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Test For Ndeb in Canada PDF
Test For Ndeb in Canada PDF
Dental Decks
Part I Testlet
Part I
Notice
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Dental Decks
Part I Testlet
Occlusion chart
Maxillary
2P
1P
O
1M
O
2P
1P
2M
O
1M
2M
Mandibular
MBuccal cusp of the md. 1st premolar occludes with the Mesial marginal ridge of the mx. 1st premolar
OBuccal cusp of the md. 2nd premolar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd premolars
OMesiobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 2nd premolar and mx. 1st molar
CDistobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 1st molar
OMesiobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd molars
CDistobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 2nd molar
DLingual cusp of the mx. 1st premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 1st premolar
DLingual cusp of the mx. 2nd premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 2nd premolar
CMesiolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 1st molar
ODistolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 1st and 2nd molars
CMesiolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 2nd molar
ODistolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 2nd and 3rd molars (if present)
Occlusion chart
Maxillary
2P
1P
O
D
1P
1M
2P
2M
1M
2M
Mandibular
MBuccal cusp of the md. 1st premolar occludes with the Mesial marginal ridge of the mx. 1st premolar
OBuccal cusp of the md. 2nd premolar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd premolars
OMesiobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 2nd premolar and mx. 1st molar
CDistobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 1st molar
OMesiobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd molars
CDistobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 2nd molar
DLingual cusp of the mx. 1st premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 1st premolar
DLingual cusp of the mx. 2nd premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 2nd premolar
CMesiolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 1st molar
ODistolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 1st and 2nd molars
CMesiolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 2nd molar
ODistolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 2nd and 3rd molars (if present)
Upper right
lower left
lower right
1. There are 10 Case Scenarios, and each case has 10 questions covering Anatomy, Microbiology, Biochemistry,Physiology, Pathology,
and Dental Anatomy. The Vignettes are composed of the following components:
A paragraph of patient chief complaint and dental history
A chart of patient's medical history and medication usage
You will have to click on a button to make the patient medical history chart visible. Sometimes the chart contains valuable information
that you will need to answer some of the questions, but not all the
questions need that information.
2. The questions are clinically oriented rather than straight memorization. The diseases in the case scenarios are MOSTLY common
ones patients present with on your dental schools clinic floor. Be
careful with cases such as diabetes, asthma, fractures, bone lesions
etc... Moreover, a lot of dental management, ethics and dental
anatomy questions were blended in.
3. Primary and permanent teeth are not given straight out, rather,
they are referred to as tooth #17, or tooth K etc. It might be beneficial
to write down a teeth number chart along with the occlusion chart
during the tutorial period (see back two pages of this testlet booklet
for examples).
Copyright 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc.
Lower left
Lower right
Upper right
lower left
lower right
1. There are 10 Case Scenarios, and each case has 10 questions covering Anatomy, Microbiology, Biochemistry,Physiology, Pathology,
and Dental Anatomy. The Vignettes are composed of the following components:
A paragraph of patient chief complaint and dental history
A chart of patient's medical history and medication usage
You will have to click on a button to make the patient medical history chart visible. Sometimes the chart contains valuable information
that you will need to answer some of the questions, but not all the
questions need that information.
2. The questions are clinically oriented rather than straight memorization. The diseases in the case scenarios are MOSTLY common
ones patients present with on your dental schools clinic floor. Be
careful with cases such as diabetes, asthma, fractures, bone lesions
etc... Moreover, a lot of dental management, ethics and dental
anatomy questions were blended in.
3. Primary and permanent teeth are not given straight out, rather,
they are referred to as tooth #17, or tooth K etc. It might be beneficial
to write down a teeth number chart along with the occlusion chart
during the tutorial period (see back two pages of this testlet booklet
for examples).
Copyright 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc.
Lower left
Lower right
CASE SCENARIO 1
Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
56
120 lbs.
Weight
B/P
115/65
Chief Complaint
Medical History
ANSWER KEYS
Case 2
Answer Question
Case 3
Answer
Case 4
Question
Answer
Case 5
B, C, D
B, C, E
B, E, F
A, E
D
Current Medications
Synthroid
Social History
Housewife
1. Which of the following is the most common cause of this patients autoimmune disease?
A. Graves disease
B. Thyroid adenoma
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Hashimotos thyroiditis
10
10
10
10
10
Answer
Question
Answer
Case 7
C, D, F
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
56
Weight
120 lbs.
B/P
115/65
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Hypothyroidism
Case 9
Case 10
B, E, G
A, B, E
10
10
10
10
10
Question
Answer
CASE SCENARIO 1
Age
Case 8
B
ANSWER KEYS
Case 2
Answer Question
Case 3
Answer
Case 4
Case 5
B, C, D
B, C, E
B, E, F
A, E
D
Current Medications
Synthroid
Social History
Housewife
1. Which of the following is the most common cause of this patients autoimmune disease?
A. Graves disease
B. Thyroid adenoma
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Hashimotos thyroiditis
10
10
10
10
10
Answer
Question
Answer
Case 7
C, D, F
Case 8
Case 9
Case 10
B, E, G
A, B, E
10
10
10
10
10
7. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a qualitative platelet defect resulting in impaired platelet adhesion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
von Willebrands
Hemophilia A
Hemophilia B
Hemophilia C
8. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to be mobile in this patient
due to the eruption of the succedaneous tooth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
F
G
H
I
9. This patients poor habit is often associated with which of the following malocclusions?
A. Class I
B. Class II, division I
C. Class II, division II
D. Class III
10. During this patients orthodontic treatment, new alveolar bone is deposited.
Which of the following BEST describes this type of alveolar bone?
A. Woven
B. Compact
C. Cementum
D. Endochondral
E. Intramembranous
7. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a qualitative platelet defect resulting in impaired platelet adhesion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
von Willebrands
Hemophilia A
Hemophilia B
Hemophilia C
8. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to be mobile in this patient
due to the eruption of the succedaneous tooth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
F
G
H
I
9. This patients poor habit is often associated with which of the following malocclusions?
A. Class I
B. Class II, division I
C. Class II, division II
D. Class III
10. During this patients orthodontic treatment, new alveolar bone is deposited.
Which of the following BEST describes this type of alveolar bone?
A. Woven
B. Compact
C. Cementum
D. Endochondral
E. Intramembranous
5. From the following list select the THREE symptoms associated with this
patients autoimmune disorder.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Weight loss
Dry skin
Diarrhea
Tearing
6. The abscess around tooth #2 may result in which of the following life-threatening situations?
A. Hyperalgesia
B. Hypoalgesia
C. Ludwigs angina
D. Non-vital pulp
E. Referred pain
7. Which of the following nerve fibers is responsible for the patients sharp pain
around tooth #2?
A. A alpha
B. A beta
C. A delta
D. B
E. C
8. If the patient elects root canal therapy for tooth #2, which of the following
best describes the MOST likely presentation of the pulp canals?
A. Three canals, one in each root
B. Four canals, two in the mesial-buccal, one in the distal-buccal, one in the
palatal
C. Four canals, one in the mesial-buccal, two in the distal-buccal, one in the
palatal
D. Four canals, one in the mesial-buccal, one in the distal-buccal, two in the
palatal
E. Five canals, two in the mesial-buccal, two in the distal-buccal, one in the
palatal
A.
B.
C.
D.
Abscess
Granuloma
Cyst
Cellulitis
10. If the patient elects to have tooth #2 extracted, sectioning may be required.
The practitioner should be aware of which of the following furcations?
CASE SCENARIO 2
Age
19 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
59
Weight
140 lbs.
B/P
125/75
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Asthma
Current Medications
Formoterol Fumarate
Albuterol inhaler
Social History
Student
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
4. All clotting factors are made in the liver. Factors II, VII, X, and XI are vitamin K
dependent.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Cervical line
B. Mesio-incisal line angle
C. Incisal third
D. Middle third
E. Cervical third
A. One
B. Two mesial and distal
C. Two buccal and lingual
D. Three mesial, distal, buccal
E. Three mesial, distal, lingual
CASE SCENARIO 2
Age
19 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
59
Weight
140 lbs.
B/P
125/75
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Asthma
Current Medications
Formoterol Fumarate
Albuterol inhaler
Social History
Student
1. In reviewing the patients medical history, you note that he was hospitalized
3 years ago due to a severe asthma attack. This can lead to death from which of
the following?
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
A.
B.
C.
D.
Abscess
Granuloma
Cyst
Cellulitis
10. If the patient elects to have tooth #2 extracted, sectioning may be required.
The practitioner should be aware of which of the following furcations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6. To properly align the mandibular lateral incisor and the mandibular canine,
the orthodontist will ensure that the distal surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts what area of the mesial surface of the mandibular canine?
1. In reviewing the patients medical history, you note that he was hospitalized
3 years ago due to a severe asthma attack. This can lead to death from which of
the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased PTT
Normal PT
Normal Bleeding time
Decreased INR
A. Principal fibers
B. Sharpeys fibers
C. Attachment of gingival epithelium
D. Attachment of sulcular epithelium
E. Attachment of junctional epithelium
A. One
B. Two mesial and distal
C. Two buccal and lingual
D. Three mesial, distal, buccal
E. Three mesial, distal, lingual
A.
B.
C.
D.
4. All clotting factors are made in the liver. Factors II, VII, X, and XI are vitamin K
dependent.
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 10
Age
9 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
53
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
115/70
Chief Complaint
Patient is undergoing
orthodontic treatment.
Oral hygiene is poor and
there is generalized cervical plaque and gingival
enlargement.
Medical History
Tendency to bleed
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Student
Patient is a known
thumb sucker.
A. The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal dimensions of the crown are the same
B. The crown of tooth #17 is smaller than the crown of tooth #16
C. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater than the buccal-lingual
dimension
D. The buccal-lingual dimension of the crown is greater than the mesial-distal dimension
3. Formoterol Fumarate is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to maintain and treat
asthma. From the following list, please select the THREE items associated with
beta-adrenergic agonists.
A. Constricts bronchial smooth muscle
B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
C. Stimulates the enzyme adenylate cyclase
D. Induces negative inotropic output of cardiac muscle
E. Induces positive inotropic output of cardiac muscle
F. Induces negative chronotropic output of cardiac muscle
4. Nitrous oxide is safe to administer to people with asthma, especially if their
asthma is triggered by anxiety. Asthmatics taking chronic steroids require corticosteroid augmentation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. If tooth #17 is infected, then the infection will spread to each of the following
fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Temporal
Parotid
Masseteric
Buccopharyngeal
6. When sectioning tooth #17 to separate the roots and simplify extraction,
which of the following best describes how the cut should be made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 10
Age
9 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
53
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
115/70
Chief Complaint
Patient is undergoing
orthodontic treatment.
Oral hygiene is poor and
there is generalized cervical plaque and gingival
enlargement.
Medical History
Tendency to bleed
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Student
Patient is a known
thumb sucker.
2. Before extracting tooth #17, surgery is done to expose the entire crown of the
tooth. Which of the following should the dentist expect to see?
2. Before extracting tooth #17, surgery is done to expose the entire crown of the
tooth. Which of the following should the dentist expect to see?
A. The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal dimensions of the crown are the same
B. The crown of tooth #17 is smaller than the crown of tooth #16
C. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater than the buccal-lingual
dimension
D. The buccal-lingual dimension of the crown is greater than the mesial-distal dimension
3. Formoterol Fumarate is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to maintain and treat
asthma. From the following list, please select the THREE items associated with
beta-adrenergic agonists.
A. Constricts bronchial smooth muscle
B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
C. Stimulates the enzyme adenylate cyclase
D. Induces negative inotropic output of cardiac muscle
E. Induces positive inotropic output of cardiac muscle
F. Induces negative chronotropic output of cardiac muscle
4. Nitrous oxide is safe to administer to people with asthma, especially if their
asthma is triggered by anxiety. Asthmatics taking chronic steroids require corticosteroid augmentation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. If tooth #17 is infected, then the infection will spread to each of the following
fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Temporal
Parotid
Masseteric
Buccopharyngeal
6. When sectioning tooth #17 to separate the roots and simplify extraction,
which of the following best describes how the cut should be made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7. Initially, lymphatic fluid from the area of infected tooth #17 will drain to which
of the following nodes?
A. Submental
B. Submandibular
C. Superficial cervical
D. Buccal
E. Deep cervical
8. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most active in this patients respiratory diculties?
A. IgD
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgA
9. Treatment of this patients respiratory symptoms includes each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4. The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the diaphragm. The coronary ligaments attach the liver to the anterior body wall.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Saliva contamination
Oral-fecal
Contaminated needle stick
Inhalation of aerosols
7. Once the patient is dismissed, you clean the instruments and place them into
a dry heat sterilizer. Which of the following settings is most appropriate for an
oven type dry heat sterilizer?
A. 273F for 20 minutes
B. 273F for 40 minutes
C. 375F for 6-20 minutes
D. 320F for 1-2 hours
E. 320F for 20 minutes
8. The greatest cementoenamel junction can be found on which of the following teeth?
A. Mandibular central incisors
B. Maxillary central incisors
C. Mandibular canines
D. Mandibular lateral incisors
E. Maxillary lateral incisors
7. Initially, lymphatic fluid from the area of infected tooth #17 will drain to which
of the following nodes?
A. Submental
B. Submandibular
C. Superficial cervical
D. Buccal
E. Deep cervical
8. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most active in this patients respiratory diculties?
A. IgD
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgA
9. Treatment of this patients respiratory symptoms includes each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4. The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the diaphragm. The coronary ligaments attach the liver to the anterior body wall.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Saliva contamination
Oral-fecal
Contaminated needle stick
Inhalation of aerosols
7. Once the patient is dismissed, you clean the instruments and place them into
a dry heat sterilizer. Which of the following settings is most appropriate for an
oven type dry heat sterilizer?
A. 273F for 20 minutes
B. 273F for 40 minutes
C. 375F for 6-20 minutes
D. 320F for 1-2 hours
E. 320F for 20 minutes
8. The greatest cementoenamel junction can be found on which of the following teeth?
A. Mandibular central incisors
B. Maxillary central incisors
C. Mandibular canines
D. Mandibular lateral incisors
E. Maxillary lateral incisors
CASE SCENARIO 9
CASE SCENARIO 3
Age
25 YRS
Scenario
Age
28 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Sex
Male
Height
57
Height
62
Weight
130 lbs.
Weight
280 lbs.
B/P
130/80
B/P
155/90
Chief Complaint
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Hepatitis C
Current Medications
Unknown
Medical History
Hypertension
Social History
Tattoo artist
Current Medications
Lisinopril/HCTZ
Social History
Painter
Married & has 3 children
1. Hepatitis viruses are extremely heat resistant. Proper autoclaving kills all hepatitis viruses.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1. Untreated hypertension may result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hepatitis C.
A. Non-enveloped virus
B. Enveloped virus
C. Picornavirus
D. Deltavirus
E. Flavivirus
F. ds DNA
G. ss RNA
A. Cardiac failure
B. Liver failure
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
E. Renal failure
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hypertension.
3. Each of the following is a symptom of viral hepatitis EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A. Fatigue
B. Myalgia
C. Cold intolerance
D. Constipation
E. Jaundice
Normal
Prehypertension
Hypertension, Stage 1
Hypertension Stage 2
CASE SCENARIO 9
CASE SCENARIO 3
Age
25 YRS
Scenario
Age
28 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Sex
Male
Height
57
Height
62
Weight
130 lbs.
Weight
280 lbs.
B/P
130/80
B/P
155/90
Chief Complaint
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Hepatitis C
Current Medications
Unknown
Medical History
Hypertension
Social History
Tattoo artist
Current Medications
Lisinopril/HCTZ
Social History
Painter
Married & has 3 children
1. Hepatitis viruses are extremely heat resistant. Proper autoclaving kills all hepatitis viruses.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hepatitis C.
A. Non-enveloped virus
B. Enveloped virus
C. Picornavirus
D. Deltavirus
E. Flavivirus
F. ds DNA
G. ss RNA
3. Each of the following is a symptom of viral hepatitis EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A. Fatigue
B. Myalgia
C. Cold intolerance
D. Constipation
E. Jaundice
1. Untreated hypertension may result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Cardiac failure
B. Liver failure
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
E. Renal failure
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hypertension.
A. Decreased smooth muscle cell growth
B. Smoking
C. Decreased total cross-sectional area of capillaries and arteries
D. Obesity
E. Physical activity
F. Increased arteriolar and capillary density
3. The patients blood pressure is classified as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Normal
Prehypertension
Hypertension, Stage 1
Hypertension Stage 2
4. Which region of the articular surface of the patients TMJ is unlikely to be present?
A. Fibrocartilaginous layer
B. Fibrous articular layer
C. Proliferative zone
D. Subarticular zone
E. Calcified cartilage
8. From the following list select THREE items associated with fungiform papillae.
5. The occlusal shape of a mandibular first molar can be best described as:
A. Rhomboidal
B. Circular
C. Square
D. Trapezoidal
E. Rectangular
6. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior
teeth is toward the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mesial
Distal
Facial
Lingual
A. Rounded
B. Located mostly at the tip of the tongue
C. Located in a V arrangement on the back of the tongue
D. Do not contain taste buds
E. Contain taste buds
F. Innervated by CN X
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ageusia
Hypergeusia
Dysgeusia
Hypogeusia
10. Oral evaluation reveals rampant caries. On which of the following surfaces is
pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur?
A. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars
B. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars
C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars
D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars
E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
7. If the patient delays treatment of tooth #30, which of the following is the most
likely consequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supraeruption of tooth #3
Loss of canine protected occlusion
Loss of vertical dimension
Mesial drift of tooth #31
4. Which region of the articular surface of the patients TMJ is unlikely to be present?
A. Fibrocartilaginous layer
B. Fibrous articular layer
C. Proliferative zone
D. Subarticular zone
E. Calcified cartilage
8. From the following list select THREE items associated with fungiform papillae.
5. The occlusal shape of a mandibular first molar can be best described as:
A. Rhomboidal
B. Circular
C. Square
D. Trapezoidal
E. Rectangular
6. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior
teeth is toward the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mesial
Distal
Facial
Lingual
7. If the patient delays treatment of tooth #30, which of the following is the most
likely consequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supraeruption of tooth #3
Loss of canine protected occlusion
Loss of vertical dimension
Mesial drift of tooth #31
A. Rounded
B. Located mostly at the tip of the tongue
C. Located in a V arrangement on the back of the tongue
D. Do not contain taste buds
E. Contain taste buds
F. Innervated by CN X
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ageusia
Hypergeusia
Dysgeusia
Hypogeusia
10. Oral evaluation reveals rampant caries. On which of the following surfaces is
pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur?
A. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars
B. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars
C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars
D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars
E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
2. Blood insulin is absent in type I diabetes mellitus. Blood insulin levels may be
normal or decreased in type II diabetes mellitus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alpha-hydroxybutyric acid
Acetoacetic acid
Glucagon
Delta-hydroxybutyric acid
4. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting
glucagon?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Acinar
E. Centroacinar
5. The patients chief complaint is MOST likely due to which of the following
pathologies?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Scleroderma
C. Reiters syndrome
D. Bechets syndrome
E. Sjogrens syndrome
6. Decreased salivation can cause rampant caries due to a(an):
A.
B.
C.
D.
2. Blood insulin is absent in type I diabetes mellitus. Blood insulin levels may be
normal or decreased in type II diabetes mellitus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alpha-hydroxybutyric acid
Acetoacetic acid
Glucagon
Delta-hydroxybutyric acid
4. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting
glucagon?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Acinar
E. Centroacinar
5. The patients chief complaint is MOST likely due to which of the following
pathologies?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Scleroderma
C. Reiters syndrome
D. Bechets syndrome
E. Sjogrens syndrome
6. Decreased salivation can cause rampant caries due to a(an):
A.
B.
C.
D.
10. During your examination, you notice a vertical root fracture on #30. It is determined nonrestorable, and is extracted. Which of the following root morphologies would you expect to see?
A. The roots are narrowly separated
B. The distal root is broadest bucco-lingually
C. Only the mesial root exhibits a concavity
D. The root trunk is shorter than the mandibular second molar
CASE SCENARIO 4
Age
69 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
411
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
135/85
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Retired
S. mutans
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Actinomyces sp.
10. During your examination, you notice a vertical root fracture on #30. It is determined nonrestorable, and is extracted. Which of the following root morphologies would you expect to see?
A. The roots are narrowly separated
B. The distal root is broadest bucco-lingually
C. Only the mesial root exhibits a concavity
D. The root trunk is shorter than the mandibular second molar
CASE SCENARIO 4
Age
69 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
411
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
135/85
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Retired
S. mutans
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Actinomyces sp.
3. The patients medical history requires antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures. Splinter hemorrhages under fingernails are a common finding in patients with infective endocarditis.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
9. The loss of tooth structure has exposed the patients dentin. The organic component of dentin is composed primarily of:
4. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription for antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?
10. Which of the following is the most important infection control practice for reducing nosocomial infections?
A. Reticular fibers
B. Keratin fibers
C. Type I collagen fibers
D. Type II and III collagen fibers
E. Oxytalan fibers
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 8
Age
40 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
57
Weight
195 lbs.
B/P
150/90
Chief Complaint
My mouth is dry.
Medical History
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Waitress
1. While reviewing the medical history, you learn that the patient recently began
expressing the following symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and
blurred vision. This is MOST likely the result of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus (type I)
Diabetes mellitus (type II)
Gestational diabetes
3. The patients medical history requires antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures. Splinter hemorrhages under fingernails are a common finding in patients with infective endocarditis.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
9. The loss of tooth structure has exposed the patients dentin. The organic component of dentin is composed primarily of:
4. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription for antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?
10. Which of the following is the most important infection control practice for reducing nosocomial infections?
A. Reticular fibers
B. Keratin fibers
C. Type I collagen fibers
D. Type II and III collagen fibers
E. Oxytalan fibers
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 8
Age
40 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
57
Weight
195 lbs.
B/P
150/90
Chief Complaint
My mouth is dry.
Medical History
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Waitress
1. While reviewing the medical history, you learn that the patient recently began
expressing the following symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and
blurred vision. This is MOST likely the result of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus (type I)
Diabetes mellitus (type II)
Gestational diabetes
4. The patient returns three months later with whitish plaques on the buccal mucosa near the commissures. It resembles oral leukoplakia, and cannot be
removed. Which of the following classifications of candidiasis MOST closely aligns
with these symptoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Membranous
Pseudomembranous
Atrophic
Chronic hyperplastic
5. HIV contains reverse transcriptase and two strands of RNA. HIV replicates in the
cytoplasm.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8. The patient elects to have her ill-fitting dentures remade. The teeth in the new
denture have been set up so the MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes distally to the MB groove of the mandibular first molar. Which of the following BEST
describes this occlusal classification?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Class I
Class II, division I
Class II, division II
Class III
A. Capsid
B. Lipid envelope
C. Glycoprotein spike
D. Matrix protein
E. Nucleocapsid
8. The patient often concocts drinks containing lemons and limes and is known
to snack from time to time. The loss of tooth structure is MOST likely due to which
of the following dental injuries?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attrition
Abrasion
Abfraction
Erosion
4. The patient returns three months later with whitish plaques on the buccal mucosa near the commissures. It resembles oral leukoplakia, and cannot be
removed. Which of the following classifications of candidiasis MOST closely aligns
with these symptoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Membranous
Pseudomembranous
Atrophic
Chronic hyperplastic
5. HIV contains reverse transcriptase and two strands of RNA. HIV replicates in the
cytoplasm.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attrition
Abrasion
Abfraction
Erosion
8. The patient elects to have her ill-fitting dentures remade. The teeth in the new
denture have been set up so the MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes distally to the MB groove of the mandibular first molar. Which of the following BEST
describes this occlusal classification?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Class I
Class II, division I
Class II, division II
Class III
CASE SCENARIO 5
Age
10 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
52
Weight
110 lbs.
B/P
110/75
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Current Medications
None
Social History
Student
Plays hockey
A panoramic radiograph
reveals congenitally
missing mandibular second premolars
1. Scarlet fever is a disease caused by infection with which of the following bacteria?
Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
511
Weight
195 lbs.
B/P
125/80
Medical History
Current Medications
Combivir
Social History
Bartender
Chief Complaint
Clostridium perfringens
Candida albicans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
A. Group A Streptococci
B. Group B Streptococci
C. Group C Streptococci
D. Staphylococci aureus
E. Staphylococci epidermidis
2. Which of the following describes the distal contact (inciso-cervical direction)
of a maxillary lateral incisor?
A. Incisal third
B. Cervical line
C. Middle third
D. Cervical third
3. According to the Miller classification, this patients mobility would be best described as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 7
A.
D.
C.
D.
3. In treating the patients chief complaint, a dentist might consider each of the
following medications EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Clotrimazole
B. Topical nystatin
C. Fluconazole
D. Cephalosporin
E. Chlorhexidine gluconate
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
CASE SCENARIO 5
Age
10 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
52
Weight
110 lbs.
B/P
110/75
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Current Medications
None
Social History
Student
Plays hockey
A panoramic radiograph
reveals congenitally
missing mandibular second premolars
1. Scarlet fever is a disease caused by infection with which of the following bacteria?
A. Group A Streptococci
B. Group B Streptococci
C. Group C Streptococci
D. Staphylococci aureus
E. Staphylococci epidermidis
2. Which of the following describes the distal contact (inciso-cervical direction)
of a maxillary lateral incisor?
A. Incisal third
B. Cervical line
C. Middle third
D. Cervical third
3. According to the Miller classification, this patients mobility would be best described as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
CASE SCENARIO 7
Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
511
Weight
195 lbs.
B/P
125/80
Medical History
Current Medications
Combivir
Social History
Bartender
Chief Complaint
Clostridium perfringens
Candida albicans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
3. In treating the patients chief complaint, a dentist might consider each of the
following medications EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Clotrimazole
B. Topical nystatin
C. Fluconazole
D. Cephalosporin
E. Chlorhexidine gluconate
7. Examination of a portion of the mandible shows a torn piece of muscle attached to the zygomatic process of the maxilla. This is MOST likely the:
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
8. You examine a tooth with a square occlusal shape and a prominent mesiolingual developmental groove. This tooth is MOST likely a:
A. Mandibular canine
B. Maxillary first premolar
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Mandibular second premolar
E. Mandibular first premolar
9. One piece of soft tissue contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely mucous acini. This is MOST likely
which of the following glands?
A. Buccal
B. Parotid
C. Sublingual
D. Submandibular
E. Posterior palatal
10. You examine a tooth with a measured root length of 13.5 mm. This tooth is
MOST likely a:
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Mandibular first premolar
D. Maxillary canine
E. Mandibular canine
4. Upon further examination, you notice laceration of the patients lips. Which
of the following arteries is most likely the source of the bleeding?
A. Nasopalatine artery
B. Buccal branch of the maxillary artery
C. Incisive branches of the infraorbital artery
D. Labial branches of the facial artery
E. Nasal branches of the facial artery
5. From the following list select TWO nerves associated with the maxillary central incisors.
A. Nasopalatine nerve
B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve
C. Greater (anterior) palatine nerve
D. Middle superior alveolar nerve
E. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
6. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a radiolucency between
the roots of teeth #8 and #9. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for
this?
A. Mesiodens
B. Peg lateral incisor
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Incisive foramen
E. Greater palatine canal
7. A panoramic radiograph of the patient reveals each of the following features
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Permanent maxillary central incisors with complete root formation
B. Permanent mandibular central incisors with complete root formation
C. Partially erupted permanent mandibular canines with incomplete root
formation
D. Fully erupted mandibular first molars with complete root formation
E. Partially erupted mandibular first premolars with complete root formation
8. The patients mother is concerned about the bumps on the front teeth.
These round extensions of enamel are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
7. Examination of a portion of the mandible shows a torn piece of muscle attached to the zygomatic process of the maxilla. This is MOST likely the:
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
8. You examine a tooth with a square occlusal shape and a prominent mesiolingual developmental groove. This tooth is MOST likely a:
A. Mandibular canine
B. Maxillary first premolar
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Mandibular second premolar
E. Mandibular first premolar
9. One piece of soft tissue contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely mucous acini. This is MOST likely
which of the following glands?
A. Buccal
B. Parotid
C. Sublingual
D. Submandibular
E. Posterior palatal
10. You examine a tooth with a measured root length of 13.5 mm. This tooth is
MOST likely a:
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Mandibular first premolar
D. Maxillary canine
E. Mandibular canine
Lobes
Mamelons
A cingulum
Tubercles
4. Upon further examination, you notice laceration of the patients lips. Which
of the following arteries is most likely the source of the bleeding?
A. Nasopalatine artery
B. Buccal branch of the maxillary artery
C. Incisive branches of the infraorbital artery
D. Labial branches of the facial artery
E. Nasal branches of the facial artery
5. From the following list select TWO nerves associated with the maxillary central incisors.
A. Nasopalatine nerve
B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve
C. Greater (anterior) palatine nerve
D. Middle superior alveolar nerve
E. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
6. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a radiolucency between
the roots of teeth #8 and #9. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for
this?
A. Mesiodens
B. Peg lateral incisor
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Incisive foramen
E. Greater palatine canal
7. A panoramic radiograph of the patient reveals each of the following features
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Permanent maxillary central incisors with complete root formation
B. Permanent mandibular central incisors with complete root formation
C. Partially erupted permanent mandibular canines with incomplete root
formation
D. Fully erupted mandibular first molars with complete root formation
E. Partially erupted mandibular first premolars with complete root formation
8. The patients mother is concerned about the bumps on the front teeth.
These round extensions of enamel are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lobes
Mamelons
A cingulum
Tubercles
Cytolysis
Plasmolysis
Hemolysis
Enterolysis
10. Heredity is most frequently responsible for congenitally missing teeth. In this
case, you would want to retain the primary second molar for as long as possible.
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 6
Age
Unknown
Scenario
Sex
Unknown
Height
Unknown
Weight
Unknown
B/P
Unknown
Chief Complaint
Unknown
Medical History
Unknown
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Unknown
Sphenopalatine artery
Greater palatine nerve
Lesser palatine nerve
Posterior superior alveolar nerve
Cytolysis
Plasmolysis
Hemolysis
Enterolysis
10. Heredity is most frequently responsible for congenitally missing teeth. In this
case, you would want to retain the primary second molar for as long as possible.
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 6
Age
Unknown
Scenario
Sex
Unknown
Height
Unknown
Weight
Unknown
B/P
Unknown
Chief Complaint
Unknown
Medical History
Unknown
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Unknown
Sphenopalatine artery
Greater palatine nerve
Lesser palatine nerve
Posterior superior alveolar nerve
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with the malar bone.
A. Located in the lower and medial part of the face
B. Prominence of the frontal bone
C. Part of the lateral wall and floor of the orbit
D. Parts of the temporal and infratemporal fossae
E. Articulates with the frontal bone and the temporal bone
F. Articulates with the maxilla and the temporal bone
3. The orbit is composed of each of the following bones EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A. Sphenoid
B. Zygoma
C. Ethmoid
D. Temporal
E. Lacrimal
4. The ophthalmic artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, is the major
blood supply to the orbit and eye. It enters the orbit with the optic nerve via the
optic canal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. The greater wing of the sphenoid contains each of the following foramina
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Rotundum
B. Ovale
C. Lacerum
D. Spinosum
6. Examination of a remnant of the cranial base exhibits a fracture of the sulcus
chiasmaticus. Damage to this area typically results in which of the following conditions?
A. Tunnel vision
B. Loss of sense of taste
C. Loss of sense of smell
D. Damage to optic chiasm
E. Damage to speech areas
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with the malar bone.
A. Located in the lower and medial part of the face
B. Prominence of the frontal bone
C. Part of the lateral wall and floor of the orbit
D. Parts of the temporal and infratemporal fossae
E. Articulates with the frontal bone and the temporal bone
F. Articulates with the maxilla and the temporal bone
3. The orbit is composed of each of the following bones EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A. Sphenoid
B. Zygoma
C. Ethmoid
D. Temporal
E. Lacrimal
4. The ophthalmic artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, is the major
blood supply to the orbit and eye. It enters the orbit with the optic nerve via the
optic canal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. The greater wing of the sphenoid contains each of the following foramina
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Rotundum
B. Ovale
C. Lacerum
D. Spinosum
6. Examination of a remnant of the cranial base exhibits a fracture of the sulcus
chiasmaticus. Damage to this area typically results in which of the following conditions?
A. Tunnel vision
B. Loss of sense of taste
C. Loss of sense of smell
D. Damage to optic chiasm
E. Damage to speech areas
2. From the following list select FOUR items associated with the malar bone.
A. Located in the lower and medial part of the face
B. Prominence of the frontal bone
C. Part of the lateral wall and floor of the orbit
D. Parts of the temporal and infratemporal fossae
E. Articulates with the frontal bone and the temporal bone
F. Articulates with the maxilla and the temporal bone
3. The orbit is composed of each of the following bones EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A. Sphenoid
B. Zygoma
C. Ethmoid
D. Temporal
E. Lacrimal
4. The ophthalmic artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, is the major
blood supply to the orbit and eye. It enters the orbit with the optic nerve via the
optic canal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. The greater wing of the sphenoid contains each of the following foramina
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Rotundum
B. Ovale
C. Lacerum
D. Spinosum
6. Examination of a remnant of the cranial base exhibits a fracture of the sulcus
chiasmaticus. Damage to this area typically results in which of the following conditions?
A. Tunnel vision
B. Loss of sense of taste
C. Loss of sense of smell
D. Damage to optic chiasm
E. Damage to speech areas
7. Examination of a portion of the mandible shows a torn piece of muscle attached to the zygomatic process of the maxilla. This is MOST likely the:
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
8. You examine a tooth with a square occlusal shape and a prominent mesiolingual developmental groove. This tooth is MOST likely a:
A. Mandibular canine
B. Maxillary first premolar
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Mandibular second premolar
E. Mandibular first premolar
9. One piece of soft tissue contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely mucous acini. This is MOST likely
which of the following glands?
A. Buccal
B. Parotid
C. Sublingual
D. Submandibular
E. Posterior palatal
10. You examine a tooth with a measured root length of 13.5 mm. This tooth is
MOST likely a:
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Mandibular first premolar
D. Maxillary canine
E. Mandibular canine
4. Upon further examination, you notice laceration of the patients lips. Which
of the following arteries is most likely the source of the bleeding?
A. Nasopalatine artery
B. Buccal branch of the maxillary artery
C. Incisive branches of the infraorbital artery
D. Labial branches of the facial artery
E. Nasal branches of the facial artery
5. From the following list select TWO nerves associated with the maxillary central incisors.
A. Nasopalatine nerve
B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve
C. Greater (anterior) palatine nerve
D. Middle superior alveolar nerve
E. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
6. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a radiolucency between
the roots of teeth #8 and #9. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for
this?
A. Mesiodens
B. Peg lateral incisor
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Incisive foramen
E. Greater palatine canal
7. A panoramic radiograph of the patient reveals each of the following features
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Permanent maxillary central incisors with complete root formation
B. Permanent mandibular central incisors with complete root formation
C. Partially erupted permanent mandibular canines with incomplete root
formation
D. Fully erupted mandibular first molars with complete root formation
E. Partially erupted mandibular first premolars with complete root formation
8. The patients mother is concerned about the bumps on the front teeth.
These round extensions of enamel are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
7. Examination of a portion of the mandible shows a torn piece of muscle attached to the zygomatic process of the maxilla. This is MOST likely the:
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
8. You examine a tooth with a square occlusal shape and a prominent mesiolingual developmental groove. This tooth is MOST likely a:
A. Mandibular canine
B. Maxillary first premolar
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Mandibular second premolar
E. Mandibular first premolar
9. One piece of soft tissue contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely mucous acini. This is MOST likely
which of the following glands?
A. Buccal
B. Parotid
C. Sublingual
D. Submandibular
E. Posterior palatal
10. You examine a tooth with a measured root length of 13.5 mm. This tooth is
MOST likely a:
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Mandibular first premolar
D. Maxillary canine
E. Mandibular canine
Lobes
Mamelons
A cingulum
Tubercles
4. Upon further examination, you notice laceration of the patients lips. Which
of the following arteries is most likely the source of the bleeding?
A. Nasopalatine artery
B. Buccal branch of the maxillary artery
C. Incisive branches of the infraorbital artery
D. Labial branches of the facial artery
E. Nasal branches of the facial artery
5. From the following list select TWO nerves associated with the maxillary central incisors.
A. Nasopalatine nerve
B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve
C. Greater (anterior) palatine nerve
D. Middle superior alveolar nerve
E. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
6. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a radiolucency between
the roots of teeth #8 and #9. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for
this?
A. Mesiodens
B. Peg lateral incisor
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Incisive foramen
E. Greater palatine canal
7. A panoramic radiograph of the patient reveals each of the following features
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Permanent maxillary central incisors with complete root formation
B. Permanent mandibular central incisors with complete root formation
C. Partially erupted permanent mandibular canines with incomplete root
formation
D. Fully erupted mandibular first molars with complete root formation
E. Partially erupted mandibular first premolars with complete root formation
8. The patients mother is concerned about the bumps on the front teeth.
These round extensions of enamel are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lobes
Mamelons
A cingulum
Tubercles
CASE SCENARIO 5
Age
10 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
52
Weight
110 lbs.
B/P
110/75
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Current Medications
None
Social History
Student
Plays hockey
A panoramic radiograph
reveals congenitally
missing mandibular second premolars
1. Scarlet fever is a disease caused by infection with which of the following bacteria?
Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
511
Weight
195 lbs.
B/P
125/80
Medical History
Current Medications
Combivir
Social History
Bartender
Chief Complaint
Clostridium perfringens
Candida albicans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
A. Group A Streptococci
B. Group B Streptococci
C. Group C Streptococci
D. Staphylococci aureus
E. Staphylococci epidermidis
2. Which of the following describes the distal contact (inciso-cervical direction)
of a maxillary lateral incisor?
A. Incisal third
B. Cervical line
C. Middle third
D. Cervical third
3. According to the Miller classification, this patients mobility would be best described as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 7
A.
D.
C.
D.
3. In treating the patients chief complaint, a dentist might consider each of the
following medications EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Clotrimazole
B. Topical nystatin
C. Fluconazole
D. Cephalosporin
E. Chlorhexidine gluconate
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
CASE SCENARIO 5
Age
10 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
52
Weight
110 lbs.
B/P
110/75
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Current Medications
None
Social History
Student
Plays hockey
A panoramic radiograph
reveals congenitally
missing mandibular second premolars
1. Scarlet fever is a disease caused by infection with which of the following bacteria?
A. Group A Streptococci
B. Group B Streptococci
C. Group C Streptococci
D. Staphylococci aureus
E. Staphylococci epidermidis
2. Which of the following describes the distal contact (inciso-cervical direction)
of a maxillary lateral incisor?
A. Incisal third
B. Cervical line
C. Middle third
D. Cervical third
3. According to the Miller classification, this patients mobility would be best described as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
CASE SCENARIO 7
Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
511
Weight
195 lbs.
B/P
125/80
Medical History
Current Medications
Combivir
Social History
Bartender
Chief Complaint
Clostridium perfringens
Candida albicans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
3. In treating the patients chief complaint, a dentist might consider each of the
following medications EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Clotrimazole
B. Topical nystatin
C. Fluconazole
D. Cephalosporin
E. Chlorhexidine gluconate
4. The patient returns three months later with whitish plaques on the buccal mucosa near the commissures. It resembles oral leukoplakia, and cannot be
removed. Which of the following classifications of candidiasis MOST closely aligns
with these symptoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Membranous
Pseudomembranous
Atrophic
Chronic hyperplastic
5. HIV contains reverse transcriptase and two strands of RNA. HIV replicates in the
cytoplasm.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8. The patient elects to have her ill-fitting dentures remade. The teeth in the new
denture have been set up so the MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes distally to the MB groove of the mandibular first molar. Which of the following BEST
describes this occlusal classification?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Class I
Class II, division I
Class II, division II
Class III
A. Capsid
B. Lipid envelope
C. Glycoprotein spike
D. Matrix protein
E. Nucleocapsid
8. The patient often concocts drinks containing lemons and limes and is known
to snack from time to time. The loss of tooth structure is MOST likely due to which
of the following dental injuries?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attrition
Abrasion
Abfraction
Erosion
4. The patient returns three months later with whitish plaques on the buccal mucosa near the commissures. It resembles oral leukoplakia, and cannot be
removed. Which of the following classifications of candidiasis MOST closely aligns
with these symptoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Membranous
Pseudomembranous
Atrophic
Chronic hyperplastic
5. HIV contains reverse transcriptase and two strands of RNA. HIV replicates in the
cytoplasm.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attrition
Abrasion
Abfraction
Erosion
8. The patient elects to have her ill-fitting dentures remade. The teeth in the new
denture have been set up so the MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes distally to the MB groove of the mandibular first molar. Which of the following BEST
describes this occlusal classification?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Class I
Class II, division I
Class II, division II
Class III
3. The patients medical history requires antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures. Splinter hemorrhages under fingernails are a common finding in patients with infective endocarditis.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
9. The loss of tooth structure has exposed the patients dentin. The organic component of dentin is composed primarily of:
4. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription for antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?
10. Which of the following is the most important infection control practice for reducing nosocomial infections?
A. Reticular fibers
B. Keratin fibers
C. Type I collagen fibers
D. Type II and III collagen fibers
E. Oxytalan fibers
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 8
Age
40 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
57
Weight
195 lbs.
B/P
150/90
Chief Complaint
My mouth is dry.
Medical History
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Waitress
1. While reviewing the medical history, you learn that the patient recently began
expressing the following symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and
blurred vision. This is MOST likely the result of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus (type I)
Diabetes mellitus (type II)
Gestational diabetes
3. The patients medical history requires antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures. Splinter hemorrhages under fingernails are a common finding in patients with infective endocarditis.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
9. The loss of tooth structure has exposed the patients dentin. The organic component of dentin is composed primarily of:
4. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription for antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?
10. Which of the following is the most important infection control practice for reducing nosocomial infections?
A. Reticular fibers
B. Keratin fibers
C. Type I collagen fibers
D. Type II and III collagen fibers
E. Oxytalan fibers
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 8
Age
40 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
57
Weight
195 lbs.
B/P
150/90
Chief Complaint
My mouth is dry.
Medical History
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Waitress
1. While reviewing the medical history, you learn that the patient recently began
expressing the following symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and
blurred vision. This is MOST likely the result of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus (type I)
Diabetes mellitus (type II)
Gestational diabetes
2. Blood insulin is absent in type I diabetes mellitus. Blood insulin levels may be
normal or decreased in type II diabetes mellitus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alpha-hydroxybutyric acid
Acetoacetic acid
Glucagon
Delta-hydroxybutyric acid
4. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting
glucagon?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Acinar
E. Centroacinar
5. The patients chief complaint is MOST likely due to which of the following
pathologies?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Scleroderma
C. Reiters syndrome
D. Bechets syndrome
E. Sjogrens syndrome
6. Decreased salivation can cause rampant caries due to a(an):
A.
B.
C.
D.
2. Blood insulin is absent in type I diabetes mellitus. Blood insulin levels may be
normal or decreased in type II diabetes mellitus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alpha-hydroxybutyric acid
Acetoacetic acid
Glucagon
Delta-hydroxybutyric acid
4. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting
glucagon?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Acinar
E. Centroacinar
5. The patients chief complaint is MOST likely due to which of the following
pathologies?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Scleroderma
C. Reiters syndrome
D. Bechets syndrome
E. Sjogrens syndrome
6. Decreased salivation can cause rampant caries due to a(an):
A.
B.
C.
D.
10. During your examination, you notice a vertical root fracture on #30. It is determined nonrestorable, and is extracted. Which of the following root morphologies would you expect to see?
A. The roots are narrowly separated
B. The distal root is broadest bucco-lingually
C. Only the mesial root exhibits a concavity
D. The root trunk is shorter than the mandibular second molar
CASE SCENARIO 4
Age
69 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
411
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
135/85
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Retired
S. mutans
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Actinomyces sp.
10. During your examination, you notice a vertical root fracture on #30. It is determined nonrestorable, and is extracted. Which of the following root morphologies would you expect to see?
A. The roots are narrowly separated
B. The distal root is broadest bucco-lingually
C. Only the mesial root exhibits a concavity
D. The root trunk is shorter than the mandibular second molar
CASE SCENARIO 4
Age
69 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
411
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
135/85
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Retired
S. mutans
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Actinomyces sp.
4. Which region of the articular surface of the patients TMJ is unlikely to be present?
A. Fibrocartilaginous layer
B. Fibrous articular layer
C. Proliferative zone
D. Subarticular zone
E. Calcified cartilage
8. From the following list select THREE items associated with fungiform papillae.
5. The occlusal shape of a mandibular first molar can be best described as:
A. Rhomboidal
B. Circular
C. Square
D. Trapezoidal
E. Rectangular
6. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior
teeth is toward the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mesial
Distal
Facial
Lingual
A. Rounded
B. Located mostly at the tip of the tongue
C. Located in a V arrangement on the back of the tongue
D. Do not contain taste buds
E. Contain taste buds
F. Innervated by CN X
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ageusia
Hypergeusia
Dysgeusia
Hypogeusia
10. Oral evaluation reveals rampant caries. On which of the following surfaces is
pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur?
A. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars
B. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars
C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars
D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars
E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
7. If the patient delays treatment of tooth #30, which of the following is the most
likely consequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supraeruption of tooth #3
Loss of canine protected occlusion
Loss of vertical dimension
Mesial drift of tooth #31
4. Which region of the articular surface of the patients TMJ is unlikely to be present?
A. Fibrocartilaginous layer
B. Fibrous articular layer
C. Proliferative zone
D. Subarticular zone
E. Calcified cartilage
8. From the following list select THREE items associated with fungiform papillae.
5. The occlusal shape of a mandibular first molar can be best described as:
A. Rhomboidal
B. Circular
C. Square
D. Trapezoidal
E. Rectangular
6. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior
teeth is toward the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mesial
Distal
Facial
Lingual
7. If the patient delays treatment of tooth #30, which of the following is the most
likely consequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supraeruption of tooth #3
Loss of canine protected occlusion
Loss of vertical dimension
Mesial drift of tooth #31
A. Rounded
B. Located mostly at the tip of the tongue
C. Located in a V arrangement on the back of the tongue
D. Do not contain taste buds
E. Contain taste buds
F. Innervated by CN X
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ageusia
Hypergeusia
Dysgeusia
Hypogeusia
10. Oral evaluation reveals rampant caries. On which of the following surfaces is
pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur?
A. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars
B. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars
C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars
D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars
E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
CASE SCENARIO 9
CASE SCENARIO 3
Age
25 YRS
Scenario
Age
28 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Sex
Male
Height
57
Height
62
Weight
130 lbs.
Weight
280 lbs.
B/P
130/80
B/P
155/90
Chief Complaint
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Hepatitis C
Current Medications
Unknown
Medical History
Hypertension
Social History
Tattoo artist
Current Medications
Lisinopril/HCTZ
Social History
Painter
Married & has 3 children
1. Hepatitis viruses are extremely heat resistant. Proper autoclaving kills all hepatitis viruses.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1. Untreated hypertension may result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hepatitis C.
A. Non-enveloped virus
B. Enveloped virus
C. Picornavirus
D. Deltavirus
E. Flavivirus
F. ds DNA
G. ss RNA
A. Cardiac failure
B. Liver failure
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
E. Renal failure
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hypertension.
3. Each of the following is a symptom of viral hepatitis EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A. Fatigue
B. Myalgia
C. Cold intolerance
D. Constipation
E. Jaundice
Normal
Prehypertension
Hypertension, Stage 1
Hypertension Stage 2
CASE SCENARIO 9
CASE SCENARIO 3
Age
25 YRS
Scenario
Age
28 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Sex
Male
Height
57
Height
62
Weight
130 lbs.
Weight
280 lbs.
B/P
130/80
B/P
155/90
Chief Complaint
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Hepatitis C
Current Medications
Unknown
Medical History
Hypertension
Social History
Tattoo artist
Current Medications
Lisinopril/HCTZ
Social History
Painter
Married & has 3 children
1. Hepatitis viruses are extremely heat resistant. Proper autoclaving kills all hepatitis viruses.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hepatitis C.
A. Non-enveloped virus
B. Enveloped virus
C. Picornavirus
D. Deltavirus
E. Flavivirus
F. ds DNA
G. ss RNA
3. Each of the following is a symptom of viral hepatitis EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A. Fatigue
B. Myalgia
C. Cold intolerance
D. Constipation
E. Jaundice
1. Untreated hypertension may result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Cardiac failure
B. Liver failure
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
E. Renal failure
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hypertension.
A. Decreased smooth muscle cell growth
B. Smoking
C. Decreased total cross-sectional area of capillaries and arteries
D. Obesity
E. Physical activity
F. Increased arteriolar and capillary density
3. The patients blood pressure is classified as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Normal
Prehypertension
Hypertension, Stage 1
Hypertension Stage 2
7. Initially, lymphatic fluid from the area of infected tooth #17 will drain to which
of the following nodes?
A. Submental
B. Submandibular
C. Superficial cervical
D. Buccal
E. Deep cervical
8. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most active in this patients respiratory diculties?
A. IgD
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgA
9. Treatment of this patients respiratory symptoms includes each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4. The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the diaphragm. The coronary ligaments attach the liver to the anterior body wall.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Saliva contamination
Oral-fecal
Contaminated needle stick
Inhalation of aerosols
7. Once the patient is dismissed, you clean the instruments and place them into
a dry heat sterilizer. Which of the following settings is most appropriate for an
oven type dry heat sterilizer?
A. 273F for 20 minutes
B. 273F for 40 minutes
C. 375F for 6-20 minutes
D. 320F for 1-2 hours
E. 320F for 20 minutes
8. The greatest cementoenamel junction can be found on which of the following teeth?
A. Mandibular central incisors
B. Maxillary central incisors
C. Mandibular canines
D. Mandibular lateral incisors
E. Maxillary lateral incisors
7. Initially, lymphatic fluid from the area of infected tooth #17 will drain to which
of the following nodes?
A. Submental
B. Submandibular
C. Superficial cervical
D. Buccal
E. Deep cervical
8. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most active in this patients respiratory diculties?
A. IgD
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgA
9. Treatment of this patients respiratory symptoms includes each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4. The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the diaphragm. The coronary ligaments attach the liver to the anterior body wall.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Saliva contamination
Oral-fecal
Contaminated needle stick
Inhalation of aerosols
7. Once the patient is dismissed, you clean the instruments and place them into
a dry heat sterilizer. Which of the following settings is most appropriate for an
oven type dry heat sterilizer?
A. 273F for 20 minutes
B. 273F for 40 minutes
C. 375F for 6-20 minutes
D. 320F for 1-2 hours
E. 320F for 20 minutes
8. The greatest cementoenamel junction can be found on which of the following teeth?
A. Mandibular central incisors
B. Maxillary central incisors
C. Mandibular canines
D. Mandibular lateral incisors
E. Maxillary lateral incisors
CASE SCENARIO 10
Age
9 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
53
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
115/70
Chief Complaint
Patient is undergoing
orthodontic treatment.
Oral hygiene is poor and
there is generalized cervical plaque and gingival
enlargement.
Medical History
Tendency to bleed
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Student
Patient is a known
thumb sucker.
A. The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal dimensions of the crown are the same
B. The crown of tooth #17 is smaller than the crown of tooth #16
C. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater than the buccal-lingual
dimension
D. The buccal-lingual dimension of the crown is greater than the mesial-distal dimension
3. Formoterol Fumarate is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to maintain and treat
asthma. From the following list, please select the THREE items associated with
beta-adrenergic agonists.
A. Constricts bronchial smooth muscle
B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
C. Stimulates the enzyme adenylate cyclase
D. Induces negative inotropic output of cardiac muscle
E. Induces positive inotropic output of cardiac muscle
F. Induces negative chronotropic output of cardiac muscle
4. Nitrous oxide is safe to administer to people with asthma, especially if their
asthma is triggered by anxiety. Asthmatics taking chronic steroids require corticosteroid augmentation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. If tooth #17 is infected, then the infection will spread to each of the following
fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Temporal
Parotid
Masseteric
Buccopharyngeal
6. When sectioning tooth #17 to separate the roots and simplify extraction,
which of the following best describes how the cut should be made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CASE SCENARIO 10
Age
9 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
53
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
115/70
Chief Complaint
Patient is undergoing
orthodontic treatment.
Oral hygiene is poor and
there is generalized cervical plaque and gingival
enlargement.
Medical History
Tendency to bleed
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Student
Patient is a known
thumb sucker.
2. Before extracting tooth #17, surgery is done to expose the entire crown of the
tooth. Which of the following should the dentist expect to see?
2. Before extracting tooth #17, surgery is done to expose the entire crown of the
tooth. Which of the following should the dentist expect to see?
A. The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal dimensions of the crown are the same
B. The crown of tooth #17 is smaller than the crown of tooth #16
C. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater than the buccal-lingual
dimension
D. The buccal-lingual dimension of the crown is greater than the mesial-distal dimension
3. Formoterol Fumarate is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to maintain and treat
asthma. From the following list, please select the THREE items associated with
beta-adrenergic agonists.
A. Constricts bronchial smooth muscle
B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
C. Stimulates the enzyme adenylate cyclase
D. Induces negative inotropic output of cardiac muscle
E. Induces positive inotropic output of cardiac muscle
F. Induces negative chronotropic output of cardiac muscle
4. Nitrous oxide is safe to administer to people with asthma, especially if their
asthma is triggered by anxiety. Asthmatics taking chronic steroids require corticosteroid augmentation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. If tooth #17 is infected, then the infection will spread to each of the following
fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Temporal
Parotid
Masseteric
Buccopharyngeal
6. When sectioning tooth #17 to separate the roots and simplify extraction,
which of the following best describes how the cut should be made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Abscess
Granuloma
Cyst
Cellulitis
10. If the patient elects to have tooth #2 extracted, sectioning may be required.
The practitioner should be aware of which of the following furcations?
CASE SCENARIO 2
Age
19 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
59
Weight
140 lbs.
B/P
125/75
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Asthma
Current Medications
Formoterol Fumarate
Albuterol inhaler
Social History
Student
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
4. All clotting factors are made in the liver. Factors II, VII, X, and XI are vitamin K
dependent.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Cervical line
B. Mesio-incisal line angle
C. Incisal third
D. Middle third
E. Cervical third
A. One
B. Two mesial and distal
C. Two buccal and lingual
D. Three mesial, distal, buccal
E. Three mesial, distal, lingual
CASE SCENARIO 2
Age
19 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
59
Weight
140 lbs.
B/P
125/75
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Asthma
Current Medications
Formoterol Fumarate
Albuterol inhaler
Social History
Student
1. In reviewing the patients medical history, you note that he was hospitalized
3 years ago due to a severe asthma attack. This can lead to death from which of
the following?
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
A.
B.
C.
D.
Abscess
Granuloma
Cyst
Cellulitis
10. If the patient elects to have tooth #2 extracted, sectioning may be required.
The practitioner should be aware of which of the following furcations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6. To properly align the mandibular lateral incisor and the mandibular canine,
the orthodontist will ensure that the distal surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts what area of the mesial surface of the mandibular canine?
1. In reviewing the patients medical history, you note that he was hospitalized
3 years ago due to a severe asthma attack. This can lead to death from which of
the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased PTT
Normal PT
Normal Bleeding time
Decreased INR
A. Principal fibers
B. Sharpeys fibers
C. Attachment of gingival epithelium
D. Attachment of sulcular epithelium
E. Attachment of junctional epithelium
A. One
B. Two mesial and distal
C. Two buccal and lingual
D. Three mesial, distal, buccal
E. Three mesial, distal, lingual
A.
B.
C.
D.
4. All clotting factors are made in the liver. Factors II, VII, X, and XI are vitamin K
dependent.
A.
B.
C.
D.
7. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a qualitative platelet defect resulting in impaired platelet adhesion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
von Willebrands
Hemophilia A
Hemophilia B
Hemophilia C
8. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to be mobile in this patient
due to the eruption of the succedaneous tooth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
F
G
H
I
9. This patients poor habit is often associated with which of the following malocclusions?
A. Class I
B. Class II, division I
C. Class II, division II
D. Class III
10. During this patients orthodontic treatment, new alveolar bone is deposited.
Which of the following BEST describes this type of alveolar bone?
A. Woven
B. Compact
C. Cementum
D. Endochondral
E. Intramembranous
7. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a qualitative platelet defect resulting in impaired platelet adhesion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
von Willebrands
Hemophilia A
Hemophilia B
Hemophilia C
8. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to be mobile in this patient
due to the eruption of the succedaneous tooth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
F
G
H
I
9. This patients poor habit is often associated with which of the following malocclusions?
A. Class I
B. Class II, division I
C. Class II, division II
D. Class III
10. During this patients orthodontic treatment, new alveolar bone is deposited.
Which of the following BEST describes this type of alveolar bone?
A. Woven
B. Compact
C. Cementum
D. Endochondral
E. Intramembranous
5. From the following list select the THREE symptoms associated with this
patients autoimmune disorder.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Weight loss
Dry skin
Diarrhea
Tearing
6. The abscess around tooth #2 may result in which of the following life-threatening situations?
A. Hyperalgesia
B. Hypoalgesia
C. Ludwigs angina
D. Non-vital pulp
E. Referred pain
7. Which of the following nerve fibers is responsible for the patients sharp pain
around tooth #2?
A. A alpha
B. A beta
C. A delta
D. B
E. C
8. If the patient elects root canal therapy for tooth #2, which of the following
best describes the MOST likely presentation of the pulp canals?
A. Three canals, one in each root
B. Four canals, two in the mesial-buccal, one in the distal-buccal, one in the
palatal
C. Four canals, one in the mesial-buccal, two in the distal-buccal, one in the
palatal
D. Four canals, one in the mesial-buccal, one in the distal-buccal, two in the
palatal
E. Five canals, two in the mesial-buccal, two in the distal-buccal, one in the
palatal
ANSWER KEYS
Case 2
Answer Question
Case 3
Answer
Case 4
Question
Answer
Case 5
B, C, D
B, C, E
B, E, F
A, E
10
10
10
10
10
Question
Answer
Answer
Question
Answer
Case 7
Question
Answer
Case 8
Question
Case 9
Case 10
C, D, E, F
B, E, G
A, B, E
10
10
10
10
10
Upper right
lower left
lower right
1. There are 10 Case Scenarios, and each case has 10 questions covering Anatomy, Microbiology, Biochemistry,Physiology, Pathology,
and Dental Anatomy. The Vignettes are composed of the following components:
A paragraph of patient chief complaint and dental history
A chart of patient's medical history and medication usage
You will have to click on a button to make the patient medical history chart visible. Sometimes the chart contains valuable information
that you will need to answer some of the questions, but not all the
questions need that information.
2. The questions are clinically oriented rather than straight memorization. The diseases in the case scenarios are MOSTLY common
ones patients present with on your dental schools clinic floor. Be
careful with cases such as diabetes, asthma, fractures, bone lesions
etc... Moreover, a lot of dental management, ethics and dental
anatomy questions were blended in.
3. Primary and permanent teeth are not given straight out, rather,
they are referred to as tooth #17, or tooth K etc. It might be beneficial
to write down a teeth number chart along with the occlusion chart
during the tutorial period (see back two pages of this testlet booklet
for examples).
Copyright 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc.
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Upper right
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1. There are 10 Case Scenarios, and each case has 10 questions covering Anatomy, Microbiology, Biochemistry,Physiology, Pathology,
and Dental Anatomy. The Vignettes are composed of the following components:
A paragraph of patient chief complaint and dental history
A chart of patient's medical history and medication usage
You will have to click on a button to make the patient medical history chart visible. Sometimes the chart contains valuable information
that you will need to answer some of the questions, but not all the
questions need that information.
2. The questions are clinically oriented rather than straight memorization. The diseases in the case scenarios are MOSTLY common
ones patients present with on your dental schools clinic floor. Be
careful with cases such as diabetes, asthma, fractures, bone lesions
etc... Moreover, a lot of dental management, ethics and dental
anatomy questions were blended in.
3. Primary and permanent teeth are not given straight out, rather,
they are referred to as tooth #17, or tooth K etc. It might be beneficial
to write down a teeth number chart along with the occlusion chart
during the tutorial period (see back two pages of this testlet booklet
for examples).
Copyright 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc.
Lower left
Lower right
Occlusion chart
Maxillary
2P
1P
O
1M
O
2P
1P
2M
O
1M
2M
Mandibular
MBuccal cusp of the md. 1st premolar occludes with the Mesial marginal ridge of the mx. 1st premolar
OBuccal cusp of the md. 2nd premolar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd premolars
OMesiobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 2nd premolar and mx. 1st molar
CDistobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 1st molar
OMesiobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd molars
CDistobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 2nd molar
DLingual cusp of the mx. 1st premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 1st premolar
DLingual cusp of the mx. 2nd premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 2nd premolar
CMesiolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 1st molar
ODistolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 1st and 2nd molars
CMesiolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 2nd molar
ODistolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 2nd and 3rd molars (if present)
Occlusion chart
Maxillary
2P
1P
O
D
1P
1M
2P
2M
1M
2M
Mandibular
MBuccal cusp of the md. 1st premolar occludes with the Mesial marginal ridge of the mx. 1st premolar
OBuccal cusp of the md. 2nd premolar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd premolars
OMesiobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 2nd premolar and mx. 1st molar
CDistobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 1st molar
OMesiobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd molars
CDistobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 2nd molar
DLingual cusp of the mx. 1st premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 1st premolar
DLingual cusp of the mx. 2nd premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 2nd premolar
CMesiolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 1st molar
ODistolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 1st and 2nd molars
CMesiolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 2nd molar
ODistolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 2nd and 3rd molars (if present)
Notice
Medicine is an ever-changing science. As new research
and clinical experience broaden our knowledge,
changes in treatment and drug therapy are required.
The authors and the publisher of this work have checked
with sources believed to be reliable in their eorts to
provide information that is complete and generally in
accord with the standards accepted at the time of publication. However, in view of the possibility of human
error or changes in medical sciences, neither the authors
nor the publisher nor any other party who has been involved in the preparation or publication of this work
warrants that the information contained herein is in
every respect accurate or complete, and they disclaim
all responsibility for any errors or omissions or for the results obtained from use of the information contained in
this work. Readers are encouraged to confirm the information contained herein with other sources. For example and in particular, readers are advised to check the
product information sheet included in the package of
each drug they plan to administer to be certain that the
information contained in this work is accurate and that
changes have not been made in the recommended
dose or in the contraindications for administration. This
recommendation is of particular importance in connection with new or infrequently used drugs.
Dental Decks
Part I Testlet
Part I
Notice
Medicine is an ever-changing science. As new research
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and clinical experience broaden our knowledge,
changes in treatment and drug therapy are required.
The authors and the publisher of this work have checked
with sources believed to be reliable in their eorts to
provide information that is complete and generally in
accord with the standards accepted at the time of publication. However, in view of the possibility of human
error or changes in medical sciences, neither the authors
nor the publisher nor any other party who has been involved in the preparation or publication of this work
warrants that the information contained herein is in
every respect accurate or complete, and they disclaim
all responsibility for any errors or omissions or for the results obtained from use of the information contained in
this work. Readers are encouraged to confirm the information contained herein with other sources. For example and in particular, readers are advised to check the
product information sheet included in the package of
each drug they plan to administer to be certain that the
information contained in this work is accurate and that
changes have not been made in the recommended
dose or in the contraindications for administration. This
recommendation is of particular importance in connection with new or infrequently used drugs.
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Dental Decks
Part I Testlet