BASIC ELECTRONICS OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

UNIT 1: SEMICONDUCTOR DIODES & APPLICATIONS 1.] Flow of electrons is generally termed as _____________. a) electric current b) electric shock c) semiconductor d) none of the above 2.] A _______________ is a material which offers very little resistance to the flow of current through it. a) good conductor b) insulator c) semiconductor d) none of the above 3.] The resistance offered by ______________ is extremely large for the flow of current through it. a) good conductor b) insulator c) semiconductor d) none of the above 4.] The materials which behave like perfect insulators at low temperatures & at higher temperatures, they behave like a good conductors are termed as ________. a) good conductor b) insulator c) semiconductor d) none of the above 5.] The conductivity of a semiconductor _____________ with temperature. a) increases b) decreases c) cant say d) none of the above 6.] The conductivity of a good conductor _____________ with temperature. a) increases b) decreases c) cant say d) none of the above 7.] The resistance of a semiconductor _____________ with temperature. a) increases b) decreases c) cant say d) none of the above 8.] The resistance of a good conductor _____________ with temperature. a) increases b) decreases c) cant say d) none of the above 9.] The charge of an electron is ___________________. a) 1.602*10+27 Coulomb b) 1.602*10-27 Coulomb +19 c) 1.602*10 Coulomb d) 1.602*10-19 Coulomb 10.] The total number of electrons in an atom depends upon ____________. a) the atomic mass b) the atomic weight c) the atomic number d) the atomic size

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11.] In any atom, the number of electrons in the last orbit (i.e., the outermost orbit or the valence orbit) is limited to ________________. a) 4 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12 12.] In any atom, the outermost orbit is called ______________. a) valence orbit b) energy band c) conduction band d) forbidden band 13.] The electrons present in the valence orbit are termed as _______________. a) valence electrons b) free electrons c) cant say d) none of the above 14.] The range of energies possessed by the electrons of any one orbit of all atoms is referred as _____________________. a) valence band b) energy band c) conduction band d) forbidden band 15.] The energy band in relation to valence electrons is termed as ___________. a) valence band b) energy band c) conduction band d) forbidden band 16.] Electrons which are removed from the valence orbits of atoms, which are freely available for conduction, are termed as __________________. a) valence electrons b) free electrons c) cant say d) none of the above 17.] The range of energies possessed by the free electrons is termed as ______. a) valence band b) energy band c) conduction band d) forbidden band 18.] The void (or gap) separating conduction band and valence band, and no electron can exist in this void is termed as ______________. a) valence band b) energy band c) conduction band d) forbidden band 19.] In a metal, the number of valence electrons is ___________. a) less than 4 b) equal to 4 c) greater than 4 d) equal to 8 20.] In a semiconductor ___________. a) less than 4 c) greater than 4 material, the number of valence electrons is

b) equal to 4 d) equal to 8

21.] In an insulator , the number of valence electrons is ___________. a) less than 4 b) equal to 4

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c) greater than 4 d) equal to 8

22.] The current which results in a semiconductor material due to the movement of holes is termed as ___________________. a) hole current b) electron current c) negative current d) none of the above 23.] A semiconductor in its pure form is termed as __________________. a) intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic semiconductor c) p-type semiconductor d) n-type semiconductor 24.] The process of adding impurity to a pure semiconductor material, in order to increase its conductivity is called as __________________. a) dancing b) doping c) creating holes d) creating electrons 25.] A semiconductor to which an impurity is added with view to increase its conductivity is termed as __________________. a) intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic semiconductor c) p-type semiconductor d) n-type semiconductor 26.] If a pentavalent impurity like arsenic or antimony or phosphorus is added to pure germanium or silicon, a _____________________ results. a) intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic semiconductor c) p-type semiconductor d) n-type semiconductor 27.] In a n-type semiconductor material electrons are ________________. a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms 28.] In a n-type semiconductor material holes are ________________. a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms 29.] The pentavalent impurity atom, like arsenic, added to pure germanium material is termed as ____________. a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms 30.] If a trivalent impurity like gallium or indium or aluminium is added to pure germanium or silicon, a _____________________ results. a) intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic semiconductor c) p-type semiconductor d) n-type semiconductor 31.] In a p-type semiconductor material holes are ________________. a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms

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32.] In a p-type semiconductor material electrons are ________________. a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms 33.] The trivalent impurity atom, like gallium, added to pure germanium material is termed as ____________. a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms 34.] In extrinsic semiconductors, conduction of current is due to ____________. a) electrons only b) holes only c) both electrons and holes d) neither electrons nor holes 35.] Doping an intrinsic semiconductor with pentavalent impurity __________________. a) raises the Fermi level b) lowers the Fermi level c) do not affect the Fermi level d) none of the above atom

36.] Doping an intrinsic semiconductor with trivalent impurity atom __________. a) raises the Fermi level b) lowers the Fermi level c) do not affect the Fermi level d) none of the above 37.] In a pure semiconductor, the Fermi level lies _____________ of the forbidden energy gap. a) exactly in the middle b) at the lower part c) at the upper part d) none of the above 38.] In a p-n junction, the potential built across the junction, after diffusion has stopped, is termed as _______________. a) barrier potential b) developed potential c) p-n potential d) none of the above 39.] The barrier potential is about ______________ of germanium. a) 0.1V b) 0.3V c) 0.7V d) 1.5V 40.] The barrier potential is about ______________ of silicon. a) 0.1V b) 0.3V c) 0.7V d) 1.5V 41.] If an external voltage is applied across the p-n junction such that it neutralizes the barrier potential and causes conduction through the junction, the pn junction is said to be ______________. a) forward biased b) reverse biased c) un-biased d) no-biased

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42.] If an external voltage is applied across the p-n junction such that the depletion layer widens and the barrier potential increases, the p-n junction is said to be ______________. a) forward biased b) reverse biased c) un-biased d) no-biased 43.] A p-n junction conducts when it is _________________. a) forward biased b) reverse biased c) un-biased d) no-biased 44.] A p-n junction blocks conduction when it is ________________. a) forward biased b) reverse biased c) un-biased d) no-biased 45.] The direction of conventional current is always ____________ to the direction of drifting electrons. a) same b) opposite c) cant say d) none of the above 46.] The slope of DC load line is _______________. a) 1/IL b) 1/VL c) 1/RL d) 1/If 47.] The Iav for a half-wave rectifier is _____________. a) Im/ b) Im/2 c) 2Im/ d) Im/2 48.] The IRMS for a half-wave rectifier is ______________. a) Im/ b) Im/2 c) 2Im/ d) Im/2 49.] The Iav for a full-wave rectifier is _____________. a) Im/ b) Im/2 c) 2Im/ d) Im/2 50.] The IRMS for a full-wave rectifier is _____________. a) Im/ b) Im/2 c) 2Im/ d) Im/2 51.] The efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is _____________. a) 40.6% b) 81.2% c) 0.483% d) 1.21% 52.] The efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is _____________. a) 40.6% b) 81.2% c) 0.483% d) 1.21%

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53.] The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is _____________. a) 40.6 b) 81.2 c) 0.483 d) 1.21 54.] The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier is _____________. a) 40.6 b) 81.2 c) 0.483 d) 1.21 55.] An inductor ___________ to pass through it. a) allows DC b) blocks DC c) allows AC d) blocks AC 56.] A capacitor ___________ to pass through it. a) allows DC b) blocks DC c) allows AC d) blocks AC 57.] The switch off time of diodes is longer due to _______________. a) the diffusion capacitance b) the forward bias c) the reverse bias d) none of the above

UNIT 2 & 3: TRANSISTORS & BIASING METHODS 1.] The direction of arrow head placed on the emitter of a transistor represents ________________. a) the direction of motion of holes b) the direction of motion of electrons c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above 2.] The direction of flow of electrons is ____________ to the direction of motion of holes. a) same as b) opposite c) parallel d) perpendicular 3.] During normal working of transistor as amplifier, the emitter diode is ______________. a) unbiased b) forward biased c) reverse biased d) none of the above 4.] During normal working of transistor as amplifier, the collector diode is ______________. a) unbiased b) forward biased c) reverse biased d) none of the above 5.] The reverse current which results in a transistor due to minority charge carriers across the collector-to-base junction is called as ________________. a) base current b) emitter current

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c) collector current d) collector-to-base leakage current

6.] A transistor can be visualized as a ___________ port network. a) one b) two c) three d) four 7.] Varying the input current by varying the input voltage at constant output voltage is _____________________. a) static input characteristics b) static output characteristics c) transistor i/o characteristics d) none of the above 8.] Varying the output current by varying the output voltage at constant input current is _____________________. a) static input characteristics b) static output characteristics c) transistor i/o characteristics d) none of the above 9.] The ratio of change in collector current to the change in emitter current at constant collector to base voltage is ___________. a) b) c) d) 10.] The ratio of change in collector current to the change in base current at constant collector to emitter voltage is ___________. a) b) c) d) 11.] a) c) The ratio of change in emitter current to the change in base is ___________. b) d)

12.] A ______________ circuit has a very high input resistance and very low output resistance. a) common base b) common emitter c) common collector d) none of the above 13.] In the saturation region, the emitter-base & collector-base junctions are _________________ biased. a) forward b) reverse c) unbiased d) none of these 14.] In the cut-off region, the emitter-base & collector-base junctions are _________________ biased. a) forward b) reverse c) unbiased d) none of these 15.] The intersection of DC load line and the output characteristics of a transistor is called _____________________. a) Q Point b) quiescent Point

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c) operating Point d) all of these

16.] The biasing circuit which gives most stable operating point is _________. a) base bias b) collector-to-base bias c) voltage-divider bias d) none of these 17.] The collector-to-base bias circuit is also known as _______________. a) base bias b) voltage-divider bias c) voltage feedback bias circuit d) none of these 18.] The reverse saturation current doubles for every _________ temperature. a) 40 b) 30 c) 20 d) 10 19.] The reverse temperature. a) doubles c) quadruples saturation current __________ for every
0

C rise in

10 0C

rise

in

b) triples d) none of these

20.] ICBO doubles for every _________ 0C rise in temperature. a) 40 b) 30 c) 20 d) 10 21.] ICBO __________ for every 100C rise in temperature. a) doubles b) triples c) quadruples d) none of these 22.] The stability factor S is the rate change of _____________ current with respect to reverse saturation current. a) emitter b) base c) collector d) none of these 23.] is the ratio of change in __________ current to the change in emitter current at constant collector to base voltage. a) emitter b) base c) collector d) none of these 24.] is the ratio of change in __________ current to the change in base current at constant collector to emitter voltage. a) emitter b) base c) collector d) none of these 25.] is the ratio of change in __________ current to the change in base current. a) emitter b) base c) collector d) none of these

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26.] is the ratio of change in collector current to the change in _________ current at constant collector to base voltage. a) emitter b) base c) collector d) none of these 27.] is the ratio of change in collector current to the change in _________ current at constant collector to emitter voltage. a) emitter b) base c) collector d) none of these 28.] is the ratio of change in emitter current to the change in _________ current. a) emitter b) base c) collector d) none of these 29.] The emitter area in a transistor is considerably __________ than the collector area. a) smaller b) greater c) smaller or greater d) none of these 30.] The collector area is slightly _________ doped than the emitter. a) more b) less c) more or less d) none of these 31.] The depletion layer width at the collector junction is _________ than the depletion layer width at the emitter junction. a) more b) less c) more or less d) none of these 32.] In a transistor, the emitter area is _________ doped. a) heavily b) lightly c) moderately d) none of these 33.] In a transistor, the base region is _________ doped. a) heavily b) lightly c) moderately d) none of these 34.] In a transistor, the collector area is _________ doped. a) heavily b) lightly c) moderately d) none of these 35.] In a transistor, the depletion layer penetrates deeply into the __________ region. a) base b) emitter c) collector d) none of these 36.] In a ______________, the current is mainly due to electrons.

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a) PNP transistor c) BJT transistor b) NPN transistor d) UJT transistor

37.] In a ______________, the current is mainly due to holes. a) PNP transistor b) NPN transistor c) BJT transistor d) UJT transistor 38.] In CB configuration, when reverse bias voltage VCB increases, the width of the depletion region also increases, which reduces the electrical base width. This effect is called as _________________. a) early effect b) base width modulation c) (a) or (b) d) none of these 39.] In CB configuration, when reverse bias voltage VCB increases above the VCB max, increase in depletion region is such that it penetrates into base until it makes contact with emitter-base depletion region. This condition is called _______. a) punch-through effect b) reach-through effect c) (a) or (b) d) none of these 40.] The collector-to-base bias provides __________ stability than the base bias circuit. a) more b) less c) more or less d) none of these 41.] The voltage divider bias provides the _______ stability against hFE variations. a) least b) greatest c) more or less d) none of these UNIT 5: AMPLIFIERS & OSCILLATORS 1.] Audio amplifiers can amplify signals of frequencies which lie in the range of _____________. a) 20Hz to 20KHz b) 20Hz to 20MHz c) 20Hz to 200KHz d) 20Hz to 200MHz 2.] In a _________ amplifier, the collector current flows throughout the input signal cycle. a) class A b) class B c) class C d) class AB 3.] In a __________ amplifier, the collector current flows only during the positive half cycles of the input signal. a) class A b) class B c) class C d) class AB 4.] In a ____________ amplifier, the collector current flows for less than half of the period of the input signal.

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a) class A c) class C b) class B d) class AB

5.] In a ____________ amplifier, the collector current flows for more than half of the input signal period, but not throughout the full cycle. a) class A b) class B c) class C d) class AB 6.] The coupling capacitor, CC, in a R-C coupled amplifier is used to _________. a) bypass the output to ground b) couple the output to next stage c) bypass the emitter current d) couple the emitter current to next stage 7.] The range of frequencies in which the amplifier gain is either equal to greater than 70.7% of the maximum gain is called as _______________. a) channel-width b) frequency-width c) band-width d) none of these 8.] The range of frequencies at the limits of which, the voltage gain falls by 3dB is called as _______________. a) channel-width b) frequency-width c) band-width d) none of these 9.] In a common-emitter amplifier, there is a phase shift of _________ between input and output voltages. a) 900 b) 1800 c) 3600 d) 00 10.] When the phase of the feedback signal is same as that of the input, then it is called ______________. a) positive feedback b) negative feedback c) no feedback d) none of these 11.] When the phase of the feedback signal is out of phase with that of the input, then it is called ______________. a) positive feedback b) negative feedback c) no feedback d) none of these 12.] Tank circuit comprises of _____________. a) an inductor in parallel with a capacitor b) an inductor in series with a capacitor c) an inductor in parallel with a resistor d) an inductor in series with a resistor 13.] R-C oscillators are usually used in ___________ range. a) audio frequency b) radio frequency c) video frequency d) ultra high frequency

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UNIT 6: OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIERS 1.] The characteristics of ______________ changes with application of external voltage. a) an active element b) a passive element c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b) 2.] The characteristics of ______________ will not change on application of external voltage. a) an active element b) a passive element c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b) 3.] In _____________, the outputs are proportional to inputs. a) digital ICs b) linear ICs c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b) 4.] In a _____________, the inputs and outputs can take only two values; 0 and 1. a) digital ICs b) linear ICs c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b) 5.] The voltage gain of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________. a) infinity b) zero c) very high d) very low 6.] The input impedance of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________. a) infinity b) zero c) very high d) very low 7.] The output impedance of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________. a) infinity b) zero c) very high d) very low 8.] The bandwidth of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________. a) infinity b) zero c) very high d) very low 9.] When equal voltages are applied to two input terminals of an ideal Op-Amp, the output is ____________. a) infinity b) zero

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c) very high d) very low

10.] The voltage gain of a practical Op-Amp is _____________. a) infinity b) zero c) very high d) very low 11.] The input impedance of a practical Op-Amp is _____________. a) infinity b) zero c) very high d) very low 12.] The output impedance of a practical Op-Amp is _____________. a) infinity b) zero c) very high d) very low 13.] When equal voltages are applied to two input terminals of a practical OpAmp, the output is ____________. a) infinity c) very high b) zero d) very low

14.] The ratio of the differential gain of an Op-Amp to its common mode gain is ______________. a) PSRR b) input off-set current c) output off-set current d) CMRR 15.] In a practical Op-Amp, there will be a small output voltage even when the inputs are zero. This is called _____________. a) output off-set current b) output off-set voltage c) input off-set current d) input off-set voltage 16.] The DC voltage which makes the output off-set voltage zero, when the other terminal is zero is called _____________. a) output off-set current b) output off-set voltage c) input off-set current d) input off-set voltage 17.] The maximum rate at which the Op-Amp output can change is ___________. a) run rate b) ratio rate c) slew rate d) none of these 18.] Slew rate is expressed in terms of ______________.

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a) volts/s c) s/volts b) volts-s d) s-volts

19.] The time period for which the trace remains on a fluorescent screen after the applied signal becomes zero is known as ____________. a) existence b) shadow c) persistence d) trace 20.] The time-base generator in a CRO is used to generate _______________. a) the saw-tooth voltage b) the square wave c) the DC voltage d) the AC voltage 21.] When the input is applied to the inverting input terminal of an Op-Amp, then the output is ______________ with the input. a) 900 out of phase b) 1800 out of phase c) 3600 out of phase d) in phase 22.] When the input is applied to the non-inverting input terminal of an Op-Amp, then the output is ______________ with the input. a) 900 out of phase b) 1800 out of phase c) 3600 out of phase d) in phase

UNIT 7: COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS & NUMBER SYSTEMS 1.] If the amplitude of the carrier wave is altered in accordance with the strength of the modulating signal, then it is _________________. a) amplitude modulation b) frequency modulation c) amplitude communication d) frequency communication 2.] If the frequency of the carrier wave is altered in accordance with the strength of the modulating signal, then it is _________________. a) amplitude modulation b) frequency modulation c) amplitude communication d) frequency communication 3.] The process of getting back the modulating signal from the modulated wave is _________________. a) modulation b) re-modulation c) demodulation d) none of these 4.] The modulation index m for amplitude modulation is _____________. a) Vc/Vm b) Vc * Vm c) Vm + Vc d) Vm/Vc

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5.] The modulation index mf for frequency modulation is _____________. a) f/fm b) f * fm c) f - fm d) fm/f 6.] Usually, the intermediate frequency is _______________. a) 455 MHz b) 455 KHz c) 455 Hz d) 455 GHz 9.] The decimal equivalent of binary number 1110 is ________________. a) 15 b) 16 c) 18 d) 14 10.] 110112 = X10, then a) X = 27 c) X = 17

b) X = 37 d) X = 12

11.] The 1s compliment of 1110 is __________. a) 1111 b) 0001 c) 0010 c) 0000 12.] The 2s compliment of 1110 is ____________. a) 1111 b) 0001 c) 0010 d) 0000 13.] If 4710 = X8, then a) X = 37 b) X = 27 c) X = 74 d) X = 57 14.] The octal equivalent of 001001011011 (2) is _________________. a) 3311(8) b) 3113(8) c) 1133(8) d) 1331(8) 15.] If 110211102 = X16, then a) X = AB c) X = EF 16.] If 5810 = XBCD, then a) X = 01011000 c) X = 10101000

b) X = CD d) X = DE

b) X = 01010001 c) 10100001

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UNIT 8: DIGITAL ELECTRONICS 1.] The OR operation implies ______________. a) boolean addition b) boolean multiplication c) Boolean subtraction d) boolean division 2.] The AND operation implies ______________. a) boolean addition b) boolean multiplication c) Boolean subtraction d) boolean division 3.] The output of a NAND gate is ___________, when all the inputs are high. a) low b) high c) low or high d) none of these 4.] The output of a NOR gate is ___________, when all the inputs are low. a) low b) high c) low or high d) none of these 5.] A bubbled AND gate and a _____________ are equivalent. a) XOR gate b) XNOR gate c) NOR gate d) NAND gate 6.] A bubbled OR gate and a _____________ are equivalent. a) XOR gate b) XNOR gate c) NOR gate d) NAND gate

____________***____________

By MAHESH PRASANNA K.,

Dept. of E & C, AIET.

MAHESH PRASANNA K., ECE, AIET

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