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1. Walter Model
Let,
Return on Investment = r
Cost of capital = k
Walter Model
Let,
Return on Investment = r
Cost of capital = k
EAT or PAT
P = D + ( r * (E - D)/ke)
ke
2. Gordon Model
P = E (1-b)
ke – (b*r)
Step I : Calculate P1
P0 = 1 * (D1+P1)
(1+K e )
P0 = Current price per share
P1 = Price per share at the end of the period
D1 = Dividend to be paid at the end of the period
K e = Cost of equity capital
E (Earnings)
n1 * P1 = I – (E – n D1)
( n * P0 ) = (n+n1) * P1 - I + E
(1+k e )
I I. Value of the firm when dividends are
not paid.
Put D1 = 0 in the above formulas
Step I : Calculate P1
P0 = 1 * (D1+P1)
(1+K e )
Putting D1 = 0 in step I above:
P0 = P1
(1+K e )
P0 = Current price per share
P1 = Price per share at the end of year 1
D1 = Dividend to be paid at the end of the year 1 in Rs.
K e = Cost of equity capital
Step II :
Amount to be raised by the issue of new
shares
n1 * P1 = I – (E – n D1)
n1 * P1 = I – E
Step III :
Number of additional shares to be issued
n1 = I – (E – n * D1)
P1
Putting D1 = 0 in step III above:
n1 = I – E
P1
Step I V :
( n * P0 ) = (n+n1) * P1 - I + E
(1+k e )
1. The capitalization rate of A1 ltd. is
12%. This company has outstanding
shares to the extent of 25,000 shares
selling at the rate of Rs. 100 each.
Anticipating a net income of Rs. 3,50,000
for the current financial year, A1 ltd. plans
to declare a dividend of Rs. 3 per share.
The company also has a new project the
investment requirement for which is Rs.
5,00,000. Show that under the MM model,
the dividend payment does not affect the
value of the firm.
To prove that the MM model holds good, we
have to show that the value of the firm
remains the same whether the dividends are
paid or not.
Step I : Calculate P1
P0 = 1 * (D1+P1)
(1+K e )
P0 = 1 * (D1+P1)
(1+K e )
100 = 1 * (3+P1)
(1+0.12 )
P1 = Rs. 109
Step II :
Amount to be raised by the issue of new
shares
n1 * P1 = I – (E – n D1)
n1 * P1 = Rs. 2,25,000
Step III :
Number of additional shares to be issued
n1 = I – (E – n * D1)
P1
n1 * P1 = Rs.2,25,000
n1 = 2,25,000 = 2064.22
109
Step IV : Value of the firm
( n * P0 )= (n+n1) * P1 - I + E (1+k e )
=(25,000+2064.22) * 109 - 5,00,000 + 3,50,000
(1+0.12 )
Step I : Calculate P1
P0 = 1 * (D1+P1)
(1+K e )
Putting D1 = 0 in step I above:
P0 = P1
(1+K e )
P0 = P1
(1+K e )
100 = P1
(1+0.12 )
P1 = Rs.112
Step II :
Amount to be raised by the issue of new
shares
n1 * P1 = I – (E – n D1)
n1 * P1 = I – E
n1 * P1 = 5,00,000 – 3,50,000
n1 * P1 = Rs. 1,50,000
Step III :
Number of additional shares to be issued
n1 = I – (E – n * D1)
P1
Putting D1 = 0 in step III above:
n1 = I – E
P1
n1 = I – E
P1
n1 = 5,00,000 – 3,50,000
112
n1 = 1339.29
Step I V :
Value of the firm
n * P0 = (n+n1) * P1 - I + E (1+k e )
Value of the firm
=(25,000+1339.29) * 112 - 5,00,000 +3,50,000
(1+0.12 )
P = D + (r
* (E - D)/ke)
ke
Here r >ke
When payout ratio = 0%
P = Rs.125
P = D + (r * (E - D)/ke)
ke
When payout ratio = 75%
P = Rs.112.50
P = D + (r * (E - D)/ke)
ke
When payout ratio = 100%
P = Rs.100
2b. In the above question, Using
Walter’s formula of dividend payout
compute the market value of the
Company’s share if the rate of return
on internal investment is 10%.
Formula for Walter Model –
P = D + (r
* (E - D)/ke)
ke
Here r = k
When payout ratio = 0%
P = Rs.100
P = D + (r * (E - D)/ke)
ke
When payout ratio = 75%
P = Rs.100
P = D + (r * (E - D)/ke)
ke
When payout ratio = 100%
P = Rs.100
2c. In the above question, Using
Walter’s formula of dividend payout
compute the market value of the
Company’s share if the rate of return
on internal investment is 8%.
Formula for Walter Model –
P = D + (r
* (E - D)/ke)
ke
Here r < k
When payout ratio = 0%
P = Rs.90
P = D + (r * (E - D)/ke)
ke
When payout ratio = 75%
P = Rs.95
P = D + (r * (E - D)/ke)
ke
When payout ratio = 100%
P = Rs.100
Traditional Approach
Given by B Graham and D L Dodd.
The stock value responds positively to higher
dividends and negatively when there are low
dividends.
Formula for Traditional Approach-
P = m * [(D+E)/3]
P = Market Price
m = Multiplier
D = Dividend per share
E = Earnings per share
Rational Expectations Model