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(This handout is meant for non-commercial educational purposes only.)











This handout is compiled and edited by:


Frida Unsiah
Hasbulah Isnaini
Tantri Refa Indhiarti
Didik Hartono
Henny Indarwaty
Scarletina V. Eka
Aris Siswanti

This handout is meant for non-commercial educational purposes only.

Listening section is divided into three main parts, namely:
a. Part A contains 30 short conversations between two people (a man and a woman)
followed by a question.
b. Part B contains 2 longer conversation followed by some questions.
c. Part C contains 3 talks followed by some questions.
In this part, there will be thirty (30) short conversations between two speakers followed by
a question. The strategies are elaborated as follows.
Lesson 1

Focus on the Second Line

Get ready to focus on the second line of the conversation because it possibly presents the
answer of the question.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
: Can you tell me if todays matinee is a comedy, romance, or western/
: I have no idea.
: What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you read:
She has strong ideas about movies.
She prefers comedies over westerns and romances.
She doesnt like todays matinee.
She does not know todays matinee.
The second line of the conversation indicates that the woman has no idea which means that
the woman does not know what todays matinee is. Thus, the correct answer is (D).
Exercise (AUDIO 1)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording, then choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)

He is leaving now.
He has to go out of his way.
He will not be leaving soon.
He will do it his own way.

2. (A)

He locked the door.

He tried unsuccessfully to get into the house.
He was able to open the door.
He left the house without locking the door.

3. (A)

She doesnt like to listen to turkeys.

She thinks the dinner sounds special.
She especially likes the roast turkey.
Shes prefer a different dinner.

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4. (A)

Hell be busy with her homework tonight.

He cant help her tonight.
Hes sorry he cant ever help her
Hell help her with her physics.

5. (A)

Her eyes hurt.

She thought the lecture was great.
The class was boring.
She didnt want to watch Professor Martin.

Lesson 2

Focus on Synonymous words of the answer

While focusing on the second line of the conversation, it may contain key words. If you
find any synonyms (words with similar meanings but different sounds) for the key words
in that line, you probably find the correct answer.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
: Did you see the manager about the job in the bookstore?
: Yes, and I also had to fill out an application.
: What does the man mean?
In your test book, you read:
He got a job as a bookstore manager.
The bookstore was not accepting application.
He saw a book about how to apply for jobs.
It was necessary to complete a form.
The second line of the conversation shows that the man must fill out the application. So,
the best answer is (D).
Exercise (AUDIO 2)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording, then choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)

The final exam was harder than the others.

There were two exams rather than one.
He thought the exam would be easier.
The exam was not very difficult.

2. (A)

Hes not feeling very well.

Hes rather sick of working.
Hes feeling better today than yesterday.
Hed really rather not answer the question.

3. (A)

The company was founded about a year ago.

It was just established that he could go into business.
The family is well established.
The business only lasted a year.

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4. (A)

He did not look at the right schedule.

The plane landed in the right place.
The plane arrived on time.
He had to wait for the plane to land.

5. (A)

Shed rather go running.

She doesnt want to go into the pool.
Shell change clothes quickly and go swimming.
She needs a sweat suit to go running.

Lesson 3

Avoid Similar Sound

Similar sound of the words in the options to sound of the words in the items usually refers
to the incorrect answers since it has very different meanings. Therefore, you should avoid
these answers.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
: Did they get the new car the wanted?
: No, they lacked the money.
: What does the man mean?
In your test book, you hear:
They locked the map in a car.
The looked many times in the car.
It cost a lot of money when the car leaked oil.
They didnt have enough money to buy another car.
The key words in the second line of the conversation are lacked and money. In answers
(A), (B), and (C), the words locked, looked, and leaked sound similar with the word lacked.
Hence, these answers are not correct. The correct one is (D).
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)

She has to wait for some cash.

The waiter is bringing a glass of water.
The lawn is too dry.
She needs to watch out for a crash.

2. (A)

The sweaters the wrong size.

The mans feet arent sweating.
The sweater makes the man seem fat.
The sweet girl doesnt feel right.

3. (A)

He has been regularly using a computer.

He communicates with a Boston company.
He regularly goes to communities around Boston.
He has been travelling back and forth to Boston.

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4. (A)

He thought the lesson didnt matter.

He couldnt learn the lesson.
He learned a massive number of details.
He didnt like most of the lesson.

5. (A)

Some animals started the first fire.

Animals are killed by forest fires.
In the first frost, animals die.
Frost can kill animals.

Lesson 4

Get the Clues to Answer Wh-Questions (Who, What, and Where)

The answers of these kinds of question are usually not clearly stated. Therefore, you must
draw a conclusion based on clues given in the conversation.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
: Id like to deposit this check in my account, please.
: Would you like any cash back?
: Who is the woman?
In your test book, you hear:
A store clerk
A bank teller
An account
A waitress
The clues deposit, check, account, cash back in the conversation indicate that the woman is
possibly a bank teller. Thus, the correct answer is (B).
Another example of this type of question is presented below.
On the recording, you hear:
: Have you deposit this check in my account, please?
: No, but thats the next on my list of errands.
: What will the man probably do next?
In your test book, you hear:
Earn his paycheck
Write a check for a deposit on an apartment
Go to a bank
Make a list of errands to run
Exercise (AUDIO 4)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)
In a photography studio.
In a biology laboratory.
In an office.
In the library.
2. (A)

Hes a pilot.
Hes a flight attendance.
Hes a member of the grounds crew.
He works clearing land.

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3. (A)

Wash the dishes immediately.

Use as many dishes as possible.
Wash the dishes for as long as possible.
Wait until later clean up

4. (A)

In a bank.
In a restaurant.
At a service station.
In a beauty salon.

5. (A)

A salesclerk in a shoe store.

A shoe repairperson.
A party caterer.
A salesclerk in a fixturesdepartments.

Lesson 5

Focus on Negative Expressions

Negative expression in this lesson is mostly presented in a positive expression with an

opposite meaning.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
: I cannot seem to get the door unlocked.
: That isnt the right key for the door.
: What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you hear:
The key in the drawer is on the right.
The man should write the message on the door.
The man has the wrong key.
The right key is not in the drawer.
The negative expression is that isnt the right key for the door which means that the man
found the wrong key. Notice that wrong is the opposite of isnt right. So, the right answer
is (C).
The following chart presents the types of negative expressions that should be taken into
Regular negative: not/ nt
The room is not clean.
Other negatives: nobody, no - Nobody come late in the
one, none, nothing, never
- Steve never tells the
Negative prefixes: in-, un, - The way he talked was
- Ketty dislikes her lunch.
Double negatives: negative - This
words and negative prefix,
neither or not either

Not clean = dirty
- nobody come late =
everybody come on time
- never tells the truth = lie

Impolite = not polite

dislikes = not like

makes uncomfortable =
makes comfortable

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- Ben would not attend
the class and neither
would Sue
Almost negative
- almost none (hardly, - His
unsatisfied because he
studied hardly.
- almost
Negative with comparatives - Nobody is smarter than
he is.
- Nothing is not easier in
this case.

- Both would not attend
the class.

studied hardly = almost

never study

He is the smartest.

difficult in this case.

For example:
On the recording, you will hear:
: Paula, you worked so hard setting up the field trip.
: I hope no ones unhappy with the arrangement.
: What does Paula mean?
In your test book, you will hear:
She hopes everyone will be pleased.
She knows no one is happy with what she has done.
Shes arranged to take a trip because shes unhappy.
Everyones happy with the condition of the field.
The best answer is (A) since no ones unhappy means everyone is happy.
Other examples:
On the recording, you will hear:
: How much time did Sam spend on his paper for economics class?
: Sam has seldom taken so much time on a research paper.
: What does the man men?
In your test book, you will hear:
Sam usually spends this much time on his schoolwork.
Sam has rarely worked so hard.
Sam took too much time on this paper.
Sam should have worked harder on this paper.
The correct answer is (B) as the word seldom refers to rarely.
On the recording, you will hear:
: Did you see Theresas grade on the math exam? It was unbelievable!
: No one else could have done better.
: What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you will hear:
Theresa could have gotten a higher grade.
Anyone could get a good grade.
Theresa got the highest grade.
A high grade is impossible for anyone.

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In the conversation, the sentence no one else could have done better means everybody got
lower grade than Theresa or she got the highest grade.
Exercise (AUDIO 5)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)

She can try a little harder.

There is a lot more than she can do
Shes doing the best that she can do.
It is impossible for her to do anything.

2. (A)

Shes always been late for the bus.

The bus has always been late.
The bus only left on time once.
Only on this trip has the bus been on time.

3. (A)

There wasnt enough soup to go around.

We had so much soup that we couldnt finish it.
Everyone got one serving of soup, but there wasnt enough for second.
Everyone around the table had a lot of soup.

4. (A)

She does want to see the movie.

Its extremely important to her to go.
She doesnt want to go there anymore.
She really couldnt move there.

5. (A)

She handed the paper on time.

She was able to complete the paper, but she didnt turn it in.
The paper was a complete mess, so she didnt turn it in.
The paper was unfinished.

Lesson 6

Focus on Functional Expressions

There are some expressions that should be considered carefully as in the following.
and Surprise
1. with positive statements 1. uncertainty (as far as I 1. Then, you do love me!
(so do I, you too, isnt it)
know, I dont know for
(I thought you dont
2. with negative statement
sure, etc)
love me)
(neither do I, she doesnt 2. suggestion ( why dont 2. Then, she is there! ( I
, its better .)
thought she is not there)
For examples:
On the recording, you will hear:
: I think that both candidates for county supervisor are unqualified.
: me, too.
: What does the woman mean?

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In your test book, you will hear:

She agrees with the man.
She thinks he should become county supervisors.
She thinks the candidates are qualified.
She has no opinion about the candidates for county supervisors.
The expression of me too is an expression that shows agreement, so the woman agrees with
the man.
On the recording, you will hear:
: Im so thirsty from all this walking.
: Lets stop and get a drink.
: What does the man suggest?
In your test book, you will hear:
They should stop drinking.
They should go for a walk.
They should walk thirty miles.
They should take a break and have a drink.
The expression of lets stop and get a drink shows expression of suggestion. Thus, the
correct answer is (D).
On the recording, you will hear:
: I just got 600 on the TOEFL test!
: Then you did pass.
: What did the woman imply?
In your test book, you will hear:
The man had not passed.
The man would pass easily.
The man had already passed.
The man had the score he was expected to get.
The best answer in the conversation is (C) since the words then you did pass indicates the
expression of surprise meaning that the man passed the TOEFL test.
Exercise (AUDIO 6)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)

She plans to talk a lot this month.

She has a lot to say about the phone bill.
The bill is high because she has a lot to say.
She agrees with the man.

2. (A)

Bill had never really been sick.

Bill was too sick to come to class.
Bill was sick of calculus class.
Bill had forgotten about the calculus class that morning.

3. (A)

The man should go out tonight.

The man should stay home and relax.
The man should work on the paper tonight.
The man should go out Monday instead.

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4. (A)

The cafeteria was open in the morning.

The cafeteria did not serve breakfast.
The breakfast in the cafeteria was not very tasty.
The woman never ate breakfast in the cafeteria.

5. (A)

He believes that it is acceptable to park there.

The parking lot is too far from their destination.
He knows that they wont get a ticket.
He knows where the parking lot is.

Lesson 7

Focus on Contrary Meanings

Contrary meanings in this part refer to ideas which imply the opposite meanings. Some
types of contrary meanings are presented below.
Wish and conditional
- an affirmative wish or - I wish I came to the - Reality:
conditional refers to
party yesterday.
I didnt come
negative reality.
- If she worked hard, she - Reality:
- a negative wish or
She didnt pass the
conditional refers to
minimum score.
minimum score.
affirmative reality.
- a past tense implies a - Had I had much money, Reality:
present reality
I would have travelled I did not have money.
- a past perfect tense
around the world.
implies a past reality
- had can be used without
For examples:
On the recording, you will hear:
: Did you enjoy the Thanksgiving dinner?
: I wish I hadnt eaten so much.
: What does the man mean?
In your test book, you will hear:
He did not eat very much.
He plans on eating a lot.
He thinks he is eating a lot.
He ate too much.
The best answer of the conversation is (D). It is indicated from the expression of wish I
wish I hadnt eaten so much meaning in fact the man ate too much.
On the recording, you will hear:
: Are you going to have something to eat?
: If the food looked fresh, I would eat some.
: What does the woman mean?

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In your test book, you will hear:

She is not going to eat.
The food looks fresh.
She doesnt like fresh food.
She already ate something.
The expression of conditional in the conversation is If the food looked fresh, I would eat
some which tells that the reality the woman will not eat. Thus, the correct answer is (A).
Exercise (AUDIO 7)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)

She enjoys violent movies.

She would have preferred a more violent movie.
She thinks the film was too violent.
She enjoyed the movie.

2. (A)

He left the windows open.

The rain did not get in.
He forgot to close the windows.
The rain got into the house.

3. (A)

Her family is unable to come to graduation.

It is possible that her family will come.
Her parents are coming to the ceremonies.
She is not graduating this year.

4. (A)

He is going to miss the conference.

He will take his vacation next week.
He will attend the conference.
He wont miss his vacation.

5. (A)

He enjoys chemistry lab.

He does not have chemistry lab this afternoon.
He isnt taking chemistry lab.
He has to go to the lab.

Lesson 8

Focus on Two/Three Part Verbs

Two/three part verbs also appear in this section. These kinds of verbs contain a verb and
certain prepositions such as off, for, on, and to, which have particular meanings.
For example:
On the recording, you will hear:
: Do we have any more soap?
: Weve run out of it. Someone will have to go to the store.
: What does the man mean?


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In your test book, you will hear:

He will run to the store
He needs soap to wash himself after running.
There is no more soap.
They have a store of soap at home.
In the conversation, the man said, Weve run out of it meaning that they dont have any
soap with them. Therefore, the best answer is (C).
Exercise (AUDIO 8)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)

Phone their neighbors.

Call to their neighbors over the fence.
Help the neighbors move in.
Visit their neighbors.

2. (A)

The course is becoming more interesting.

The course used to be more interesting.
The course is about the same as it was.
Hes not as bored in the class as the woman.

3. (A)

Her headache is getting worse.

She felt better this morning than now.
She seems to be feeling better now.
She is just getting another headache now.

4. (A)

The man should stop breaking his cigarettes in half.

The man should decrease the number of cigarettes he smokes.
The man should cut the ends off his cigarettes.
The man should stop smoking completely.

5. (A)

The client presented his case to the lawyer.

The client was upset about the lawyers rejection.
The client was annoyed because the lawyer returned the suitcase.
The client made the lawyer unhappy about the case.

Lesson 9

Focus on Idioms

Idioms are special expressions in a language that are not taken literally; these describe one
situation but are applied to many different areas of life.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
: Thanks for changing the oil and putting air in the tires.
: Its all in a days work.
: What does the man mean?


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In your test book, you read:

It will take him a whole day to do the job.
This is a regular part of his job.
He can do the work at the end of the day.
Hes too busy today to do the work.
In this question, the idiom its all in a days work tells a situation that someone does the
job routinely by stating all in a days work. Thus, the best answer is (B).
Exercise (AUDIO 9)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)

The mans never late.

Its good that the man was fifteen minutes later.
Its never good to be late for class.
Its good that the man went to class, on time or not.

2. (A)

The womans work is all in her head.

The woman has to do two experiments rather than one.
Its a good idea to work together.
The biology experiment concerns two-headed animals.

3. (A)

She has no time to work now.

She doesnt want to work on the report either.
Its best to get it over with now.
Theres no time to present the report now.

4. (A)

Shes very lucky to get the last book.

Shes sorry she cant get the book today.
She always has good luck with books.
She just wanted to look at the book.

5. (A)

The man doesnt like eating in restaurants.

She doesnt really like that restaurant.
Each of them has his own restaurant.
Everyone has different tastes.


Listening part B consists of two longer conversation, each followed by a number of
questions. The conversation are mostly talking about school life (how to register a course,
how to write a research paper, and how difficult a class is, and etc) or current topics in the
news. While listening part C consists of three talks, each followed by a number of
questions. The talks are also often about school life or lectures of courses taught in colleges
and universities. The following skills will assist you to do these listening parts.
Lesson 1

Before Listening: Predict the Topics and the Questions

Before you hear the conversations or talks in the recording, it will be helpful for you to
examine or skim briefly the overall answers in the test book to make prediction on what the
topics and questions will be in the conversation or talks that you will hear

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For examples:
On the recording, you hear:
1. (A)
Find work on campus
Work in the employment office
Help students find jobs
Ask the woman questions
2. (A)

In the library
In a classroom
In a campus office
In an apartment

3. (A)
For three weeks
For three days
For three months
For three hours
Predict the topic of the conversation for questions 1 through 3!
The possible topic is looking for a job on campus
Predict the questions of the conversation for question number 1through 3!
The possible question number 1 is What does (someone) want to do?
The possible question number 2 is Where does the conversation probably take place?
The possible question number 3 is How long does (something) last?
What is the topic of the conversation for questions 1 through 5?
1. (A)

All kinds of pollution.

How acid rain has harmed the earth.
Pollution from cars and factories.
The causes and possible effects of acid rain.

2. (A)

Nuclear power.
Burning coal and oil.
Solar power.

3. (A)

Only in North America.

At the North and South Poles.
In parts of several northern continents.
In equatorial areas.

4. (A)

She should protect herself from the rain.

She should clean up the water supply.
She should read a novel.
She should get more information about acid rain.


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Lesson 11

While Listening: Determine the Topic

As you listen to each conversation in Listening Part B or talks in Listening Part C, you
should be thinking about the topic or main idea for each conversation. The topic is usually
in the first and second sentences.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
: You cant believe what I just got!
: I bet you got that new car youve always wanted.
: Now, how in the world did you figure that out?
You may think the topic of the conversation is the new car that the man just got.
On the recording, you hear:
: The major earthquake that occurred east of Los Angeles in 1971 is still
affecting the economy of the area today.
You may think the topic of the talk is effect of earthquake in 1971 on Los Angeles.
Exercise (AUDIO 11)
Listen to the first part of each of the conversation and decide on the topic.
1. What is the topic of conversation 1?
2. What is the topic of conversation 2?
3. What is the topic of conversation 3?
4. What is the topic of talk 1?
5. What is the topic of talk 2?
Lesson 12

Draw Conclusions About Who, What, When, And Where

While listening to each conversation in Listening Part B or talk in Listening Part C, you
should be thinking of the following thought:
On the recording, you hear:
: Why do you have so many books?
: I need them for my paper on George Washington. Do you know how I can
check them out?
: Yes, you should go downstairs to the circulation desk and fill out a card or
each book.
You may think:
Who is probably talking?
(two students)
Where are they?
(in the library)
What course are they discussing?
(American history)
On the recording, you hear:
: The next stop on our tour of Atlanta will be the original home of Coca
Cola, at 107 Marietta Street. Coca Cola was manufactured at this location
until early in September of 1888.
You may think:
Who is probably talking?
(a tour guide)
Where are they?
(in Atlanta)
When does the talk take place?
(in the middle of a tour)


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Exercise (AUDIO 12)

Listen to the first part of each of the conversation and decide on the situation.
Conversation 1
1. Who is probably talking?
2. Where does the conversation take place?
Conversation 2
1. Who is probably talking?
2. When does the conversation take place?
3. What is the source of the mans information?
Talk 1
1. Who is probably talking?
2. Where does the talk probably take place?
3. When does the talk probably take place?
4. What course is being discussed?
Talk 2
1. Who is probably talking?
2. Where does the talk probably take place?
3. When does the talk probably take place?
4. What course is being discussed?

Lesson 13

Focus on Answers in Order

The detailed questions in Listening Part B and Listening Part C are answered in order. It is
possible, therefore, to read along while you listen to the conversations or talks in the
recording. There two possible methods to use while listening to these parts, namely:
1. You can just listen to the conversation (ignore the answers)
2. You can follow along with the answers while listening.
On the recording, you hear:
: Can I help you?
: Im interested in opening an account.
: Well, we have several different types of accounts: checking account,
savings accounts, money market accounts, time deposit accounts.
: Its checking account that I am interested in.
: I can help you with that. First, you have to fill out a form, and then I need
to see some identification. Thats about all there is to it.
: That sounds easy enough. Thanks for your help.
On the recording, you hear:
1. What type of account does the woman want?
2. What does the man need for her to show him?


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In your test book, you read (at the same time):

1. (A)
A checking account
A saving account
A money market account
A time deposit account
2. (A)
A form
An account
A piece of identification
A check
When you read the answers to the first question, you can predict that the possible question
is What type of account? As listening, you decide that the woman wants a checking
account. Thus, you can think that the best answer to the first question is (A).
When you read the answers to the second question, you can predict that the possible
question is What thing ? In the conversation, the man asks her to fill out a form and
show some identification, so while listening, you may predict the correct answer of the
second question is either (A) or (C). When you hear the question, you can determine the
best answer is (C).
On the recording, you hear:
: The Great Chicago Fire began on October 8, 1871, and according to to
legend, began when a cow knocked over a lantern in Mrs. OLearys barn. No matter how
it began, it was a disastrous fire. The preceding summer had been exceedingly dry in the
Chicago area and the extreme dryness accompanied by Chicago infamous winds created an
inferno that destroyed 18,000 buildings and killed more than 300 people before it was
extinguished the following day.

On the recording, you hear:

1. According to legend, what did the Great Chicago Fire begin?
2. Which of the following is not true about the Great Chicago Fire?
In your test book, you read:
1. (A)
In a barn
In Mrs. OLearys home
In a cow pasture
In a lantern factory
2. (A)
The dry weather prior to the fire made it worse.
It happened during the summer.
Chicagos winds made it worse.
It killed many people.
When you read the answers to the first question, you can predict that the first question is
Where did something happen? As you listen, you determine that the fire began in Mrs.
OLearys barn. Thus, you predict that the best answer to the first question is (A).
When you read the answers to the second question, you can predict that the answers (A),
(C), and (D) are true. Answer (B) is not true. The fire did not begin in the summer but in
October which is in autumn. Answer (B), thus, is the best answer to the question.
Exercise (AUDIO 13)
Listen to each conversation and talk and answer the questions.

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1. (A)

Find work on campus.

Work in the employment office.
Help students find jobs.
Ask the woman questions.

2. (A)

In the library.
In a classroom.
In a campus office.
In an apartment.

3. (A)

No more than ten.

At least twenty.
Not more than twenty.
Up to ten.

4. (A)

Every morning.
Afternoons and weekends.
When hes in class.

5. (A)

Fill out a form.

Give her some additional information.
Tell her some news.
Phone her.

1. (A)

During a biology laboratory session.

In a biology study group.
On the first day of class.
Just before the final exam.

2. (A)

Once a week.
Two times a week.
Three times a week.
For fifteen hours.

3. (A)

To do the first laboratory assignment.

To take the first exam.
To study the laboratory manual.
To read one chapter of the text.

4. (A)

Room assignments.
Exam topics.
Reading assignments.
The first lecture.

5. (A)

Exams and lab work.

Reading and writing assignments.

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Class participation and grades on examinations.

Lecture and laboratory attendance.


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The second section of TOEFL tests your understanding of English grammar. This section
is divided into two parts: Structure and Written Expression.
This part of the test consists of 15 incomplete sentences. Some portion of each sentence
has been replaced by a blank. Under each sentence, four words or phrases are listed. One
of these completes the sentence grammatically and logically.
Viruses can be _____ only with a powerful electronic microscope.
A. seeing
B. seen
C. having seen
D. to see
In this example all the answer choices are verb form. The first part of a verb phrase, can
be, appears. Grammatically, either seeing or seen could follow this expression, but only the
passive verb can be seen is logically correct in the context of this sentence. Choice B is the
best answer.
Topsoil is rich in the nutrients ______ necessary for the growth of plants.
A. are
B. that is
C. that they are
D. which are
The choices here represent a variety of forms. Choice D is the best answer. Choice A does
not work because there are two verbs (is and are) in one clause with no connecting word.
Choice B contains a connecting word that is the relative pronoun that, but the verb is does
not agree with the plural noun nutrients. In C they word they is unnecessary. In D the
relative pronoun which functions both as a connecting word and as a subject of the clause.
Lesson 1

Basic Sentence Parts

All sentences consist of one or more clauses. A simple sentence consists of one clause.
For example:
People need vitamins.
The man took a vitamin pill.
The emphasis in this lesson is on the basic components of simple sentences and main
clauses: subjects, verbs, objects, expletives, and complements.
Subjects, Verbs, and Objects
The verb missing from a sentence may be a single-word verb (need, was, took, had,
walked, and so on) or a verb phrase consisting of one or more auxiliary verbs and a main
verb (will need, has been, should take, would have had, had walked, and so on). The verb
may be active or passive (was needed, is taken, and so on). The missing subject or direct
object may be a noun (people, vitamins, and so on), a noun phrase (some famous people, a
vitamin pill, and so on), or a pronoun (he, she, it, him, her, and so on).

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In Structure it is common for any one of these three elements or a combination of two or
three of these elements to be missing from the sentence. The most common problem in
Structure involves a missing verb. Missing subject and subject-verb combination are
common as well. The missing element may also be part of the verb or noun phrase.
Pepsin ____ an enzyme used in digestion.
A. that is
B. is
C. it is
D. being
B is the best answer as it supplies the missing verb.
______ a few of the sounds produced by insects can be heard by humans.
A. Only
B. There are only
C. That Only
D. With only
A is the best choice as it completes the noun phrase that is the subject of the sentence.
_____ from cream by a process called churning.
A. Because butter is made
B. To make butter
C. Butter is made
D. Making butter
The best answer is C, which correctly supplies a subject (Butter) and a verb (is made).
Some clauses begin with the introductory words there or it rather than with the subject of
the sentence. These introductory words are called expletives. Expletives, along with the
verb and other sentence elements, may be missing from the sentence.
The expletive there shows that someone or something exists, usually at a particular time or
There are many skyscrapers in New York City.
There was a good movie on television last night.
The expletive it is used in a number of different situations.
It is important to be punctual for appointments.
It was in 1959 that Alaska became a state.
It takes a long time to learn a language.


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_____ in Glacier National Park.
A. Over fifty glaciers
B. Where over fifty glaciers are
C. Are over fifty glaciers
D. There are over fifty glaciers
Choice D supplies an expletive, verb, and subject and is the best choice.
______ a tomato plant from 75 to 85 days to develop into a mature plant with ripe fruit.
A. It takes
B. To take
C. That takes
D. By taking
Choice A correctly completes the sentence with the expletive It and a verb.
Some clauses contain nouns or adjectives used as a complement. There are two kinds of
complements, namely subject complement and object complement. Subject complement
comes after the verb to be and other non-action verb. Complements may also be missing
from the sentence. For example:
She is an architecture student.
They seemed happy yesterday.
Object complement is used after certain verbs. After active verb, complements follow the
object. After passive verbs, complements follow the main verb. For example:
The committee elected Bill chairman.
Bill was elected chairman.
Professor Bills colleagues consider him brilliant.
Professor Bill is considered brilliant.
The Great Dismal Swamp ____ covering about 750 square miles of northeastern North
Carolina and southeastern Virginia.
A. which is a wild marshland
B. is a wild marshland
C. a wild marshland
D. a wild marshland which is
The best answer, B, correctly supplies a verb (is) and a noun phrase used a subject
complement (a wild marshland).
Exercise 1
Direction: Choose the one option A, B, C, or D that correctly completes the sentences.
1. _____ by cosmic rays.
A. The earths is constantly bombarded
B. Bombarded constantly, the earth
C. Bombarding the earth constantly
D. The earths constant bombardment

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2. ______ primary colors are red, blue, and yellow.

A. There are three
B. The three
C. Three of them
D. That the three
3. Jane Byrne was elected _____ woman mayor of Chicago in 1979.
A. the first
B. she was the first
C. the first was
D. being the first
4. On the moon ______ air because the moons gravitational field is too weak to retain an
A. there is no
B. where no
C. no
D. of no
5. ________ important railroad tunnel in the United States was cut through the Hoosac
Mountains in Massachusetts.
A. At first
B. It was the first
C. The first
D. As the first of
Lesson 2

Adverb Clauses

An adverb clause consists of a connecting word, called a subordinator and at least a subject
and a verb. For example:
The demand for economical cars increased when gasoline became more expensive.
In this example the subordinator when joins the subordinate clause to the main clause. The
adverb clause contains a subject (gasoline) and a verb (became).
The following subordinators may be commonly seen on the Structure part.
Common Subordinate Conjunctions
even though




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John Calhoun resigned as Vice President in 1832 ______ could not get along with
President Andrew Jackson.
A. because of
B. because he
C. it was because
D. because
Option B is best.
_____ to the unaided eye, ultraviolet light can be detected in a number of ways.
A. Although is invisible
B. Despite invisible
C. Even though it invisible
D. Although invisible
The best answer, D, completes a reduced adverb clause.
Exercise 2
Direction: Choose the one option A, B, C, or D that correctly completes the sentences.
1. Heavy industry developed rapidly in Alabama _____ its rich natural resources.
A. because of
B. since
C. in that
D. was a result of
2. _____ born in San Fransisco, poet Robert Frost is invariably associated with New
A. And yet
B. In spite of
C. Although
D. He was
3. _____ pieces of rope are of different thickness, the short bend, or weavers knot, can be
used to join them.
A. Two of
B. What two
C. Two such
D. If two
4. Until _____, the seeds of the Kentucky coffee plant are poisonous.
A. they have been cooked
B. cooked them
C. have been cooking
D. are cooking
5. Natural silk is still highly prized _____ similar artificial fabrics.
A. although is available
B. despite there are available
C. in spite of the availability of
D. even though an availability of

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Lesson 3

Noun Clauses

Noun clauses are the second type of subordinate clause. Noun clauses that are formed from
statements begin with the word that. Noun clauses formed from yes/no question begin with
the word whether. Those formed from information questions begin with wh- words: what,
where, when, and so on.
Dr. Hopkins office is in this building. (statement)
Im sure that Dr. Hopkins office is in this building.
Is Dr. Hopkins office on this floor? (yes/no question)
I dont know whether Dr. Hopkins office is on this floor.
Where is Dr. Hopkins office? (wh- information question)
Please tell me where Dr. Hopkins office is.
Example: ______ was caused by breathing impure air was once a common belief.
A. Malaria
B. That malaria
C. Why malaria
D. For malaria
Option B is the best.
One basic question psychologists have tried to answer is ______
A. people learn
B. how do people learn
C. people learn how
D. how people learn
D is the best answer.
Exercise 3
Direction: Choose the one option A, B, C, or D that correctly completes the sentences.
1. It seems likely _____ raindrops begin their existence as ice crystals over most of the
A. so that
B. if
C. that
D. what
2. Scientists cannot agree on _______ related to other orders of insects.
A. that fleas are
B. how fleas are
C. how are fleas
D. fleas that are


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3. It was in 1875 _______ joined the staff of the astronomical observatory at Harvard
A. that Anna Winlock
B. Anna Winlock, who
C. as Anna Winlock
D. Anna Winlock then
4. _____ is a narrow strip of woods along a stream in an open grassland.
A. Ecologists use the term gallery forest
B. What do ecologists call a gallery forest
C. Gallery forest is the term ecologists use
D. What ecologists call a gallery forest
5. _____ so incredible is that these insects successfully migrate to places that they have
never ever seen.
A. That makes the monarch butterflies migration
B. The migration of the monarch butterflies is
C. What makes the monarch butterflies migration
D. The migration of the monarch butterflies, which is
Lesson 4

Adjective Clauses

Adjective clause or relative clause is the third type of subordinate clause. It describes
nouns and begins with relative word (who, whom, whose, which, where, when, that). For
A neurologist is a doctor who specializes in the nervous system.
This is the patient whom the doctor treated.
Mr. Collins is the man whose house I rented.
That is the topic which interests me.
Art that is in public places can be enjoyed by everyone.
A ring nebula is the remnants of a star ______.
A. that exploded
B. where the explosion
C. it exploded
D. exploded
A is the best answer.
The melting point is the temperature _____ a solid changes to a liquid.
A. which
B. at which
C. which at
D. at
Option B best completes the sentence.


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Exercise 4
Direction: Choose the one option A, B, C, or D that correctly completes the sentences.
1. In addition to being a naturalist, Stewart E. White was a writer _____ the struggle for
survival on the American frontier.
A. whose novels describe
B. he describes in his novels
C. his novels describe
D. who, describing in his novels
2. Diamonds are often found in rock formations called pipes, _____ the throats of extinct
A. in which they resemble
B. which resemble
C. there is a resemblance to
D. they resemble
3. William Samuel Johnson, _____ helped write the Constitution, became the first
president of Columbia College in 1787.
A. whom he had
B. and he had
C. who had
D. had
4. The instrument panel of a light airplane has at least a dozen instruments ______.
A. the pilot must watch
B. what the pilot must watch
C. which the pilot must watch them
D. such that the pilot must watch them
5. A keystone species is a species of plants or animals ____ absence has a major effect on
an ecological system.
A. that its
B. its
C. whose
D. with its
Lesson 5

Participial Phrase

Participial phrase generally occurs after nouns and are actually reduced relative clause.
Present participle is used to reduce adjective clause that contains active verbs. For
Minnesota, which joined the Union in 1858, became the thirty-second state.
Minnesota, joining the Union in 1858, became the thirty-second state.
Past participle is used to reduce adjective clause with passive verbs. For example:
William and Mary College, which was founded in 1693, is the second-oldest
university in the United States.
William and Mary College, founded in 1693, is the second-oldest university in the
United States.

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Participial phrases can also come before the subject of a sentence. For example:
Joining the Union in 1858, Minnesota became the thirty-second state.
Founded in 1693, William and Mary College is the second-oldest university in the
United States.
Natural resources provide the raw materials _____ to produce finished goods.
A. needed
B. are needed
C. need
D. needing
A is the best answer.
Exercise 5
Direction: Choose the one option -A, B, C, or D -that correctly completes the sentences.
1. _____ in front of a camera lens changes the color of the light that reaches the film.
A. Placed a filter
B. A filter is placed
C. A filter placed
D. When a filter placed
2. The solidarity scientist _____ by himself has in many instances been replaced by a
cooperative scientific team.
A. to make important discoveries
B. important discoveries were made
C. has made important discoveries
D. making important discoveries
3. Geometry is the branch of mathematics ____ the properties of lines, curves, shapes,
and surfaces.
A. that concerned with
B. it is concerned with
C. concerned with
D. its concerns are
4. _____ an average of 471 inches of rain a year, Mount Waialeale in Hawaii is the
wettest spot in the world.
A. It receives
B. Receiving
C. To receive
D. Received
5. Amber is a hard, yellowish-brown ____ from the resin of pine trees that lived millions
of years ago.
A. to form
B. substance formed
C. substance has formed
D. forming a substance


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Lesson 6


An appositive is a noun phrase that explains or rephrases another noun phrase. It most
commonly comes after the noun to which it refers. It may also come before the subject of a
sentence. For example:
Buffalo Bill, a famous frontiersman, operated his own Wild West show.
A famous frontiersman, Buffalo Bill operated his own Wild West show.
Appositives function exactly like adjective clauses that contain the verb to be, but unlike
adjective clauses, they do not contain a verb or a connector. For example:
Oak, which is one of the most durable hardwoods, is often used to make furniture.
(adjective clause)
Oak, one of the most durable hardwoods, is often used to make furniture.
The National Road, ______ of the first highways in North America, connected the East
Coast to the Ohio Valley.
A. which one
C. one
B. it was one
D. was one
Choice C forms an appositive and is the best answer.
Exercise 6
Direction: Choose the one option -A, B, C, or D -that correctly completes the sentences.
1. _____ Ruth St. Dennis turned to Asian dances to find inspiration for her choreography.
A. It was the dancer
B. The dancer
C. That the dancer
D. The dancer was
2. The organs of taste are _____ which are mainly located on the tongue.
A. taste buds, groups of cells
B. groups of cells, are taste buds
C. groups of cells, taste buds are
D. taste buds, these are groups of cells
3. In 1878 Frederick W. Taylor invented a concept called scientific management, _____
of obtaining as much efficiency from workers and machines as possible.
A. it is a method
B. which a method
C. a method
D. a method it is
4. A group of Shakers, _____ settled around Pleasant Hill, Kentucky, in 1805.
A. members of a strict religious sect which
B. whose members of a strict religious sect
C. members of a strict religious sect
D. were members of a strict religious sect


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5. In physics _____ plasma refers to a gas which has a nearly equal number of positively
and negatively charged particles.
A. is termed
B. by the term
C. the term
D. terming
Lesson 7
Prepositional Phrases
A prepositional phrase consists of a preposition (in, at, with, for, until, and so on) followed
by a noun phrase or pronoun, called the object of the preposition. Prepositional phrases
often describe relationships of time and location, among others. For example:
In the autumn maple leaves turn red.
Beacon Hill is one of the most famous neighborhoods in Boston.
With luck, there will not be any more problems.
The house was built by Johns grandfather.
You may see prepositions in distracters, especially before the subject of a sentence.
Remember that the subject of a sentence cannot be the object of a preposition.
_____ the unaided eye can see about 6,000 stars.
A. A clear night
B. It is a clear night
C. On a clear night
D. When a clear night
Option C best completes the sentence.
_______ all the field crops grown in the United States are harvested with machines called
A. Of nearly
B. Nearly
C. That nearly
D. Nearly of
The correct answer is B.
Exercise 7
Direction: Choose the one option -A, B, C, or D -that correctly completes the sentences.
1. Dynamite is ordinarily detonated _____ called a blasting cap.
A. a device is used
B. that a device
C. with a device
D. the use of a device


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2. ______ there were some 300 bicycle factories in the United States, and they produced
over a million bicycles.
A. In 1900
B. Because in 1900
C. It was in 1900
D. That in 1900
3. A thick layer of fat called blubber keeps whales warm even _______ coldest water.
A. although the
B. in the
C. the
D. of the
4. Sport fishermen use a variety of equipment, ranging ______ sophisticated fly rods.
A. from simple cane poles
B. simple cane poles
C. from simple cane poles to
D. simple cane poles to
5. A substance that is harmless to a person who has no allergies can cause mild to serious
reactions in a person _______ allergies.
A. has
B. which having
C. with
D. can have
Lesson 8

Infinitive and Gerund Phrases

An infinitive is a verbal form that consists of the word to and the simple form of the verb:
to be, to go, to give, to build, and so on. Infinitives are often followed by an object: to give
directions, to build a house, and so on. An infinitive and its object form an infinitive
Infinitives can be used in many ways. They may be the subjects or objects of verbs or used
after TO BE + ADJECTIVE. For example:
To read the direction is important.
He forgot to read the directions.
It is important to read the directions.
Infinitives can be used as adjective phrases after nouns. For example:
John Glenn was the first American astronaut to orbit the earth.
A gerund is a verbal form that ends in ing: being, going, giving, and so on. Like
infinitives, gerunds are often followed by objects. Together, a gerund and its object form a
gerund phrase. Gerunds are verbal nouns and are used as other nouns are used. You will
generally see gerunds as subjects or objects of verbs or as objects of prepositions. For
Playing cards is enjoyable.
He enjoys playing cards.
He passes the time by playing cards.


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Dorothea Dix led the drive _____ state hospitals for the mentally ill.
A. the building of
B. to build
C. was built
D. which was built
Option B best completes the sentence.
The ear is the organ of hearing, but it also plays a role in _____ balance.
A. maintaining
B. it maintains
C. to maintain
D. maintained
Exercise 8
Direction: Choose the one option -A, B, C, or D -that correctly completes the sentences.
1. The purpose of cost accounting is ____ involved in producing and selling a good or
A. for determination of costs
B. the costs determined
C. that determines costs
D. to determine costs
2. _____ was one of the most difficult tasks pioneers faced on their journeys west.
A. Crossing rivers
B. They crossed rivers
C. Rivers being crossed
D. By crossing rivers
3. Energy can be defined as the ability ________.
A. do working
B. to do work
C. doing work
D. work is done
4. The process of _______ by hand has changed little since the fifteenth century.
A. to bind books
B. binding books
C. books are bound
D. bound books
5. _______ epiphytes, or air plants, perch high in the branches and trunks of trees in rain
A. To obtain light
B. For obtaining light
C. They obtain light
D. Light obtained


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Practice Test 1. Structure

1. Even though woodpeckers ____ as a nuisance to many people, they are actually helpful,
since they feed on harmful insects.
A. are seen
B. which are seen
C. being seen
D. to be seen
2. The first clock, made nearly a thousand years ago, had neither a face nor hands, ____
that rang each hour.
A. it had bells
B. rather than bells
C. though bells
D. but it had bells
3. ______ on the floor of the ocean is a big framing industry.
A. Oysters raising
B. Oysters are raised
C. The raising of oysters
D. The oysters raised
4. A barbershop _____ a red and white striped pole.
A. what symbolizes
B. is symbolized by
C. is symbolized to
D. was symbolized
5. ______ as beasts of burden by the Indians in the Andes Mountains.
A. Using Ilamas
B. Llamas are used
C. Llamas use
D. There are llamas
6. The moon, ______ no air around it, grows extremely hot in the daytime and extremely
cold at night.
A. which has
B. has
C. having had
D. what has
7. Even though they are not liquid, cottage cheese, sour cream, and yogurt are sold _____
liquid measurements.
A. to
B. for
C. over
D. by


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8. To plant rice, farmers, ______, set young plants in the mud.

A. they wade with bare feet in the water
B. water wading in their bare feet
C. wading in the water in their bare feet
D. whose bare feet wading in the water
9. ______, farmers cut holes in the bark of maple trees.
A. Maple syrup is collected
B. To collect maple syrup
C. The collection of maple syrup
D. When collect maple syrup
10. The boll weevil, an insect ______ cotton plants, is native to Central America.
A. destroys
B. to destroy
C. has destroyed
D. that destroys
11. _____ humans, toads have tongues fastened at the front of their mouths, which allow
them to catch insects.
A. Not the same
B. Unlike
C. Except for
D. Dislike
12. ____ on a hot fire is a delicacy in many parts of the world.
A. Lamb roasted
B. Roasted
C. Lambs roast
D. lambs
13. _____ determines a good meal varies from country to country.
A. Which
B. Why
C. What
D. How
14. _______, the pecan is the second most popular nut in the United States.
A. The rich food
B. Food is rich
C. To be rich
D. A rich food
15. More ivory is obtained from elephants in Africa _____ elephants in Asia.
A. rather than
B. more than
C. than from
D. as well as


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In this part of the test, there are 25 sentences. In each sentence, four expressions which
consist of single words or two- or three-word phrases are underlined. Your job is to
identify which of these phrases must be rewritten in order for the sentence to be correct.
Music, dramatic, and art contribute to the culture of any community.
This sentence should correctly read Music, drama, and art contribute to the culture of any
community. Choice A would have to be rewritten to correct the sentence, so A is the best
The Michigan dunes, located on Lake Michigans eastern shore, may to reach a height of
some 200 feet.
This sentence should read The Michigan dunes, located on Lake Michigans eastern
shore, may reach a height of some 200 feet. Choice B contains the error, so you should
choose answer B.
Lesson 9

Errors with Word Forms

Most errors of this type involve using one part of speech in place of another an adjective
in place of an adverb, a noun in place of a verb, and so on.
Adjective/adverb errors: the most common type of word-form problems involves
the use of an adverb in place of an adjective or an adjective in place of an adverb. A
few points to keep in mind:
- Adjectives modify noun phrases and pronouns. For example:
He was a brilliant doctor.

Most adverbs are used to modify verbs, adjectives, and participles. For
She treated her employees honestly.

Most adverbs are formed by adding the suffix ly to an adjective.

Some adjectives also end in ly, such as friendly, yearly, costly, and lively.

The Black Hills of South Dakota are covered with densely pine forests.
The best answer is D. An adjective, dense, not an adverb, is required to modify the
noun phrase pine forests.

Incorrect forms of words connected with certain fields: this error involves a
confusion between the name of a field and the name of the person who practices in
that field, or between one of those terms and the adjective that describes the field.


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Huey Long and his brother Earl were the two most powerful politics in the history
of Louisiana.
The error is in choice C. politics refers to the name of the field. The correct term,
politicians, refers to people who engage in that field.
Exercise 9
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. The strong of a rope is directly proportional to its cross-sectional area.
2. Black bears can move rapidly when necessary and are skillful tree climbers for their size
and weigh.
3. Helen Pankhurst formulated an experimental method of educational called the Dalton
Laboratory Plan.
4. In most Western states, the first major industry was mining, which was gradually
supplemented by ranches.
5. Peach trees grow good in a variety of soil types, but do best in sandy loam.
Lesson 10

Errors with Verbs

Whenever the verb is underlined in a Written Expression problem, you should check for
the common verb errors outlined in this lesson:
Errors with agreement: if a subject is singular, the verb must be singular. If the subject
is plural, the verb must be plural. Most problems involving subject-verb agreement in
TOEFL are simple, but a few are tricky.
Minerals in seawater exists in the same proportions in all the oceans of the world.
The best answer is B. The Plural subject minerals requires a plural verb, exist.
Bowling, one of the most popular indoor sports, are popular all over the United States
and in other countries.
The best answer is C; the subject of the sentence is bowling, not sports. Therefore, the
singular verb form is should be used.


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Incorrect tense: Most tense errors involve the simple present tense, the simple past
tense, and the present perfect tense. For Example:
The atmosphere surrounds the earth.
They moved to Phoenix five years ago.
Mr. Graham has worked for this company since 1990.
The most important period of physical growth in humans occurred during their first two
Choice C is the best. The simple present tense, not the past tense, should be used
because the situation described in this sentence always occurs.
Incorrect verb forms: some of the verb errors are errors in form. In this type of problem,
ing form may be used in place of a past participle or a simple form. The problem may
involve auxiliary verbs: has may be used in place of is, or is may be used in place of
does, and so on.
The first bicycle race on record in the United States taken place in 1883.
The best choice is C. the correct verb is the past tense form (took), not a past participle.
Exercise 10
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. Portable fire extinguishers generally containing liquid carbon dioxide.
2. The first experimental telegraph line in the United States run from Baltimore to
Washington, a distance of 40 miles.
3. The Haida Indians once occupy the Queen Charlotte Islands of British Columbia.
4. In the late nineteenth century, many important theories in both the biological and the
physical sciences have been produced.
5. Everyone who go into the woods should recognize common poisonous plants such as
poison ivy and poison oak.
Lesson 11

Errors with Parallel Structures

The sentence in this type of error generally contains a series of three or more expressions.
One of these expressions is not grammatically parallel to the other items in the series.


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As a young man, George Washington liked boating, to hunt, and fishing.
The best answer is option C because it is not parallel with the other items in the series: to
hunt is infinitive, while the other items are gerunds.
Exercise 11
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. The bellflower is a wildflower that grows in shady fields, in marshes, and mountain
2. Computers are often used to control, adjustment, and correct complex industrial
3. Many places of history, scientific, cultural, or scenic importance have been designated
national monuments.
4. R. Buckminster Fuller was a designer, an architecture, an inventor, and an engineer.
5. Many people who live near the ocean depend on it as a source of food, recreation, and
to have economic opportunities.
Lesson 12

Errors with Singular and Plural Nouns

Underlined nouns in the Written Expression section are sometimes incorrect because they
are plural but should be singular, or because they are singular but should be plural.
Certain animal, such as earthworms and birds, have organs called gizzards for the grinding
of foods.
The error is A. because the verb have is plural, the subject must also be plural. The correct
form is animals.
In some sentences an uncountable noun, such as water, silver, furniture, art, luggage,
bread, and so on is incorrectly given as a plural noun.
Some encyclopedias deal with specific fields, such as music or philosophy, and provide
informations only on that subject.
The answer here is D; information is an uncountable noun and cannot be pluralized.


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Exercise 12
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. Insurance underwriter insure people against many types of risks.
2. The electric toaster was one of the earliest appliance to be developed for the kitchen.
3. Tornadoes can pick up objects as heavy as automobiles and carry them for hundreds of
4. Many kind of vegetables are grown in Californias Imperial Valley.
5. Russell Cave in northeastern Alabama was the home of cliff-dwelling Indians thousand
of years ago.
Lesson 13

Errors with Comparatives and Superlative

Most adjectives have three forms: the absolute or the basic adjective form, the
comparative, and the superlative. Comparatives are used to show that one item has more or
some quality than another does. For example:
George is taller than his brother.
Superlatives are used to show that one item in a group of three or more has the greatest
amount of some quality. For example:
He was the tallest man in the room.
An opposite relationship can be expressed with the words less and least: less expensive and
the least expensive.
Many adverbs also have comparative and superlative forms. The comparative and
superlative forms of ly adverbs are formed with more and most: importantly, more
importantly, and the most importantly.
Basketball is played at a much fast pace than baseball.
The best answer is C. the comparative form faster is needed because two concepts the
pace of basketball and the pace of baseball are being compared.
The most small vessels in the circulatory system are capillaries.
The best answer is A; the correct form is smallest, because small is a one-syllable


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Exercise 13
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. One of the most basic American contribution to technology was the so-called
American system of interchangeable machine parts.
2. Chicagos Field Museum is probably the largest and better known natural history
museum in the United States.
3. Baltimore has one of the worlds most finest natural harbors.
4. The Kennedy-Nixon race of 1960 was the more closest presidential election of this
5. The finback whale is the fastest of all whales, and only the blue whale is largest.
Lesson 14

Errors in Word Order

Most word-order errors in Written Expression consist of two words in reverse order. Some
of the most common examples of this type of error are given below:
Drivers careful
Careful drivers
Clothing womens
Womens clothing
Are finished
Where it is?
Where is it?
Tell me where is it.
Tell me where it is.
A basic extremely idea
An extremely basic idea
Baked freshly bread
Freshly baked bread
Goods such as flowers fresh and seafood are often shipped by air.
You should choose option B. the adjective fresh must come before the noun flowers: fresh
Exercise 14
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. The development of transistors made possible it to reduce the size of many
electronic devices.


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2. Twelve drawings usually have to be prepared for second each of animated film.
3. An umbra is a shadows darkest central part, where is light totally excluded.
4. Frank Lloyd Wright is known for his original highly methods of blending buildings with
their surroundings.
5. To grow well, a tree must be well suited to the area where is it planted.
Lesson 15

Errors with Redundancy

Redundancy is the unnecessary repetition of words. It can be caused by using two words
that are very close in meaning when one would be sufficient. For example:
to exit and go out
an important, significant idea
to drive carefully and cautiously
The use of an adjective with a noun that contains the meaning of that adjective is also
redundant. For example:
an incorrect mistake
a true fact
a famous celebrity
Some particles are unnecessarily used after verbs because the verb contains the meaning of
that particle. For example:
connect together
rise upward
advance forward
repeat again
Most aircraft are equipped with emergency devices that can transmit and send out distress
signals in case of an accident.
The best answer is C; the two verbs transmit and send out are so close in meaning that the
use of both is unnecessary.
Exercise 15
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. The chief main ingredients in soap are fats and chemicals called alkalis.
2. Most of the cities of the American West are separated apart from one another by vast,
relatively unpopulated expanses of mountains and deserts.


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3. The Gila monster is the single only poisonous lizard found in the United States.
4. A fundamental tendency of the process of industrialization is toward greater and greater
5. Around approximately ten percent of all solid wastes is glass.
Lesson 16

Errors with Conjunction

You may encounter errors with either correlative conjunctions or coordinate conjunction:
Errors with correlative conjunction: Correlative conjunctions are two-part conjunctions.
Errors almost always involve an incorrect combination of the two parts such as neither
. or or not only. and. Anytime you see a sentence containing correlative
conjunctions, you should be on the lookout for this type of error.
Correlative Conjunction
either or
neither nor
both and
not only but also
whether or
X-rays have important applications, not only in medicine and in industry.
The best answer is C; the correct pattern is not only but also.
Errors with coordinate conjunctions: The conjunction and is correctly used to show
addition; or is used to show choice; but is used to show contrast.
Brakes and clutches serve very different functions in an automobile, and their principles
operation are nearly the same.
The first clause discusses how brakes and clutches are different; the second clause
discusses how they are the same. Therefore, the conjunction joining them must show
contrast. Choice C should read but.
Exercise 16
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. Rust not only corrodes the surface of metal nor weakens its structure.


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2. Model airplanes can be guided both by control wires or by radio.

3. Although fish can hear, they have neither external ears or eardrums.
4. In all animals, whether simple and complex, enzymes aid in the digestion of food.
5. A work of science fiction generally uses scientific discoveries and advances technology,
either real or imaginary, as part of its plot.
Practice Test 2. Written Expression
1. One of the most important discovery of the nineteenth century was a method of using
natural gas for cooking and heating.
2. The Netherlands, a country with much of the land lying lower than sea level, have a
system of dikes and canals for controlling water.
3. Davy Crockett, a famed American Pioneer, was known for his hunting, trapping,
tell stories, and quick wit.
4. The movement of ocean waves can be compared to the waves caused by the wind in a
field or grass.
5. Milk, often considered a nearly perfect food, contains fat, sweet, and protein.
6. Only after they themselves become parents, do people realize the difficulties of raised
7. Aviators, fishing, and sailors are among those who rely on weather predictions.
8. Mohandas K. Gandhi, who was called Mahatma, lived a noble life of fasting and
poverty in order to work for peaceful and independence.
9. In the year 500, ancient Greece was reaching its highest level of civilization, with great
achievements in the fields of art, architecture, politic, and philosophy.
10. Khaki is a cloth made in linen or cotton and dyed a dusty color.
11. Soybean, which sometimes grow seven feet tall, have thick, woody stems.


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12. When settling the old west in pioneer times, American families building their homes
from split logs.
13. A Venus Flytrap is a small plant that have leaves that snap together like traps.
14. The Last of Mohicans are a famous book about frontier life by the American author
James Fenimore Cooper.
15. The Treaty of Ghent, signed in 1814, ends the last war between England and the
United States.
16. A fever, the elevations of body temperature above 98.6 F, is considered to be a
symptom of a disorder rather than a disease in itself.
17. Lacrosse is a ballgame played on a field outdoors similar soccer.
18. The manufactural of ice cream in the United States on a commercial scale began in
19. People with two family members which suffer heart attacks before fifty-five are likely
to have early heart attacks themselves.
20. Childrens games, which are amusement involve more than one individual, appear to
be a cultural universal.
21. During times of war, political groups will sometimes kidnap foreign diplomats and
keep them as hostages until the government meets certain demanding.
22. The first year of a childs life is characterized in rapid physical growth.
23. A fair trial is guarantee by the American Constitution.
24. Since ancient times, water from rivers and smaller streams are used for irrigation.
25. The symptom of leukemia include weakness, a general ill feeling, and fever.


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Strategies to raise your TOEFL reading score.
1. As with other sections of the TOEFL, be familiar with the directions and examples
so you can begin work immediately.
2. For each passsage, begin by briefly looking over the questions (but not the answer
choices). Try to keep these questions in mind during your reading.
3. Scan passages to find and highlight the important facts and information.
4. Read each passage at a comfortable speed.
5. Answer the questions, referring to the passage when necessary.
6. Eliminate answers that are clearly wrong or do not answer the question. If more
than one option remains, guess.
7. Mark difficult or time-consuming answers so that you can come back to them later
if you have time.
8. Timing is an important factor. Do not spend more than 10 minutes on any one
passage and the questions about it.
9. Concentration is another important factor. The reading section is one of the longer
sections of the test. Your practice and hard work will help you.
10. Relax the night before exam.
Other than the ten things above, there are also other strategies for Reading in TOEFL test.
You do not have to read all the passage/ text. You are not scored based on whether you
read the text, but you will be scored when you answer the questions correctly. Even though
you do not answer the questions or when you give the wrong answers, your score will not
be decreased. So, doing TOEFL test is actually a win-win action. Therefore, once again,
The reading section in TOEFL are represented by the 4 major form of questions as
mentioned below:
1. Detail/Fact (3-6 per set)
2. Negative facts (0-2 per set)
3. Inference/ Implication (0-2 per set)
4. Vocabulary (3-5 per set)
5. Author purpose (0-2per set)
6. Reference questions (0-2per set)
Question Types
1. Detail/Fact (3-6 per set)
a. According to the passage...
b. According to paragraph 1, why/what/which...
c. The author's description of ...mentions which of the following...
2. Negative Fact (0-2)
a. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT:
b. According to the passage which of the following is NOT...


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Factual and Negative Factual questions ask about specific details and facts that are often
provided in a single line of text. Sometimes you will be directed to the paragraph that
contains the answer.
3. Inference/Implication (0-2)
a. Which of the following can be inferred about ...
b. In paragraph 3, the author implies...
You will have to make connections and assumptions to answer this style of question.
Unlike factual questions, answers will not often be found in a single line of text.
4. Vocabulary (3-5)
a. The paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to...
b. When the author says ... is....she means...
The meaning of the term is often understood by reading the surrounding text. You will not
be asked to define vocabulary that is uncommon, subject related, or cannot be understood
in context.
5. Author purpose (0-2)
a. In paragraph 5, why does the author discuss...
b. The author an example of...
These questions ask you to do things such as figure out reasons why certain topics are
discussed or certain examples are provided. Again you will be asked to make assumptions.
6. Reference questions (0-2)
a. The word ... in paragraph 3 refers to...
These questions generally ask you to identify a noun or phrase that a pronoun is referring
Read the following passage. Then answer the questions and check your answers.
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short
amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term
memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only
allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the
working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most
accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that
humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a
meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number.
Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by
chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing information, one can
optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term

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When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam,
many people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again, one
is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only
succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information,
it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt
to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to
come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the
number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from
the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". This
involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along
with other pre-existing long term memories.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information
can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in
the long term memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may
eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures),
the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used
for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
semantic: relating to the meaning of something
1. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A) They revert from the long term memory.
B) They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C) They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D) They enter via the nervous system.
Choice A is the opposite of what happens.
Choice C is what a person should try to do when memorizing something.
Choice D is not mentioned.
The correct answer is B. This is a factual question.
2. The word elapses in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A) passes
B) adds up
C) appears
D) continues
The correct answer is A. This is a vocabulary question.
3. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the:
B) long term memory
C) sensory storage area
D) maintenance area
Choice A is mentioned in the first paragraph.
Choice B is mentioned in the second paragraph.

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Choice C is mentioned in the first paragraph.

The correct answer is D. This is a negative factual question.
4. Why does the author mention a dog's bark?
A) To give an example of a type of memory
B) To provide a type of interruption
C) To prove that dogs have better memories than humans
D) To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell
Choice A is incorrect because it is not the "reason" the author mentions it.
Choice C is not mentioned.
Choice D distracts you because both are mentioned as examples.
The correct answer is B. This is an author purpose question.
5. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A) By organizing it
B) By repeating it
C) By giving it a name
D) By drawing it
Choice B is what regular people think is true.
Choice C is not mentioned.
Choice D is a type of cue for retrieval.
The correct answer is A. This is a factual question.
6. The author believes that rote rotation is:
A) the best way to remember something
B) more efficient than chunking
C) ineffective in the long run
D) an unnecessary interruption
Choice A is contradicted by "not an efficient way".
Choice B is incorrect because these two terms are not compared.
Choice D is illogical.
The correct answer is C. This is a factual question.
7. The word it in the last paragraph refers to:
A) encoding
C) semantics
D) information
The correct answer is D. This is a reference question.
8. The word elaborate in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A) complex
B) efficient
C) pretty
D) regular
The correct answer is A. This is a vocabulary question.


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9. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?

A) The working memory is the same as the short term memory.
B) A memory is kept alive through constant repetition.
C) Cues help people to recognize information.
D) Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.
Choice A is mentioned in paragraph one.
Choice B is mentioned in paragraph three (though an interruption will destroy it).
Choice C is mentioned in the last paragraph.
The correct answer is D. This is a negative factual question.
10. The word cues in the passage is closest in meaning to
A) questions
B) clues
C) images
D) tests
The correct answer is B. This is a vocabulary question.
Read the following passages. Then answer the questions and check your answers.
Most of the fastening devices used in clothing today, like the shoelace, the button, and the
safely pin, have existed in some form in various cultures for thousands of years. But the
zipper was the brainchild of one American inventor, namely Whitcomb Judson of Chicago.
At the end of the 19th century, Judson was already a successful inventor, with a dozen
patents to his credit for mechanical items such as improvements to motors and railroad
braking systems.
He then turned his mind to creation a replacement for the lengthy shoelaces which were
then used in both men's and women's boots. On August 29th 1893, he won another patent,
for what he called the "clasp-locker". Though the prototype was somewhat clumsy, and
frequently jammed, it did work: in fact, Judson and his business associate Lewis Walker
had sewn the device into their own boots. Although Judson displayed his clasp-locker at
the World's Fair held in Chicago in 1893, the public largely ignored it. The company
founded by Judson and Walker, Universal Fastener, despite further refinements, never
really succeeded in marketing the device.
The earliest zip fasteners were being used in the apparel industry by 1905, but it was only
in 1913, after a Swedish-American engineer, Gideon Sundbach, had remodeled Judson's
fastener into a more streamlined and reliable form, that the zipper was a success. The US
Army applied zippers to the clothing and gear of the troops of World War. By the late
1920s, zippers could be found in all kinds of clothing, footwear, and carrying cases; by the
mid-1930s, zippers had even been embraced by the fashion industry.
The term "zipper" was coined as onomatopoeia ( resembling the sound it makes ) by B. F.
Goodrich, whose company started marketing galoshes featuring the fastener in 1923.
Regrettably, Whitcomb Judson died in 1909, and never heard the term, or saw the success
by which his invention would become ubiquitous.


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1. The zipper differs from the other three fastening devices mentioned in paragraph 1 in
which way?
(a) it has been used in many more ways
(b) it is more recent
(c) it can be used in place of the other three
(d) it is usually made from different materials
2. The word prototype in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(a) device
(b) design
(c) model
(d) original
3. What is the authors main point in the second paragraph?
(a) despite being a successful inventor, Judson failed with the clasp-locker
(b) Judson lacked marketing skills
(c) Judson was a poor businessman
(d) Although Judson invented a workable product, it did not appeal to the public
4. The word it in line 11 refers to
(a) Judson
(b) Clasp-locker
(c) Worlds Fair
(d) The public
5. The word refinements in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(a) improvements
(b) changes
(c) promotion
(d) additions
6. According to the passage, zippers did not really become a success until
(a) they were used in the apparel industry after 1905
(b) in 1913 after being remodeled
(c) the Army used them in World War I
(d) be the late 1920s
7. The word gear in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(a) boots
(b) luggage
(c) equipment
(d) tents
8. According to the passage, by the late 1920s zippers could be found in all of the
following industries EXCEPT
(a) footwear
(b) luggage
(c) tents
(d) fashion


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9. The word embraced in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(a) welcomed
(b) considered
(c) discarded
(d) promoted
10. According to the passage, the zipper got its name
(a) when used in clothing
(b) in 1909
(c) from Judson
(d) because of its sound
11. Which of the following descriptions best describes the authors last comments about
(a) admire
(b) sad
(c) envy
(d) celebrate
12. Which of the following statements can best be inferred from the passage about zippers?
(a) the imaginative name was a major factor in its success
(b) a successful model had been developed commercially before Sundbachs version
because it was used in the apparel industry by 1905
(c) Judson was an inventor, not a business man
(d) If Judson had still been alive by World War I his company would have been more
Meanwhile, in July 1885, the musicians of the Boston Symphony Orchestra had given their
first "Promenade " , concert, offering both music and refreshments. This fulfilled Major
Higginson's wish to give "concerts of a lighter kind of music." These concerts, soon to be
given in the springtime and renamed, first "Popular " and then "Pops" , fast became a
tradition. Recording, began with the Victor Talking Maching Company ( predecessor to
RCA Victor ) in 1917, and continued with increasing frequency, as did radio broadcasts.
In 1918 Henri Rabaud was engaged as conductor; he was succeeded a year later by Pierre
Monteux. There appointments marked the beginning of a French-oriented tradition which
was maintained, even during the Russian-born Serge Koussevitzky's time from 1924, with
the employment of many French-trained musicians. Koussevitzky's extraordinary
musicianship and electric personality proved so enduring that he served an unprecedented
term of twenty-five years. Regular radio broadcasts of Boston Symphony concerts began
during Koussevitzky's years as music director. In 1936 Koussevitzky led the orchestra's
first concerts in the Berkshires; a year later he and the players took up annual summer
residence at Tanglewood. Koussevitzky passionately shared Majoy Higginson's dream of "
a good honest school for musicians, " and in 1940 that dream was realized with the
founding of the Berkshire Music Center ( now called the Tanglewood Music Center).


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13. In the first paragraph, Henry Lee Higginson is described as

(a) an amateur conductor
(b) a war historian
(c) a visionary
(d) a philanthropist
14. The word inaugural in line 1 is closet in meaning to
(a) demonstration
(b) practice
(c) first
(d) official
15. The word legendary in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(a) notorious
(b) fabulous
(c) lengthlly
(d) talented
16. According to the passage, the first promenade concert was
(a) conducted by Georg Henschel
(b) held in Symphony Hall
(c) held in the springtime
(d) held with refreshments
17. The word did in line 15 refers to
(a) recording
(b) began
(c) continued
(d) radio broadcasts
18. The word unprecedented in line 20 is closest in meaning to
(a) unique
(b) remarkable
(c) important
(d) continuous
19. Which of the following musical directors served the longest?
(a) Georg Henschel
(b) Serge Koussevitsky
(c) Karl Muck
(d) Pierre Monteux
20. What did Koussevitsky and Higginson have in common?
(a) they were both conductors
(b) they both served as musical directors for a long time
(c) neither was American born
(d) they both wanted a school for musicians


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Ancient people probably assembled the massive sandstone horseshoe at Stonehenge more
than 4,600 years ago, while the smaller bluestones were imported from Wales later, a new
study suggests. The conclusion, detailed in the December issue of the journal Antiquity,
challenges earlier timelines that proposed the smaller stones were raised first. "The
sequence proposed for the site is really the wrong way around," said study co-author
Timothy Darvill, an archaeologist at Bournemouth University in England. "The original
idea that it starts small and gets bigger is wrong. It starts big and stays big. The new
scheme puts the big stones at the center at the site as the first stage."
The new timeline, which relies on statistical methods to tighten the dates when the stones
were put into place, overturns the notion that ancient societies spent hundreds of years
building each area of Stonehenge. Instead, a few generations likely built each of the major
elements of the site, said Robert Ixer, a researcher who discovered the origin of the
bluestones, but who was not involved in the study. "It's a very timely paper and a very
important paper," Ixer said. "A lot of us have got to go back and rethink when the stones
arrived." Mysterious monument The Wiltshire, England, site of Stonehenge is one of the
world's most enduring mysteries. No one knows why prehistoric people built the enigmatic
megaliths, although researchers over the years have argued the site was originally a sun
calendar, a symbol of unity, or a burial monument.
Though only some of the stones remain, at the center of the site once sat an oval of
bluestones, or igneous rocks (those formed from magma) that turn a bluish hue when wet
or freshly cut. Surrounding the bluestones are five giant sandstone megaliths called
trilithons, or two vertical standing slabs capped by a horizontal stone, arranged in the shape
of a horseshoe. Around the horseshoe, ancient builders erected a circular ring of
bluestones. The sandstone boulders, or sarsens, can weigh up to 40 tons (36,287
kilograms), while the much smaller bluestones weigh a mere 4 tons (3,628 kg).
Past researchers believed the bluestone oval and circle were erected earlier than the
massive sandstone horseshoe. But when Darvill and his colleagues began excavations at
the site in 2008, they found the previous chronology didn't add up. The team estimated the
age of new artifacts from the site, such as an antler bone pick stuck within the stones.
Combining the new information with dating from past excavations, the team created a new
timeline for Stonehenge's construction. Like past researchers, the team believes that
ancient people first used the site 5,000 years ago, when they dug a circular ditch and
mound, or henge, about 361 feet (110 meters) in diameter.
But the new analysis suggests around 2600 B.C. the Neolithic people built the giant
sandstone horseshoe, drawing the stone from nearby quarries. Only then did builders
arrange the much smaller bluestones, which were probably imported from Wales. Those
bluestones were then rearranged at various positions throughout the site over the next
millennium, Darvill said. "They sort out the local stuff first, and then they bring in the
stones from Wales to add to the complexity of the structure," Darvill told LiveScience.
The new dating allows the archaeologists to tie the structure to specific people who lived in
the area at the time, Darvill said. The builders of the larger sandstone structures were pig
farmers found only in the British Isles. In contrast, the bluestone builders would've been
the Beaker people, sheep and cow herders who lived throughout Europe and are known for
the distinctive, bell-shape pottery they left behind. The new timeline "connects everything


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together, it gives us a good sequence of events outside, and it gives us a set of cultural
associations with the different stages of construction," Darvill said.
21. The new study described in this article suggests which sequence of events for the
building of Stonehenge?
a) The bluestones were arranged in the horseshoe configuration and then accented with the
larger stones
b) Ancient peoples first arranged the small bluestone configuration and later ringed it with
large, imported granite slabs
c) The sandstone horseshoe was developed first, thousands of years ago, and the smaller
bluestones were imported later from Wales
d) All the stones were brought in at the same time and slowly arranged over centuries
22. Which type of methodology does the new study rely on to discern Stonehenge's
a) Mineralogy
b) Statistical analysis
c) Carbon dating
d) DNA analysis
23. According
a) 38 tons
b) 42 tons
c) 56 tons
d) 41 tons









24. Until the study that is discussed in the article, what was the accepted sequence of
Stonehenge's construction?
a) Bluestone horseshoe, then sandstone oval
b) Bluestone diamond, then sandstone square
c) Bluestone square, then sandstone circle
d) Bluestone oval, then sandstone horseshoe
25. None of the following were known artifacts in constructing the new Stonehenge
timeline EXCEPT
a) Arrowheads of the nearby civilizations
b) Skeletons of ancient peoples
c) An antler bone wedged between stones
d) Stone eroded clearly enough to be dated
26. It is agreed between old and new studies that Stonehenge was first used by
a) 5,000 years ago
b) 6,000 years ago
c) 7,000 years ago
d) 8,000 years ago


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27. The later bluestones, believed to be imported from Wales,

a) Were originally arranged to outline the horseshoe shape of the sandstone boulders
b) Were arranged over the course of a millennium
c) Were actually recovered from local quarries
d) Were settled in their pattern within a year
28. According to Darvill, what effect did the bluestones have upon Stonehenge
a) They allowed the dimensions of Stonehenge to be more aesthetically pleasing
b) They provided an added complexity to the structure by using foreign material
c) They represented strong cultural ties with the Welsh culture
d) They were symbols of conquest of foreign lands
29. According to Daville, what is the most important piece of knowledge obtained from
this new timeline?
a) That sandstone and bluestone were both native to the region
b) That Stonehenge became the model for future Scottish architecture
c) That the original peoples who built Stonehenge were wealthy enough to acquire rare
d) That the original builders of Stonehenge were different types of animal herders
30. What is the conclusion that Darville draws in the quote in the final paragraph?
a) Stonehenge remains an inspiration for modern artists and architects
b) The mysteries of Stonehenge are entirely clarified by the new research and timeline
c) Previous timelines for Stonehenge may have given us a flawed interpretation of the
civilizations and materials they had access to at the time
d) Stonehenge was really a foreign project, made from materials outside of the country,
and influenced by civilizations other than those who lived locally
Language diversity has always been part of the national demographic landscape of the
United States. At the time of the first census in 1790, about 25% of the population spoke
languages other than English (Lepore, 2002). Thus, there was a diverse pool of native
speakers of other languages at the time of the founding of the republic. Today, nationwide,
school districts have reported more than 400 languages spoken by language-minority
students classified as limited English proficient (LEP) students (Kindler, 2002). Between
1991 and 2002, total K-12 student enrollment rose only 12%, whereas LEP student
enrollment increased 95% during this same time period (National Clearinghouse for
English Language Acquisition, 2002b). This rapid increase and changing demographics
has intensified the long debate over the best way to educate language-minority students.
Historically, many groups attempted to maintain their native languages even as they
learned English, and for a time, some were able to do so with relatively little resistance
until a wave of xenophobia swept the country during World War 1 (Kloss, 1977/1998).
Other groups, Africans, and Native Americans encountered repressive politics much
earlier. During the 1960s, a more tolerant policy climate emerged. However, for the past
two decades there has been a steady undertow of resistance to bilingualism and bilingual
education. This article provides historical background and analyzes contemporary trends in
language-minority education within the context of the recent national push for
accountability, which typically takes the form of high-stakes testing.


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The origins of persistent themes regarding the popular antagonisms toward bilingual
education and the prescribed panaceas of "English immersion" and high-stakes testing in
English need to be scrutinized. As background to the contemporary context, we briefly
discuss the history of language politics in the United States and the ideological
underpinnings of the dominant monolingual English ideology. We analyze the recent
attacks on bilingual education for what this attack represents for educational policy within
a multilingual society such as the United States. We emphasize multilingual because most
discussions of language policy are framed as if monolingualism were part of our heritage
from which we are now drifting. Framing the language policy issues in this way masks
both the historical and contemporary reality and positions non-English language diversity
as an abnormality that must be cured. Contrary to the steady flow of disinformation, we
begin with the premise that even as English has historically been the dominant language in
the United States since the colonial era, language diversity has always been a fact of life.
Thus, efforts to deny that reality represent a "malady of mind" (Blaut, 1993) that has
resulted in either restrictionist or repressive language policies for minorities.
As more states ponder imposing restrictions on languages of instruction other than Englishas California, Arizona, and Massachusetts have recently done-it is useful to highlight
several questions related to the history of language politics and language planning in the
United States. Educational language planning is frequently portrayed as an attempt to solve
the language problems of the minority. Nevertheless, the historical record indicates that
schools have generally failed to meet the needs of language-minority students (Deschenes,
Cuban, & Tyack, 2001) and that the endeavor to plan language behavior by forcing a rapid
shift to English has often been a source of language problems that has resulted in the denial
of language rights and hindered linguistic access to educational, social, economic, and
political benefits even as the promoters of English immersion claim the opposite.
The dominance of English was established under the British during the colonial period, not
by official decree but through language status achievement, that is, through "the
legitimization of a government's decisions regarding acceptable language for those who are
to carry out the political, economic, and social affairs of the political process" (Heath,
1976, p.51). English achieved dominance as a result of the political and socioeconomic
trade between England and colonial administrators, colonists, and traders. Other languages
coexisted with English in the colonies with notable exceptions. Enslaved Africans were
prohibited from using their native tongues for fear that it would facilitate resistance or
rebellion. From the 1740s forward, southern colonies simultaneously institutionalized
"compulsory ignorance" laws that prohibited those enslaved from acquiring English
literacy for similar reasons. These restrictive slave codes were carried forward as the
former southern colonies became states of the newly United States and remained in force
until the end of the Civil War in 1865 (Weinberg, 1977/1995). Thus, the very first formal
language policies were restrictive with the explicit purpose of promoting social control.
31. What is the primary purpose of including the statistic from the 1790 census in the
introductory paragraph?
a) To explain how colonizing the US eradicated language diversity
b) To show concrete evidence that language diversity in the US is not a new phenomenon
c) To note that before that time, there was no measure of language diversity in the US
d) To demonstrate that census data can be inaccurate


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32. The article compares two sets of statistics from the years 1991-2002, increases in K-12
enrollment and increases in LEP students, to highlight.
a) That the two numbers, while often cited in research, are insignificant
b) That while many people with school-age children immigrated to the US during this
time, an equal amount left the country as well
c) That language diversity had no impact on US student enrollment during this time
d) That while the total amount of students enrolled in US schools may have grown slowly,
the amount of those students who were LEP increased dramatically
33. According to the second paragraph, many groups maintained their native languages
without resistance into the 20th century EXCEPT
a) Native Americans and African Americans
b) Irish Americans and African Americans
c) Mexican Americans and Native Americas
d) Native Americans and Dutch Americans
34. Why is the word "undertow" emphasized in the second paragraph?
a) To explain how certain groups continued to carry their native languages with them
despite the opposition from those against language diversity
b) To show the secretive and sneaky nature of those opposed to language diversity
c) To call attention to the ebb and flow of language resistance during the 20th century,
experiencing periods of both rest and extremism
d) To explain that, while many groups tried to maintain their native languages, many
gave in to social and political pressure to use only English
35. What is the best way to describe the function of the third paragraph in this excerpt?.
a) The paragraph provides its primary thesis as well an outline of the article's main points
b) The paragraph is an unnecessary and irrelevant inclusion
c) The paragraph serves to reveal the conclusions of the article before detailing the data
d) The paragraph firmly establishes the article's stance against language diversity
36. What is the best summary of why the phrase "multilingualism" is emphasized in the
third paragraph?
a) Language repression stems from the US's unwillingness to recognize the languages of its
foreign allies
b) Because language is constantly changing and often goes through multiple phases over
c) The authors firmly believe that speaking more than one language gives students a
substantial benefit in higher education.
d) Language policy discussions often assumes that the US has a monolinguistic history,
which is untrue and poses language diversity as threatening
37. Phrases such as "prescribed panaceas" and "malady of the mind" are used in the third
paragraph to
a) Defend the point that the US must standardize its language education or there will be
severe results
b) Point out that language is as much a physical process as an intellectual one
c) Illustrate how certain opponents of language diversity equate multilingual education
with a kind of national disease

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d) Demonstrate how the stress of learning multiple languages can make students ill
38. According to the fourth paragraph, all of the following are potential negatives of rapid
English immersion EXCEPT:
a) It can lead to a denial of language rights for particular groups
b) Students become more familiar with conversational expressions and dialect
c) It can prevent access to certain benefits that are always available to fluent speakers
d) It can promote feelings of alienation among groups that are already in a minority status
39. The best alternate definition of "language status achievement" is
a) When enough scholarly work has been produced in a language, it is officially
b) Those who are in power socially and economically determine the status of a language
c) Languages fall into a hierarchy depending upon the numbers of populations that speak
d) The position of a language in which no others may coexist with it
40. From the context of the final paragraph, what does "compulsory ignorance" mean?
a) Populations at the time were required only to obtain a certain low level of education
b) Slave populations were compelled to only speak in their native languages and not learn
c) That slaves were forcibly prevented from developing their native language skills out of
fear that they would gain power
d) Slave owners would not punish slaves who did not wish to learn and speak only English
When people learn to play video games, they are learning a new literacy. Of course, this is
not the way the word "literacy" is normally used. Traditionally, people think of literacy as
the ability to read and write. Why, then, should we think of literacy more broadly, in regard
to video games or anything else, for that matter? There are two reasons.
First, in the modern world, language is not the only important communicational system.
Today images, symbols, graphs, diagrams, artifacts, and many other visual symbols are
particularly significant. Thus, the idea of different types of "visual literacy" would seem to
be an important one. For example, being able to "read" the images in advertising is one
type of visual literacy. And, of course, there are different ways to read such images, ways
that are more or less aligned with the intentions and interests of the advertisers. Knowing
how to read interior designs in homes, modernist art in museums, and videos on MTV are
other forms of visual literacy.
Furthermore, very often today words and images of various sorts are juxtaposed and
integrated in a variety of ways. In newspaper and magazines as well as in textbooks,
images take up more and more of the space alongside words. In fact, in many modern high
school and college textbooks in the sciences images not only take up more space, they now
carry meanings that are independent of the words in the text. If you can't read these images,
you will not be able to recover their meanings from the words in the text as was more usual
in the past. In such multimodal texts (texts that mix words and images), the images often
communicate different things from the words. And the combination of the two modes
communicates things that neither of the modes does separately. Thus, the idea of different
sorts of multimodal literacy seems an important one. Both modes and multimodality go far


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beyond images and words to include sounds, music, movement, bodily sensations, and
None of this news today, of course. We very obviously live in a world awash with images.
It is our first answer to the question why we should think of literacy more broadly. The
second answer is this: Even though reading and writing seem so central to what literacy
means traditionally, reading and writing are not such general and obvious matters as they
might at first seem. After all, we never just read or write; rather, we always read or
write something in some way.
There are many different ways of reading and writing. We don't read or write newspapers,
legal tracts, essays in literary criticism, poetry, rap songs, and on through a nearly endless
list in the same way. Each of these domains has its own rules and requirements. Each is a
culturally and historically separate way of reading and writing, and, in that sense, a
different literacy. Furthermore, in each case, if we want to "break the rules" and read
against the grain of the text-for the purposes of critique, for instance-we have to do so in
different ways, usually with some relatively deep knowledge of how to read such texts
"according to the rules."
So there are different ways to read different types of texts. Literacy is multiple, then, in the
sense that the legal literacy needed for reading law books is not the same as the literacy
needed for reading physics texts or superhero comic books. And we should not be too
quick to dismiss the latter form of literacy. Many a superhero comic is replete with postFreudian irony of a sort that would make a modern literary critic's heart beat fast and
confuse any otherwise normal adult. Literacy, then, even as traditionally conceived to
involve only print, is not a unitary thing but a multiple matter. There are, even in regard to
printed texts and even leaving aside images and multimodal texts, different "literacies."
Once we see this multiplicity of literacy (literacies), we realize that when we think about
reading and writing, we have to think beyond print. Reading and writing in any domain,
whether it is law, rap songs, academic essays, superhero comics, or whatever, are not just
ways of decoding print, they are also caught up with and in social practices... Video games
are a new form of art. They will not replace books; they will sit beside them, interact with
them, and change them and their role in society in various ways, as, indeed, they are
already doing strongly with movies. (Today many movies are based on video games and
many more are influenced by them.) We have no idea yet how people "read" video games,
what meanings they make from them. Still less do we know how they will "read" them in
the future.
41. According to the first paragraph, the broadest definition of "literacy" is
A) The ability to analyze literature
B)The ability comprehend basic cultural cues
C)The ability to read and write
D)The ability to compose poetry
42. All are mentioned as being types of "visual literacy" EXCEPT
A) Musical tones
B) Interior Design
C) Diagrams
D)Modern Art

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43. An example from a science textbook of the phenomenon the author describes in the
third paragraph could be
A) A genetic tree that coincides with the discussion of specific mammal classes in the text
B) A diagram of a specific chemical reaction that is used to explain a broad definition in
the text
C) An illustration of a plant cycle that accompanies a chapter on photosynthesis
D) A cartoon that references the same methods discussed in the text about laboratory safety
44. What is an example of a "multimodal" text?
A) A dictionary
B) A movie script
C) A photo album
D) An art book that describes the art as well as reproduces images of the original prints
45. The idiom in the sixth paragraph, "read against the grain of the text" is closest in
meaning to
A) Reading to understand the underlying meanings and themes of the author's words-not
just a literal interpretation
B) Reading text that defines different types of wheat and grains
C) To read the text from right to left rather than left to right
D) To read books that use recycled paper and other green alternatives
46. In the seventh paragraph, the author suggests that literacy is multiple, meaning that
A) To be "literate" can mean participating in any form of expression
B) One's literacy increases exponentially as greater mastery of reading and writing is
C) Different genres and modes of expression require different background knowledge and
perspectives to understand them
D) Literacy can only be gained by exploring every type of media and expression
47. Why does the author give the example of superhero comics to explain multiple
A) To explain that comic books are written for children and purely for entertainment. They
require only a basic knowledge of the action that occurs in the story
B) To once again refer to his earlier points about "multimodal" texts
C) To insist that even when an author may intend multiple meanings and interpretations,
they are rarely successful in conveying those to readers
D) Things that may seem on the surface to be only meant for a particular group of people
can actually have very profound meanings to those who possess other types of literacy
48. The author suggests that all of the following require different types of literacy and the
ability to decode meaning EXCEPT
A) Rap music
B) Comic books
C) Academic papers
D) Symphonies


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49. The author says that video games

A) Are not yet entirely understood in terms of literacy, but are already impacting other
forms of expression such as filmmaking
B) Are unrealistic and should not fall into the same categories as the other texts he
C) Are too violent to risk experimenting with for the purposes of understanding literacy
D) Are irrelevant in academic discussion because no one has yet determined how to
explain the ways that people understand them
50. What would be the most logical information for the next paragraph to contain if the
article continued?
A) A technological definition of video games, how they are made, and how they are played
B) A historical explanation of the very first video game and its evolution
C) Examples of the way that some people currently interpret video games and what they
mean to them
D) A price comparison of video game consoles and whether or not quality has a direct
impact on literacy
Deep in the Sierra Nevada, the famous General Grant giant sequoia tree is suffering its loss
of stature in silence. What once was the world's No. 2 biggest tree has been supplanted
thanks to the most comprehensive measurements taken of the largest living things on
The new No. 2 is The President, a 54,000-cubic-foot gargantuan not far from the Grant in
Sequoia National Park. After 3,240 years, the giant sequoia still is growing wider at a
consistent rate, which may be what most surprised the scientists examining how the
sequoias and coastal redwoods will be affected by climate change and whether these trees
have a role to play in combating it. "I consider it to be the greatest tree in all of the
mountains of the world," said Stephen Sillett, a redwood researcher whose team from
Humboldt State University is seeking to mathematically assess the potential of California's
iconic trees to absorb planet-warming carbon dioxide.
The researchers are a part of the 10-year Redwoods and Climate Change Initiative funded
by the Save the Redwoods League in San Francisco. The measurements of The President,
reported in the current National Geographic, dispelled the previous notion that the big trees
grow more slowly in old age. It means, the experts say, the amount of carbon dioxide they
absorb during photosynthesis continues to increase over their lifetimes. In addition to
painstaking measurements of every branch and twig, the team took 15 half-centimeterwide core samples of The President to determine its growth rate, which they learned was
stunted in the abnormally cold year of 1580 when temperatures in the Sierra hovered near
freezing even in the summer and the trees remained dormant. But that was an anomaly,
Sillett said. The President adds about one cubic meter of wood a year during its short sixmonth growing season, making it one of the fastest-growing trees in the world. Its 2 billion
leaves are thought to be the most of any tree on the planet, which would also make it one
of the most efficient at transforming carbon dioxide into nourishing sugars during
photosynthesis. "We're not going to save the world with any one strategy, but part of the
value of these great trees is this contribution and we're trying to get a handle on the math
behind that," Sillett said.


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After the equivalent of 32 working days dangling from ropes in The President, Sillett's
team is closer to having a mathematical equation to determine its carbon conversion
potential, as it has done with some less famous coastal redwoods. The team has analyzed a
representative sample that can be used to model the capacity of the state's signature trees.
More immediately, however, the new measurements could lead to a changing of the guard
in the land of giant sequoias. The park would have to update signs and brochures - and
someone is going to have to correct the Wikipedia entry for "List of largest giant
sequoias," which still has The President at No. 3.
Now at 93 feet in circumference and with 45,000 cubic feet of trunk volume and another
9,000 cubic feet in its branches, the tree named for President Warren G. Harding is about
15 percent larger than Grant, also known as America's Christmas Tree. Sliced into one-foot
by one-foot cubes, The President would cover a football field. Giant sequoias grow so big
and for so long because their wood is resistant to the pests and disease that dwarf the
lifespan of other trees, and their thick bark makes them impervious to fast-moving fire. It's
that resiliency that makes sequoias and their taller coastal redwood cousin worthy of
intensive protections - and even candidates for cultivation to pull carbon from an
increasingly warming atmosphere, Sillett said. Unlike white firs, which easily die and
decay to send decomposing carbon back into the air, rot-resistant redwoods stay solid for
hundreds of years after they fall.
Though sequoias are native to California, early settlers traveled with seedlings back to the
British Isles and New Zealand, where a 15-foot diameter sequoia that is the world's biggest
planted tree took root in 1850. Part of Sillett's studies involves modeling the potential
growth rate of cultivated sequoia forests to determine over time how much carbon
sequestering might increase.
All of that led him to a spot 7,000 feet high in the Sierra and to The President, which he
calls "the ultimate example of a giant sequoia." Compared to the other giants whose
silhouettes are bedraggled by lightning strikes, The President's crown is large with burly
branches that are themselves as large as tree trunks. The world's biggest tree is still the
nearby General Sherman with about 2,000 cubic feet more volume than the President, but
to Sillett it's not a contest.
"They're all superlative in their own way," Sillett said.
51. The word "supplanted" in paragraph 1
A) inquisitive
B) Has a double-meaning both as a pun on the topic of plants and a literal meaning of "to
C) Is a synonym for "to plant again"
D) Has the same meaning as "to plant," with extra emphasis
52. One common myth about trees that The President helps disprove is
A) That giant sequoias are more resilient than other tree species
B) That old trees are as productive at photosynthesis as younger ones
C) That only giant sequoias may be named after historical figures
D) That large trees grow more slowly as they age


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53. What is the primary benefit that Sillett and other researchers suggest that giant sequoias
may have?
A) Their natural beauty can have health benefits for those who travel to wildlife preserves
to see them
B) They represent centuries of natural history that no other living things do
C) Because of their size, they are able to process more carbon dioxide than other trees,
which can have significant benefits for the atmosphere
D) Their resilient bark may have eventual uses in human medicine.
54. The giant sequoias are compared to white firs to demonstrate that?
A) Even when the sequoias fall, they do not decay and so send less carbon into the air
B) White firs are more plentiful because they grow and decay more quickly than sequoias
C) The giant sequoias are completely resistant to death
D) White firs are essential because when they decompose they emit necessary nutrients
55. The President has grown every year EXCEPT
A) 1850
B) 2012
C) 1580
D) The President has grown every year of its life
56. All of the following contribute to the lifespan of the giant sequoia EXCEPT
A) They are resistant to diseases that can affect other tree species
B) Their size makes them less vulnerable to animal attacks
C) They are resistant to pests that commonly inhabit trees
D) Their thick bark protects them from wildfires.
57. The term "changing of the guard" in Paragraph 10 means
A) The size rankings of various large sequoias is being reevaluated
B) Human security will be employed to protect these valuable trees
C) Wildlife parks will bring in new equipment to ensure the safety of the trees
D) A new schedule of shifts will be made for studying the trees
58. What does the term "cultivated sequoia forests" in Paragraph 14 imply?
A) Current sequoia reserves will be altered to grow in particular patterns
B) That sequoias may be specially grown in the future for the sole purpose of filtering
carbon from the air
C) New forests may be grown globally to promote the beauty of the species
D) Wildlife parks will make more of an effort in the future to direct visitors to the sequoia
59. Giant sequoias are native to California, but can also be found in
A) New Zealand
B) France
C) South America
D) Australia


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60. In the final sentence, the word "superlative" is closest in meaning to

A) Best of a species
B) Most beautiful
C) The winner of a contest
D) Having individual, unique merit
Subtle changes in the way a person walks can be an early warning sign of cognitive decline
and a signal for advanced testing, according to research out at the Alzheimer's Association
International Conference 2012. The findings are the first to link a physical symptom to
disease, which up until now, required doctors to begin a diagnosis by focusing on cognition
and administering lengthy neurological exams. The evidence in the five studies is "robust,"
say experts, adding walking changes can occur even before cognition decline surfaces. The
presentation on the opening day of the weeklong meetings follows a government plan
announced in May to help train doctors to detect the disease earlier and to find a cure by
2025. "Monitoring deterioration and other changes in a person's gait is ideal because it
doesn't require any expensive technology or take a lot of time to assess,'' says Bill Thies,
chief medical and scientific officer for the Alzheimer's Association.
The disease affects 5.4 million mostly older people in the USA, numbers expected to spike
to 16 million in 2050 as the Baby Boomers age. Nearly 5,000 researchers are attending the
meetings in Vancouver, where dozens of studies will address new treatments currently
being tested in trials and how lifestyle influences the disease. "Walking and movements
require a perfect and simultaneous integration of multiple areas of the brain,'' says Rodolfo
Savica, author of a study done at the Mayo Clinic in Rochester, Minn. Walking changes
occur because the disease interferes with the circuitry between these areas of brain. Savica
ruled out other diseases (Parkinson's, arthritis) as possible causes of gait change.
In the Mayo Clinic study, researchers measured the stride length, cadence and velocity of
more than 1,341 participants through a computerized gait instrument at two or more visits
roughly 15 months apart. They found that study participants with lower cadence, velocity
and length of stride experienced significantly larger declines in global cognition, memory
and executive function. "These changes support a possible role of gait changes as an early
predictor of cognitive impairment,'' Savica says. Another large study of 1,153 adults with a
mean age of 78 done by researchers at the Basel Mobility Center in Basel Switzerland
found gait became "slower and more variable as cognition decline progressed.'' Participants
were divided into groups based on their cognitive diagnoses: cognitively healthy, mild
cognitive impairment (MCI) or Alzheimer's dementia. Gait was measured using a walkway
with nearly 30,000 integrated sensors. "Those with Alzheimer's dementia walked slower
than those with MCI, who in turn walked slower that those who were cognitively healthy,''
says Stephanie Bridenbaugh, lead researcher.
Bridenbaugh says analysis of walking could also be used to show if treatments to treat the
disease are working. "At the annual wellness visit required by Medicare, a physician could
add a walking test to the checklist without adding a lot of extra time,'' says Thies. Yet, one
of the study's researchers said that one annual test wouldn't work with everyone. "You'd be
surprised how many people say to me 'He doesn't walk that well at home,' when I give
them a gait test in the office,'' says physician Lisa Silbert.


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Silbert conducted research on 19 dementia-free volunteers enrolled in the Intelligent

Systems for Assessment of Aging Changes study at Oregon Health and Science University
in Portland. They measured gait speed during MRIs and gait speeds at home. Participants
walked faster when measured once in person than when walking in their home. Slower inhome walking speed was associated with smaller total brain size. Dementias cause brain
shrinkage. "Walking speed taken at a single time point may overestimate the walking
abilities in the elderly,'' she says.
61. The word "robust" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A) durable
B) healthy
C) full-bodied
D) strong
62. According to paragraph 2, why is this new evidence about walking so important to
Alzheimer's researchers?
A) It demonstrates that walking longer distances may improve your chances of
B) disease
B) It could potentially be the earliest indication of potential Alzheimer's disease in
patients who show no other outward symptom
C) It could help prevent doctor liability in diagnosing these cases
D) It is something that could be observed and logged by family and friends
63. Why is the statistic in paragraph 4 about the potential spike in Alzheimer's patients
A) It shows that, because Alzheimer's primarily impacts older people, as largest generation
(the Baby Boomers) ages, the number of cases will likely rise dramatically
B) It suggests that if the next generation wants to be healthy, they must have their gait
tested now
C) It is of no real concern to the younger generation because Social Security will pay for
medical care
D) The lifestyle of older generations is significantly poorer than that of younger
64. The statement made in paragraph 5 implies all of the following EXCEPT
A) Movements require many complex interactions within the brain
B) Our movements and cognitive state could very well be closely linked
C) Movement may become impaired if any one brain activity is somehow altered
D) Our brains have no control over our walking or movements
65. In paragraph 7, the word "cadence" is closest in meaning to
A) musical beat
B) rhythm of steps
C) intonation
D) sequence of movement


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66. What is the most significant discovery of the Mayo Clinic study described in paragraph
A) Cadence, velocity, and length of stride are all independent variables that impact
cognitive function in different ways.
B) The slower the participant's walk, the greater their memory capacity
C) The pace of participant's walk demonstrated no correlation to brain activity
D) The ways in which the participants walked had a definitive relationship to cognitive
67. Which of the following is NOT a population or group studied in the experiments the
article discusses?
A) movement impaired
B) mild cognitive impairment (MCI)
C) cognitively health
D) Alzheimer's dementia
68. Throughout the article, "gait" is mostly often used to refer to
A) walking speed
B) the time it takes to transition from a walk to a run
C) a combination of cadence, length of stride, and velocity
D) the posture used while walking
69. What is the primary argument that the article makes AGAINST the link between gait
and cognitive decline?
A) Areas of the brain that control movement are completely separate from those with
cognitive function
B) Walking speed can change significantly depending upon the scenario and conditions
C) Dementia has no relationship to brain size
D) An annual test is too often to show significant changes over time
70. What best summarizes the overarching idea of the article?
A) The speed at which we walk and potential decline in cognitive function as we age is
clearly proven by the studies presented in the article
B) Whatever your current walking speed is, the better shape you are in and the faster you
become can both directly lower your chance of developing Alzheimer's
C) Annual gait tests are an expensive and ineffective test to add to Alzheimer's screenings
D) There is a definite probability that aspects of human gait and cognitive function are
related, but the evidence is far from definitive
The subatomic particle is better known to scientists as the Higgs boson. And after decades
of searches, it seems likely the elusive particle has been successfully detected inside an
underground tunnel experiment run by the European Organization for Nuclear Research
(CERN) outside Geneva. Results "consistent" with the hard-to-detect particle, in the words
of CERN chief Rolf Heuer as he announced the discovery July 4, may be the opening act
in explaining the structure of the sky over our heads.
A source of heartburn to serious science types now, the "God particle" nickname for the
Higgs boson comes from the title of a 1993 book by Nobel-prize winner Leon Lederman,
who was trying to play up the elusive nature of the particle.


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For a glimpse of one implication of this latest big news in science, climb aboard a time
machine, says physicist Jonathan Feng of the University of California-Irvine, and visit the
birth of the universe 13.7 billion years ago.
"Simply take the universe backwards, to an early time when the cosmos was a hot mass,
brand new, filled with particles that each weighed perhaps 500 times as much as a proton,"
says Feng (protons are positively charged subatomic particles inside atoms). "Now play the
film forward. Just let it go until it expands to fill with today's stars and galaxies, and what
you find is that it contains amounts of that particle that are just right to be 'dark matter'
filling the universe."
Terrific, you might say, but what's so wonderful about dark matter? Dark matter is
basically a bunch of stuff, likely exotic physics particles, that we can't really see (hence its
name) but we know is out there. Astronomers realized a few decades ago that galaxies
should be spinning faster than they are if the stars within them were the only things
providing the gravity that holds them together. So, their theories go, there must be
something - dark matter - slowing them down.
It turns out that stars are just the shiny hubcaps on each galaxy, outweighed by a factor of
nearly 6-to-1 by all the dark matter out there. Dark matter even pulls itself together through
gravity. For example, the journal Nature last week reported that a dark matter cloud
gravitationally connects two clusters of galaxies, called Abell 222 and Abell 223. This
cloudy filament stretches over 11 million light years between the clusters and weighs 98
trillion times as much as our sun.
That's a lot of dark matter. So is the Higgs boson this elusive dark matter particle (or
particles) then?
Nope. But it may be a key to dark matter, physicists say. The Higgs boson is the physics
particle that gives other particles their mass. Essentially it interacts with them to increase
their resistance to being moved faster, which we can measure as mass.
Because the Higgs boson's basic job is to interact with other physics particles to give them
mass, "the Higgs boson can interact with dark matter very easily," Caltech's Sean Carroll
explained on NPR's Science Friday show after the recent "God particle" announcement.
"Dark matter is one of the most exciting implications of this discovery," Carroll said.
How? That brings us back to Feng's rerun of the universe. "Having a particle out there
theoretically just a little heavier than the Higgs boson, which interacts with it, is waving a
red cape in front of the eyes of physicists," Feng says. "There is a lot more data coming
from CERN ahead that may reveal the dark matter particle."
Dark matter particles that theoretically could be detected at CERN's underground Large
Hadron Collider are envisioned by a theory called "focus point supersymmetry."
Supersymmetry theories predict that the already- discovered particles that comprise
everyday matter have much-heavier "super" counterparts awaiting detection (for example,
the already detected "quarks" inside protons would have an undetected super-partner called
"squarks").Focus point supersymmetry predicts both a Higgs boson with a weight similar
to the one reported on July 4, about 130 times as heavy as a proton, and dark matter

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"In fact, the simplest focus point models predict that dark matter particles should be seen
not long from now in the underground detectors that are searching for them," if the CERN
lab indeed found a Higgs boson, Feng says. "So there are really two predictions - dark
matter should be seen in underground detectors, and new particles should be seen at the
Large Hadron Collider in the next few years." Some of the new superpartner particles
theoretically weigh in the detectable range for the underground experiment.
Finding these new particles would crack the dark matter mystery and would indicate that
even heavier super- particles are out there, ones that someday could allow physicists to
explain gravity the same way they can explain electromagnetic and nuclear forces, a goal
of cosmologists for nearly a century.
"The simplest outcome is that we'll be totally wrong and it won't find anything," Feng says.
"But we are at a point in physics where we can talk about theories and experiments coming
together very closely thanks to what is now happening, and we couldn't do that for a long
time before ."
When do the next big results come from CERN that might offer more answers? Likely in
December. So, Feng says, physicists celebrated one holiday, July 4, with new particle
results and hopefully Christmas will bring them hints of new presents. "That would be
excellent, we couldn't ask for better gifts," he say
71. The word
A) commotion
B) public outrage
C) propaganda
D) insanity









72. What tone does the author demonstrate in paragraph 3 when he quotes scientists use of
"consistent" as a description for their experiments?
A) skepticism
B) awe
C) fear
D) utter belief
73. Why is the Higgs boson nicknamed the "God Particle"
A) Its potential power is so great it could have universal influence
B) It has been a subject of religious study
C) Proving its existence has been as elusive to scientists as proving the existence of god
D) It is believed that the particle has some mystical powers
74. What is the purpose of the time machine in the article?
A) To suggest that we will likely never know the true history of the particle until a working
time machine is invented
B) To demonstrate that we must understand the origins of the Higgs boson particle to
accurately understand its implications today
C) The particle does not have any viable evidence of existing before the galaxies were
D) The life of the particle can only be explained using a linear timeline

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75. According to the article, all are true of dark matter EXCEPT
A) Its gravitational force slows the spinning of galaxies
B) The ratio of dark matter to stars is 6 to 1
C) It is comprised most likely of physics particles, though it is invisible
D) Dark matter is named so because of its destructive, sinister force
76. What is the key function of the Higgs boson particle?
A) To increase the appearance of dark matter on scientific screening tools
B) To collide with other particles to produce energy
C) It proves the existence of god
D) It gives other particles measurable mass
77. In paragraph 14 the phrase "waving a red cape" is closest in meaning to
A) giving up
B) raising awareness among scientists
C) provoking conflict
D) encouraging scientists to avoid the topic
78. What is the most accurate definition for "focus point supersymmetry"?
A) The theory that particles all have a point of energy within them that is mirrored in
others of their kind
B) The theory that particles all have equal balance in their basic structures
C) The theory that particles that have already been discovered have heavier "super"
counterparts that are yet to be discovered still
D) The theory that particles can be merged at a particular point in their atomic makeup
79. The phrase "crack the dark matter mystery" in paragraph 17 is closest in meaning to
A) Put a definitive end to all theories involving dark matter
B) Disprove the theories around dark matter while proving other standing theories
C) Separate the theories around dark matter into more specific groupings
D) Solve a problem that has baffled scientists for a very long time
80. What is the most accurate summary for the article?
A) The discovery of Higgs boson is a notable step toward learning about dark matter, but it
is only one aspect of a larger mystery
B) Focus Point Supersymmetry is the most promising theory for understanding dark
C) While dark matter provides an interesting story, it is much more a myth than a
phenomenon rooted in actual scientific evidence
D) Higgs boson, the "God Particle," and dark matter are all significant threats to world


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