END TERM PRACTICE

PEV107
UNIT 1
Sentence correction
A common disability in test pilots is hearing impairment, a consequence
of sitting too close to large jet engines for long periods of time.

(A) a consequence of sitting too close to large jet engines for long
periods of time
(B) a consequence from sitting for long periods of time too near to large
jet engines
(C) a consequence which resulted from sitting too close to large jet
engines for long periods of time
(D) damaged from sitting too near to large jet engines for long periods
of time
(E) damaged because they sat too close to large jet engines for long
periods of time
A common disability in test pilots is hearing impairment, a
consequence of sitting too close to large jet engines for
long periods of time.

(A) a consequence of sitting too close to large jet engines

for long periods of time
(B) a consequence from sitting for long periods of time
too near to large jet engines
(C) a consequence which resulted from sitting too close to
large jet engines for long periods of time
(D) damaged from sitting too near to large jet engines for
long periods of time
(E) damaged because they sat too close to large jet engines
for long periods of time
A 1972 agreement between Canada and the United States
reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities had
been allowed to dump into the Great Lakes.

(A) reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities

had been allowed to dump
(B) reduced the phosphate amount that municipalities had
been dumping
(C) reduces the phosphate amount municipalities have
been allowed to dump
(D) reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities
are allowed to dump
(E) reduces the amount of phosphates allowed for dumping
by municipalities
A 1972 agreement between Canada and the United States
reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities had
been allowed to dump into the Great Lakes.

(A) reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities had

been allowed to dump
(B) reduced the phosphate amount that municipalities had
been dumping
(C) reduces the phosphate amount municipalities have been
allowed to dump
(D) reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities are
allowed to dump
(E) reduces the amount of phosphates allowed for dumping
by municipalities
A “calendar stick” carved centuries ago by the Winnebago tribe may
provide the first evidence that the North American Indians have
developed advanced full-year calendars basing them on systematic
astronomical observation.

(A) that the North American Indians have developed advanced full-
year calendars basing them
(B) of the North American Indians who have developed advanced full-
year calendars and based them
(C) of the development of advanced full-year calendars by North
American Indians, basing them
(D) of the North American Indians and their development of advanced
full-year calendars based
(E) that the North American Indians developed advanced full-year
calendars based
A “calendar stick” carved centuries ago by the Winnebago tribe may
provide the first evidence that the North American Indians have
developed advanced full-year calendars basing them on systematic
astronomical observation.

(A) that the North American Indians have developed advanced full-year
calendars basing them
(B) of the North American Indians who have developed advanced full-
year calendars and based them
(C) of the development of advanced full-year calendars by North
American Indians, basing them
(D) of the North American Indians and their development of advanced
full-year calendars based
(E) that the North American Indians developed advanced full-year
calendars based
A common disability in test pilots is hearing impairment, a
consequence of sitting too close to large jet engines for long
periods of time.

(A) a consequence of sitting too close to large jet engines for

long periods of time
(B) a consequence from sitting for long periods of time too
near to large jet engines
(C) a consequence which resulted from sitting too close to
large jet engines for long periods of time
(D) damaged from sitting too near to large jet engines for long
periods of time
(E) damaged because they sat too close to large jet engines for
long periods of time
A common disability in test pilots is hearing impairment, a
consequence of sitting too close to large jet engines for
long periods of time.

(A) a consequence of sitting too close to large jet engines

for long periods of time
(B) a consequence from sitting for long periods of time too
near to large jet engines
(C) a consequence which resulted from sitting too close to
large jet engines for long periods of time
(D) damaged from sitting too near to large jet engines for
long periods of time
(E) damaged because they sat too close to large jet engines
for long periods of time
A prolific architect who worked from the turn of the century until the late 1950’s, Julia
Morgan designed nearly 800 buildings in California, perhaps most notably William
Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon.

(A) Julia Morgan designed nearly 800 buildings in California, perhaps most notably
William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon
(B) perhaps the most notable of the nearly 800 buildings in California designed by Julia
Morgan was William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon
(C) of the nearly 800 buildings in California designed by Julia Morgan, perhaps the
most notable was William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon
(D) nearly 800 buildings in California were designed by Julia Morgan, of which
William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon is perhaps the most
notable
(E) William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon is perhaps the most
notable of the nearly 800 buildings in California designed by Julia Morgan
A prolific architect who worked from the turn of the century until the late 1950’s,
Julia Morgan designed nearly 800 buildings in California, perhaps most notably
William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon.

(A) Julia Morgan designed nearly 800 buildings in California, perhaps most notably
William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon
(B) perhaps the most notable of the nearly 800 buildings in California designed by
Julia Morgan was William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon
(C) of the nearly 800 buildings in California designed by Julia Morgan, perhaps the
most notable was William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon
(D) nearly 800 buildings in California were designed by Julia Morgan, of which
William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon is perhaps the most
notable
(E) William Randolph Hearst’s monumental estate at San Simeon is perhaps the most
notable of the nearly 800 buildings in California designed by Julia Morgan
A representative of the Women’s Bureau of the United States
Department of Labor contends that employers who offer benefits
which permit that employees can balance home and work
responsibilities better, realizing gains in attendance, recruiting, and
retention.

(A) which permit that employees can balance home and work
responsibilities better, realizing
(B) which permit employees balancing home and work
responsibilities better will realize
(C) that permit employees to balance the responsibilities of home
and work better will realiz
(D) that permit employees a better balance between the
responsibilities of home and work, thus realizing
(E) such that employees are permitted a balance between home and
work responsibilities, and they will realize
A representative of the Women’s Bureau of the United States
Department of Labor contends that employers who offer benefits
which permit that employees can balance home and work
responsibilities better, realizing gains in attendance, recruiting, and
retention.

(A) which permit that employees can balance home and work
responsibilities better, realizing
(B) which permit employees balancing home and work
responsibilities better will realize
(C) that permit employees to balance the responsibilities of home and
work better will realize
(D) that permit employees a better balance between the
responsibilities of home and work, thus realizing
(E) such that employees are permitted a balance between home and
work responsibilities, and they will realize
According to a panel of health officials, there has been a great deal
of confusion in the medical profession about whether obesity is a
biological disorder posing serious health risks or a condition more
related to appearance than to health.

(A) about whether obesity is a biological disorder posing serious

health risks or a condition more related to appearance than to
(B) with respect to obesity being a biological disorder posing serious
health risks or if it is related more to appearance than
(C) over whether or not obesity is a biological disorder posing
serious health risks or it is a condition more related to appearance
than to
(D) about obesity and if it is a biological disorder posing serious
health risks or a condition related to appearance more than to
(E) concerning whether obesity is a biological disorder posing
serious health risks or it is a condition related to appearance more
than
According to a panel of health officials, there has been a great deal of
confusion in the medical profession about whether obesity is a
biological disorder posing serious health risks or a condition more
related to appearance than to health.

(A) about whether obesity is a biological disorder posing serious

health risks or a condition more related to appearance than to
(B) with respect to obesity being a biological disorder posing serious
health risks or if it is related more to appearance than
(C) over whether or not obesity is a biological disorder posing serious
health risks or it is a condition more related to appearance than to
(D) about obesity and if it is a biological disorder posing serious
health risks or a condition related to appearance more than to
(E) concerning whether obesity is a biological disorder posing serious
health risks or it is a condition related to appearance more than
UNIT -2
Voice and accent, stress and intonation
Q1: How many syllables are there in the word –
RESISTIBLE
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
Q1: How many syllables are there in the word –
RESISTIBLE
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
Stressed syllable in resistible: re-sist-i-ble
Q2: Which syllable will take the stress in the word–
LIEUTENANT
A. First syllable
B. Second syllable
C. Third syllable
D. Fourth Syllable
Which syllable will take the stress in the word–
LIEUTENANT
A. First syllable
B. Second syllable
C. Third syllable
D. Fourth Syllable
Stressed syllable in LIEUTENANT- lieu-ten-ant
Q3:Choose the correct option
A. e- NOR- mi- ty
B. ENOR- mi – ty
C. E- nor- mi- ty
D. e- nor- MI- ty
Choose the correct option
A. e- NOR- mi- ty
B. ENOR- mi – ty
C. E- nor- mi- ty
D. e- nor- MI- ty
Q4: Which is a list of content words?
A. they, should've, through
B. Donald's, eyes, small
Q4: Which is a list of content words?
A. they, should've, through
B. Donald's, eyes, small

• Content words are the key words of a sentence. They are the
important words that carry the meaning or sense—the real
content.
• Q5- Find the intonation pattern in the given sentence.
When is the soccer game on TV?
A. Rising intonation
B. Falling intonation
C. Rise- Fall intonation
D. Fall – Rise intonation
• Q5- Find the intonation pattern in the given sentence.
When is the soccer game on TV?
A. Rising intonation
B. Falling intonation
C. Rise- Fall intonation
D. Fall – Rise intonation
Q6. “He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow. His brother is.”
Which sentence convey meaning stated above? 
A. He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow.
B. He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow.
C. He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow.
D. He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow
Q6. “He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow. His brother is.”
Which sentence convey meaning stated above? 
A. He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow.
B. He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow.
C. He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow.
C. He isn't flying to Paris tomorrow.
• Q7 Find the intonation pattern in the given sentence.
So you both live in Los Angeles? Well Alex does……
A. Rising intonation
B. Falling intonation
C. Rise- Fall intonation
D. Fall – Rise intonation
• Q7 Find the intonation pattern in the given sentence.
So you both live in Los Angeles? Well Alex does……
A. Rising intonation
B. Falling intonation
C. Rise- Fall intonation
D. Fall – Rise intonation
UNIT 3
Narration
• Q1. He said to me, "I am ready".
A. He told to me that he is ready.
B. He told me that he was ready.
C. He told me that I am ready.
D. He told me that I will ready.
• Q1. He said to me, "I am ready".
A. He told to me that he is ready.
B. He told me that he was ready.
C. He told me that I am ready.
D. He told me that I will ready.
•  Q2. Sonia said, "You help my sister".
• Sonia said that I helps her sister.
• Sonia said to me that I helped her sister.
• Sonia said that I helped her sister.
• Sonia says that I helped her sister.
• Q2. Sonia said, "You help my sister".
A. Sonia said that I helps her sister.
B. Sonia said to me that I helped her sister.
C. Sonia said that I helped her sister.
D. Sonia says that I helped her sister.
• Q3. They said, "We can not live without oxygen".
A. They said that we can not live without oxygen.
B. They said that they can not live without oxygen.
C. They said that they would not live without oxygen.
D. They says that they can not live without oxygen.
• Q3. They said, "We can not live without oxygen".
A. They said that we can not live without oxygen.
B. They said that they can not live without oxygen.
C. They said that they would not live without oxygen.
D. They says that they can not live without oxygen.

• Please note : When we use "we" with the universal truth,

then "we" is not changed in Indirect speech.
• Q4. the Indian express says, "We shall issue a astrology
section in our Thursday's paper".
A. The Indian express says that it will issue a astrology
section in their Thursday's paper.
B. The Indian express says that they will issue a astrology
section in their Thursday's paper.
C. The Indian express said that it will issue a astrology
section in its Thursday's paper.
D. The Indian express says that it will issue a astrology
section in its Thursday's paper.
• Q4. the Indian express says, "We shall issue a astrology
section in our Thursday's paper".
A. The Indian express says that it will issue a astrology section
in their Thursday's paper.
B. The Indian express says that they will issue a astrology
section in their Thursday's paper.
C. The Indian express said that it will issue a astrology section
in its Thursday's paper.
D. The Indian express says that it will issue a astrology section
in its Thursday's paper.
• Please note : Whenever some newspaper or magazine use
"we", "our", "us" in direct speech , then it should be replaced
by "it" or "its" in indirect speech.
• Q5. "Mrs. Collins, I will not be in class next week
because I am going out of town to visit family" is an
example of a good Subject Line.
• TRUE
• FALSE
• Q5. "Mrs. Collins, I will not be in class next week
because I am going out of town to visit family" is an
example of a good Subject Line.
• TRUE
• FALSE
• Q6. What does BCC stand for? 
A. Behind Carbon Copy
B. Business Copy Carbon
C. Blind Copy Copy
D. Blind Carbon Copy
• Q6. What does BCC stand for? 
A. Behind Carbon Copy
B. Business Copy Carbon
C. Blind Copy Copy
D. Blind Carbon Copy
• Q7.  What does "cc" stand for in the address bar?
A. Copy Cat
B. Counting Coins
C. Carbon Copy
D. Clueless Captain
• Q7.  What does "cc" stand for in the address bar?
A. Copy Cat
B. Counting Coins
C. Carbon Copy
D. Clueless Captain
UNIT -4
ESSAY WRITING AND reading
comprehension
• 1. Words like "first, next, last, in conclusion" that give order to
your paragraph.

A. Transitions
B. Topic Sentence
C. Elaboration
D. Concluding sentence
• Words like "first, next, last, in conclusion" that give order to
your paragraph.
A. Transitions
B. Topic Sentence
C. Elaboration
D. Concluding sentence
Q2. What are the three main parts of an essay?
A. The hook, the topic sentence, and conclusion.
B. Introduction, Hook, Body
C. Introduction, Body, Conclusion
D. Claim, Counterclaim, Rebuttal.
Q2. What are the three main parts of an essay?
A. The hook, the topic sentence, and conclusion.
B. Introduction, Hook, Body
C. Introduction, Body, Conclusion
D. Claim, Counterclaim, Rebuttal.
• 3. In which part of the argumentative essay will you include
your evidence?

A. Introduction
B. Body Paragraph
C. Hook
D. Conclusion
• In which part of the argumentative essay will you include your
evidence?

A. Introduction
B. Body Paragraph
C. Hook
D. Conclusion
• What should be in your introduction?

A. Topic Sentence and clarifying statement

B. Examples and text evidence
C. Introduction of the topic and thesis statement
• What should be in your introduction?

A. Topic Sentence and clarifying statement

B. Examples and text evidence
C. Introduction of the topic and thesis statement
• The sentence that states the central message you want to
communicate is the

A. thesis statement.
B. topic sentence.
C. conclusion.
D. hook.
• The sentence that states the central message you want to
communicate is the

A. thesis statement.
B. topic sentence.
C. conclusion.
D. hook.
• Restating a quotation in your own words is called

A. plagiarizing.
B. paraphrasing.
C. summarizing.
D. reviewing.
• Restating a quotation in your own words is called

A. plagiarizing.
B. paraphrasing.
C. summarizing.
D. reviewing.
• When you are editing your paper, you are

A. correcting technical mistakes in spelling, grammar, and

punctuation.
B. evaluating if each idea is fully developed, explained, and
supported by examples.
C. evaluating paragraph structure.
D. checking if all your facts are correct
• When you are editing your paper, you are

A. correcting technical mistakes in spelling, grammar, and

punctuation.
B. evaluating if each idea is fully developed, explained, and
supported by examples.
C. evaluating paragraph structure.
D. checking if all your facts are correct
• After 1933 the western world realized that it was living in another age of
absolutism, or rather, in an age of totalitarian dictatorship far worse than
the worst of the old absolute kings; such regimes could be seen to be
enforcing a "law" that was the command barely of a "sovereign" but of a
cruel and despot. It was ordinary people who protested: "This cannot
be.law, if it is to deserve the name of law, must respect at least some
basic rights to which every human being is entitled simply because he is
human.

• Q1. In accordance with the passage, compared with the absolute kings of
the past, modern dictators ........
A. have been far more cruel and oppressive
B. have shown a relatively high respect for the rights of the individual
C. have received considerable support from ordinary people
D. have shown leniency in the enforcement of law
E. have always been anxious to rule by law
• After 1933 the western world realized that it was living in another age of
absolutism, or rather, in an age of totalitarian dictatorship far worse than the
worst of the old absolute kings; such regimes could be seen to be enforcing a
"law" that was the command barely of a "sovereign" but of a cruel and despot. It
was ordinary people who protested: "This cannot be.law, if it is to deserve the
name of law, must respect at least some basic rights to which every human being
is entitled simply because he is human.

Q1. In accordance with the passage, compared with the absolute kings of the past,
modern dictators ........
A. have been far more cruel and oppressive
B. have shown a relatively high respect for the rights of the individual
C. have received considerable support from ordinary people
D. have shown leniency in the enforcement of law
E. have always been anxious to rule by law
• After 1933 the western world realized that it was living in another age
of absolutism, or rather, in an age of totalitarian dictatorship far worse
than the worst of the old absolute kings; such regimes could be seen to
be enforcing a "law" that was the command barely of a "sovereign"
but of a cruel and despot. It was ordinary people who protested: "This
cannot be.law, if it is to deserve the name of law, must respect at least
some basic rights to which every human being is entitled simply
because he is human.

Q2. The writer supposes that a major distinctive feature of "law" is........
A. to prevent the rise of totalitarianism in society
B. that it disregards the rights of ordinary people
C. respect for basic human rights
D. to uphold respect for the sovereign
E. that it should make a return to absolutism impossible
• After 1933 the western world realized that it was living in another age of
absolutism, or rather, in an age of totalitarian dictatorship far worse than the
worst of the old absolute kings; such regimes could be seen to be enforcing
a "law" that was the command barely of a "sovereign" but of a cruel and
despot. It was ordinary people who protested: "This cannot be.law, if it is to
deserve the name of law, must respect at least some basic rights to which
every human being is entitled simply because he is human.

Q2. The writer supposes that a major distinctive feature of "law" is........
A. to prevent the rise of totalitarianism in society
B. that it disregards the rights of ordinary people
C. respect for basic human rights
D. to uphold respect for the sovereign
E. that it should make a return to absolutism impossible
• The shopping centre emerged in the early 1900s in the suburbs that encircled
American cities. Suburbs on that time tended to be chiefly residential and depend on
the traditional city centres for shopping. The first suburban commercial centres had
three identifiable features: they consisted of a number of stores built and leased by a
single developer; they were usually situated at a significant intersection, and they
provided plenty of free, off-street parking. These "shopping villages" resembled
small-town shopping districts, both in their architecture, which was carefully
traditional, and in their layout, which integrated them into the surrounding
neighbourhood. The stores faced the street and the parking were usually in the rear.

Q3. Before the introduction of shopping centres, those living in the residential
suburban areas ..........
A. were anxious to keep commercial activities there to a minimum
B. usually preferred to go to nearby small towns so as to do their shopping
C. forced parking a great problem when they went downtown to shop
D. had to go into the centre of the city to do their shopping
E. felt that shopping facilities could not be integrated such neighbourhoods
• The shopping centre emerged in the early 1900s in the suburbs that encircled American
cities. Suburbs on that time tended to be chiefly residential and depend on the traditional
city centres for shopping. The first suburban commercial centres had three identifiable
features: they consisted of a number of stores built and leased by a single developer; they
were usually situated at a significant intersection, and they provided plenty of free, off-
street parking. These "shopping villages" resembled small-town shopping districts, both
in their architecture, which was carefully traditional, and in their layout, which integrated
them into the surrounding neighbourhood. The stores faced the street and the parking
were usually in the rear.

Q3. Before the introduction of shopping centres, those living in the residential suburban
areas ..........
A. were anxious to keep commercial activities there to a minimum
B. usually preferred to go to nearby small towns so as to do their shopping
C. forced parking a great problem when they went downtown to shop
D. had to go into the centre of the city to do their shopping
E. felt that shopping facilities could not be integrated such neighbourhoods
The shopping centre emerged in the early 1900s in the suburbs that encircled
American cities. Suburbs on that time tended to be chiefly residential and depend
on the traditional city centres for shopping. The first suburban commercial centres
had three identifiable features: they consisted of a number of stores built and leased
by a single developer; they were usually situated at a significant intersection, and
they provided plenty of free, off-street parking. These "shopping villages"
resembled small-town shopping districts, both in their architecture, which was
carefully traditional, and in their layout, which integrated them into the surrounding
neighbourhood. The stores faced the street and the parking were usually in the rear.

Q4. A popular site for the early shopping centres in the United States was .........
A. the very heart of a big city with roads directly serving all the suburbs
B. one near an important road junction with space enough to provide sufficient
parking facilities
C. the villages bordering on the suburbs on a town, since they too would benefit
from the facilities
D. a suitable point midway between two of three suburban areas
E. one that was in the hands of a single developer and architect
• The shopping centre emerged in the early 1900s in the suburbs that encircled
American cities. Suburbs on that time tended to be chiefly residential and depend
on the traditional city centres for shopping. The first suburban commercial centres
had three identifiable features: they consisted of a number of stores built and leased
by a single developer; they were usually situated at a significant intersection, and
they provided plenty of free, off-street parking. These "shopping villages"
resembled small-town shopping districts, both in their architecture, which was
carefully traditional, and in their layout, which integrated them into the surrounding
neighbourhood. The stores faced the street and the parking were usually in the rear.

• Q4. A popular site for the early shopping centres in the United States was .........
A. the very heart of a big city with roads directly serving all the suburbs
B. one near an important road junction with space enough to provide sufficient
parking facilities
C. the villages bordering on the suburbs on a town, since they too would benefit
from the facilities
D. a suitable point midway between two of three suburban areas
E. one that was in the hands of a single developer and architect
• Computers have brought about a greater change in our society in recent
decades than any other force and are likely to continue to do so until the
next century, The industry surrounding computers is growing rapidly,
providing employment for many but at the same time making others
redundant. Jobs which computers can do far more reliably, faster and
cheaper are lost. The redeployment of labour and the prospect of increased
leisure are causing social upheavals which require new ideas and significant
changes of attitude.

Q5. It is pointed out in the passage that the introduction of computers into
daily life ________.
A. has had no effect on the traditional habits of society
B. has completely solved the problem of unemployment
C. can be regarded as the greatest technical achievement of the age
D. has led to an improvement in working conditions
E. has brought a lot of benefits but has also created some serious problems
• Computers have brought about a greater change in our society in recent decades
than any other force and are likely to continue to do so until the next century,
The industry surrounding computers is growing rapidly, providing employment
for many but at the same time making others redundant. Jobs which computers
can do far more reliably, faster and cheaper are lost. The redeployment of labour
and the prospect of increased leisure are causing social upheavals which require
new ideas and significant changes of attitude.

Q5. It is pointed out in the passage that the introduction of computers into daily
life ________.
A. has had no effect on the traditional habits of society
B. has completely solved the problem of unemployment
C. can be regarded as the greatest technical achievement of the age
D. has led to an improvement in working conditions
E. has brought a lot of benefits but has also created some serious problems
• Computers have brought about a greater change in our society in recent
decades than any other force and are likely to continue to do so until the
next century, The industry surrounding computers is growing rapidly,
providing employment for many but at the same time making others
redundant. Jobs which computers can do far more reliably, faster and
cheaper are lost. The redeployment of labour and the prospect of increased
leisure are causing social upheavals which require new ideas and
significant changes of attitude.

Q6. As is implied in the passage, the widespread use of computers in

industry_______.
A. has made considerable changes in the working system inevitable
B. has reduced the working hours but not the work load
C. has unfortunately increased production costs
D. will, in the next century, lead to even more disillusionment
E. has given rise to many new solutions to the problems of unemployment
• Computers have brought about a greater change in our society in recent decades
than any other force and are likely to continue to do so until the next century,
The industry surrounding computers is growing rapidly, providing employment
for many but at the same time making others redundant. Jobs which computers
can do far more reliably, faster and cheaper are lost. The redeployment of labour
and the prospect of increased leisure are causing social upheavals which require
new ideas and significant changes of attitude.

Q6. As is implied in the passage, the widespread use of computers in

industry_______.
A. has made considerable changes in the working system inevitable
B. has reduced the working hours but not the work load
C. has unfortunately increased production costs
D. will, in the next century, lead to even more disillusionment
E. has given rise to many new solutions to the problems of unemployment
• The achievement of equality between men and women implies that they should
have equal rights, opportunities and responsibilities to enable them to develop their
talents and capabilities for their own personal fulfilment and the benefit of society.
To that end a reassessment of the functions and roles traditionally allotted to each
sex within the family and the community at large is essential. Governments should
ensure both women and men equality before law, the provision of facilities for
equality of educational opportunities and training, equality in conditions of
employment, including remuneration and adequate social security.

Q7. The passage emphasizes that the question of equality between men and women
_______ .
A. has seldom been treated seriously at a governmental level
B. includes not only equality before the law, but also equality in opportunities and
exercise of rights
C. is primarily related to economic matters
D. has been greatly exaggerated in recent decades
E. was never intended to include the field of politics
• The achievement of equality between men and women implies that they should
have equal rights, opportunities and responsibilities to enable them to develop their
talents and capabilities for their own personal fulfilment and the benefit of society.
To that end a reassessment of the functions and roles traditionally allotted to each
sex within the family and the community at large is essential. Governments should
ensure both women and men equality before law, the provision of facilities for
equality of educational opportunities and training, equality in conditions of
employment, including remuneration and adequate social security.

Q7. The passage emphasizes that the question of equality between men and women
_______ .
A. has seldom been treated seriously at a governmental level
B. includes not only equality before the law, but also equality in opportunities and
exercise of rights
C. is primarily related to economic matters
D. has been greatly exaggerated in recent decades
E. was never intended to include the field of politics
• The achievement of equality between men and women implies that they
should have equal rights, opportunities and responsibilities to enable them to
develop their talents and capabilities for their own personal fulfilment and the
benefit of society. To that end a reassessment of the functions and roles
traditionally allotted to each sex within the family and the community at large
is essential. Governments should ensure both women and men equality before
law, the provision of facilities for equality of educational opportunities and
training, equality in conditions of employment, including remuneration and
adequate social security.

Q8. As is pointed out in the passage, the equality of the sexes essentially means
for everyone ______ .
A. a wide range of benefits including job security and a steady income
B. the definition of the functions and roles each gender has in society
C. a full development of individual talents and capabilities
D. increase in family responsibilities
E. a similar life style and fewer responsibilities
• The achievement of equality between men and women implies that they should have
equal rights, opportunities and responsibilities to enable them to develop their talents
and capabilities for their own personal fulfilment and the benefit of society. To that
end a reassessment of the functions and roles traditionally allotted to each sex within
the family and the community at large is essential. Governments should ensure both
women and men equality before law, the provision of facilities for equality of
educational opportunities and training, equality in conditions of employment,
including remuneration and adequate social security.

Q8. As is pointed out in the passage, the equality of the sexes essentially means for
everyone ______ .
A. a wide range of benefits including job security and a steady income
B. the definition of the functions and roles each gender has in society
C. a full development of individual talents and capabilities
D. increase in family responsibilities
E. a similar life style and fewer responsibilities
UNIT 5
Cover letter and active passive
Q1 Change the voice:
After driving professor Kumar to the museum she dropped him at his hotel.

A. After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar was dropped at his
hotel.

B. Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his hotel.

C. After she had driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped
him at his hotel.

D. After she was driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped
him at his hotel.
Q1 Change the voice:
After driving professor Kumar to the museum she dropped him at his hotel.

A. After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar was dropped at his
hotel.

B. Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his hotel.

C. After she had driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped
him at his hotel.

D. After she was driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped
him at his hotel.
• Q2. Change the voice:
• The teacher demonstrated the complex rules of grammar while
using them.
• The complex rules of grammar had been demonstrated by the
teacher.

• B. The complex rules of grammar were demonstrated by the teacher

before those were being used.

• C. The complex rules of grammar were demonstrated by the teacher

while using them.

• D. The complex rules of grammar were demonstrated by the teacher

while those were being used.
Q2. Change the voice:

The teacher demonstrated the complex rules of grammar while using

them.

A. The complex rules of grammar had been demonstrated by the

teacher.

B. The complex rules of grammar were demonstrated by the teacher

before those were being used.

C. The complex rules of grammar were demonstrated by the teacher

while using them.

D. The complex rules of grammar were demonstrated by the teacher

while those were being used.
CHANGE THE VOICE
Q3. Can we rely on him?
(A) Can he be relied on?
(B) Can we be relied by him?
(C) Can he be relied by us?
(D) Can we be relied on by him?
CHANGE THE VOICE
Q3. Can we rely on him?
(A) Can he be relied on?
(B) Can we be relied by him?
(C) Can he be relied by us?
(D) Can we be relied on by him?
CHANGE THE VOICE

Q4. I will complete my project next week.

(A) Next week my project I will complete.

(B) Next week my project will be completed.
(C) My project will be completed by me next week.
(D) My project I will complete next week.
CHANGE THE VOICE

Q4. I will complete my project next week.

(A) Next week my project I will complete.

(B) Next week my project will be completed.
(C) My project will be completed by me next week.
(D) My project I will complete next week.
CHANGE THE VOICE
Q5. God helps those who help themselves.
(A) Those who help themselves help God.
(B) Those who help themselves are helped by God.
(C) Those who help God help themselves.
(D) Those who are helped by themselves are helped by
God.
CHANGE THE VOICE
Q5. God helps those who help themselves.
(A) Those who help themselves help God.
(B) Those who help themselves are helped by God.
(C) Those who help God help themselves.
(D) Those who are helped by themselves are helped by
God.
CHANGE THE VOICE
Q6. Why didn’t you bring the matter to my notice?
(A) Why wasn’t the matter brought to my notice ?
(B) Why isn’t the matter brought by you to my notice?
(C) Why isn’t the matter brought to my notice?
(D) Why wasn’t the matter brought by you to my notice?
CHANGE THE VOICE
Q6. Why didn’t you bring the matter to my notice?
(A) Why wasn’t the matter brought to my notice ?
(B) Why isn’t the matter brought by you to my notice?
(C) Why isn’t the matter brought to my notice?
(D) Why wasn’t the matter brought by you to my notice?
Change the voice

Q7. The task should have been completed by the

student.
(A) The student should have completed the task.
(B) The student should complete the task.
(C) The student should be completing the task.
(D) The student should have complete the task.
Change the voice

Q7. The task should have been completed by the

student.
(A) The student should have completed the task.
(B) The student should complete the task.
(C) The student should be completing the task.
(D) The student should have complete the task.
CHANGE THE VOICE

Q8. He was caught by the police for littering up the

street
(A) The police has caught him littering up the street.
(B) The police was catching him littering up the street.
(C) The police caught him for littering up the street.
(D) The police catches him littering up the street
CHANGE THE VOICE

Q8. He was caught by the police for littering up the

street
(A) The police has caught him littering up the street.
(B) The police was catching him littering up the street.
(C) The police caught him for littering up the street.
(D) The police catches him littering up the street
Q9.  When you end your cover letter by stating that you
look forward to hearing from the company, you are using a
__________ statement.
A. bullying 
B. passively toned
C. privately intended
D. tone of expectation in the 
Q9.  When you end your cover letter by stating that you
look forward to hearing from the company, you are using a
__________ statement.
A. bullying 
B. passively toned
C. privately intended
D. tone of expectation in the 
Q10. Ideally, in which paragraph of a cover letter does the
applicant inform the reason for writing the letter?
A. First 
B. Where ever one feels
C. Last paragraph
D. The closing line
Q10. Ideally, in which paragraph of a cover letter does the
applicant inform the reason for writing the letter?
A. First 
B. Where ever one feels
C. Last paragraph
D. The closing line
Q11. A COVER LETTER along with a CV/Resume 

A. is sent in response to an online job posting

B. is never sent to show intent for the job vacancy
C. is sent to general public on Facebook
D. is kept very private
Q11. A COVER LETTER along with a CV/Resume 

A. is sent in response to an online job posting

B. is never sent to show intent for the job vacancy
C. is sent to general public on Facebook
D. is kept very private
Q12.Which of the following is necessary for a successful
cover letter?
A. Opening, body and closing paragraph
B. Addressing the letter to a specific individual or
department
C. Connecting your skills to the ones profiled in the job
advertisement
D. All of the above 
Q12.Which of the following is necessary for a successful
cover letter?
A. Opening, body and closing paragraph
B. Addressing the letter to a specific individual or
department
C. Connecting your skills to the ones profiled in the job
advertisement
D. All of the above 
Q13.When writing your cover letter, you should:
A. Simply copy and paste the same letter over and over.
B. Copy and paste the first and last paragraphs, but
tailor the rest to the employer.
C. Create an original letter for each job application
Q13.When writing your cover letter, you should:
A. Simply copy and paste the same letter over and over.
B. Copy and paste the first and last paragraphs, but
tailor the rest to the employer.
C. Create an original letter for each job application
Q14. What is a very important tip you should do before
submitting your cover letter?
A. Spell Check
B. Have someone else read it
C. Make it all bold
D. None of these
Q14. What is a very important tip you should do before
submitting your cover letter?
A. Spell Check
B. Have someone else read it
C. Make it all bold
D. None of these
Q15. What will a good cover letter get you? 
A. a document to go with your CV 
B. a job
C. lots of praise 
D. an interview
Q15. What will a good cover letter get you? 
A. a document to go with your CV 
B. a job
C. lots of praise 
D. an interview
UNIT-6
Critical reasoning
Because no employee wants to be associated with bad news in the eyes of a
superior, information about serious problems at lower levels is progressively
softened and distorted as it goes up each step in the management hierarchy. the
chief executive is therefore, less well informed about problems at lower levels than
are his or her subordinates at those levels.

Q1. The conclusion drawn above is based on the assumption that

a) problems should be solved at levels in the management hierarchy at which
they occur
b) employees should be rewarded for accurately reporting problems to their
superiors

c) problems-solving ability is more important at higher levels than it is at lower

levels of the management hierarchy

d) chief executives obtain information about problems at lower levels from the no
source other than their subordinates

e) some employees are more are concerned about truth than about the way they
are perceived by their superiors
Because no employee wants to be associated with bad news in the eyes of a superior,
information about serious problems at lower levels is progressively softened and
distorted as it goes up each step in the management hierarchy. the chief executive is
therefore, less well informed about problems at lower levels than are his or her
subordinates at those levels.

Q1. The conclusion drawn above is based on the assumption that

a) problems should be solved at levels in the management hierarchy at which they
occur
b) employees should be rewarded for accurately reporting problems to their superiors

c) problems-solving ability is more important at higher levels than it is at lower levels of

the management hierarchy

d) chief executives obtain information about problems at lower levels from the no source
other than their subordinates

e) some employees are more are concerned about truth than about the way they are
perceived by their superiors
Burglar alarm systems can be inaccurate in two ways: they can fail to detect
an intruder when one is present, or they can falsely report the presence of an
intruder. To detect the presence of an intruder most accurately, homeowners
should purchase the system that is least likely to falsely report the presence of
an intruder.

Q2. If true, which of the following would most strengthen the above
recommendation?

A) The police respond to automatic alerts from burglar alarms more quickly
than they do to telephone calls reporting the presence of an intruder.
B) The burglar alarm system that is least likely to sound its alarm when there
is no intruder present is equal in price to all other major brands of alarm
systems.
C) Local police forces vary in their response rates to burglar alarm systems.
D) All burglar alarm systems have the same rate of mistaking an animal for a
burglar
. E) All burglar alarm systems have the same rate of failing to detect an
intruder when one is present.
Burglar alarm systems can be inaccurate in two ways: they can fail to detect
an intruder when one is present, or they can falsely report the presence of an
intruder. To detect the presence of an intruder most accurately, homeowners
should purchase the system that is least likely to falsely report the presence of
an intruder.

Q2. If true, which of the following would most strengthen the above
recommendation?

A) The police respond to automatic alerts from burglar alarms more quickly
than they do to telephone calls reporting the presence of an intruder.
B) The burglar alarm system that is least likely to sound its alarm when there
is no intruder present is equal in price to all other major brands of alarm
systems.
C) Local police forces vary in their response rates to burglar alarm systems.
D) All burglar alarm systems have the same rate of mistaking an animal for a
burglar
. E) All burglar alarm systems have the same rate of failing to detect an
intruder when one is present.
Gortland has long been narrowly self-sufficient in both grain and meat.
However, as per capita income in Gortland has risen toward the world average,
per capita consumption of meat has also risen toward the world average, and it
takes several pounds of grain to produce one pound of meat. Therefore, since
per capita income continues to rise, whereas domestic grain production will not
increase, Gortland will soon have to import either grain or meat or both.

Q3. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

A: The total acreage devoted to grain production in Gortland will not decrease
substantially.
B: The population of Gortland has remained relatively constant during the
country's years of growing prosperity.
C: The per capita consumption of meat in Gortland is roughly the same across
all income levels.
D: In Gortland, neither meat nor grain is subject to government price controls.
E: People in Gortland who increase their consumption of meat will not radically
decrease their consumption of grain.
Gortland has long been narrowly self-sufficient in both grain and meat. However, as per
capita income in Gortland has risen toward the world average, per capita consumption of
meat has also risen toward the world average, and it takes several pounds of grain to
produce one pound of meat. Therefore, since per capita income continues to rise,
whereas domestic grain production will not increase, Gortland will soon have to import
either grain or meat or both.

Q3. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

A: The total acreage devoted to grain production in Gortland will not decrease
substantially.
B: The population of Gortland has remained relatively constant during the country's
years of growing prosperity.
C: The per capita consumption of meat in Gortland is roughly the same across all
income levels.
D: In Gortland, neither meat nor grain is subject to government price controls.
E: People in Gortland who increase their consumption of meat will not radically decrease
their consumption of grain.
A drug that is highly effective in treating many types of infection can, at
present, be obtained only from the bark of the ibora, a tree that is quite rare in
the wild. It takes the bark of 5,000 trees to make one kilogram of the drug. It
follows, therefore, that continued production of the drug must inevitably lead
to the ibora's extinction.

Q4. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument
above?

A.The drug made from ibora bark is dispensed to doctors from a central
authority.

B.The drug made from ibora bark is expensive to produce.

C.The leaves of the ibora are used in a number of medical products.

D.The ibora can be propagated from cuttings and grown under cultivation.

E.The ibora generally grows in largely inaccessible places.

A drug that is highly effective in treating many types of infection can, at
present, be obtained only from the bark of the ibora, a tree that is quite rare in
the wild. It takes the bark of 5,000 trees to make one kilogram of the drug. It
follows, therefore, that continued production of the drug must inevitably lead
to the ibora's extinction.

Q4. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument
above?

A.The drug made from ibora bark is dispensed to doctors from a central
authority.

B.The drug made from ibora bark is expensive to produce.

C.The leaves of the ibora are used in a number of medical products.

D.The ibora can be propagated from cuttings and grown under cultivation.

E.The ibora generally grows in largely inaccessible places.

Although parapsychology is often considered a pseudoscience, it is in fact a
genuine scientific enterprise, for it uses scientific methods such as controlled
experiments and statistical tests of clearly stated hypotheses to examine the
questions it raises.

Q5. The conclusion above is properly drawn ifwhich of the following is

assumed?

A.If a field of study can conclusively answer the questions it raises, then it is
a genuine science.

B.Since parapsychology uses scientific methods, it will produce credible

results.

C.Any enterprise that does not use controlled experiments and statistical
tests is not genuine science.

D.Any field of study that employs scientific methods is a genuine scientific

enterprise.
Although parapsychology is often considered a pseudoscience, it is in fact a genuine
scientific enterprise, for it uses scientific methods such as controlled experiments and
statistical tests of clearly stated hypotheses to examine the questions it raises.

Q5. The conclusion above is properly drawn ifwhich of the following is assumed?

A.If a field of study can conclusively answer the questions it raises, then it is a genuine
science.

B.Since parapsychology uses scientific methods, it will produce credible results.

C.Any enterprise that does not use controlled experiments and statistical tests is not
genuine science.

D.Any field of study that employs scientific methods is a genuine scientific enterprise.

E.Since parapsychology raises clearly statable questions, they can be tested in

controlled experiments
Lauren is clearly going to make an awful professor. Nearly
half of her students failed their final this past spring. She
should probably choose another career path, because her
students’ performance demonstrates that she doesn’t teach
very well.
Q6. What statement, if true, most weakens the argument
above?

A.This was Lauren’s second time teaching a college class.

B.The class Lauren was teaching is a required class for all
freshmen.
C. The students who failed the exam also had poor
attendance.
D. The students who passed the exam attended an optional
review session Lauren’s teaching assistant held.
E. Lauren struggled early in the semester with lesson
planning.
Lauren is clearly going to make an awful professor. Nearly half
of her students failed their final this past spring. She should
probably choose another career path, because her students’
performance demonstrates that she doesn’t teach very well.
Q6. What statement, if true, most weakens the argument
above?

A. This was Lauren’s second time teaching a college class.

B. The class Lauren was teaching is a required class for all
freshmen.
C. The students who failed the exam also had poor attendance.
D. The students who passed the exam attended an optional
review session Lauren’s teaching assistant held.
E. Lauren struggled early in the semester with lesson planning
• In order to combat Carville’s rampant homeless problem, Mayor
Bloomfield recently proposed a ban on sleeping outdoors in the city’s
many parks. He claims that such a measure will force the homeless to
either leave Carville or to find means other than sleeping in public
parks.
• Q7. Which of the following, if true, suggests that Mayor Bloomfield’s
plan will be successful?
• (A) Until the ban, the city’s many homeless shelters were at less than
fifty percent occupancy.
• (B) Many homeless tend to congregate underneath Carville’s
numerous overpasses.
• (C) Adjacent cities have even tougher measures on the homeless
sleeping outdoors.
• (D) The percent of Carville’s population that has been homeless has
been slowly decreasing in the last five years.
• (E) Mayor Jonesmith, Mayor Bloomfield’s predecessor, had been far
more tolerant towards the city’s homeless population.
In order to combat Carville’s rampant homeless problem, Mayor Bloomfield
recently proposed a ban on sleeping outdoors in the city’s many parks. He
claims that such a measure will force the homeless to either leave Carville or
to find means other than sleeping in public parks.
Q7. Which of the following, if true, suggests that Mayor Bloomfield’s plan will
be successful?
(A) Until the ban, the city’s many homeless shelters were at less than fifty
percent occupancy.
(B) Many homeless tend to congregate underneath Carville’s numerous
overpasses.
(C) Adjacent cities have even tougher measures on the homeless sleeping
outdoors.
(D) The percent of Carville’s population that has been homeless has been
slowly decreasing in the last five years.
(E) Mayor Jonesmith, Mayor Bloomfield’s predecessor, had been far more
tolerant towards the city’s homeless population.
A minor league baseball franchise experienced a drop in attendance this week
after they suffered three losses by margins of ten runs or more last week.
 Many spectators of those games wrote letters to the editors of the local
sporting news, complaining of the poor play of the team in those three losses.
 Nevertheless, the front office of this baseball franchise maintains that the
team’s poor play in those three losses has nothing to do with this week’s
decline in attendance.
Q8. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the position held by
the front office of the baseball franchise?
(A) The spectators who wrote letters to the local sporting news were long-
standing fans of this minor league baseball team.
(B) Many minor league baseball franchises attribute a drop in attendance to the
quality of play of the team only after a string of losses.
(C) Other minor league teams in that region of the state reported a similar drop
in attendance this week.
(D) This was not the first time this team suffered multiple lopsided losses in a
single week, prompting similar letters to the local sporting news.
(E) This minor league team is over four hours from the closest major league
team, so many of the minor league team’s fans do not often attend major
league games.
A minor league baseball franchise experienced a drop in attendance this week after they
suffered three losses by margins of ten runs or more last week.  Many spectators of
those games wrote letters to the editors of the local sporting news, complaining of the
poor play of the team in those three losses.  Nevertheless, the front office of this
baseball franchise maintains that the team’s poor play in those three losses has nothing
to do with this week’s decline in attendance.
Q8. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the position held by the front
office of the baseball franchise?
(A) The spectators who wrote letters to the local sporting news were long-standing fans
of this minor league baseball team.
(B) Many minor league baseball franchises attribute a drop in attendance to the quality
of play of the team only after a string of losses.
(C) Other minor league teams in that region of the state reported a similar drop in
attendance this week.
(D) This was not the first time this team suffered multiple lopsided losses in a single
week, prompting similar letters to the local sporting news.
(E) This minor league team is over four hours from the closest major league team, so
many of the minor league team’s fans do not often attend major league games.
Toddlers are watching television more than twice as much as they did two
decades ago. A recent research showed that because of this, toddlers today
develop their motor skills slower than children their age in the compared period.
Therefore, toddlers who spend most of their time in front of the TV have less
developed motor skills than those who spend the majority of their time in other
occupations.

Q9. The argument depends on which of the following assumptions?

A) Television can be used to enhance many skills of children aged 1-3.

B) Overall, watching television has a negative effect on youngchildren.
C) Toddlers should be encouraged to play outdoors more.
D) Toddlers who watch less television are engaged in activities which develop
their motor skills.
E) Only the physical removal of the television set from homes with young
children will enable them to develop their motor skills more quickly
Toddlers are watching television more than twice as much as they did two
decades ago. A recent research showed that because of this, toddlers today
develop their motor skills slower than children their age in the compared period.
Therefore, toddlers who spend most of their time in front of the TV have less
developed motor skills than those who spend the majority of their time in other
occupations.

Q9. The argument depends on which of the following assumptions?

A) Television can be used to enhance many skills of children aged 1-3.

B) Overall, watching television has a negative effect on youngchildren.
C) Toddlers should be encouraged to play outdoors more.
D) Toddlers who watch less television are engaged in activities which develop
their motor skills.
E) Only the physical removal of the television set from homes with young
children will enable them to develop their motor skills more quickly
Interviewer: An alarming statistic reported in the Hobern Medical Journal is
that 90 percent of the people in this country now report that they know
someone who has heart disease.
Dr. Summer: But an expected level of heart disease is 5 percent, or in other
words, 1 out of every 20 people. So at any given time if a person knows
approximately 50 people, 1 or more will very likely suffer from heart disease.

Q10. Dr. Summer’s argument is structured to lead to which of the following

conclusion?

A. The fact that 90 percent of the people know someone who suffers from
heart disease is not an indication that heart disease is abnormally high.
B. The current level of heart disease is not moderate.
C. If at least 5 percent of the population suffered from heart disease, the
result of questioning a representative group of people cannot be the
percentage the interviewer cites
D. It is unlikely that the people whose statements the interviewer cites are
giving accurate reports.
E. . If a person with heart disease is given as a certain percent, the actual
percentage of those with heart disease is even higher
Interviewer: An alarming statistic reported in the Hobern Medical Journal is that 90
percent of the people in this country now report that they know someone who has
heart disease.
Dr. Summer: But an expected level of heart disease is 5 percent, or in other words, 1
out of every 20 people. So at any given time if a person knows approximately 50
people, 1 or more will very likely suffer from heart disease.

Q10. Dr. Summer’s argument is structured to lead to which of the following

conclusion?

A. The fact that 90 percent of the people know someone who suffers from heart
disease is not an indication that heart disease is abnormally high.
B. The current level of heart disease is not moderate.
C. If at least 5 percent of the population suffered from heart disease, the result of
questioning a representative group of people cannot be the percentage the
interviewer cites
D. It is unlikely that the people whose statements the interviewer cites are giving
accurate reports.
E. . If a person with heart disease is given as a certain percent, the actual
percentage of those with heart disease is even higher
 Exhaust released from a combustion engine is harmful when breathed in significant
quantities. Since exhaust poses a particular danger to health, Congress needs to place
regulations on the use of motorized vehicles and lawn care tools.

Q11. Which of the following, if true, does the most to strengthen the given argument?

A In heavily populated cities where motorized vehicles are most common, the level of
exhaust often exceeds maximum safety levels.

B The health risks associated with exhaust are much less severe than those
associated with an equivalent amount of second hand cigarette smoke.

C The most commonly used mode of transportation in the population over which
Congress has authority is bicycles.

D Coal burning locomotives produce a much deadlier exhaust than do combustion

engines.

E If Congress were to ban lawn care tools, there would be no significant benefit to the
health of the population over which Congress has authority.
 Exhaust released from a combustion engine is harmful when breathed in
significant quantities. Since exhaust poses a particular danger to health,
Congress needs to place regulations on the use of motorized vehicles and lawn
care tools.

Q11. Which of the following, if true, does the most to strengthen the given
argument?

A In heavily populated cities where motorized vehicles are most common, the
level of exhaust often exceeds maximum safety levels.
B The health risks associated with exhaust are much less severe than those
associated with an equivalent amount of second hand cigarette smoke.
C The most commonly used mode of transportation in the population over
which Congress has authority is bicycles.
D Coal burning locomotives produce a much deadlier exhaust than do
combustion engines.
E If Congress were to ban lawn care tools, there would be no significant benefit
to the health of the population over which Congress has authority.
Astronomer: Most stars are born in groups of thousands, each star in a group forming
from the same parent cloud of gas. Each cloud has a unique homogeneous chemical
composition. Therefore whenever two stars have the same chemical composition as
each other, they must have originated from the same cloud of gas.
Q12. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the astronomer's
argument?

(A) In some groups of stars, not every star originated from the same parent cloud of
gas.

(B) Clouds of gas of similar or identical chemical composition may be remote from
each other.

(C) Whenever a star forms, it inherits the chemical composition of its parent cloud of
gas.

(D) Many stars in vastly different parts of the universe are quite similar in their
chemical compositions.

(E) Astronomers can at least sometimes precisely determine whether a star has the
same chemical composition as its parent cloud of gas.
Astronomer: Most stars are born in groups of thousands, each star in a group forming
from the same parent cloud of gas. Each cloud has a unique homogeneous chemical
composition. Therefore whenever two stars have the same chemical composition as
each other, they must have originated from the same cloud of gas.
Q12. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the astronomer's
argument?

(A) In some groups of stars, not every star originated from the same parent cloud of
gas.

(B) Clouds of gas of similar or identical chemical composition may be remote from
each other.

(C) Whenever a star forms, it inherits the chemical composition of its parent cloud of
gas.

(D) Many stars in vastly different parts of the universe are quite similar in their
chemical compositions.

(E) Astronomers can at least sometimes precisely determine whether a star has the
same chemical composition as its parent cloud of gas.
Surveys consistently show that the best-selling ice cream flavor is vanilla, although
those who prefer chocolate rarely order vanilla. Vanilla-flavored candy, then, probably
sells better than chocolate-flavored candy.
Q13. Which of the following is an assumption upon which the author of the argument
relies?

A. Because someone prefers vanilla ice cream does not mean he prefers vanilla-
flavored candy.

B. • Children who prefer vanilla ice cream also tend to like chocolate candy.

C. • Those who prefer neither vanilla nor chocolate ice cream also prefer other flavors
of candy.

D. • Someone who prefers vanilla ice cream may still order chocolate on occasion.

E. • Preferences for certain ice cream flavors are similar to preferences for candy
flavors.
Surveys consistently show that the best-selling ice cream flavor is vanilla, although those
who prefer chocolate rarely order vanilla. Vanilla-flavored candy, then, probably sells
better than chocolate-flavored candy.
Q13. Which of the following is an assumption upon which the author of the argument
relies?

A. Because someone prefers vanilla ice cream does not mean he prefers vanilla-
flavored candy.

B. • Children who prefer vanilla ice cream also tend to like chocolate candy.

C. • Those who prefer neither vanilla nor chocolate ice cream also prefer other flavors of
candy.

D. • Someone who prefers vanilla ice cream may still order chocolate on occasion.

E. • Preferences for certain ice cream flavors are similar to preferences for candy
flavors.
In Eastland, from 2000 to 2005, the total consumption of fish increased by 4.5 percent,
and the total consumption of poultry products increased by 9.0 percent. During this
time, the population of Eastland increased by 6 percent, in part due to new arrivals from
surrounding areas.

Q14. Which of the following, if true, can one infer based on the statements above?

A)For new arrivals to Eastland between 2000 and 2005, fish was less likely to be a
major part of families’ diet than was poultry.

B)In 2005, the residents of Eastland consumed twice as much poultry as fish.

C)The per capita consumption of poultry in Eastland was higher in 2005 than it was in
2000.

D)Between 2000 and 2005, both fish and poultry products were a regular part of the
diet of a significant proportion of Eastland residents.

E)Between 2000 and 2005, the profits of wholesale distributors of poultry products
increased at a greater rate than did the profits of wholesale distributors of fish.
In Eastland, from 2000 to 2005, the total consumption of fish increased by 4.5 percent,
and the total consumption of poultry products increased by 9.0 percent. During this time,
the population of Eastland increased by 6 percent, in part due to new arrivals from
surrounding areas.

Q14. Which of the following, if true, can one infer based on the statements above?

A)For new arrivals to Eastland between 2000 and 2005, fish was less likely to be a
major part of families’ diet than was poultry.

B)In 2005, the residents of Eastland consumed twice as much poultry as fish.

C)The per capita consumption of poultry in Eastland was higher in 2005 than it was in
2000.

D)Between 2000 and 2005, both fish and poultry products were a regular part of the diet
of a significant proportion of Eastland residents.

E)Between 2000 and 2005, the profits of wholesale distributors of poultry products
increased at a greater rate than did the profits of wholesale distributors of fish
According to futuristic writings in the 1960s, robots would soon drastically reduce
crime. With night vision and ability to detect the chemicals involved in ballistics, such
robots could be programed to paralyze anyone roaming the street at night with a gun:
virtually all criminals fit that description. These criminals would be incapacitated and
thus unable to resist an easy arrest.

Q15. Which of the following, if true, most strongly indicates that the logic of the
prediction is flawed?

(A) Such robots would need to be charged during the daytime.

(B) Since policemen carry guns, the robots would incapacitate them just as efficiently
as they incapacitate criminals

(C) Because these robots could pose a hazard to cars at night, special barriers would
have to be constructed between the paths of the robots and the lanes of traffic.

(D) It's not obvious that reducing the number of criminals will always be beneficial.

(E) If the proposal plan were successful, it might ultimate result in a smaller and more
efficient police force.
According to futuristic writings in the 1960s, robots would soon drastically reduce
crime. With night vision and ability to detect the chemicals involved in ballistics, such
robots could be programed to paralyze anyone roaming the street at night with a gun:
virtually all criminals fit that description. These criminals would be incapacitated and
thus unable to resist an easy arrest.

Q15. Which of the following, if true, most strongly indicates that the logic of the
prediction is flawed?

(A) Such robots would need to be charged during the daytime.

(B) Since policemen carry guns, the robots would incapacitate them just as efficiently
as they incapacitate criminals

(C) Because these robots could pose a hazard to cars at night, special barriers would
have to be constructed between the paths of the robots and the lanes of traffic.

(D) It's not obvious that reducing the number of criminals will always be beneficial.

(E) If the proposal plan were successful, it might ultimate result in a smaller and
more efficient police force.