Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Page 1
Assimilation Exam
HISTORY OF ARCHITECTURE
In Egyptian architecture, the tomb of the pharaohs is the.
Pyramid
The great pyramid at Gizeh was built during the 4th dynasty by.
Cheops
The beginner of the great hypostyle hall at karnak and the founder of the 19th dynasty.
Rameses 1
The mineral of greatest importance to Greek architecture of which Greece and her
Marble
Columnar trabeated
Forming the imposing entrance to the acropolis and erected by the architect Mnesicles
Propylaea
is the.
The building in the acropolis generally considered as being the most nearly perfect
Parthenon
Composite
From the 5th century to the present, the character of Byzantine architecture is the
practice of using.
The finest and remaining example of Byzantine architecture.
Romanesque architecture in Italy is distinguished from that of the rest of Europe by the
Marble
Pantheon
The space between the colonnade and the naos wall in Greek temple.
Pteroma
Gladiatorial Contests
Stoa
Acropolis
An upright ornament at the eaves of a tile roof, concealing the foot of a row of convex
Antefix (Antefixae)
Acroterion / Acroterium
Anthemion
In ancient Greece and Rome, a storeroom of any kind, but especially for storing wine.
Apotheca
Anthemion
The use of ___ for facing walls distinguishes Romanesque architecture in Italy from that
Marble
Pisa
Refectory
Baroque
Cortel
The ornamental pattern work in stone, filling the upper part of a Gothic window.
Tracery
Cha-sit-su
A Muslim temple, a mosque for public worship, also known as place for prostration.
Masjid
Stupa
Bale
TRIGGERMAN
Page 2
Assimilation Exam
Ziggurat
The style of the order with massive and tapering columns resting on a base of 3 steps.
Doric
Pyramid
Earthen burial mounds containing upright and lintel stones forming chambers for
Tumuli
Apse
Dipteral
Prytaneion
Erich Mendelsohn
Walter Gropius
Art Noveau
Cambodian
Van Alen
Embrasures
Agra
Amenemhat I
system, made a survey of the country, set boundaries to the provinces, and other helpful
works.
Who erected the earliest known obelisk at Heliopolis.
Senusret I
Heb-sed
Pyramid of Zoser
Pyramid of Khufu
A vault created when two barrel vaults intersect at the right angles.
Groin Vault
Visayan
Greek
Canephora
Bartizan
Basilica
Greek
A roof in which 4 faces rests diagonally between the gables and converge at the roof.
Helm Roof
Masu-gumi
Cavetto
Pinnacle
William Cosculluela
Sarcophagus
Imhotep
Bouleuterion
TRIGGERMAN
Page 3
Assimilation Exam
Tussel House
Astylar
Jugendstijl
Less is more.
Liceo de Manila
Embrasures.
Crenel
Balance
Eclecticism
Eero Saarinen
Kaufman House
Juan Nakpil
Kenzo Tange
Felipe Mendoza
The xerxes hall of hundred columns was introduced during the Mesopotamian
Palace of Persepolis
Saracenic Architecture
The convex projecting molding of eccentric curve supporting the abacus of a Doric capital.
Echinus
S-tiles
Greek equivalent of the Roman forum, a place of open air assembly or market.
Agora
Entasis
The very ornate style of architecture developed in the later renaissance period.
Baroque
A multi-storied shrine like towers, originally a Buddhist monument of diminishing size with
Pagoda
Roman
From the Greek forms of temple, the three where it lies is known as ___.
Crepidoma
From the Greek temples, a temple that have porticoes of columns at the front and rear.
Amphi-Prostyle
Cenotaphs
Cheops
Chefren
Mykerinos
The cistern storage of collected rainwater underneath the azotea of the bahay na bato.
Aljibe
Impluvium
Naos
Crypt
Bema
Console
Villa
Atrium House
Romanesque
The style emerging in western Europe in the early 11th century, based on Roman and
Romanesque
TRIGGERMAN
Alvar Aalto
Page 4
Assimilation Exam
Tomas Mapua
Forum
Welton Becket
Chartres Cathedral
176
Greek
Ziggurat
A plant whose leaves form the lower portions of the Corinthian capital.
Acanthus
Arch
The space between the sloping roof over the aisle and the aisle vaulting, so also called
Triforium
a blind story.
A windowed wall that rises above the roof of adjacent walls that admit light into the
Clerestory
interior.
A standard, usually of length, by which the proportions of a building are determined.
Module
Tympanum
Arcade
In the classical order, the lowest part or member of the entablature; the beam that spans
Architrave
Entablature
Cornice
Frieze
Architrave
Octagonal
13
Tokonama
Square
The most famous structure of Byzantine architecture and notable of its large dome.
Hagia Sophia
Pediment
A spherical triangle forming the transition from the circular plan of a dome to the poly-
Pendentive
Narthex
The principal or central part of a church, extending from the narthex to the choir or
Nave
Ambulatory
A basin for ritual cleansing with water in the atrium of an early Christian basilica.
Cantharus
Exedra
An ornamental canopy of stone or marble permanently place over the altar in a church.
Baldachino
Tabernacle
Niche
Minaret
Lacunaria
The Buddhist temple in ancient Cambodia which feature four faces of the compassionate
Bayon
Buddha.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 5
Assimilation Exam
A term given to the mixture of Christian, Spanish, and Muslim 12th-16th century
Mudejar
architecture.
Projecting blocks of stone carved with foliage, typical in Gothic architecture.
Crocket
Abacus
Capital
Plinth
Chancel
Frigidarium
Barasoain Church
Seraglio
Holy mountains.
Ziggurat
Mnesicles
Harem
The four-seated colossal statues of Rameses II is carved in the pylon of the ___.
Mortuary Temple
Structure whose corners are made to face the four cardinal points.
Ziggurat
Structure whose sides are made to face the four cardinal points.
Pyramid
Egyptian temples for the popular worship of the ancient and the mysterious gods.
Cult Temple
Persian
Atlantes
Exedra
Peripteral
Stylobate
Stereobate
Gymnasium
Pinacotheca
Prostyle
Intercolumniation
Eustyle
Intercolumniation of 4 diameters.
Areostyle
Intercolumniation of 2 diameters.
Systyle
1.5 Diameters
3 Diameters
Odeion
Circus
Colosseum
Wrestling
stadium
In Antis
TRIGGERMAN
Page 6
Assimilation Exam
A temple with 1-4 columns arranged between antae at the front and rear.
Amphi-Antis
Gymnasium
Doric
Epidauros
What orders did the Etruscans and the Romans add making 5 in all?
What allowed the Romans to build vaults of a magnitude never equaled till the birth of
Use of Concrete
Pantheon
Forum Romanum
Xerxes
Artaxerxes
Phidias
Lacus
Salientes
Circus Maximus
The colosseum in Rome also known as the "flavian amphitheater" was commenced by
Vespasian / Domitian
Mnesicles
Clepsydra
Treasury of Atreus
Theron
Libon
Cossutius
Both the regula and the mutule has guttae numbering a total of ___.
18
A quadrigas is a ___.
4-horse Chariot
Cyma Reversa
Key Pattern
Sculptured Reliefs
House #33
Bird's Beak
Peribolus
Domus
Podium
Bepidales
Opus Mixtum
A type of Roman wall facing which is made of small stone laid in a loose pattern roughly
Opus Incertum
Opus Recticulatum
A type of roman wall facing with rectangular block with or without mortar joints.
Opus Quadratum
Basilica
Choragic Monument
TRIGGERMAN
Page 7
Assimilation Exam
Fret
Termini
or diminishing pedestal.
Marble mosaic pattern used on ceilings of vaults and domes.
Opus Tesselatum
Callimachus
Thalamus
Timber-enframed Portal
Etruscans
Insula
A building in classic architecture decorated with flowers and plants with water for the
Nymphaeum
purpose of relaxation.
!5th to 18th century architecture.
Renaissance
Louis Sullivan
The dominating personality who became an ardent disciple of the Italian renaissance
Iigo Jones
style.
A pillared hall in which the roofs rests on the column in Egyptian temples.
Hypostyle Hall
Thothmes I
Ptolemy III
Buckminster Fuller
Tombs built for the Egyptian nobility rather than the royalty.
Rock-Hewn Tombs
George Ramos
Tepidarium
Calidarium
Frigidarium
Sudatorium
Apodyteria
Unctuaria
Forum
East
South
West
The space for the clergy and choir is separated by a low screen wall from the body of the
Cancelli
Ambo
called.
In some churches, there is a part which is raised as part of the sanctuary which later
Bema
Apse
called ___.
The iconoclastic movement during the Byzantine period forbade the use of ___.
Statues
Centralized
TRIGGERMAN
Page 8
Assimilation Exam
One of the few churches of its type to have survived having a square nave and without
Nea Moni
cross-arms, roofed by a dome which spans to the outer walls of the building.
A tower raised above a roof pierced to admit light.
Lantern
the covered passage around an open space or garth, connecting the church to the chapter
Cloisters
Ornamental Arcades
The best example of a German Romanesque church with apses at both east and west
Worms Cathedral
ends.
The term applied to the Episcopal church of the diocese and also the important structure
Cathedral
Greek Cross
The final plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Carlo Maderna.
Latin Cross
Bernini
Dispensa
Falig
Minoru Yamasaki
Greek
Balteus
Roman
Agrippa
Prytaneion
Hypotrachelion
Doric
Ionic
This structure in Greece was erected by Andronikos Cyrrhestes for measuring time by
Greek
Papyrus
Egyptian Temple for popular worship of the ancient and mysterious gods.
Cult Temple
Balneum
Cella
Triglyph
Le Corbusier
Eliel Saarinen
Architecture is Organic.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 9
Assimilation Exam
Hennevique
Jose Herrera
Juan Nakpil
Guillermo Tolentino
Shah Jahan
Telamones or Atlantes
Herms
Terms
Madrassah
Moscow
Expressionist Architect.
Erich Mendelsohn
Combination of the new art and the graphing of the old art.
Eclecticism
Neo-Classism
Parti
Felipe Mendoza
George Ramos
Juan Nakpil
Juan Nakpil
Built by the Franciscan priest Fr. Blas dela Madre, this church in Rizal whose design
Morong Church
depicts the heavy influence of Spanish Baroque, was declared a national treasure.
This church, 1st built by the Augustinian Fr. Miguel Murguia, has an unusually large bell
Panay Capiz
which was made from approximately 70 sacks of coins donated by the towns people.
Architect of SM Megamall.
Gabriel Formoso
George Ramos
The tower atop the torogan where the princess and her ladies in waiting hide during
Lamin
occasions.
Found in the ground floor of the bahay na bato, it is where the carriages and floats are
Zaguan
kept.
The emergency hideout found directly behind the neadboard of the Sultan's bed.
Bilik
The flat, open terrace open to the toilet, bath, and kitchen areas and also used as a
Azotea
laundry and drying space and service area for the servants.
In the kitchen of the bahay kubo, the table on top of which is the river stone, shoe-shaped
Dapogan
ARCHITECTURAL PLANNING
A wide area of parks of undeveloped land surrounding a community.
Greenbelt
The process in which a piece of land, referred to as the parent tract, is subdivided into
Platting
Azimuths
TRIGGERMAN
Page 10
Assimilation Exam
Usually the last stage of the final site development process prior to issuance of building
Final Plat
permit.
A 20th century problem emanating from rapid urbanization of areas surrounding a city
Urban Sprawl
Advocacy Planning
the general public interest but rather to serve the interests of the least fortunate or least
well represented groups in society.
In the Philippines, this type of land use planning emphasizes the proper management of
land resources to ensure that the present generation can benefit from its continued use
without compromising future generations.
This code mandates that all Local Government Units shall prepare their comprehensive
R.A. 7160
Phrase used to characterize development that meets the needs of the present
Sustainable Development
Hippodamus of miletus
City
The main reason why the nomadic existence of early man metamorphosed to village
Agricultural Surplus
Insula
resulted from the population growth of the city and the congestion that existed in streets.
In urban geography, a concept where urban settlement is confined to the area within the
Truebounded City
legal limits of the city and the congestion and virtually all of this area is occupied by
urban residents.
A Land Development Decision is also what kind of decision.
Traffic.
City Planning
Daniel Burnham
A tool used to control the manner in which raw kind is subdivided and placed on the
Subdivision Regulations
Urban Design
organization and design of the city, with the massing and organization and the space
between them, but not with the design of the individual buildings.
The science of human settlement.
Ekistics
Human Settlement
Planning for roads, bridges, schools, parking structures, pubic buildings, water supply,
Physical Settlement
element.
A spatial organization concept a general view of the pattern of land use in a city
TRIGGERMAN
Buildable Area
Page 11
Assimilation Exam
A habitable room for 1 family only with facilities for living, sleeping, cooking, and eating.
Dwelling Unit
This is a type of a retaining wall made of rectangular baskets made of galvanized steel
Gabion Wall
wire or pvc coated wire hexagonal mesh which are filled with stones to form a wall.
A very steep slope of rock or clay.
Cliff
A piece of grassy land, especially one used for growing hay or as pasture for grazing
Meadow
Ridge
Ravine
On land, an encumbrance limiting its use, usually imposed for community or mutual
Restriction
protection.
Of land, a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, which is subject to a
Parcel
Common Wall
Niemeyer believed that relating large areas to each other is freedom as in the planned
Brasilia
city of___.
In architectural terms, it is the relationship of the number of residential structures and
Density
Social Housing
Option to Buy
Earnest Money
Amortization
Deed
Developers
Determines the value of the house and also is familiar with trends in the local market and
Appraiser
in the industry.
Helps people find a place to live, specializing and matching wants of buyers with the
local supply.
Are usually large concrete slabs or otherwise panelized units fabricated in a shop and
Total System
Housing Codes
Designed to regulate land use, to ban industry and commerce from residential areas and
Zoning
Prefabrication Manufacturer
to the site.
System building is the complete integration of all ___.
Subsystems
Urban Renewal
An area which is within the city limits, or closely linked to it by common use of public
Urban Area
TRIGGERMAN
Page 12
Assimilation Exam
Primitive
Vernacular
Grand
Productive Use
Similarly as the cost of the land, neighborhood character have this effect.
Social Implications
6.00 mts.
Which building component receives priority over the location to have the morning sun.
Bedrooms
Gazebo
The art of arranging buildings and other structures in harmony with the landscape.
Site Planning
The study of the dynamic relationship between a community of organisms and its habitat.
Ecology
Preparations of an accurate base map for urban planning starts with ___.
Appraisal of adequacy of a city's water and sewer systems needs of future land uses are
Comprehensive Plan
Transportation System
Urban Blight
Star
An efficient and rapid transport system for automobiles to circulate across urban to urban
Freeways
areas.
A monument, fixed object, or marker used to designate the location of a land boundary on
Landmark
the ground.
A narrow passageway bordered by trees, fences, or other lateral barrier
Lane
Land-use Plan
goals.
The part of the surface of the earth not permanently covered by water.
Land
Land Boundary
Land Survey
boundary line.
The study of an existing pattern of use, within an area, to determine the nature and
Land-use Analysis
magnitude of deficiencies which might exist and to assess the potential of the pattern
relative to development goals.
A study and recording of the way in which land is being used in an area.
Land-use Survey
Latitude
An open space of ground of some size, covered with grass and kept smoothly mown.
Lawn
A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed
Lease
TRIGGERMAN
Leasehold
Page 13
Assimilation Exam
BUILDING UTILITIES
The amount of heat which is absorbed or evolved in changing the state of a substance
Latent Heat
90 cms.
1.50 mts.
60 cms.
1.80 mts.
1 cum.
508 mm.
Minimum length of the secondary compartment of a septic tank with a capacity of more
1.50 mts.
FALSE
15.20 mts.
45.70 mts.
30.50 mts.
26
51 mm.
102 mm.
60 cms.
15 cms.
Minimum extension of the VSTR above an openable window, door opening, air intake,
0.90 mtr.
or vent shaft.
Minimum trap diameter for a bathtub
38 mm. (11/2")
51 mm. (2")
Required number of water closets for females for an auditorium serving 16-35.
Required number of water closets for males for an auditorium serving 16-35.
Required number of water closets for females for a theater serving 51-100.
Burr
Minimum elevator width of single slide door elevator for small commercial or residential
0.60 mtr.
building.
A device that is basically a double throw switch of generally 3-pole connection that will
automatically transfer the power from the standby generator to the building circuitry
during electrical power failure.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 14
Assimilation Exam
Lift
The minimum face to face distance between elevators in three and four car grouping.
2 mts.
House Drain
1.20 mts.
A type of lighting that provides illumination to special objects like sculptures, flower
Specific Lighting
arrangements, etc.
XHHN in wire specification means.
10'
An assembly consisting of a pulley wheel, side plates, shaft, and bearings over which a
Sheave
Infra Red
Capacitor
Power Panel
Polyethylene
No. 12
No. 14
Rectifier
D.C. Generator
Humidistat
Hygrostat
Governor
A stop valve placed in the service pipe close to the connection at the water main.
Corporation Stop
A vent with a function to provide circulation if air between drainage and vent system.
Relief Vent
Flange used on a pipe to cover a hole or opening in a floor or wall which the pipe pass.
Escutcheon
Developed Length
Flush Valve
Sewage
Carbon Monoxide
Interrelationship between value of voltage and current with the same frequency.
Phase
Descriptive of any material such as synthetic resin which hardens when heated or cured,
Thermosetting
Thermostat
controls temperature.
Thin sheets that are used for controlling heat in drywall construction.
Conveys storm water and terminates into a natural drainage such as lakes or rivers.
Strom Sewer
Alternator
alternating current.
Freon in air-con must be compressed and liquefied in order to absorb ___.
Heat
1 1/2" (38mm)
1/8 Bend
A device installed on an electric water heater used to detect the working temperature
Thermostat
TRIGGERMAN
Page 15
Assimilation Exam
to activate a switch.
Minimum size of trap or branch for a bidet.
1 1/2"
Minimum fixture supply pipe diameter for tank type water closet.
3/8"
True or false, 1 3/4" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply.
TRUE
True or false, 3" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply.
FALSE
Term applied to the interconnection of the same fixtures in one soil or waste branch with
Battery of Fixtures
Common Vent
Minimum size of a standpipe for a building in which the highest outlet is 23 meters or less
4" (102mm)
4" (102mm)
Single lever valves used in kitchen sink and lavatory faucets or at shower valves works by
Ball Valve
Zeolite
6" (150mm)
Minimum wire size in square millimeter for a branch circuit with a 30 ampere rating using
5.5 sqmm
60 Cycles
The overhead service conductors from the last pole or other aerial support to and including
Service Drop
Phon
Sound Absorption
Wavelength
The reduction in the intensity or in the sound pressure level of sound which is transmitted
Sound Attenuation
Sabin
Sound Diffraction
Minimum sound pressure level that is capable of being detected by the human ear.
Threshold of Audibility
Sound
Pure Tone
Sine Wave
Luminaire
Candela
Plumbarius
Plumbum
A specially designed system of waste piping embodying the horizontal wet venting of one
Combination
or more sinks or floor drains by means of a common waste and vent pipe adequately
Waste
sized to provide free movement of air above the flow line of the drain.
Air curtain
General Lighting
During elevator emergency, to rescue passengers, this part of the elevator is used to open
TRIGGERMAN
Page 16
Assimilation Exam
A device which extends across at least 1/2 the width of each door leaf which will open if
Panic Bar
subjected to pressure.
Sanitary sewage from buildings shall be discharged directly to the nearest ___.
Receptacles intended to receive and discharge water, water-carried waste into a drainage
Fixture
Telecommunication System
2 1/2" (64mm)
Circuit Vent
Loop Vent
Barometer
Bets type of fire detection that can detect fire during the incipient stage.
Ionization
Refrigeration
A fire detector installed in a fire alarm system which uses low melting point solders or
Fixed Temperature
Heat Detector
Bibbcock
135-197F
Double Bend
2"
3"
Ratio of water closets for male population for elementary and secondary school.
(1:30)
Ratio of water closets for female population for elementary and secondary school.
(1:25)
(1:75)
Ratio of water closets for female population for Principal Worship Places.
(1:75)
Minimum required number of water closets for female for office and public buildings
(1:5)
How many days, at least, shall be given before any plumbing work inspection is done
15 minutes
Minimum lead content in percent for pipes and fittings safe for humans.
8%
Minimum vertical distance from the bottom of water pipes to the top of sewer or drain pipe
300 mm
300 mm
4'
60
True or false, 60 branches or offsets may be used only when installed in a true vertical
TRUE
position.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 17
Assimilation Exam
Cleanouts may be omitted on a horizontal drain less than 1.5 meters in length unless
TRUE
Minimum clearance in front of any cleanout in meters for pipes larger than 51 mm. Dia.
Maximum distance of any underfloor cleanout from any access door, crawl space, or
6.10 mts.
crawl hole.
Maximum length of a tailpiece.
600 mm
4.60 mts.
True or false, no galvanized wrought iron or galvanized steel pipe shall be used
TRUE
150 mm / 15 cms.
Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above any other vertical surface.
300 mm
Minimum vertical distance of VSTR from above of any openable window or opening.
0.90 mtr.
2.10 mts.
Minimum horizontal distance of any VSTR from a roofdeck used for other purposes aside
3.00 mts.
10
Luminous Flux
The luminous intensity of any surface in a given direction per unit of projected area.
Luminance
Foot-Candle
Lux
Type of lighting system where 90-100% of light output is directed to the ceiling and upper
Indirect Lighting
Tungsten
Cathode
An automatic device used for converting high, fluctuating inlet water pressure to a lower
constant pressure.
An air-operated device used to open or close a damper or valve.
Air Motor
In theater stage house, a weight usually of iron or sand used to balance suspended
Counterweight
Winding-Drum Machine
Guiderails
Under NBC, the clearance between the underside of the car and the bottom of the pit
600 mm
30 mm
558 mm
Under NBC, the maximum rated speed of an escalator along the angle of travel.
38 Meters/Min
68-74 F
PABX
Impedance
Resistance
Sound Intensity
TRIGGERMAN
Page 18
Assimilation Exam
Accent Lighting
Fluorescense
High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)
Sound system input device that reacts to and converts variable sound pressure into
Microphone
Thermal Detector
Light originating from sources not facing each other, as from windows in adjacent walls.
Cross Light
Softening
Luminaire
A louvered construction divided into cell-like areas and used for redirecting the light
Eggcrate
Psychrometric Chart
Sensible Heat
The transmission of heat energy from one place to another by circulatory movement of a
Convection
mass of fluid.
A lamp designed to project and diffuse a uniform level of illumination over a large area.
Floodlight
In boilers, they function only when exceeds prescribed unsafe operating conditions.
Porous Absorbents
The bending of sound wave when traveling forward changes direction as it passes through
Refraction
different densities.
True or false, number of fixture unit is one parameter in sizing a drainage pipe.
TRUE
Water distribution system which constantly rely its pressure from the main water pipe
applied only if the highest fixture is supplied continuously with the flow rate and minimum
required working pressure.
What combination of pipe fittings is installed at the base of a soil stack?
What is the rating index of an air-conditioning/refrigeration system which rates the unit for
the number of BTU's of heat removed per watt of electrical input energy?
What mechanical equipment, coupled with a central air-conditioning system, is used to
A rigid metal housing for a group of heavy conductors insulated from each other and the
Busway
Bus
Busway
completely enclosed ventilated protective metal housing where the assembly is designed
to carry fault current and to withstand the magnetic forces of such current.
A type of perimeter detector which detects object in heat range of body temperature.
Passive Infrared
Light Beam
Ultrasonic
Washdown
True or false, brass and cast iron body cleanouts shall not be used as a reducer or
TRUE
adapter.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 19
Assimilation Exam
A box with a blank cover which serves the purpose of joining one different runs of
Pull Box
raceways or cables and provided with sufficient space for connection and branching of the
enclosed conductors.
A type of water closet that is least efficient, subject to clogging, noisy, and use a simple
Washdown (WD)
Blowout (BO)
contents out. Use only with flush valve, requires higher pressure.
Water closet that is quiet, extremely sanitary, water is directed through the rim. It scours
initiated by a water jet draws the contents of the bowl through the trapway.
A water closet similar to that of the siphon jet but with a smaller water surface and
trapway.
This type of water closet is prohibited by some health codes.
Washdown (WD)
The concussion and banging noise that results when a volume of water moving in a pipe
Water Hammer
Developed Length
Gate Valve
Globe Valve
Liquid sewage that has been treated in a septic tank or sewage treatment plant.
Effluent
Spring Line
Crown
Invert
A type of perimeter detector which is subject to false alarm from aircraft radar and from
Microwave
movement outside building through window, wood doors, and the like. It uses radio waves.
This type of perimeter detector uses both the Passive infrared and Ultrasonic or
Microwave system.
This type of perimeter detector detects a change in capacitance of the area covered,
Proximity / Capacitance
caused by intrusion.
Color code for pipes containing acid.
Black
A high intensity discharge lamp in which the light is produced by the radiation from a
Mercury Lamp
TRIGGERMAN
High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)
Page 20
Assimilation Exam
Intelligent Building
This shows the vertical relationships of all panels, feeders, switches, switchboards, and
Riser Diagram
major components are shown up to, but not including, branch circuiting, it is an electrical
version of a vertical section taken through the building.
In elevator, it detects the obstacles during the door closing, and reopens the door if there
Safety Shoe
Fascia Plate
Weighing Device
Circuit Breaker
In elevator, these prevent the excessive car travel at the highest and lowest floor.
Limit Switches
In escalators, these stop the escalator if a foreign object becomes wedged at the guard.
In escalators, this is located at the bottom truss of the escalator and provided with on and
Disconnect Switch
off positions to stop or prevents the escalator from starting during maintenance service.
This device, in escalators, is provided at the drive unit location to protect against
Mechanical
accidental movement of the escalator during inspection of the drives or during general
Maintenance
maintenance.
Locking Device
Knife Switch
repairs.
In a lightning protection system, the combination of a metal rod and its brace or footing,
Air Terminal
Teflon
Frequency
per second.
Of a partition, the number of decibels by which sound is reduced in transmission through
Transmission Loss
it; a measure of the sound insulation value of the partition, the higher the number, the
greater the insulation value.
The cooling effect obtained when 1 ton of ice at 32 oF (0 oC) melts to water at the same
Ton of Refrigeration
AS - STRUCTURAL
Occupancy, configuring
following factors.
TRIGGERMAN
14
Page 21
Assimilation Exam
recording accelerographs.
Maintenance and service of accelerographs shall be provided by the___.
Owner
Who shall be responsible for keeping the actual live load below the allowable limits and
Load duration
14 sqm.
reduced.
Minimum height of any wall requiring structural design to resist loads onto which they are
1.50 mts.
subjected.
Maximum deflection of a brittle finished wall subjected to a load of 250 Pascal applied
60 sqm.
The level at which the earthquake motions are considered to be imparted to the structure
Base
Collector
Diaphragm
Base Shear, V
Boundary Element
An essentially vertical truss system of the concentric or eccentric type which is provided
Braced Frame
Dual System
Joint
Girder
An element of a diaphragm parallel to the applied load which collects and transfers
Diaphragm Strut
diaphragm shear to vertical resisting elements or distributes loads within the diaphragm.
Such members may take axial tension or compression.
The boundary element of a diaphragm or a shear wall which is assumed to take axial
Diaphragm Chord
Essential facilities
Moment resisting space frame not meeting special detailing requirements for ductile
behavior.
Space Frame
Story Drift
The usable capacity of a structure or its members to resist loads within the deformation
Strength
TRIGGERMAN
Page 22
Assimilation Exam
Platform
An assemblage of framing members designed to support gravity loads and resist lateral
Structure
forces.
A structural system without complete vertical load carrying space frame. This system
provide support for gravity loads. Resistance to lateral load is provided by shear walls
or braced frames.
A structural system with essentially complete space frame providing support for gravity
loads. Moment resisting space frames provide resistance to lateral load primarily by
flexural action of members.
Is one in which the story strength is less than 80% of that of the story above.
Weak Story
Orthogonal Effect
P-delta Effect
Admixture
concrete and added to concrete before or during its mixing to modify its properties.
Concrete that does not conform to definition of reinforced concrete.
Plain Concrete
Upright compression member with a ratio of unsupported height to average least lateral
Pedestal
Modulus of Elasticity
Jacking Force
prestressing tendons.
Length of embedded reinforcement provided beyond a critical section.
Embedment Length
Stress remaining in prestressing tendons after all losses have occurred, excluding effects
Effective Prestress
Development Length
Curvature Friction
Bonded Tendon
ASTM A36
Structural Steel
High-Yield Strength Quenched and Tempered Alloy Steel Plate, Suitable for Welding.
ASTM A514
True or False, Bar larger than 32mm in diameter shall not be bundled in beams.
TRUE
Minimum concrete cover for a Prestressed concrete for beams and columns for
40 mm
TRIGGERMAN
Page 23
Assimilation Exam
primary reinforcements.
In a material under tension or compression, the absolute value of the ratio of transverse
Poisson's Ratio
Slenderness Ratio
A quantity which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about a line.
Torsion
Flat Slab
The tendency for one part of a beam to move vertically with respect to an adjacent part.
Shear
Deformation
The maximum value of tension, compression, or shear respectively the material sustain
Yielding Stress
without failure.
It means that by which a body develops internal resistance to 'stress'.
Stress
Allowable Stress
Stress
Tie / Stirrup
Stiffness Ratio
The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through it.
Punching Shear
Deflection
6 inches
The sum of forces in the othorgonal directions and the sum of all moments about any
Equilibrium
2 years
preserved and made available for inspection during the progress of construction and after
completion of the project for a period of not less than.
Wood board should have a thickness specification of.
The distance from the first to the last riser of a stair flight.
Run
A high-speed rotary shaping had power tool used to make smooth cutting and curving
on solid wood.
The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system.
Girder
Wood defects are: heart shake, cup shake, star shake, and___.
Knots
Cross-cut saw
It refers to the occupancy load which is either partially or fully in place or may not be
Live load
present at all.
The distance between inflection points in the column when it breaks.
Effective length
Volume
Modulus of Elasticity
Contraction joint
between them.
the total of all tread widths in a stair.
Total run
The force adhesion per unit area of contact between two bonded surfaces.
Bond Stress
Purlin
TRIGGERMAN
Page 24
Assimilation Exam
A connector such as a welded strut, spiral bar, or short length of channel which resists
Shear Connector
The law that relates the linear relationship between stresses and strains
Hook's Law
Minimum spacing of Bolts in timber connectionn measured from center of bolts parallel
4 X diameter of bolt
4 X diameter of bolt
lodaed edge distance for perpendicular to grain loading shall be at least ___.
NSCP specifies spacing between rows of bolts for perpendicular to grain loading shall be
2.5
12 mm
50
Nails or spikes for which the wire gauges or lengths not set forth in the NSCP
11 diameters
Notches in the top and bottom of joists shall not exceed ___.
Allowable stress for tension on pin connected members based on net area.
0.45 Fy
Allowable shear stress on structural steel on the cross sectional area effective in
0.40 Fy
resisting shear.
For structures carrying live loads which induce impact, the assumed live load shall be
100%
increased sufficiently to provide for same, for supports of elevators the increase shall be.
The slenderness ratio of compression members shall not exceed ___.
200
The slenderness ratio main members in tension shall not exceed ___.
240
Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings shall not be less than ___ for concrete
40 mm
20 mm
in moist condition for at least the first ___ days after placement.
If concrete in structure will dry under service conditions, cores shall be air-dried for ___
25 mm
TRIGGERMAN
Page 25
Assimilation Exam
Allowable tolerance on minimum concrete cover for depths greater than 200mm
12 mm
50 mm
Individual bars with a bundle terminated within the span of flexural members shall
40db
3db
4db
75 mm
P.D.. 1096
2.70 mts.
Minimum spacing for seats in a chair type measurement from back to back.
0.85 mtr.
45.00 mts.
In standard seating, the minimum spacing of rows measured from back to back.
0.84 mtr.
0.45 mtr.
0.70 mtr.
1.20 mts.
1.10 mts.
Minimum number of exit for floors above the first storey having an occupant load of
more than 10
Number of exit for occupant load of 599-999.
0.30 mtr.
250.00 sqm
1.80 mts.
750.00 sqm.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 26
Assimilation Exam
Ga. 18
300 mm
300 mm
200 mm
600 mm
Minimum air space between walls of a masonry chimney above the roof.
2" / 50 mm
12.5 mm
Minimum number of exit for stands within a building serving an occupant load of 300.
0.90 mtr
0.28 mtr.
Minimum spacing for seats with backrests measured from back to back.
0.75 mtr.
Minimum spacing for seats without backrests measured from back to back.
0.60 mtr.
1.70 mts.
10.70 lux
1.10 mts.
30 mm
Inner court
1.20 sqm.
1.50 mts.
1.00 sqm.
3.00 cum.
14.00 cum.
Maximum projection beyond the property line of a footing along the national road and at
300 mm
3.00 mts.
0.90 mtr.
1.20 mts.
3.00 mts.
Vacant space left between the building and lot lines less than 2.00 mts in width.
Setback
2.00 mts.
1.20 mts.
12.00 cum.
1.80 mts.
0.30 cum
Minimum total area of a window or an opening for a room without artificial ventilation.
0.60 mtr.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 27
Assimilation Exam
Minimum horizontal clearance of the curb line to the outermost edge of the marquee.
300 mm
2.40 mts.
2.40 mts.
600 kgs./sqm.
1.00 mtr.
120 kgs./sqm.
0.90 mtr.
2.70 mts.
0.80 mtr.
1.20 mts.
250 mm
2.00 mts.
1.20 m
Maximum distance of any portion of a building from the nozzle of a 23 mts fire hose.
6.00 mts.
1.20 mts.
750 mm
5.60 mm
1.20 mts.
900 mm
2.50 mts.
Show window
1.20 mts.
1.00 mtr.
300 mm
1.50 mts.
1:10 bedrooms
1:25 beds
60.00 mts.
1:5 classrooms
Minimum number of wheelchair seating space for 51-300 seating capacity for auditoriums.
0.90 mtr.
30.00 mts.
Minimum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortable.
1.40 mts.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 28
Assimilation Exam
0.80 mtr.
Maximum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortably.
1.60 mts.
3.70 mts.
200 mm
Minimum ceiling height from 3rd floor to succeeding floors with artificial ventilation.
2.10 mts.
6.00 sqm.
2.00 mts.
300 mm
500 mm
0.90 mts.
Maximum width reduced by handrails and doors fully opened to balconies and
200 mm
corridors
Minimum width of stairs serving more than 50 occupants.
1.10 mts.
750 mm
100 mm
150 mm
300 mm
5 mm
3.00 mts.
1.00 mts.
Maximum distance between the back of each seat to the front of the seat behind it.
300 mm
480 mm
8.40 mts
100 mm
300 mm
250 mm
150 mm
200 mm
900 liters/minute
4" (100mm)
5" (125mm)
6" (150mm)
190 liters/minute
2" (50mm)
2 1/2" (63mm)
23.00 mts
6.00 mts.
38 mm (11/2")
TRIGGERMAN
Page 29
Assimilation Exam
1.00 mtr.
5.00 mts.
3.00 mts.
120 days
0.80 mtr.
Minimum horizontal distance of the curb line to the outermost face of an arcade.
500 mm
6.00 mts.
1/3 - 1/4
Slope of driveway to sidewalk where the height of curb is 200 mm and above.
Minimum vertical clearance of primary lines from the crown of the pavement when
10.00 mts.
7.5 mts.
7.5 mts.
2.50 mts.
1.20 mts.
3,861 sqcms.
Minimum clearance of conductors from any platform or ground or projection from which
3.00 mts.
3.00 mts.
5.50 mts.
277 kgs.
3.00 mts.
28.00 sqm.
18.6 sqm.
9.30 sqm.
1.80 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for stores - retail sales rooms upper floors.
5.60 sqm.
3.25 sqm.
Unit area for stores -retail sales room for basement and ground floor.
2.80 sqm.
8.40 sqm.
46.50 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for warehouses and mechanical equipment room.
28.00 sqm.
0.65 sqm.
1 slot/5 rooms
Parking requirement for public assembly buildings such as cinemas, auditoria, theaters,
1slot/8 units
Parking requirement for multi family living unit above 100 sqm floor area.
1 slot/unit
Parking requirement for multi family living unit for 50-100 sqm floor area.
1 slot/4 units
1 slot/unit
TRIGGERMAN
Page 30
Assimilation Exam
1 slot/5 classrooms
1 slot/10 classrooms
1.20 mts.
1:20
1:12
12.00 mts.
1:12
60.00 mts.
1.50 mts.
0.50 mts.
1.10 mts.
0.90 mts.
1.20 mts.
3.70 mts.
0.70 mtr.
6.00 mts.
1.50 mts.
One or more habitable rooms which are occupied or which are intended or designated to
Dwelling unit
be occupied by one family with facilities for cooking , sleeping, living, and eating.
That portion of the foundation of a structure which spreads and transmits loads directly
Footing
Course
A room or suite of two or more rooms, designed and intended for , or occupied by one
Apartment
Barbecue
A portion of the seating space of an assembly room, the lowest part of which is raised
Balcony
Chimney connector
A hearth and fire chamber or similarly prepared place in which a fire may be made and
Fireplace
Girder
over opening.
Same as heliport except that no refueling, maintenance, repairs, or storage of
Helistop
helicopters is permitted.
The vertical supports, such as posts or stanchions, as used in indigenous or traditional
Suportales
type of construction.
Any surface or underground construction covered on top, or any fire-proof construction
Vault
Cross wall
18.60 sqm.
1.40 sqm.
0.65 sqm.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 31
Assimilation Exam
A building permit shall expire if work authorized is abandoned or suspended at any time
8.00 mts.
12.00 cum.
Multiple living units of up to 6 units built on the same lot shall have an access road
3.00 mts.
500 mm
clearance between the curb line and the outermost face of any part of the arcade shall
not be less than.
Printing plants shall be classified under what type of occupancy.
Industrial
Residentials, hotels
and apartments.
Institutional
Turnabout should also be provided at or whithin how many meters of dead end.
3.50 mts.
1:12
Under B.P. 344, a level area of not less than how many meters shall be provided at the
1.80 mts.
Institutional
Residentials, hotels
and apartments.
Under what classification of occupancy does cold storage and creameris fall?
Industrial
Accessory
60 mts.
Percentage required for number of parking if parking garages are available within 200
20%
meters of structure.
Parking requirement for amusement centers.
Parking requirement for multi-family living units of more than 100 sqm of living unit area.
1/living unit
Parking requirement for multi-family living units of up to 50 sqm of living unit area.
Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of over 3 meters but not more than 6 mts.
0.60 mtr.
Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of 10 mts to less than 11 mts in width.
1.00 mtr.
Maximum height of 1st the floor for a 2-story wood structure with a height of 7 mts.
4.50 mts.
Maximum spacing of posts for 2-story wooden structure with a height of 8 mts.
4.50 mts.
Under what classification of occupancy does fences of over 1.80 mts in height fall?
Accessory
TRIGGERMAN
Page 32
Assimilation Exam
Industrial
Under what classification of occupancy does police and fire stations fall?
How many meters above the floor is the comfortable reach of persons confined to a
wheelchair.
How many meterd is the comfortable clearance for knee and leg space under tables for
0.74 mts.
wheelchair users.
Accessibility, reachability, usability, orientation, workability and efficiency, and ___ are
Safety
R.A. 7277
Corridor
A raised rim of concrete, stone or metal which forms the edge of street, sidewalk, etc.
Curb
0.71 mtr.
2.30 mts.
0.19 mtr.
2.75 mts.
2.00 mts.
0.28 sqm.
46.00 mts.
61.00 mts.
Minimum spacing of rows of seats from back to back for a public assembly building.
0.83 mtr.
14
60 cms.
91 cms.
2.00 mts.
56 cms.
112 cms.
76 cms.
38 mm.
TRIGGERMAN
Page 33
Assimilation Exam
91 cms.
106 cms.
7.50 mts.
112 cms.
112 cms.
Maximum rise of any floor from the balcony floor to which an access door leads.
20.3 cms
1floor
55.9 cms.
Minimum width of landing for a fire escape stair for existing stairs.
55.9 cms.
15.25 cms.
30.5 cms.
22.9 cms.
Maximum height between landings for a fire escape stair for existing stairs.
3.66 mts.
Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for existing stairs.
2.13 mts.
Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for small buildings.
1.98 mts.
50-300
Maximum travel distance between room door intended as exit access and exit with
30 mts.
30 mts.
Maximum travel distance from the main entrance door to exit for apartments with sprinkler.
31 mts.
2.5 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving one side for a
91 cms.
1.00 mtr.
76 cms.
1.80 mts.
2.44 mts.
1.83 mts.
112 cms.
112 cms.
4.60 sqm.
Institutional
Courtrooms with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what
Assembly
classification of occupancy.
Armories with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what classification
Assembly
of occupancy
Libraries are classified under what classification of occupancy.
Business
Rooms where baled, bundled or piled materials segregated into desired sizes or groups.
Picking rooms.
Buildings or structures used for the storage of explosives, shells, projectile, etc.
Explosive magazine
TRIGGERMAN
Page 34
Assimilation Exam
An air compartment or chamber to which 1 or more ducts are connected and which form
Plenum
Fulminate
Phyrophoric
Oxidizing material
combustion.
A process where a piece of metal is heated prior to changing its shape and dimension.
Forging
The process of first raising the temperature to separate the more volatile from the less
Distillation
volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the result vapor so as to produce a nearly
purified substance.
A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with air in the proper proportion and
Dust
Class B
Boiling Point
4 hrs.
Duct System
The minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient
Flash Point
Fumigant
4.50 mts.
Minimum height of fence for a lumber yard for exterior storage of lumbers.
1.80 mts.
Maximum width of sumps for the retention of oil and petroleum products.
3.70 mts.
For Refineries, distilleries, and chemical plants, the minimum height for a fence.
1.50 mts.
Minimum travel distance from any individual room subject to occupancy by not more
15.00 mts.
6 persons.
Maximum distance of travel from the high hazard area to an exit.
23.00 mts.
Minimum distance of an incinerator from any structure used other than a single family
3.00 mts.
dwelling.
Maximum reduction in width of a stair by a handrail.
9 cms.
71 cms.
Maximum change in elevation between the interior of a door to the outside of it other than
20.5 cms.
a balcony.
Maximum force in kilograms required for a panic hardware.
7 kgs.
112 cms.
76 cms.
20
61 cms.
Minimum stair width for a class B stair serving an occupant load of less than 50.
91 cms.
Length of a nosing or effective projection over the level immediately below it for tread
25 mm
TRIGGERMAN
86.5 cms.
Page 35
Assimilation Exam
The time duration that a material or construction can withstand the effect of standard
Cryogenic
30.50 mts.
Assembly
Under what classification of occupancy does home for the aged fall.
Institutional
Business
Industrial
Mercantile
71 cms.
1.50 mts.
3.66 mts.
15 mts.
763 cms.
19 cms.
20 cms.
Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving more than 50 persons.
112 cms.
Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving 50 persons and below.
91 cms.
38 mm.
25 mm.
3.70 mts.
Minimum width of landings in direction of travel for Class 'A / B' stairs.
112 cms.
112 cms.
76 cms.
10-17%
No limit
3.66 mts.
1.20 mts.
55.9 cms.
Minimum horizontal dimension of any landing of platform for existing stairs for fire escape.
55.9 cms.
30.5 cms.
Maximum height between landings for fire escape for existing stairs.
3.66 mts.
Minimum distance travel to an exit for storage occupancies of high hazard commodities.
23 mts.
Class of fire involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, and
Class D
Class A
Dip Tank
are immersed for the purpose of coating, finishing, treating or similar processes.
An integrated system of under ground or overhead piping or both connected to a source
TRIGGERMAN
Automatic
Page 36
Assimilation Exam
Fire
Suppression
System
A continuous and unobstructed route of exit from any point in a building to a public way.
Means of Egress
5.00 mts.
Assembly
Business
1.22 mts.
22.9 cms.
30.5 cms.
25 cms.
Class III combustible liquids shall mean any liquid having a flash point at how many
60 oC
degrees Celsius?
In standard seating, the minimum spacing from back to back.
0.83 mtr.
Minimum space from the back of chair to the front of the chair behind.
30 cms.
(1:8) 12.5%
Size of standpipe provided for each stage for public assembly building.
63.5 mm.
1.8 sqm.
Where exterior corridors or balconies are provided as means of exit, they shall open to the
76.25 mts.
55 cms.
Maximum height from the floor for a rescue window for educational occupancies.
82 cms.
Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in hospitals and nursing homes.
2.44 mts.
Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in residential-custodial care.
1.83 mts.
Any room for sleeping in institutional occupancies if subdivided shall have a maximum
465 sqm.
Hotel
Apartment Buildings
12
PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
Pre-design services
The fee of the architect for design-build services on a guaranteed maximum cost aside
10%
TRIGGERMAN
Page 37
Assimilation Exam
10%
For interior design services, the architect shall be paid what percentage of the fee upon
50%
85%
prepared by the architect, the architect is entitled to receive what percentage of his fee.
The minimum fee per appearance of an architect when rendering service as an expert
PHP 500.00
12%
The minimum basic fee for industrial buildings with a project cost below 50 million pesos.
6%
The minimum basic fee for hospitals with a project cost below 50 million pesos.
8%
Architect
3 months
General conditions
An outline specification enumerating the type and trade names of materials to be used.
Quotation
Certificate of payment
work accomplished.
A bond furnished by the contractor and his surety as a guarantee to execute the work in
Performance bond
Bid
7%
A stipulation of the use of specific products or processes without provision for substitution.
Closed specification
Instruction to bidders
The performance and Payment Bonds shall be released by the owner after the expiration
2 months
12 months / 1 yr
How many days shall the Building Official issue a certificate of occupancy after final
30 days
Statute of Limitation
Statutory Bond
A rule that certain kinds of contracts are enforceable unless signed and in writing or
Statute of Frauds
unless there is a written memorandum of their terms signed by the party to be charged.
A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed
Lease
Leasehold
Lessee
Lessor
2-2.5
Multiple of Direct
TRIGGERMAN
Page 38
Assimilation Exam
Personnel Expenses
Supervision Work is a non-creative work, true or false.
TRUE
Multiple of Direct
and other works which the Architect may perform other than the regular and specialized
Personnel
allied services.
Expenses
50 kms.
on a series of projects.
The full-time construction inspector shall be under the technical control and supervision
Architect
of the ___.
Submission of shop drawings shall be accompanied by a ___ in duplicate.
Letter of transmittal
How many sets of shop drawings for approval shall the contractor submit to the Architect?
Who shall have the responsibility of securing, but not liable for non-issuance, of the final
Contractor
occupancy permit.
True or false, can the owner relegate to the contractor the responsibility of establishing
TRUE
the lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and benchmarks provided that the owner pays
the contractor for such works?
Who shall have the responsibility for establishing lot lines, boundary lines, easements,
Owner
and benchmarks?
Who shall pay for the services of a licensed surveyor for confirmation and certification of
Contractor
the location of column centers, piers, walls, pits, trenches, pipe work, culvert work, utility
lines, and other similar works required by the contract.
Professional Fee for the Architect as a full-time supervisor.
1-1.5%
1.5-3%
Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of sidewalk width to that of the road right-
(1/6)
of-way?
At what interest rate per month should a client pay the architect should the former fail to
2%
Civil Code
Payment Bond
What type of compensation is applied to most of Gov't projects and entails more paper
TRIGGERMAN
Page 39
Assimilation Exam
2-5%
If the Project Manager is hired by the owner, who shall have the responsibility of hiring
Project Manager
TRUE
Project Manager
of many of the anxieties that usually beset , particularly those concerned with forecasting
cost and completion dates.
In the architect's code of ethics, to whom does the architect has responsibility to seek
Public / People
PD 223
Architect XYZ uses paid advertisements without sanction by professional consensus and
People / Public
years of experience. His action is unethical with respect to his relation to whom?
Additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before date of bidding.
Bid Bulletin
The offer of a bidder to perform the work described by the contract documents when made
Proposal
out and submitted on the prescribed proposal form, properly signed and sealed.
The cashier's check or surety bond accompanying the proposal submitted by the bidder,
Proposal Bond
as a guarantee that the bidder will enter into a contract with the owner for the construction
of the work, if the contract is awarded to him.
Instructions which may be issued prior to the bidding to supplement and/or modify
Special Provisions
Specifications
of construction.
Means information, advice or notification pertinent to the project delivered in person or
Written Notice
sent by registered mail to the individual, firm or corporation at the last known business
address of such individual, firm or corporation.
Includes labor or materials or both as equipment, transportation, or other facilities
Work
necessary to commence and complete the construction called for in the contract.
Means to build-in, mount in position, connect or apply any object specified ready for the
Install
intended use.
Means to purchase and/or fabricate and deliver to jobsite.
Furnish
Provide
No further retention shall be made on the balance of the contract when how many percent
50%
65%
price.
The guarantee bond is equal to how many percent of the contract price?
30%
How many percent of the architect's fee is payable to the architect upon completion of the
30%
preparation of the schematic design phase and up to final design development phase?
Standard factor computed for changes and/or revisions made on completed contracts.
2.5
Approximately, how many square meters of office space for the architect is built by the
12 sqm.
TRIGGERMAN
50 / Contractor
Page 40
Assimilation Exam
Specifications
be followed?
How many days prior to bidding shall the contractor seek the architect's
15 Days
clarification as to the particular areas of work which requires evaluation of the architect?
How many days upon written notice can a contractor terminate a contract with a valid
15 Days
reason?
Suspension of work for ___ days by order of any court or other public authority through
90 Days
no act or fault of the contractor gives the him the right to terminate contract.
True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to pay the
any request for payment within 30 days after its certification by the architect.
Who declares bankruptcy as a valid reason for the termination of a contract?
Contractor
True or false, upon termination of contract and upon the decision of the architect that
TRUE
materials and equipment left by the contractor which do not belong to him can be used
and rent of such shall be borne by the failing contractor.
True or false, in case of suspension of work, all unpaid work executed including expenses
TRUE
incurred during suspension shall be evaluated by the architect and charged to the owner.
True or false, the owner has no right to claim liquidated damages if he takes over the
FALSE
10 days
intention to cancel?
How many percent of the contract amount is the Performance Bond?
15%
15%
A contract provision setting forth the damages a party must pay in the event of his breach.
Penalty Clause
Basic Fee for Physical Planning Type 1 or site such as industrial estates, commercial
R.A. 6451
PD 1308
Liens
6%
150%
200 / hr
on technical matters pertaining to his profession, the minimum basic fee shall be ___.
When rendering service as an expert witness, the architect is compensated ___/ hr.
500
12%
Repetitive Construction
Under what classification of Project does Hospitals and Medical Buildings fall?
TRIGGERMAN
Page 41
Assimilation Exam
Minimum Per diem paid to the architect if work is beyond 50 kms. From office.
PHP 750.00
On the remaining 15% work fee of the architect, where does the 5% go.
Repairs and corrective works at the expense of the contractor should be done within how
5 days
10 days
to remove said work at contractor's exepense and contractor shall pay the owner the
expenses incurred within how many days from removal by the owner of said work?
Contract time reckoning shall commence on the ___ from receipt of ___.
Civic Center
Any article of property not consisting of or affixed to land plus any interest in land that is
Chattel
Reciprocity
the profession unless the country of his relation allows the same ___.
TRIGGERMAN