is false?

a) The units include a disposable filter, fan, and

heating/cooling coil.
b) Ventilation is provided by a 100% outside air system.
c) The air handling unit includes filters, heating coil,
cooling coil, humidifier, and supply fan.
d) Fan coil units are installed in each room.
e) Humidity is controlled by the fan coil units.

010100020021000A
An induction system gets its name from which property of the
system?

a) The way air in the room is circulated

b) The type of units in each zone
c) The type of air handling unit
d) The air used in the central element of the system
e) The volume of air conditioned

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about two-pipe arrangements
is false?

a) The arrangement is the least costly.

b) Piping is connected to the boiler during winter.
c) Piping is connected to the chiller during summer.
d) The arrangement is made up of a supply and return
connection to a single coil.
e) The system can heat and cool at the same time.

010100020021000B
A system which provides cooling and heating all year round is
highly energy efficient but has a high initial cost. The
system consists of two separate supply and return piping
systems which are connected to separate coils. Which of the
following systems fits this description?

a) A single pipe system

b) A four pipe system
c) A hydronic heat pump system
d) A three pipe system
e) A two pipe system

010100020021000B
The funds available for the air conditioning portion of the
building refers to which factor of system selection?

a) Building function
b) Capital cost
c) Building layout
d) Operating costs
e) Maintenance requirements

010100020021000A
If operating personnel from an old building are going to be
transferred to the new building the system installed in the
new building will be the same as in the older building
because all the personnel are familiar with that system.
This type of system selection is based mainly on which of the
following factors?

a) Building owner's considerations

b) Geographical location
c) Building layout
d) Operating costs
e) Maintenance requirements

010100020021000B
When looking at building function to select a system which of
the following factors are considered?
i) Physical size of the building
ii) Climatic conditions
iii) Amount of zoning required
iv) Funds available for the system
v) Occupancy periods
vi) Need to operate certain areas off-hours

a) i, ii, and vi
b) iii, v, and vi
c) i, iii, iv, v, and vi
d) ii, v, and iv
e) i, iii, iv, and vi

Air Conditioning Heat Recovery Systems

010100020021000B
The recovery system which employs a single exchange unit
consisting of a casing split into two sections and a
segmented rotating wheel 300 mm (12 in) thick and 1 to 3.7 m
(3 to 12 ft) in diameter is called a

a) runaround system
b) thermal wheel
c) heat pipe
d) heat valve
e) heat pump

010100020021000E
The recovery system which has a capillary wick structure
consisting of fine circumferential striations machined on its
external surface is called a

a) heat valve
b) runaround system
c) heat pump
d) thermal wheel
e) heat pipe
010100020021000C
A system consists of two finned tube heat exchangers. Where
is the preconditioning coil of this system located?

a) On the suction side of the pump

b) On the discharge side of the 3-way mixing valve
c) In the duct work handling the ventilation into the
process
d) At the end of the charging unit
e) In the ductwork handling exhaust air

010100020021000A
What is the name of the system that consists of two finned
tube heat exchangers?

a) runaround system
b) heat valve
c) heat pump
d) heat tube
e) thermal wheel

010100020021000D
The system which runs as a refrigeration system used for air
conditioning purposes in the summer and can be modified to
run in reverse in cooler weather is called a

a) runaround system
b) heat valve
c) heat pump
d) heat pipe
e) thermal wheel

010100020021000D
The system which makes use of a coil installed underground
below frost levels is called a

a) runaround system
b) thermal wheel
c) heat tube
d) heat pump
e) heat pipe

010100020021000D
Cross contamination is a disadvantage for which of the
following systems?
a) A runaround system
b) A heat pipe
c) A heat tube
d) A thermal wheel
e) A heat valve

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not an advantage for a runaround
system?

a) Installation costs are comparatively low.

b) The system is readily adaptable to retrofit applications.
c) Piping is not required in the system.
d) The exhaust and ventilation streams can be remote.
e) Maintenance is relatively simple.

010100020021000B
The fact that the system can be treated against corrosion is
an advantage for which system?

a) A run around system

b) A heat pipe
c) A heat pump
d) A thermal wheel
e) A heat valve

010100020021000E
When is the capacity of a heat pipe at a maximum?

a) When the system is level

b) When the evaporator is raised above the horizontal
c) When the system is placed vertically with the evaporator
on top
d) When the system is placed vertically with the condenser
on top
e) When the evaporator is lowered below the horizontal

Air Conditioning System Controls

010100020021000D
When the outdoor air damper increases the flow of fresh air,
which of the following is true?

a) The return air damper throttles up to reduce the volume

 of recirculated air.
b) The return air damper throttles up to increase the volume
of returned air.
c) The return air damper is not affected.
d) The return air damper throttles down to reduce the volume
of returned air.
e) The return air damper throttles up to increase the volume
of returned air.

010100020021000A
To provide a two position damper, equipped with a fan that
provides 100% outdoor air, with a ratio of damper opening
what is required?

a) A gradual switch
b) Offset returned air duct
c) An air mixer
d) A three phase damper interchange
e) A variable volume tank

010100020021000C
In severely cold weather what adjustment must be made to
properly preheat the outside air?

a) The temperature controller's throttling range must be

increased
b) The outdoor damper should be closed
c) Two separate preheater coils should be installed
d) Damper must be heated
e) Preheat coil temperature should be increased

010100020021000E
Which of the following is not a correct method of heat
regulation?

a) Direct modulation of the control valve on the steam or

hot water to the heating coil
b) Modulating the position of a 3-way mixing valve on the
hot/cold water line into the coil
c) Modulating the relative positions of face and bypass
dampers controlling air flow across the coils
d) Modulating the actuators or the steam or water supply in
conjunction with the coil bypass damper
e) Modulating the valve and the face and the bypass damper
30 degrees out of phase.
010100020021000E
Air conditioning with respect to heating coils is achieved in
which of the following ways?

a) A combination of tempering control functions

b) The selected mixing of warm return air and cooler outside
air
c) Selective heating by passing air through the heating
coils
d) Proportioning the amount of air flow through the face
damper for heat addition, or through the bypass dampers
for no heat addition.
e) All of the above

010100020021000B
A main advantage of steam type humidifiers over pan type
humidifiers is that

a) steam type humidifiers are inexpensive

b) there is minimal time lag with steam type humidifiers
c) steam types can achieve higher relative humidity
d) steam types do not require a humidistat
e) steam type humidifiers require less space

010100020021000C
Dehumidification is achieved by

a) absorbing the moisture with a sponge filter

b) absorbing moisture with a chemical drying agent
c) cooling the air to a corresponding dew point temperature
d) heating air to a corresponding wet bulb temperature
e) saturating the air until the precipitation point at room
temperature is reached

010100020021000E
To prevent too frequent starting and stopping of the
compressor in a cooling system what should be done?

a) Regulate the operation of the compressor with a set point

thermostat
b) Turn off the compressor when temperatures required for
conditioning are reached
c) Run the compressor continuously and vent any excess cold
air
d) Run the main fan only
e) Run the compressor continuously and modulate refrigerant
 flow

010100020021000C
To control static pressure in the air ducts a differential
pressure controller is installed. How does the controller
control static pressure?

a) By increasing air temperature

b) By decreasing air temperature
c) By modulating the damper on the suction side of the fan
d) By modulating the damper on the discharge side of the fan
e) By grounding the ductwork and carrying the charge to a
battery

010100020021000A
When complete control systems become very complex, which
control signal medium is preferred?

a) Pneumatic
b) Electric
c) Electronic
d) Digital
e) Fibre optic

Heat Gains and Losses

010100020021000B
Conduction heat gains are calculated on the assumption that

a) solar heat varies from hour to hour as sun changes

position
b) solar heat gains are not included
c) construction details are unimportant
d) the "u" value is not used
e) solar heat gains are included

010100020021000D
Two methods of calculating air infiltration into a building
are

a) the crack and solar method

b) the air change and solar method
c) the crack and conduction method
d) the air change and crack method
e) the conduction and solar method
010100020021000A
In calculating air infiltration the quickest method is

a) the air change method

b) the crack method
c) the solar method
d) the conduction method
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
Air ventilation is based on the larger of these two
requirements:

a) solar heat rate and CFM rate per person

b) conduction rate per person and solar heat rate
c) CFM rate and conduction rate per person
d) infiltration rate and CFM rate per person
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
Heat load from people in a room is mostly affected by

a) the size of the people

b) smoking
c) the number of people
d) the activity of the people
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
To calculate the heat gain from fluorescent lighting, add the
wattage ratings and multiply by

a) 0.8
b) 0.9
c) 1.1
d) 1.2
e) 2.1

010100020021000A
Electric motors give off _________ while running.

a) sensible heat
b) latent heat
c) latent and sensible heat
d) no heat to the atmosphere
e) solar heat

010100020021000C
If exhaust fans are used over cooking only

a) 10% of the heat gain is used in calculations

b) 25% of the heat gain is used in calculations
c) 50% of the heat gain is used in calculations
d) 60% of the heat gain is used in calculations
e) 75% of the heat gain is used in calculations

010100020021000D
Heat is lost from a building in the following ways:

a) convection, evaporation, and radiation

b) infiltration, condensation, and conduction
c) evaporation, conduction, and radiation
d) conduction, radiation, and convection
e) infiltration, evaporation, and convection

010100020021000C
Heat lost from a building is

a) dependent on the shape of the openings in a building

b) is not affected by wind speed
c) affected by wind speed
d) independent of outside temperature
e) not affected by the density of the air

Powerhouse Maintenance I

010100020021000C
Relative to plant maintenance, a power engineer should have
easy access to

a) all ASME codes

b) the Chief Inspector
c) the Workers' Compensation Board Accident Prevention
Regulations
d) all plant maintenance records and schedules
e) equipment suppliers

010100020021000A
Damaged tools
a) are best disposed of or properly repaired
b) must be used carefully and cautiously if injury is to be
prevented
c) should be kept in a special tool box
d) should be of no concern to the user
e) should be replaced under their "Lifetime" warranty

010100020021000A
Who is responsible for providing safe working conditions in
the plant?

a) Management
b) The Boilers Branch
c) Worker's Compensation (Occupational Health and Safety)
d) The ASME code
e) The union

010100020021000B
A file which is always single cut is the

a) hand file
b) mill file
c) warding file
d) knife file
e) pillar file

010100020021000E
Taper, plug, and bottoming are types of

a) wrenches
b) dies
c) files
d) punches
e) taps

010100020021000E
A collet is

a) a type of hole punch

b) used to make a square hole in a piece of plate
c) the moving part of a micrometer
d) a type of face spanner wrench
e) a holder for a thread die

010100020021000A
The thread pitch of a metric micrometer is

a) 0.5 mm
b) 2.5 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 0.25 mm
e) 0.05 mm

010100020021000D
To measure valve tappet clearances one would most aptly use

a) an inside micrometer
b) a thread micrometer
c) a depth micrometer
d) feeler gauges
e) round or fillet gauges

010100020021000E
Copper sulphate may be used

a) as a thread cutting fluid

b) for lubricating very fine threads such as those in a
micrometer
c) for coating tools in order to prevent rusting
d) to free nuts which are corroded to bolts
e) as a marking material

010100020021000C
In order to check the trueness of a flat surface, one would
use a

a) Vernier calliper
b) hermaphrodite divider
c) surface plate
d) layout bench
e) machinists square

010100020021000A
A dressing tool is used to

a) square the edges of a grinding wheel

b) clean the measuring contact surfaces of a micrometer
c) clean the grooves of a file
d) fit a new handle into a hammer head
e) re-set the teeth of a saw
010100020021000B
Flutes are found on

a) the inside edges of thread dies

b) the body of a twist drill bit
c) the point of a twist drill bit
d) thread taps
e) scribers

010100020021000C
A screwdriver having a square tip is known as __________
type.

a) a slot
b) an allen
c) a robertson
d) a phillips
e) a jacobson

010100020021000E
A 300 mm tungsten hacksaw blade with a .78 mm teeth pitch is used
to cut

a) a brass shaft 25 mm diameter

b) 38 mm x 39 mm hardwood
c) ceramic materials
d) PVC pipe
e) thin wall tubing

010100020021000E
Whatever the size of a micrometer, the working parts can only
move a distance of

a) 30 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 250 mm
d) 300 mm
e) 25 mm

010100020021000C
Micrometers are available in a variety of types and are used
mainly for the measurement of

a) length, width, and thickness of the boiler house structure

b) vertical, perpendicular and parallel distances in assembly
of power plant machines
c) outside, inside and depth dimensions of relatively small
openings of objects
d) the density of the boiler flue gases for pollution control
e) dissolved solids in boiler water

010100020021000B
The ___________ of the completed job depends
largely on the care taken during laying out.

a) time
b) accuracy
c) cost
d) price
e) size

010100020021000D
Chalk or ______________ may be used to rub on the surface
of rough castings as a marking material.

a) aluminum sulphate
b) grinding compound
c) paint
d) blue vitrol
e) wax

010100020021000D
A taper tap is tapered from the end for approximately

a) 2 threads
b) 3 threads
c) 4 threads
d) 6 threads
e) 8 threads

010100020021000E
The tap drill is always smaller than the tap, to leave sufficient
material for the tap to produce ______ per cent of thread.

a) 25
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
e) 75

010100020021000D
Hand taps are usually made in sets of three called
a) SAE, ISO, and metric
b) warding, mill, and bastard
c) rough, coarse, and fine
d) plug, taper, and bottoming
e) primary, secondary, and finishing

010100020021000D
The point angle of a properly ground drill should be

a) 78 degrees
b) 35 degrees
c) 112 degrees
d) 118 degrees
e) 121 degrees

010100020021000C
When storing a hacksaw

a) the blade should be removed

b) the saw should be stored in a protective sheath
c) strain should be removed by loosening the blade
d) it should be hung rather than laid in with other tools
e) none of the above are applicable

Powerhouse Maintenance II

010100020021000B
A government agency which covers several aspects of work
platforms is the

a) Boilers and Pressure Vessels Branch

b) Workers' Compensation Board Accident Prevention
Regulations
c) Hoisting and Rigging Regulations
d) Industrial Accident Prevention Association
e) Hoisting and Elevator Regulations

010100020021000D
When working on a platform it is important to

a) always wear a lifeline harness

b) ensure it is equipped with a full guard railing
c) construct it yourself
d) warn people on the ground of hazards
e) notify the applicable government agency of usage

010100020021000A
When using a step ladder it is best to

a) not work higher than the top three rungs

b) have a 4:1 slope on the rung side
c) have two co-workers hold the ladder steady
d) secure the ladder with a rope
e) place both feet on the top platform if extra height is
required

010100020021000E
A rung ladder should

a) never be able to conduct electricity

b) not be equipped with rubber feet, only metal ones
c) be inclined with a 5:1 slope
d) always have at least one rail touching the support
e) be inclined with a 4:1 slope

010100020021000D
A scaffold should always be erected

a) by the user only

b) plumb
c) by a contractor
d) plumb and level
e) level

010100020021000C
A single pole scaffold

a) should not be used

b) must be constructed of metal only
c) is partially supported by a building
d) must have supporting rigging attached to it
e) need not be plumb, only level

010100020021000C
The top of a ladder should extend approximately __________
above the level of the upper landing to which it provides
access.

a) 2 metres
b) 0.5 metres
c) 0.9 metres
d) 0.2 metres
e) 0.3 metres

010100020021000E
Ladders constructed on the job must comply with the

a) WCB suggestions
b) ASME codes
c) CSA codes
d) fire department's by-laws
e) WCB regulations

010100020021000D
Platforms should have a __________ edge going around them to
prevent objects from rolling off.

a) square
b) wire
c) metal
d) raised
e) magnetic

010100020021000C
A single pole scaffold

a) is free standing from the building

b) places no load on the building
c) is partially supported by the building
d) is always made of metal
e) must be made of pipe

010100020021000E
WCB Regulations state: Tubular and similar type section
scaffolding shall be erected plumb and __________.

a) square
b) straight
c) without braces
d) vibration free
e) level

010100020021000B
Prior to hoisting an object it is best to

a) know the route required

b) know or calculate the mass
c) measure its length
d) attach at least two slings
e) measure the width

010100020021000E
The maximum % error we should use when calculating the mass
of a light object is

a) 3
b) 5
c) 10
d) 15
e) 20

010100020021000B
Chain blocks are designed

a) for mainly horizontal use

b) with the top hook strongest
c) with a very low mechanical advantage
d) with the bottom hook strongest
e) for lifting very long objects

010100020021000C
Whenever two or more sling eyes are used in lifting an object
they should be

a) of equal strength
b) spaced evenly regardless of the object's centre of gravity
c) held in a shackle
d) used only with a come-along
e) fastened with a Crosby clip

010100020021000D
The most common method of getting a reasonable idea of an
object's __________ is by estimating it.

a) size
b) shape
c) density
d) mass
e) specific gravity

010100020021000C
To determine the mass of an object you may
a) calculate its area
b) calculate its length
c) use specification sheets
d) determine the volume of the material
e) check its relative density

010100020021000C
Safe practice in rigging, when calculating weight of objects,
should be accurate within plus or minus __________ for light
objects.

a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
e) 33%

010100020021000D
The approximate mass of a 15 cm "I" beam is

a) 20 kg per running metre

b) 60 kg per running metre
c) 30 kg per running metre
d) 26 kg per running metre
e) 37 kg per running metre

Powerhouse Maintenance III

010100020021000C
Wire rope classified as 8 x 12 means it has

a) a factor of safety of 8 and is 12 metres long

b) a factor of safety of 12 and is 8 metres long
c) 8 strands with 12 wires per strand
d) 12 strands with 8 wires per strand
e) none of the above

010100020021000A
An eye made by using a Crosby clip will have a strength
factor of

a) 80%
b) 50%
c) 95%
d) 75%
e) 90%

010100020021000D
A strand of fibre rope is

a) at least 20 metres in length

b) composed of fibres twisted right-handed
c) the smallest component of the rope
d) composed of yarns twisted left-handed
e) the most important part of the rope

010100020021000C
In order to keep rope from untwisting under load

a) it should be moistened
b) it requires a synthetic binder
c) it is made with left- and right-handed counteracting
twists
d) each end requires "whipping"
e) rope thimbles should be used

010100020021000E
A knot used to pull at right angles to a pipe or pole is the

a) timber hitch
b) round turn and two half hitches
c) bowline
d) reef knot
e) clove hitch

010100020021000B
When joining two ropes of different diameters we use a

a) reef knot
b) sheet bend
c) figure eight knot
d) sheep shank
e) round turn and three half hitches

010100020021000D
Eye bolts should be

a) threaded with fine threads only

b) shackled when more than two are used
c) angled so the load is applied non-axially
d) hot forged
e) self tapping

010100020021000C
Natural ropes are made of

a) nylon
b) polyethylene
c) manila
d) dacron
e) polyvinyl chloride

010100020021000B
What factor of safety should be used, to determine safe load for
a new fibre rope?

a) 10
b) 5
c) 7
d) 4
e) 3

010100020021000A
The clove hitch is used for attaching a rope to pull

a) at right angles
b) vertically
c) horizontally
d) straight
e) upwards

010100020021000B
Stove bolt nuts are usually

a) hexagonal
b) square
c) fine thread
d) self locking
e) left hand thread

010100020021000C
An M24 course thread bolt has

a) 3 threads per mm
b) 3.5 threads per mm
c) 3 mm per thread
d) 3.5 mm per thread
e) 2 mm per thread

010100020021000D
To prevent damage to a work surface while fastening

a) do not over-tighten a nut

b) use castle nuts only
c) use toothed lock washers
d) use flat washers
e) use a lubricant during threading and tightening

010100020021000E
Castle nuts are used

a) to lock the bolt in place

b) to hold shims in place
c) with a square pin
d) for locking square nuts in place
e) with a split pin

010100020021000B
Mechanical steel fasteners that are commonly used in the
automotive industry and on various plant machinery are
classed as

a) carriage bolts
b) machine bolts
c) hexagon bolts
d) whitworth bolts
e) self tapping

010100020021000D
Machine bolts are most commonly supplied with

a) pan heads
b) oval heads
c) Truss heads
d) hexagon heads
e) square heads

Boiler Maintenance

010100020021000A
A boiler circulating pump gland should have some leakage
a) to prevent the packing from drying out
b) so that the shaft sleeve will take the wear
c) in order for the stuffing box to run at the desired high
temperature
d) so the operator can tell when the pump becomes
vapour-bound
e) in order to keep the motor amperage down

010100020021000D
Manway gaskets should be coated with an anti-seize compound

a) which will act as a sealant and prevent leakage

b) so the gasket will harden and set once temperature is
raised
c) thereby allowing the gasket to move during seating
d) to prevent the gasket from sticking to the mating
surfaces
e) so that leaks will show up more readily

010100020021000E
When plugging off a tube in a boiler, the plug taper should
be

a) 2 to 1
b) 5 to 1
c) 7.5 to 1
d) 10 to 1
e) 20 to 1

010100020021000B
When the fireside of a boiler is first opened up, small leak
seepage spots can be detected by

a) ultraviolet light
b) white salt deposits resulting from water evaporation
c) water on the furnace floor
d) hissing sounds
e) water running down the tubes

010100020021000D
A black light crack detection utilizes ultraviolet light and

a) iridescent powder
b) an infrared solution
c) a radium solution
d) fluorescent penetrant
e) opaque dye

010100020021000D
A substance which will absorb humidity inside a boiler
during dry lay up is

a) zeolite
b) sodium sulphite
c) sodium chloride
d) activated alumina
e) lime soda

010100020021000B
A water tank should be installed above the boiler and
attached to the vent connection during a wet lay up in order
to

a) permit the injection of chemicals

b) prevent air from entering the boiler during water
contraction
c) hold the manway doors closed
d) prevent water vapour from entering the power plant
e) prevent the wastage of chemicals

010100020021000E
When working inside a steel heating boiler, which of the following
safety precautions should you take?

1. boiler must be cooled and vented

2. valves must be closed and locked, and all lines to and
from the boiler must be blanked
3. you may use ungrounded wiring
4. always have one man standing outside, whenever anyone is
inside the boiler

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 4

010100020021000E
Before a welder is allowed to weld on a boiler he must have a

a) certificate of qualification
b) certain minimum number of years experience
c) performance qualification card
d) welding test conducted
e) certificate of qualification and a performance
qualification card

010100020021000D
When replacing a firetube in a tubesheet, the tube should
extend beyond the tubesheet

a) 5 mm
b) one tube wall thickness
c) 10 mm
d) two tube wall thickness'
e) 15 mm

010100020021000C
The final step in replacing a firetube is

a) a light re-expansion
b) filling the boiler with water and checking for leaks
c) applying a hydrostatic test
d) firing the boiler up to normal working pressure
e) annealing the tube ends

010100020021000E
The purpose of annealing tube ends is

a) to post heat the tube ends

b) to harden the tube ends
c) to prevent the ends from burning
d) to obtain a neat appearance
e) to soften the tube ends

010100020021000B
A tube beading tool

a) is used on watertube boilers

b) is used on firetube boilers
c) is used to fasten the stays in the tube sheet
d) is used to cut fire tubes
e) is used to unfasten fire tubes from the tube sheet

Boiler Cleaning
010100020021000A
One of the main purposes of an external inspection is to

a) observe operation and maintenance practices

b) check the plant records, log books, etc.
c) verify that scale is not present on or in the tubes
d) check the operation of each safety shutdown device
e) inspect all auxiliary equipment and pressure vessels

010100020021000D
When the boiler is removed from service, it can be drained
once the temperature reaches approximately

a) 150 degrees C
b) 30 degrees C
c) 50 degrees C
d) 90 degrees C
e) 70 degrees C

010100020021000D
Just before entering the waterside of the boiler it is
important to

a) notify the inspector in writing of your intent to do so

b) ensure the chief engineer is aware of your intent
c) be wearing self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
d) test the atmosphere with an oxygen "sniffer"
e) obtain permission to do so from plant management

010100020021000A
When cooling down a steam boiler that has been taken out of
service, a vent valve on the steam drum should be opened to

a) prevent a vacuum from forming in the boiler

b) release the air from the boiler
c) purge the shell of impure gases
d) let the operator know when the pressure has reached zero
e) prevent pressure build-up in the boiler

010100020021000A
Before cleaning the waterside and as far as is possible

a) a visual inspection of pressure parts should be completed

b) all drum internals should be removed
c) mud drum sludge should be completely removed
d) a scale sample should be taken and an analysis done
e) tubes should be "turbined"

010100020021000B
One of the legal responsibilities of the engineer during an
inspection is to

a) be in possession of an inspection certificate

b) point out any known or suspected defects to the inspector
c) have at least two staff members present at all times
d) allow the inspector onto the premises, but only during
working hours
e) notify the Workers' Compensation Board of the inspection

010100020021000A
The external inspection of a boiler

a) may include making sure the valves are in good operating

condition
b) may include making sure the furnace refractory is in order
c) may include making sure the tubes are free of scale
d) must be done after the boiler has been drained
e) may include making sure the exterior of the tubes
are in good condition

010100020021000B
A boiler inspection

a) must be done after every shut down of the boiler

b) must be done when the boiler inspector requests it
c) must be done every two years
d) is done with the owner's permission only
e) must be done before the boiler is ready for start-up

010100020021000A
A hydrostatic test on a high pressure steam boiler

a) must be done on a new boiler

b) must only be done by the inspector
c) will test the high pressure steam fuel cut-off
d) should be done with the Chief Engineer present
e) must be done before start-up of a boiler

010100020021000E
Chemical cleaning of smaller boilers is not usually done
because
a) of the small surface area which the chemical contacts
b) of the thin metal of which they are manufactured
c) they do not have adequate support for the high density of
the chemicals
d) it is impossible to get the chemical circulating
adequately
e) the cost to do so is not warranted or justified

010100020021000D
For an alkaline boil out, the boiler is maintained at a
desired steam pressure for about

a) 12 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 16 hours
d) 48 hours
e) 24 hours

010100020021000A
A relatively new and safer chemical used in boiler cleaning
and treatment is

a) chelates
b) trisodium phosphate
c) sodium hydroxide
d) caustic soda
e) hydrazine

010100020021000A
An inhibitor, when added to acid, will

a) minimize the effect the acid has on the metal

b) make the acid compatible with the sewer system for
disposal
c) strengthen the acid thereby shortening the cleaning
procedure
d) prevent the acid from attacking the boiler metal
e) cause foaming in the boiler

010100020021000B
The most popular acid for boiler cleaning is

a) sulphuric
b) hydrochloric
c) phosphoric
d) nitric
e) chelate

Hot Oil Systems

010100020021000B
In hot oil heaters, hot gases moving through the furnace
transfers the heat to

a) a conduction heater
b) a convection heater
c) a radiant heater
d) a space heater
e) a superheater

010100020021000C
Extended type tubes used with oil heaters are tubes

a) which have been expanded

b) which have extensions attached
c) with fins on their outer surfaces
d) of varying lengths
e) that reach beyond the top drum

010100020021000B
The __________ type tubes have fins on their outer surfaces.

a) looped
b) extended
c) firetube
d) flared
e) tangential

010100020021000C
The most commonly applied oil heater, is the combination
convection and __________ type heater because of its efficiency.

a) superheater
b) conduction
c) radiant
d) stationary
e) portable

010100020021000C
The most typical fired heater model is the
a) down-draft
b) dual-draft
c) up-draft
d) balanced-draft
e) induced-draft

010100020021000D
The convection tubes of a typical up-draft model fired heater
are located in the

a) firebox
b) stack
c) radiant zone
d) breeching
e) refractory lining

010100020021000A
The gas burners of a horizontal rectangular direct-fired oil
heaters, are located

a) on the floor of the furnace

b) in the ceiling of the furnace
c) in the front of the furnace
d) in the corners of the furnace
e) external to the furnace

010100020021000D
The inner walls and floor of a furnace in a fired heater, are
usually lined with

a) fibreglass bales
b) asbestos blocks
c) ceramic tile
d) refractory brick
e) pyrex glass

010100020021000A
The most important piece of equipment of a hot oil system is

a) the heater
b) the pump
c) the surge tank
d) the UV
e) the burner
010100020021000A
The most common oil heater is the combination of the
radiant and ________________ type.

a) convection
b) conduction
c) superheat
d) reheater
e) portable

010100020021000D
The approximate efficiency of a hot oil radiant heater is

a) 25 - 35%
b) 50 - 60%
c) 30 - 40%
d) 40 - 50%
e) 45 - 65%

010100020021000E
Hot oil convection heaters have an approximate efficiency of

a) 80 - 90 percent
b) 55 - 65 percent
c) 85 - 95 percent
d) 70 - 80 percent
e) 75 - 85 percent

010100020021000B
A non-metallic part of a mechanical seal might be made from

a) asbestos
b) teflon
c) fibreglass
d) rubber
e) carbon

010100020021000E
The maximum temperature of oil which can be pumped by a hot
oil pump if teflon is used as a non-metallic part of the
mechanical seal is

a) 100 degrees Celsius

b) 250 degrees Celsius
c) 350 degrees Celsius
d) 150 degrees Celsius
e) 200 degrees Celsius

010100020021000A
The flow through an oil heater is controlled

a) automatically
b) manually
c) proportionally
d) generally
e) by pressure changes

010100020021000D
A hot oil pump suction is located

a) above the surge tank

b) level with the surge tank
c) inside the surge tank
d) below the surge tank level
e) at the side of the tank

010100020021000D
An oil used as thermal transfer fluid must not only be readily
available, it must also be at

a) low cost
b) all costs
c) cost
d) reasonable cost
e) low viscosity

010100020021000A
To avoid start-up difficulties in cold weather a thermal fluid
must have

a) a low pour point

b) antifreeze added to it
c) methanol injected into it periodically
d) a dehydration system installed in the surge tank
e) a low fire point

010100020021000A
Petroleum oils are widely used as heat transfer media for systems
operating up to

a) 290 degrees Celsius

b) 190 degrees Celsius
c) 390 degrees Celsius
d) 250 degrees Celsius
e) 160 degrees Celsius

010100020021000A
Small diameter pipe used in building hot oil systems is

a) 25.4 mm or smaller
b) 34.5 mm or smaller
c) 45.2 mm or smaller
d) 52.4 mm or smaller
e) 80 mm or smaller

010100020021000D
The vapour space of the surge tank is

a) a separate compartment in the tank where gas is

separated from the oil
b) the section where the oil can bubble
c) a place where gas is added to the oil
d) the space in the tank above the level of the oil
e) the space in the tank below the level of the oil

010100020021000C
When filling a hot oil system with oil and replacing nitrogen
gas used to purge air from the system, __________ should be
followed.

a) a line
b) a path
c) a pattern
d) an example
e) a code

010100020021000B
How long should the circulating pump be run to ensure the
system is full when filling a hot oil system?

a) 1 or 2 hours
b) 3 or 4 hours
c) 9 or 10 hours
d) 12 to 18 hours
e) 24 hours

010100020021000D
A hot oil pump suction strainer should be inspected and cleaned
after how long, following initial circulation of oil through
the system?

a) 5 - 6 hours
b) 1 - 2 hours
c) 6 - 8 hours
d) 3 - 4 hours
e) 4 - 5 hours

010100020021000A
Temperature rise in a hot oil system during the period that
the refractory is drying out is allowed at a rate of

a) not more than 55 degrees Celsius per hour

b) not more than 65 degrees Celsius per hour
c) not more than 45 degrees Celsius per hour
d) not more than 75 degrees Celsius per hour
e) not more than 100 degrees Celsius per hour

010100020021000A
While refractory is drying in a heater, circulated oil in
the tubes is

a) allowed to rise in temperature at not more than

55 degrees Celsius per hour
b) allowed to drop in temperature at not more than
55 degrees Celsius per hour
c) maintained in temperature
d) drained from the system
e) superheated

010100020021000C
What piece of equipment in a hot oil system requires the most
operator attention?

a) the hot oil user

b) the flame detector
c) the heater
d) the burner control panel
e) the safety valve

010100020021000D
With regard to oil leaving each heater pass, of particular
importance is the

a) pressure
b) volume
c) velocity
d) temperature
e) flash point

010100020021000A
Compatibility of oils is determined by

a) analysis
b) reading the labels
c) electrolysis
d) diagnosis
e) smelling a sample

010100020021000E
How far from a furnace heater dike is the drain pit located?

a) about 75 meters
b) about 100 meters
c) about 25 meters
d) about 40 meters
e) about 50 meters

010100020021000B
The safety valve discharge on a hot oil system returns to

a) the pump suction

b) the surge tank
c) a unit user
d) the process system
e) the pump casing

010100020021000A
The automatic shutdown devices on a hot oil system are called

a) interlocks
b) locksmiths
c) fail safe locks
d) lock-ups
e) circuit breakers

010100020021000B
A low hot oil flow shutdown (FSDL) ____________
installed in the outlet line of an oil heater.

a) is almost always
b) is always
c) is sometimes
d) is never
e) cannot be

010100020021000B
Low oil flow shutdowns (FSDL) are usually installed

a) on the inlet line of the oil heater

b) on the outlet line of the oil heater
c) on the pump suction line
d) on the surge tank line
e) on the pump discharge line

010100020021000C
Hot oil high temperature (TSDH1) shutdown switches are installed
on

a) the fuel gas line

b) the inlet line of the oil heater
c) the suction line of the pump
d) the surge tank suction line
e) the outlet line of the heater

010100020021000B
Most heater fuel controls are ____________ to prevent pilot
burner fuel supply if hot oil flow is below a preset limit.

a) locked
b) interlocked
c) unlocked
d) jammed
e) by-passed

010100020021000B
In order to keep some hot oil flowing backwards through a standby
pump and around the discharge check valve, it is important that
the ____________ valve be left open.

a) bypass
b) suction
c) automatic
d) pneumatic
e) relief

010100020021000E
Vapour bubbles in a pump can cause the pump to

a) deteriorate
b) rotate
c) stall
d) decoy
e) cavitate

010100020021000B
____________ are required to prevent oil from spreading beyond
the confines of a heater in the event of a ruptured tube.

a) Moats
b) Dikes
c) Tunnels
d) Rails
e) By-pass pipes

010100020021000C
In order not to be harmful to the metals used in hot oil
systems the thermal fluid must

a) be kept at a low temperature

b) have a neutral pH value
c) be noncorrosive
d) be diluted with glycol
e) be mixed with kerosene

010100020021000E
A high flash point in oil reduces the risk of

a) pump cavitation
b) condensation
c) vapour bubble formation
d) heat transfer
e) fire

010100020021000A
When petroleum oils break down or crack due to high temperature
the products formed are insoluble and

a) more viscous
b) less viscous
c) equally as viscous
d) not viscous
e) unchanged
010100020021000B
Coke deposits on the inner walls of a heater tube produce
__________ when the tube is tapped lightly with a hammer?

a) a clear ringing tone

b) a dull sound
c) chimes
d) a vibrating sound
e) a whistling sound

010100020021000D
The presence of coke deposits in a heater tube can be
confirmed by

a) attempting to roll a ball through the suspected bad

tube
b) rattling the tube mechanically and blowing out the
deposit with air
c) the use of ultrasound equipment
d) radiographic inspection
e) conducting a hydrostatic test

010100020021000A
It is important to drain an hot oil heater prior to attempting a
radiographic inspection, because

a) oil and coke appear similar on the x-ray picture

b) oil and coke give a similar sound when the tube is hammered
c) x-rays passing through the oil might cause an explosion
d) drained tubes are cleaner for the radiologist to work with
e) it is safer

010100020021000B
Cracks in the refractory of a hot oil heater may indicate that

a) a poor quality of refractory has been used

b) there may have been hot spots at this point
c) the burners have been operating at too high a temperature
d) there is nothing to be concerned about
e) the tubes are leaking

010100020021000D
During shutdown, oil heater pilots and main burners are checked
for
a) setting
b) temperature
c) pressure
d) cleanliness
e) flame pattern

010100020021000B
Indicate which extinguishing agents are most suitable for hot
oil fires.

a) water only
b) foam and dry chemical
c) carbon dioxide gas
d) a wet blanket
e) ether and ethylene

Introduction to Gas Plants and Pulp Mills

010100020021000D
The authority charged with responsibility for drafting
regulations to cover the use of natural gas is the

a) American Society of Mechanical Engineers

b) Canadian Standards Association
c) Fire Fighter's Union
d) Gas Conservation Board
e) Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act

010100020021000B
Hydrocarbons in a natural gas may include

a) carbon dioxide
b) ethane
c) nitrogen
d) hydrogen sulphide
e) carbonic acid

010100020021000A
The contaminants in a natural gas may include

a) hydrogen sulphide
b) pentane
c) hexane
d) methane
e) oxygen
010100020021000B
The purpose of an inlet separator in a natural gas plant is

a) the removal of undissolved gases from the hydrocarbons

b) the removal of liquids from the gas
c) the removal of hydrogen sulphide from the gas
d) the removal of solids from the liquids
e) the removal of carbon monoxide from the liquids

010100020021000D
The purpose of the absorber in a natural gas plant is to

a) remove condensates from the gas

b) absorb all the hydrocarbons from the gas
c) scrub the gas from amine
d) remove hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide from the gas
e) absorb carbon dioxide from the gas stream

010100020021000E
The removal of hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide from the
natural gas

a) is done by boiling the gas

b) is done in the inlet separator
c) is done in the dehydrator
d) is not necessary
e) can be done with amine

010100020021000B
The purpose of stabilization in natural gas treatment plants is

a) to stabilize the gas from the contactor

b) to flash off the gases at low pressure from the liquid
hydrocarbons
c) to stabilize the liquid and gas in the inlet separator
d) to flash off the gases at high pressure from the liquids
e) to prevent water from evaporating in the gas stream

010100020021000A
The purpose of dehydration in natural gas treatment plants is

a) to remove water vapour and remaining hydrocarbon

condensates from the main gas stream
b) to lower the temperature of the hot condensates
c) to remove hydrogen sulphide from the hydrocarbons
d) to remove the liquid hydrocarbons from the gas
e) to dry the carbon dioxide in the inlet separator

010100020021000E
The two types of wood pulping processes are
the mechanical and the

a) thermal
b) industrial
c) hydraulic
d) triple train
e) chemical

010100020021000B
The two chief methods of chemical pulping are:

1. the sulphite process

2. the phosphate process
3. the sulphate process
4. the sodium carbonate process

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 4
d) 3, 4
e) 1, 4

010100020021000E
In the kraft process, the chipped wood is further processed in
one of the following:

a) recovery boiler
b) bleacher
c) press
d) hogger
e) digester

010100020021000D
The raw material used in pulp and paper mills is

a) water
b) chemicals
c) bark
d) wood chips
e) bleach
010100020021000B
Wood pulp production by chemical means, requires the removal of
__________, in order to obtain the cellulosic fibre.

a) pentosan
b) lignin
c) sugar
d) hemicellulose
e) sodium sulphite

Steam Related Oil, Food, and Sawmill Processes

010100020021000A
The main disadvantage of a sawmill gangsaw is

a) the logs cannot be turned, nor the thickness varied

b) it produces a very small volume of smoothly sawed lumber
c) it produces a large volume of roughly sawed lumber
d) the logs can be turned, but the thickness cannot be
varied
e) the thickness can be varied, but the logs cannot be
turned

010100020021000C
Kiln-dried lumber refers to drying lumber

a) by air seasoning
b) by stacking it in layers so that each surface receives
natural air currents
c) by automatically maintaining temperature, humidity, and
ventilation by using forced ventilation and steam coils
d) slowly over a long period of time
e) in a shed-like building by natural air circulation

010100020021000B
Hog fuel is a term used to describe a

a) very poor quality of fuel oil used as boiler fuel in

sawmills
b) mixture of waste wood and bark used as boiler fuel in a
sawmill
c) low calorific value waste fuel used as boiler fuel in oil
refineries
d) low calorific value waste fuel used as boiler fuel in meat
processing plants
e) waste product from hog barns used as boiler fuel in meat
processing plants

010100020021000E
Which of the following is not a steam user in a meat
processing plant?

a) edible and inedible rendering plants

b) building heating
c) sanitation on the killing floor
d) steam tracing
e) blast freezer

010100020021000D
The overall purposes of an oil refinery are to

a) only remove the crude oil contaminants such as water and

hydrogen sulphide
b) only process the crude oil into specific end products
c) only process the crude oil into diesel and gasoline
d) remove crude oil contaminants and process the crude oil
into specific end products
e) only fractionate the raw crude oil into specific end
products

010100020021000A
The purpose of the vacuum unit in an oil refinery is

a) to receive the "reduced crude" and recover more gas oils by

further distilling under high temperature and low pressure
b) to only take off the propane, butane, and light ends from
the crude oil
c) the same as the fluid catalytic cracking unit
d) to remove the hydrogen sulphide and nitrogen from the
naphtha
e) to remove the sulphur and nitrogen from the diesel

010100020021000C
The purpose of the fluid catalytic cracking unit (F.C.C.U.)
in an oil refinery is

a) to receive the crude oil and recover more gas oils by

further distilling under high temperature and low pressure
b) to remove the propane, butane, and light ends from the
crude oil
c) to cause the heavy hydrocarbons to be transformed into
 lighter hydrocarbons
d) to remove the sulphur and nitrogen from the diesel
e) to remove the hydrogen sulphide and nitrogen from the
naphtha

010100020021000B
The purpose of the naphtha hydrotreater in an oil refinery is

a) to remove the hydrogen sulphide and nitrogen from the

diesel
b) to remove the sulphur and nitrogen compounds before the
naphtha goes to the platformer
c) to cause the heavy hydrocarbons to be transformed into
lighter hydrocarbons
d) to remove the water from the crude oil
e) to remove the diesel from the naphtha

010100020021000D
A diesel hydrotreater in an oil refinery

a) removes the sulphur and nitrogen compounds before the

naphtha goes to the platformer
b) removes the water from the crude oil
c) only removes the water from the diesel
d) removes the sulphur and nitrogen compounds from the
diesel before the diesel goes to storage
e) causes the heavy hydrocarbons to be transformed into
lighter hydrocarbons

010100020021000A
The purpose of a reformer in an oil refinery is

a) to cause the molecular structure of the naphtha to change

so that the octane rating is increased and also to produce
the hydrogen for the hydrotreaters
b) to remove the sulphur and nitrogen compounds from the
diesel and naphtha
c) to cause the naphtha to change so the octane rating is
decreased
d) to remove the water from the diesel
e) to remove the water from the crude oil

010100020021000B
A gas sweetening unit in an oil refinery

a) uses heat only to drive off the hydrogen sulphide from

 the sour gas
b) uses an amine contactor to absorb the hydrogen sulphide
from the sour gas
c) uses an amine contactor to absorb the hydrogen sulphide
from the crude oil
d) uses amine solution to absorb the hydrogen sulphide from
the gasoline
e) uses heat only to drive off the hydrogen sulphide from
the crude oil