SULIT 960/2 SEPTEMBER 2008

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN SIJIL TINGGI PELAJARAN MALAYSIA NEGERI PAHANG DARUL MAKMUR

PHYSICS
PAPER 1 One hour and fourty-five minutes Instructions to candidates:

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

There are fifty questions in this paper. For each question, four suggested answers are given. Choose one correct answer and indicate it on the multiple-choice answer sheet provided. Read the instructions on the multiple-choice answer sheet very carefully. Answer all questions. Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers. A Data Booklet is provided. Arahan kepada calon: JANGAN BUKA BUKU SOALAN INI SEHINGGA ANDA DIBENARKAN BERBUAT DEMIKIAN. Ada lima puluh soalan dalam kertas ini. Bagi setiap soalan, empat cadangan jawapan diberikan. Pilih satu jawapan yang betul dan tandakan jawapan itupada helaian jawapan aneka pilihan yang dibekalkan. Baca arahan pada helaian jawapan aneka pilihan itu dengan teliti. Jawab semua soalan. Markah tidak akan ditolak bagi jawapan yang salah. Buku Data dibekalkan.

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1. Which of the following errors are systematic errors? A Zero errors B Parallax errors C Errors caused by non-uniformity in shape D Errors caused by changes in the surroundings 2. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities are vectors? A work , momentum B frequency , velocity C displacement , torque D moment of inertia, acceleration 3. The diagram below shows a block of mass m in contact with the ground and is connected to another block of mass 3m by a string through a smooth pulley.

3m
h

If the block of mass m is released, what will be the speed of the block of mass 3m just before it hits the ground? A 2 gh 3 B gh C 2gh D 6 gh

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4. A body initially at rest was acted on by a force in the same direction. The magnitude of the force F changes with time t as shown in the diagram below.

0 T

Which of the following graphs shows changes in the linear momentum p of the object with time t?

0 T

0T

5. A car of mass 1000 kg is moving with a constant speed of 20 m s-1 on a straight horizontal road with an output power of 20 kW. If the output power is suddenly increased to 60 kW, what is the acceleration of the car at this instant? A 0.2 ms-2 B 0.3 ms-2 C 2.0 ms-2 D 3.0 ms-2

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6. The diagram below shows a particle moving in a circle with constant speed 3.0 m s-1. The centripetal force is 100 N. The diameter XY of the circle is 2.0 m.

The work done on the particle when it moves through the semicircle XPY is A0J B 300 J C 314 J D 628 J

7.The diagram below shows a ball of mass m and radius r moving at a translational speed u and rolling up an inclined plane without sliding. After reaching a height of h , the speed of the ball is v. If g is the acceleration of free fall and the moment of inertia of the ball about its rotation

h u

axis is

2 mr , which expression is equal to h ? 3 v

2

[The effect of friction is negligible] A

 

 

5( u 2 v2 )


r ( u 2 v2 )
2


3g

2g
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6g

3g

8. A rigid body has rotational kinetic energy of 20 J and angular momentum 10 kg m2 s-1. What is the angular velocity of the body? A 0.5 rad s-1 B 1.0 rad s-1 C 2.0 rad s-1 D 4.0 rad s-1

9. The diagram shows a system of objects which are at equilibrium. The 10 kg cuboid is almost slipping on the horizontal surface. What is the coefficient of static friction between the cuboid and the horizontal surface?

30o 10kg

5kg

A 0.29

B 0.50

C 0.71

D 0.87

10. An object of mass m is raised from the earths surface to a height R where R is the radius of the earth. If the mass of the earth is M and the gravitational constant is G, what is the gain in potential energy of the object? A

GmM 2R

GmM 2R

GmM R

2GmM R

11. Which of the following relationships below correctly relates the potential energy U, kinetic energy T and the total energy E of a satellite? A U B U C U D U
! 

! 

T E 2T 2E
!  !  !

! 

! 

1 T 2 T 1E 2
!

1E 2

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12.The graph below shows the variation of acceleration a with displacement x of a particle performing a simple harmonic motion. a/m s-2 0.6

-0.02

0.02

x/m

-0.6

The frequency of oscillation of the simple harmonic motion is A 0.87 Hz B 1.15Hz C 4.77 Hz

D 34.41 Hz

13. Which of the statements below is true regarding damped oscillations systems? A The system does not oscillate at its natural frequency B When resonance occurs, the system does not loose energy C Damping causes the oscillating frequency to decrease D The oscillating amplitude is maximum when the forcing frequency is almost the same as the natural frequency.

14. Two waves of the same frequency but having amplitudes 2a and 3a respectively experienced interference. The ratio amplitude at the point of destructive interference is amplitudeat the point of constructiveinterference A 1B 5 4 9
C

2 3

3 2

15. If the level of intensity of a sound is raised by 10 dB, what is the ratio of the new sound intensity to the original sound intensity? A 0.1 B1 C 10 D 1010

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16.The transverse wave in a string is represented by the equation y = 10 sin [ (x 0.2t)] , where x and y are measured in centimeters and t in seconds. The phase difference between two points 0.2 cm apart on the wave is

A 0.11 rad

B 0.13 rad

C 0.20 rad

D 0.63 rad

17. A sound source is moving towards a stationary observer. If the source produces a sound of velocity v and wavelength , Awhat is the velocity and wavelength of the sound detected by the observer? A B C D
Velocity v v >v >v Wavelength A <A <A >A

18. The graph below shows the change in potential energy U between two atoms of a solid with the separation r of the atoms.

X
Which of the statements below is true regarding the atoms which are at the state represented by the point X on the graph above? A The absolute temperature is zero B The total energy is zero C The potential energy is zero D The attractive force is maximum

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19. Which of the following best shows the stiffness of a solid? A Elastic limit C Deformation point B Youngs modulus D Stress strength

20. The characteristic of a wire when stretched by a force is represented by the stressstrain graph below.

Stress
6m

X
W

E o

Strain

Which of the following is a false deduction from the graph above? A The permanent deformation of Eo is obtained when the stress applied at point X is removed. B Atomic planes in the wire slides over one another when the wire is stretched from X to Y C The shaded area under the graph OW has the same value as the strain energy. D When maximum stress a m is applied, the wire begins to thin non-uniformly.

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21. The graph below shows the change in pressure P with density p of an ideal gas at temperature T and 300 K. T P / Pa

1.5 x 105

300 K

2.00

2.80 / kgm -3


What is the temperature T? A 214 K B 254 K C 355 K D 420 K

22.The most probable speed of the oxygen molecule at room temperature is 400 ms-1. Which of the speeds given below, is most likely to be the r.m.s. speed of the oxygen molecules at that temperature? [No calculations required] A 80 ms-1 B 360 ms-1 C 400 ms-1 D 490 ms-1

23. The degree of freedom of the molecules of an ideal gas is the number of A ways in which the molecules can move randomly B independent ways in which the internal energy of the gas can change C independent ways in which the molecules can gain energy D independent ways in which the gas can expand or be compressed

24. Which of the equations below cannot be used for an adiabatic process of an ideal gas? A dQ = 0 B pV = RT C T V =constant D pV= constant
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25. Heat conduction in metals at room temperature is largely caused by A propagation of waves in conductors B absorption of free electrons in conductors C collisions between electrons and atoms D movement of high energy atoms in conductors

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26 Which one of the following statements is true concerning the strength of the electric field between two oppositely charged parallel plates? A It is zero midway between the plates. B It is a maximum midway between the plates. C It is a maximum near the positively charged plate. D It is constant between the plates except near the edges. 27 In the diagram shown below, the switch is first connected to P. The switch is then connected to Q. What is the charge that remains in the 6 NF capacitor when the switch is connected to Q?
Pa Q
a a

12V ______________3F

6 F

A 8 NC

B 12 NC

C 24 NC

D 72 NC

28 A cell with e.m.f. 6.0 V and internal resistance, r = 2.0 0 is connected to three resistors of values 2R, 6R and 6R as shown in the figure below. If the potential difference across point P and point Q is 3.0 V, what is the value of R? A 1.0 0 B 2.0 0
E = 6.0 V r = 2.0 9

C 3.0 0

D 4.0 ~

6R 2R P 6R
Q

29 Determine the length of a copper wire that has a resistance of 0.172 ~ and cross-sectional area of 1x 10-4 m2. The resistivity of copper is 1.72 x 108 0 m. A 10 m B 100 m C 1000 m D 10000 m

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30 Two long and parallel straight wires are separated by a distance r in vacuum. An electric current flows through each wire in the same direction. The magnetic flux density at the mid-point between the two wires is A j
w 

Bj
w

C 2 j
w

D zero
r


2 r

31 A circular coil consists of 5 loops each of diameter 1.0 m. The coil is placed in an external magnetic field of 0.5 T. When the coil carries a current of 4.0 A, a torque of magnitude 3.93 N m acts on it. Determine the angle between the normal to the plane of the coil and the direction of the magnetic field. A 30o B 45 C 60o D 90

32 A long, straight wire is in the same plane as a rectangular conducting loop. The wire carries a constant current I as shown in the diagram below. Which one of the following statements is true if the wire is suddenly moved toward the loop?

A There will be no induced e.m.f. and no induced current. B There will be an induced e.m.f. but no induced current. C There will be an induced current that is clockwise around the loop. D There will be an induced current that is counterclockwise around the loop.

33 In an ideal transformer, the most important function of the soft iron core is A to reduce the eddy currents B to improve the flux-linkage between the primary and secondary coils C to dissipate the heat generated by the two coils D to eliminate the back e.m.f. produced in the two coils. 34 An alternating current I = Io sin 200 nt is connected to a pure inductor. The variation of the instantaneous power in this circuit with time is A sinusoidal with frequency 100 Hz. B constant. C sinusoidal with frequency 200 Hz. D sinusoidal with frequency 50 Hz.

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35 What is the function of negative feedback in the operational amplifier? A To increase the input impedance. B To make the amplifier more stable. C To increase the gain. D To make the amplifier into non-inverting. 36 Which one of the following types of wave is intrinsically different from the other four? A sound waves B gamma rays C radio waves D visible light

37 A converging lens of focal length f is placed 0.2 m from an object and an image is produced on a screen 0.8 m from the lens. With the object and screen fixed, an image of the object can also be formed on the screen by placing a converging lens of focal length A f at a distance of 0.1 m from the screen B f at a distance of 0.2 m from the screen. C 3f at a distance of 0.1 m from the screen. D 3f at a distance of 0.2 m from the screen. 38 The diagram below shows an air wedge formed by two glass plate. Monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on it. Given y = 8.0 cm and separation between dark fringes is 2 mm, determine the value of h. A. 1.2 x 10-5 m B 1.17 x 10-5 m C 1.50 x 10-6 m D 1.50 x 10-4 m
monochromatic light

h
y

glass

39 Youngs double slit experiment uses the same light source to illuminate the two slits. This is necessary to ensure that light coming out from both slits have A the same speed. B a constant phase difference. C the same intensity. D the same frequency.

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40 A ray of light consisting of two wavelengths A1 and A2 (~2 > A is incident on a piece of 1) diffraction grating. The third order diffraction for A2 superimposes on subsequent order ? diffraction image for A1 . What is the ratio of

2

1

A 0.5

B 0.75

C 1.3

D 1.5

41 An ultraviolet light source causes the emission of photoelectrons from a zinc plate. A more intense light source of the same wavelength would give A the same number of photoelectrons each second with the same maximum energy. B the same number of photoelectrons each second with a greater maximum energy. C more photoelectrons each second with the same maximum energy. D more photoelectrons each second with a greater maximum energy. 42 A car with mass m possesses momentum of magnitude p. Which expression correctly represents the kinetic energy, K, of the car in terms of m and p? A K
!

P 2m

C B K mP 2 K mP D
! !

22 K
!

P 2m

43 An electron accelerated from rest through an electric potential of V has a de Broglie wavelength of A Which of the following graphs represent the . relationship between Aand V? C 1 V A B 1 V C 1 V D
~

D 1 V

44 According to the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, A the angular momentum of electrons in stable orbits is the same for all energy levels. B when the quantum number of the electron orbit increases, the angular momentum decreases. C the angular momentum in an excited state is higher than in the ground state. D the angular momentum for the first three quantum levels are in the ratio of 1 : 1/4 : 1/9

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45 The minimum wavelength for the continuous X-ray spectrum obtained from an X-ray tube depends on A the mass of the target. B the electric potential across the anode and cathode. C the element of the target. D surface area of the target. 46 Which of the following is necessary for stimulated emission to occur in the production of laser? A Population Inversion. B Light of high intensity. C Electron deceleration. D High potential difference. 47 The binding energy per nucleon may be used as a measure of the stability of a nucleus. This quantity A falls to zero for heavy radioactive nuclides. B increases uniformly throughout the periodic table. C is a maximum for nuclides in the middle of the periodic table. D is directly proportional to the neutron / proton ratio of the nuclide. 48 At a particular instant, the count rate of a pure radioactive material detected by a detector is 208 s-1 . Four minutes later, the count rate recorded decreases and becomes 40 s-1 . The average background count rate in the absence of the radioactive material is constant at 16 s-1. What is the half-life of the radioactive material? A 30 s B 40 s C 60 s D 80 s

49 The energy in the sun is obtained through the process of A liberation of energy from unstable nucleus. B nuclear fission of helium nucleus to from hydrogen nucleus. C the fission of uranium nucleus by neutrons. D the fusion of hydrogen nucleus to form helium nucleus. 50 A quark A has no mass. B is positively charged. C has fractional charge. D travels at the speed of light

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