SPM Questions 2018 PDF

SOALAN ULANGKAJI SPM 2018 1
Tips
[1103/1]
[1103/2] Bahasa Melayu
TIPS UNTUK MENDAPATKAN MARKAH YANG BAIK DALAM BAHAGIAN A.
KERTAS 1 BAHAGIAN A
1. Calon perlu menjawab mengikut arahan soalan. Sekiranya arahan berkaitan faktor, isi berkenaan faktor perlulah dikemukakan, begitu
juga sekiranya kesan. Perlu ada pendahuluan dan kesimpulan tetapi secara ringkas sahaja.
2. Cuba hasilkan dalam 5 perenggan. Pendahuluan dan penutup 30 hingga 50 patah perkataan yang mengandungi 4 hingga 5 ayat,
manakala isi setiap perenggan antara 4 hingga 5 ayat yang mengandungi 40 hingga 50 patah perkataan.
KERTAS 1 BAHAGIAN B
1. Hasilkan dalam 5 hingga 7 perenggan. Pendahuluan dan penutup 30 hingga 50 patah perkataan yang mengandungi 4 hingga 5 ayat.
JAWAPAN boleh didapati di laman web www.afterschool.my/spm

Isi setiap perenggan antara 4 hingga 5 ayat yang mengandungi 40 hingga 50 patah perkataan. Ayat perlulah pendek dan jelas untuk
mengelakkan berlakunya kesalahan bahasa.
2. Corak soalan terkini menjurus kepada kemahiran berfikir dan pengetahuan semasa serta contoh-contoh daripada berita mutakhir.
Oleh itu calon perlu peka akan berita-berita semasa dalam dan luar negara yang melibatkan isu-isu seperti pengetahuan am, ekonomi,
kesihatan, keselamatan negara, alam semula jadi, sukan, serta kesenian. Sekiranya calon kurang mahir atau kurang ilmu pengetahuan
berkenaan isu semasa, elakkan daripada menjawab soalan tersebut. Pilihlah soalan yang calon paling arif berkenaannya.
KERTAS 2 - RUMUSAN
1. Kata kunci bahagian pendahuluan ditukarkan kepada tema atau pokok persoalan. Contoh pendahuluan; Sekiranya isi petikan
menyatakan kesan positif - Petikan menyatakan kebaikan/faedah/manfaat/kepentingan. Sekiranya dalam isi petikan menyatakan
kesan negatif – Petikan menyatakan keburukan/impak negatif Arahan untuk isi tersirat tidak perlu dinyatakan dalam pendahuluan.
TEMA - (Langkah – cara/usaha/ikhtiar) (Faedah – kepentingan/kebaikan/kesan baik/kesan positif/implikasi positif/manfaat/

sumbangan) (Keburukan – impak negatif/implikasi buruk/kesan negatif@buruk) (Faktor – sebab/punca/alasan/perihal)
2. Bahagian kesimpulan gunakan kata kunci Kesimpulan/Oleh itu,……agar/supaya…
3. Sekiranya perkataan lebih daripada 120 jangan edit daripada isi tersurat. Ini bertujuan menggelakkan daripada meninggalkan isi yang
penting dalam isi tersurat. Olah semula isi tersirat agar lebih ringkas, padat, menepati 120 patah perkataan.
PEMAHAMAN
1. Teliti jumlah markah yang dicatatkan untuk setiap soalan kerana jumlah isi biasanya bergantung kepada jumlah markah. Terkini
format jawapan lebih kepada kemahiran berfikir (KBAT), setiap jawapan perlu diperkukuhkan dengan alasan yang konkrit
2. Soalan berkaitan komsas seperti nilai-nilai murni, pengajaran dan watak, berbeza penggunaan bahasanya. Contoh kata kunci jujur;
untuk menjawab soalan watak – seorang yang jujur, soalan nilai – kejujuran, soalan pengajaran – kita mestilah jujur.
PENGETAHUAN DAN KEMAHIRAN BAHASA
1. Elakkan daripada melakukan kesalahan ejaan atau tatabahasa.
2. Sentiasa mengulang soalan atau merujuk soalan untuk pastikan setiap jawapan menepati kehendak soalan. Walaupun arahannya sama
saban tahun, calon perlu membaca arahan untuk setiap soalan.
NOVEL
1. Calon perlu menguasai kedua-dua novel yang dipelajari semasa di tingkatan empat dan tingkatan lima kerana corak soalan masa kini
memerlukan calon menjawab berdasarkan kedua-dua buah novel ini contohnya soalan perbandingan.
2. Calon perlu mengemukakan contoh beserta huraian kerana tanpa contoh, calon tidak akan memperoleh markah.
3. Menggelakkan daripada melakukan kesalahan bahasa supaya markah bahasa tidak ditolak.
2 SOALAN ULANGKAJI SPM 2018
Bahasa Melayu Kertas 1 [1103/1]

Kertas ini mengandungi dua bahagian iaitu Bahagian A karangan berpandu dan Bahagian B karangan panjang. Calon mesti menjawab
bahagian A dan memilih mana-mana satu soalan daripada bahagian B
Bahagian A
[30 markah]
[Masa dicadangkan 45 minit]
Arahan: Berdasarkan ilustrasi di bawah, huraikan pendapat anda tentang Persediaan menghadapi banjir oleh penduduk berisiko
tinggi. Panjang huraian anda hendaklah antara 200 hingga 250 patah perkataan.
PERSEDIAAN MENGHADAPI BANJIR

Lampu suluh Telefon Bimbit Dokumen Penting
Makanan ruji Makanan dalam tin Pakaian yang bersesuaian

Bahagian B
[100 markah]
[Masa dicadangkan 1 jam 30 minit]
Pilih satu daripada soalan di bawah dan tulis sebuah karangan yang panjangnya lebih daripada 350 patah perkataan.
1. Ibu bapa masa kini semakin sibuk bekerja siang dan malam untuk memenuhi keperluan hidup sekeluarga. Namun usaha mereka
seakan tiada noktahnya memandangkan kos sara hidup yang semakin meningkat dari tahun ke tahun. Keadaan ini adakala tidak
tertanggung oleh ibu bapa. Namun sebagai remaja yang prihatin anda sebenarnya mampu membantu meringankan beban
kewangan keluarga anda. Oleh itu, sebagai seorang anak yang bertanggungjawab jelaskan peranan anda dalam meringankan
beban kewangan keluarga.
2. Setiap ahli keluarga merupakan nadi kepada kebahagiaan sesebuah keluarga
Huraikan tanggungjawab yang dimainkan oleh setiap ahli keluarga dalam memastikan keluarga mereka hidup dalam keadaan

selamat dan bahagia.
3. Negara Malaysia kaya dengan khazanah alam semulajadi yang mampu menarik ribuan pelancong untuk meneroka keindahan
alam ciptaan tuhan. Pelbagai cara yang boleh diusahakan untuk memperkenalkan pelbagai keunikan di negara kita kepada
pelancong di dalam dan di luar negara. Antaranya ialah melalui perusahaan Inap desa.
Sebagai pengusaha Inap desa, jelaskan usaha-usaha yang perlu dilakukan oleh anda untuk menarik minat pelancong agar
datang menginap di tempat anda.
4. Fenomina alam yang sering mengalami perubahan cuaca telah menyebabkan pelbagai kemusnahan alam sekitar berlaku
antaranya kemusnahan hutan simpan negara. Namun, kita masih tidak boleh menafikan faktor utama kemusnahan ini berpunca
daripada sikap manusia. Sebagai seorang pemberita anda dikehendaki menulis sebuah laporan berkenaan ‘Kemusnahan Hutan
Simpan Negara’.
Tulis laporan anda itu selengkapnya
5. Latar masyarakat antara perkara yang sangat penting dalam menghasilkan sesebuah karangan yang dapat menarik perhatian
pembaca. Nyatakan peranan latar masyarakat dalam menghidupkan cerita.
Bahasa Melayu Kertas 2 [1103/2]
Soalan 1 : Rumusan
[30 Markah]
Baca petikan di bawah dengan teliti, kemudian buat satu rumusan tentang Peranan Persatuan Ibu bapa dan Guru (PIBG) dalam
meningkatkan kecemerlangan sahsiah dan kokurikulum murid-murid di sekolah dan kekangannya. Rumusan anda
hendaklah panjangnya tidak melebihi 120 patah perkataan.
Persatuan Ibu Bapa dan Guru (PIBG) merupakan elemen penting dalam sesebuah institusi pendidikan. Hubungan yang erat antara
ibu bapa dan guru berupaya meningkatkan kecemerlangan murid dalam bidang akademik, sahsiah, dan kokurikulum. Sering kali
kita mendengar berita yang diviralkan di laman-laman sosial isu ibu bapa menyerang guru sehingga adakalanya dibawa ke muka
pengadilan namun, disebaliknya, pihak sekolah pula mempertikaikan tindakan ibu bapa yang menuduh pihak sekolah tanpa usul
periksa terlebih dahulu punca anak mereka didenda ataupun dikenakan tindakan tatatertib. Fenomena ini seakan tidak pernah reda
diperbualkan. Sebenarnya perkara seumpama ini tidak akan terjadi jika wujudnya persefahaman dan hubungan kekitaan antara
PIBG dengan pihak sekolah. Persoalannya kini, apakah kerjasama yang dapat dijalinkan bagi mencapai kata sepakat sejajar dengan
mutiara kata, Bersatu Bertambah Mutu.
Pelbagai usaha telah dilakukan bagi meredakan kekecohan ini, dan kini telah dikenalpasti perkara dominan yang harus dititikberatkan
ialah kerjasama ibu bapa dan guru dalam bidang akademik, sahsiah diri pelajar, dan kegiatan kokurikulum. Sebagai contohnya,
guru boleh memaklumkan tahap progresif akademik murid kepada ibu bapa mereka pada setiap akhir peperiksaan. Apabila ibu
bapa sudah tahu tahap pencapaian akademik anak-anak mereka, melalui perbincangan dalam mesyuarat PIBG, pelbagai insiatif
boleh diambil bagi menangani masalah pencapaian akademik anak-anak mereka malah, PIBG boleh memberikan saranan bagi
penambahbaikkan program kecemerlangan kerohanian yang telah dirancang oleh pihak sekolah. Jelaslah bahawa peranan PIBG
dalam membantu meningkatkan kecemerlangan murid tidak perlu lagi dipertikaikan terutamanya sumbangan dalam bentuk saranan
idea yang bernas mahupun dana kewangan.
Persatuan Ibu Bapa dan Guru (PIBG) perlu mengalakkan ibu bapa menyertai program-program pemantapan diri anjuran pihak
sekolah bersama-sama guru, melalui cara ini juga ibu bapa dapat lebih mengenali sikap sebenar anak-anak mereka apabila mereka
berada di luar rumah. Pada realitinya, guru merupakan mata dan telinga ibu bapa di sekolah. Hal ini kerana rata-rata murid
menghabiskan satu per tiga masanya di sekolah termasuklah kelas tambahan, aktiviti sukan dan sebagainya. Melalui Mesyuarat
Agung PIBG, segala permasalahan disiplin murid dapat dibincangkan secara berhemah serta dibahaskan dengan pelbagai usul
bermanfaat yang boleh dikemukakan oleh ibu bapa. Pada masa yang sama, PIBG tidak seharusnya melepaskan tanggungjawab
membentuk keperibadian yang syumul anak-anak mereka kepada pihak sekolah sahaja. Sebagai contohnya, pada Hari Terbuka ibu
bapa seharusnya mengambil peluang keemasan ini untuk bertemu dan berbincang dengan guru bagi mengetahui perkembangan
semasa anak mereka di sekolah lebih-lebih lagi tentang masalah disiplin anak mereka.
Peranan Persatuan Ibu Bapa dan Guru dalam memantapkan kokurikulum tidak seharusnya dipandang sebelah mata. Kegiatan
kokurikulum merupakan aktiviti di luar bilik darjah yang amat digalakkan untuk penyertaan semua pelajar. Selain menyahut seruan
kerajaan murid aktif dalam sukan, kegiatan kokurikulum juga akan mencergaskan fizikal dan mencerdaskan minda murid-murid
di sekolah. Sebagai analoginya, PIBG boleh memberikan komitmen yang padu dalam penganjuran Hari Sukan Tahunan dengan
menjemput semua ibu bapa hadir untuk memberikan sokongan dan memeriahkan Hari Kejohanan Sukan tersebut. Galakan yang
diberikan secara tidak langsung akan meningkatkan semangat kesukanan murid. Hal ini demikian kerana dengan adanya ibu bapa
tersayang memberikan semangat, pelajar akan terdorong dan lebih teruja untuk memenangi sesuatu acara sukan tersebut. Guru-
guru pula dapat berkenalan dengan ibu bapa pelajar sekali gus membincangkan potensi-potensi yang dapat dicungkil daripada anak
mereka malah PIBG boleh mengenalpasti ibu bapa yang pernah cemerlang dalam bidang sukan dan olahraga agar tampil memberi
cadangan dan berkongsi ilmu dengan para guru berkaitan ilmu kesukanan. Rentetan daripada itu, bidang kokurikulum dapat
ditingkatkan ke arah yang lebih cemerlang, gemilang dan terbilang.
Seharusnya kita lebih mengerti pengaruh PIBG dalam menjayakan aktiviti kokurikulum ini melalui komitmen, sokongan padu dan
galakan ibu bapa terhadap penyertaan anak-anak mereka dalam kegiatan kokurikulum ini. Tambahan pula, pencapaian kokurikulum
turut diambil kira dalam prasyarat kemasukan ke IPTA. Jadi, ibu bapa dan gurulah yang perlu mencorakkan hala tuju mereka ke
arah yang lebih baik. Pihak PIBG juga boleh menaja mana-mana pelajar yang berpotensi dalam acara sukan yang diceburi dengan
memberi bantuan berupa peralatan sukan ataupun perbelanjaan perjalanan semasa menyertai pertandingan. Hal ini dapat memberi
semangat dan mengilap minat pelajar dalam sukan khasnya pelajar yang berkebolehan namun kurang berkemampuan. Tuntasnya,
Persatuan Ibu Bapa dan Guru amatlah penting dalam meningkatkan kecemerlangan kokurikulum sekali gus meniupkan harapan
senada dalam memenuhi aspirasi negara seiring dengan slogan ‘Majulah Sukan Untuk Negara’. Izharlah bahawa Persatuan Ibu
Bapa dan Guru memainkan peranan yang penting dalam meningkatkan kecemerlangan akademik, sahsiah murid, dan penglibatan
kokurikulum anak bangsa Malaysia.
Soalan 2 : Pemahaman
[35 markah]
Soalan 2 (a) Petikan Umum
Berdasarkan petikan Soalan 1, jawab soalan-soalan yang berikut dengan menggunakan ayat anda sendiri.
i. Berikan maksud progresif akademik murid. [2 markah]
ii. Nyatakan kesan penglibatan Persatuan Ibu Bapa dan Guru dalam bidang kokurikulum kepada negara . [3 markah]
iii.
Cadangkan beberapa program yang boleh dianjurkan oleh pihak Persatuan Ibu Bapa dan Guru dalam usaha
menjayakan ‘Kempen Sifar Ponteng Sekolah’
[4 markah]
Soalan 2 (b) Petikan Cerpen

Baca petikan cerpen di bawah dengan teliti, dan kemudian jawab soalan-soalan yang berikutnya dengan menggunakan ayat anda sendiri

Aku memandang jaket kulit kijang itu lagi. Kalau dikira dalam ringgit Malaysia, harganya sekitar RM500.00. Jaket kulit itu telah
membawa kegembiraan kepada lelaki tua yang berjaya menjualnya kepada Shahmem, Jaket kulit itu telah membawa kegembiraan
kepada Shahmem yang berjaya menjualkannya semula kepadaku. Jaket kulit itu telah membawa kegembiraan kepadaku kerana dapat
menghangatkan badan sepanjang perjalanan ke Selat Bhosporus yang dingin.
Tiba-tiba tercetus semalam hasrat untuk memanjangkan rasa gembira itu kepada orang lain. Bagaimana kalau aku menjualnya
di kedai menjual pakaian terpakai yang selalu aku kunjungi di tanah air? Aku tahu bahawa tidak mungkin aku boleh menjualnya tanpa
mengalami kerugian. Seratus ringgit pun barangkali terlalu mahal untuk tauke kedai itu. Aku rela menerima harga yang jauh lebih
rendah asalkan pekedai itu gembira. Bakal pembelinya juga pasti gembira kerana mendapat jaket kulit dengan harga yang murah.
Aku berharap agar bakal pemakainya kelak sedar bahawa jaket kulit itu merupakan sisa orang dan tidak berasa bongkak.
Aku akan mencari jalan untuk mendermakan wang jualan jaket kulit itu kepada mana-mana zoo yang ada kandang kijang.
Sebagai tanda muhibbah terhadap kijang-kijang yang telah dibunuh demi gaya hidup yang penuh kemodenan.
Jika Mevlana Celaleddin Ar-Rumi masih hidup, tentu dia mengatakan bahawa aku mempunyai ciri-ciri seorang darwis
Jika Nasreddin Hodja masih hidup, tentu dia mengatakan bahawa watak humornya sudah ada pewaris.

Dipetik daripada cerpen Jaket Kulit Kijang Dari Istanbul

Oleh Maskiah Haji Masrom
dalam Antologi Jaket Kulit Kijang Dari Istanbul
Kementerian Pendidikan Malaysia
i. Berdasarkan petikan di atas, mengapakah penulis berhasrat menjual jaket kulitnya sekembalinya
ke tanah air? [2 markah]
ii. Pada pendapat anda, apakah peranan yang perlu dimainkan oleh orang ramai dalam membasmi pengunaan
kulit binatang dalam industri pakaian. [3 markah]

iii. Nyatakan satu pengajaran yang terdapat dalam petikan, dan satu pengajaran lain yang terdapat dalam
keseluruhan cerpen. [4 markah]
Soalan 2 (c) Petikan Prosa Tradisional
Baca petikan prosa tradisional di bawah dengan teliti, dan kemudian jawab soalan-soalan yang berikutnya menggunakan ayat anda
sendiri.
Maka Seri Nara Diraja Sultan pun tersenyum. Maka Tun Nina Madi digelar oleh Sultan Muzaffar Syah Tun Bijaya Maha
Menteri. Setelah Paduka Raja dan Seri Nara Diraja dua orang itu menjadi orang besar, maka anak Melayu pun berbelah, setengah
pada Paduka Raja, setengah pada Seri Nara Diraja, kerana kedua-duanya sama orang berasal. Maka Seri Nara Diraja tidak muafakat
dengan Paduka Raja, senantiasa beringgit juga; beberapa kali lain Paduka Raja kedapatan dengan Paduka Raja dalam kampung Seri
Nara Diraja. Maka Sultan Muzaffar Syah pun tahu akan perihal itu maka terlalulah dukacita baginda melihat kelakuan Paduka Raja
dengan Seri Nara Diraja itu. Maka fikir di dalam hati baginda, “Jikalau demikian binasalah negeri ini, kerana orang besarnya tidak
muafakat sama orang besar.”
Hatta, maka baginda fikir berbicara hendak memuafakatkan Seri Nara Diraja dengan Paduka Raja. Maka baginda pun menyuruh
memanggil Seri Nara Diraja; maka dia pun hadirlah. Maka titah Sultan Muzaffar Syah, “Mahukan Seri Nara Diraja beristeri?”
Maka sembahnya, “Jikalau ada kurnia Duli Yang Dipertuan, baiklah, tuanku.”
Maka titah baginda, “Mahukah Seri Nara Diraja akan Tun Bulan, anak Orang Kaya Hitam?” Maka sembahnya,
“Mohon patik tuanku.”
Maka titah baginda, “Mahukah akan Rakna Sandari, saudara Paduka Raja itu?”
Maka sembahnya, “Mohon patik, tuanku.”
Maka titah baginda, “Mahukah akan Tun Kanaka, saudara Bendahara Seri Wak Raja?” Maka sembahnya ,
“Mohon patik, tuanku.”
Maka beberapa anak orang besar-besar ditanyakan oleh Sultan, tiada juga berkenan pada Seri Nara Diraja. Maka titah Sultan,
“Mahukah Seri Nara Diraja akan Tun Kudu, anak Bendahara Seri Wak Raja, saudara Paduka Raja?” Maka sembahnya,
“Daulat, tuanku.”
Dipetik daripada cerita “Burung Terbang Dipipiskan Lada”

dalam Antologi Sejadah Rindu. . Kementerian Pendidikan Malaysia
(i) Berikan maksud kedua-duanya sama orang berasal. [2 markah]

(ii) Apakah tindakan yang diambil oleh Sultan Muzaffar Syah untuk menyelamatkan negara di bawah
pemerintahan baginda? [3 markah]

(iii) Nyatakan kebaikan dan keburukan perkahwinan yang dirancang oleh ahli keluarga atau
rakan-rakan. [3 markah]

Soalan 2 (d) Gurindam
Baca sajak di bawah dengan teliti, kemudian jawab soalan-soalan yang berikutnya dengan menggunakan ayat anda sendiri.
Gurindam Dua Belas (Fasal yang Ketiga)
Apabila terpelihara mata,

Sedikitlah cita-cita.
Apabila terpelihara kuping,

Khabar yang jahat tiadalah damping.
Bersungguh-sungguh engkau memelihara tangan,

Daripada segala berat dan ringan.
Apabila perut terlalu penuh,

Keluarlah fiil yang tiada senonoh.
Anggota tengah hendaklah diingat,

Di situlah banyak orang yang hilang semangat.
Hendaklah pelihara akan kaki,

Daripada berjalan yang membawa rugi.
Mohd Yusof Md Nor dan Abd Rahman Kaeh

Puisi Melayu Tradisi, 1996
Fajar Bakti Sdn.Bhd
i. Apakan yang dimaksudkan dalam rangkap ke-4 guridam di atas? [3 markah]

ii. Pada pendapat anda apakah kaitan menjaga lima anggota deria kita dalam menjamin
hubungan keharmonian antara masyarakat. [3 markah]
iii. Nyatakan dua pengajaran yang terdapat dalam gurindam di atas. [3 markah]

Soalan 3: Pengetahuan dan Kemahiran Bahasa

(30 markah)
Jawab semua soalan.
(a) Tulis satu ayat bagi setiap perkataan di bawah ini untuk menunjukkan bahawa anda faham akan maksud dan penggunaannya.
Anda tidak boleh mengubah imbuhan serta menggunakan perkataan itu sebagai peribahasa dan kata nama khas.
(i) Kehanyutan
(ii) Kehausan
(iii) Persemadian
(iv) Penghapusan
(v) Mengerumuni
(vi) Mengamanahkan
[6 markah]
(b) Nyatakan istilah yang sama maksud dengan perkataan huruf condong

(i) Rupa paras gadis yang cantik itu menjadi tumpuan ramai
(ii) Aqil kelihatan tampan dalam pakaian hitam sepasang
(iii) Sambil bermain di taman, Arrisa memetik bunga.
(iv) Tulang belakang manusia ada tigapuluh tiga kerat semuanya.
(v) Penjenayah itu dijatuhi hukuman penggal kepala kerana kesalahan membunuh.
(vi) Dia berasa kesal kerana memalukan keluarganya kerana menuturkan kata-kata kesat.
[6 markah]

(c) Dalam setiap ayat di bawah, terdapat satu kesalahan ejaan dan satu kesalahan penggunaan imbuhan. Senaraikan dan
betulkan kesalahan-kesalahan itu. Bagi setiap ayat, anda tidak boleh menyenaraikan lebih daripada satu kesalahan ejaan dan satu
kesalahan penggunaan imbuhan. Anda tidak perlu menyalin petikan itu semula.
(i) Para pelajar menghadiri ceramah sahisiah diri kerana mereka bekeyakinan bahawa ceramah itu
sangat berfaedah.
(ii) Zalifah mengendong anaknya dengan mempergunakan kain batik lepas.
(iii) Alan mushkil memikirkan hal anaknya yang tidak mahu sambungkan pelajarannya ke
institusi pengajian tinggi
[6 markah]
(d) Dalam setiap ayat di bawah, terdapat satu kesalahan penggunaan kata atau istilah dan satu kesalahan tatabahasa.
Senaraikan dan betulkan kesalahan-kesalahan itu. Bagi setiap ayat anda tidak boleh meyenaraikan lebih daripada satu
kesalahan pengunaan kata atau istilah dan satu kesalahan tatabahasa. Anda tidak perlu menyalin ayat itu semula.
(i) Semasa pehimpunan resmi, ketua murid-murid akan bertugas menaikkan bendera sekolah.
(ii) Ramli amat rajin sekali bekerja, sebab itulah tuannya meyayangi Ramli.
(iii) Semenjak zaman kesultanan melayu melaka lagi bahasa Melayu telah digunakan secara meluas dalam
bidang perdagangan dan menjalinkan hubungan diplomasi.
[6 markah]
(e) Berikan maksud peribahasa di bawah ini
(i) Untung atas angin

(ii) Muka tembok
(iii) Lidah biawak
[6 markah]
Soalan 4: Novel
[15 markah]
Jawab soalan di bawah. Jawapan anda hendaklan berdasarkan novel-novel yang anda pelajari.
(i) Songket Berbenang Emas karya Khairuddin Ayip

(ii) Tirani karya Beb Sabariah
(iii) Bimasakti Menari karya Sri Rahayu Mohd Yusop
(iv) Silir Daksina karya Nizar Parman
(v) Jendela Mengadap Jalan karya Ruhaini Matdarin
(vi) Leftenan Adnan Wira Bangsa karya Abdul Latif Talib
(vii) Di Sebalik Dinara karya Dayang Noor
(viii) Pantai Kasih karya Azmah Nordin
(a) Huraikan peranan watak utama dalam menerapkan nilai murni kepada pembaca dalam sebuah novel
yang anda pelajari.
[7 markah]
(b) Berdasarkan dua buah novel yang anda pelajari, huraikan setiap satu peristiwa yang memberi pengajaran kepada
pembaca.
[8 markah]
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

Tips
[1119/1]
[1119/2] English
Paper 1 DIRECTED WRITING
: • Know the format asked
Section • Follow the sequence of the content point stated in the question
A • Use appropriate tenses according to the need of the question
• Write grammatically correct tenses
Paper 1 CONTINUOUS WRITING
: • Write about two pages
Section • Write grammatically correct tenses
B • Avoid too many dialogues
• Be creative
• Do not memorize essays

Paper 2 INFORMATION TRANSFER
: • Check for
Section - Plural form
B - Singular form
- One word answer
- Two words answer
• Lift the answers from the text that is provided BUT don't over lift
• DON'T use your own words UNLESS told
• Make sure your punctuation is correct
• Answer must be grammatically correct
Paper 2 COMPREHENSION
Section • Read the questions and underline important keys
C - A word
∙ Which word in paragraph 2 explains about balanced diet
- A Phrase
∙ Which phrase in paragraph 2 explains about balanced diet
- Your own words
∙ Using your own words, explain the meaning of balanced diet
∙ In your own words, explain the meaning of balanced diet
• Lift the answers from the text that is provided BUT don't over lift
• DON'T use your own words UNLESS told
• Do not give irrelevant information
Paper 2 SUMMARY
Section • Read the question carefully
C • Mark out specified lines
• Pick out the required points in the passage that answers the question
• Change the pronoun used
• Leave out repititions, irrelevant references or opinions
• You can join sentence using a conjunction
Paper 2 Q 33 : Novel
Section Look for singular or plural form words. Character/ Characters, Reasons/ Reason
D • 5 paragraphs and 3 content points
• Description - in the first paragraph
• Make sure you have sufficient evidence
• Add personal response
• Start and end each paragraph with the keyword from the question
English Paper 1 [1119/1]
Time: One hour and forty-five minutes

This question paper consists of two sections: Section A and Section B. Answer both sections. You are advised to spend 45
minutes on Section A and one hour on Section B.
SECTION A: Directed Writing

(35 marks)
[45 minutes]
You are worried about your sister who is studying abroad. Write a letter to her stating some possible measures that she can take to stay
healthy for you believe that health is wealth
In your letter, include the following:

• Positive mindset
• Laugh often
• Increase fiber intake
• Do not procrastinate
• Share problems
• Sleep tight
When writing your letter, remember to:

• Use an appropriate tone
• Use all the notes given
• Provide relevant details / examples for each of the points given
• Suggest two other ways to stay healthy
SECTION B
[50 marks]
[Time suggested: One hour]
You are advised to spend about one hour on this section.
Question 2
Write a composition of about 350 words on one of the following topics:
1. Write a story when Justice was prevailed in your neighborhood.

2. Phone is an essential tool for students in school. Do you agree?
3. Write about a pleasant surprise on your mother’s birthday. Start you story with “The light was too bright when.........
4. Life is indeed too short
5. Study Smart
END OF QUESTION PAPER

English Paper 2 [1119/2]

Time: Two hours and fifteen minutes
This question paper consists of four sections: Section A. Section B, Section C and Section D. Answer all sections in this
question paper. Questions in Section A have four options.
SECTION A
(15 marks)
[Time suggested: 25 minutes ]
1. Read the news report below and answer the question that follow 2. Read the extract below and answer the question that follows.
KLANG: Ten-year-old Muntimah, who has been living alone

in a smelly rubbish-filled apartment at Sri Intan Apartment in
Kampung Jawa for almost two years, now has someone to care “The women in my planet face little difficulty when it
for her. comes to developing their potential,” says Anna Locke, wife of the
Childless housewife Aminah , 60, will be taking Mars Ambassador, Jeddai Christiano.
Muntimah home to live with her and her retired husband in

Bayan Lepas, Penang. “ They are highly educated and many of them are part
Siti, who is Muntimah’s maternal aunt, had wanted to of the workforce. Maybe the biggest challenge, a situation that
adopt her when she was born but her mother decided to hold on occurs all over the other planets, is trying to balance a career and
to her. looking after their families.”
“ Even before her mother abandoned her, I visited her
every three months when I was in Klang.”
Based on news report, we can say that Aminah Based on the extract, what is the biggest problem for women in
Mars?
A. Lives in Kampung Jawa. C. Was forced to adopt Muntimah.
B. Has only one child. D. Does not have any child. A. Being part of the C. Getting them educated.
workforce.
B. Dealing with marriage and D. Developing thier potential.
career.
Questions 3 and 4
Read the text and answer the questions that follow.
The fearsome Sumatran rhino is one of the 300 of this species left in this world. The rhino’s horn is widely
sought for its supposedly special properties. Its rainforests habitat is also disappearing. The rhino is an endangered
animal in many countries.
3. What would be a suitable headline for the text above? 4. The world endangered can best be replaced with
A. The Fearsome Rhinos. C. Endangered Rhinos. A. Dangerous. C. Expensive.
B. Disappearing Habitat. D. Special properties. B. Vulnerable. D. Harmful.
Questions 5 Questions 6
Study the comic strip below and answer the question that follows. Study the advertisement below and answer the question that follows.
The Eclipsed One

by
John Benedict 25%
• 25% on any other book purchased
with The Eclipsed One
• Only valid at selected Central book
stores in Penang and Kuala Lumpur
5. From the comic strip above, we may conclude 6. The discounts are
A. The farmer had passed C. Henry Pita was born in 2015. A. Valid in all Central book stores nationwide.
away. B. For books purchased at Central book stores.
B. Henry Pita was a chicken. D. The chicken is crying for the C. Not valid in Penang and Kuala Lumpur.
deceased farmer. D. Applicable if you buy The Eclipsed One.
Questions 7 Questions 8
Read the text and answer the questions that follow. Study the emoticon below and answer the question
Dear Editor,
I think it is high time for the government to implement strong

measures to protect non-smokers. I am afraid that the irresponsible
habit of smokers has caused adverse health problems, discomfort
and inconvenience to non-smokers. It is not fair for us to be
victims of diseases such as respiratory problems, heart ailments
and cancer.

Jaeden
7. The writer wishes to express her 8. A suitable feeling expressed by the above emoticon is
A. Frustration C. Concern A. Blissful C. Petrified
B. Dislike D. Responsibility B. Dejected D. Traumatized
Question 9 – 15
The cuttlefish is a small-medium 9______________ mollusc that is found throughout the ocean waters of the world. In the same
way 10________________ their squid and octopus relatives, cuttlefish have a large, elongated body with tentacles surrounding
their mouths. Cuttlefish 11__________________ in large numbers throughout the world’s ocean waters from the warm, tropical
shallows to the cold depths of the deep ocean. Cuttlefish are well known for the “flashing” colours that are displayed on their bodies
during fighting and mating. In the same way as squid and octopuses, the cuttlefish also has an ink sack which 12_____________
ink in order to fool oncoming predators.There are 120 known species of cuttlefish 13_____________across the globe which
vary in size from just 15 cm to the Australian giant cuttlefish which is often half a meter in length and weighs more than 10kg
The cuttlefish is a 14__________________ animal that primarily preys on small crustaceans such as shrimp and crabs, but the cuttlefish
also eats a lot of fish. The cuttlefish uses its ability to change body colour to hide itself, before catching its prey Due to the generally relatively
small size of the cuttlefish, there are numerous marine predators that hunt them. Large fish, sharks and even other cuttlefish from different
species are the most common predators of the cuttlefish 15__________________with humans who hunt the cuttlefish around the world
9 A. dimensioned 13 A. find
B. Sized B. finds
C. Mass C. finding
D. Bulked D. found
10
A. as 14 A. herbivore
B. for B. herbivorous
C. with C. carnivore
D. along D. carnivorous
11 A. is found 15 A. along
B. are found B. together
C. will be found C. always
D. had been found D. sideway
12 A. eject
B. ejects
C. is ejecting
D. ejected
SECTION B
(10 marks)
Questions 16-25
Read the following advertisement and answer the questions that follow.
Get Fit Gym is in the Town!

Are your weight and health troubling you? Do you want to look more confident?
Our aim is to help you take real action to achieve your health and fitness goals.
Come to Get Fit Gym and get a 14-day free trial.
Get a friend to join you and claim your sports bottle!
At our centre, you can enjoy a wide range of fun fitness programmes such as zumba dance workout, yoga
and aerobic boxing. We have the latest gym equipment to build your muscles and boost your health.
Members will be given complimentary soft drink, tea or coffee at the members’ exclusive lounge. Other
family members and friends will be offered complimentary passes to enjoy the privileges during weekends.

Workout Time
For enquiries: Weekdays: 7.00a.m. -10.30p.m.

Call: 03-6534 2178 (Kuala Lumpur) Weekends: 10.00a.m. -11.00p.m.
03-6752 2178 (Shah Alam) Public Holidays: 11.00a.m. – 8.30p.m.
Visit: www.getfitgym.com
Question 16-25
Based on the advertisement given, complete the following table.
Name of Fitness Centre 16.
Free Trial Period 17.
Location 18.
19.
Website 20.
Questions 21-25
Based on the advertisement given, complete the sentences with short answers.
21. Get Fit Gym aims to help their members’ __________________________________.

22. Kyle just introduced Get Fit Gym’s membership to Sam, therefore Kyle will get a _______________________________.

23. You can go for your workouts on Labour Day the earliest at _____________________________________________
_________________________.
24. During weekends, complimentary passes can be given to _______________________________________________

_________________________.
25. Cathlyn is staying in Kuala Lumpur, thus she is more likely to call this number: _____________________________ for
enquiries.
SECTION C
(25 marks)
Questions 21-25
Based on the advertisement given, complete the sentences with short answers.
1 Robin Evertson did not have the slightest idea that he had to make one of 1
the toughest decisions in his life. He would not forget what he had encountered.
2 It was the last week of his summer holidays. He was bored and restless as
he had nothing to do but sleep and watch television in his small family home near
Gothenburg, Sweden. College would start in a week’s time yet he did not want to to 5
end his vacation without any excitement. His father, who was also at home,
began to nag at him for lazing around.
3 The next day, Dad caught him by surprise. Robin thought that Dad was
giving his usual lecture for idling around. Instead, he came up with a wonderful
idea. “ Let’s do something together,” he said. “How about sailing for a few 10

days?”
4 On the wet morning of August 12, father and son headed to the pretty
Danish island between Denmark and Sweden, which was Robin’s favourite place
Then, he embarked on their fifty-five- kilometer voyage, which took them out
of the sight of land. It was a heavenly feeling and the view was breathtaking 15
However, the breeze was strong and was forecast to swing to the north. This
This would make their journey faster.
5 At 10.30p.m., the boat was struggling into heavier weather. Robin, after
recovering from seasickness, joined his father. The little boat continued to battle
through the night. Just before 11.30p.m., the wind was blasting at 30 knots. The 20
main sail was taken down to reduce strain on the rig. Spray from three-meter-high
waves slammed along the deck and hit their faces. Then Dad spotted the whole
mast of the sail rocking as the thin wire between the masthead and the front of the
boat had come adrift. Fearing that the whole mast would topple over the side
at any moment and punch a hole in the boat, he decided to fix it by himself. It was 25
ultimately a bad decision. Unfortunately, as he was slithering along the edge of
the deck, he slipped and fell into the deck.
6 In the cabin, Robin could hear his father screaming. “Robin! Help! I’m in in
the water!” Robin peered along the cockpit. His father was nowhere to be seen.
When he looked at the water lit by the lights, he could see his father keeping 30
himself afloat. His face was squeezed in between the inflated tubes of his red life
jacket.” Dad, what shall I do?”
7 Struggling to the boat, Robin could hear his father’s voice telling him to get
the telephone. He grabbed his father’s new mobile and dialed 112, the
emergency number. However, he only got an automatic answer. Then, he tried 35
using his own phone but he failed to get a signal as he was too far from Sweden.
8 After 20 minutes, he realised that it was futile sailing around in the dark.
He had to do something but the yatch had no VHF radio to call for help and no
distress rockets. He swung the boat around heading east towards Sweden. The
boat took off sailing fast. He saw lights of ships in the distance. At 1.48 a.m., it 40
seemed to be a new hope, he wanted to try again. Robin dialed the emergency
number. Startled, he heard a woman answer, “Emergency service”. It took him a
minute to convey the message.
9 The call was relayed to the Marine Rescue Coordination Centre in

Gothenburg where Cecilia Wegnelius, the coordinator who was on duty all night 45
tried to gather information of Robin’s father’s whereabouts. “ Don’t worry,”
Cecilia told him. “We’re sending out a helicopter and rescue boats.”
10 At 4.57 a.m., the pilot radioed to the shore the victim was cold but alive.
Dad had been in the water for more than four hours.
(Adapted from Reader’s Digest, August 2010)

26 (a) From paragraph 2, how did Robin Evertson spend his time during the summer holidays?
___________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(b) From paragraph 3, what does the word ‘something’ refer to?
___________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

27 (a) From paragraph 4, where did Robin and his father plan to go?
___________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) From paragraph 5, why it was ‘a bad decision’?
___________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

28 From paragraph 7,
(a) What was the reason that Robin failed to call the emergency number?
___________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) Which word tells you that Robin probably was in desperation to make the call?
___________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
29 From paragraph 8
(a) What was Robin’s next move after facing some problems to call for help?
___________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) Why do you think Robin would startle when he heard the voice of a woman?
___________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

30 In your own words, state one quality that a person should have when facing the same situation as Robin. Provide a reason to
support your answer.
Quality: _____________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
Reason: _____________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
31 Based on the passage, write a summary on:
• The problems Robin and his father faced when they started sailing.
• What Robin did to save his father.
Credit will be given for use of words but care must be taken not to change the original meaning.
Your summary must
• Be in continuous writing form (not in note form)

• Use materials from line 20 to line 43
• not be longer than 130 words, including the 10 words given below
Begin your summary as follows:
Robin and his father were sailing but before 11.30 p.m
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________
[15 marks]
SECTION D
(20 marks)
The Living Photograph
My small grandmother is tall there,

Straight back, white, broderie anglaise shirt,
pleated skirt, flat shoes, grey bun,
a kind, old smile round her eyes.
Her big hand holds mine,
white hand in the black hand.
Her sharp blue eyes look her own death in the eye.
It was true, after all, that look.

My tall grandmother became small.
Her back round and hunched.
Her soup forgot to boil.
She went to the awful place grandmothers go.

Somewhere unknown, unthinkable
But there she is still,

In the photo with me at three,
The crinkled smile is still living, breathing.
Jackie Kay
(a) In stanza 1,which line reflects that the grandmother is a loving person?
______________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(b) Which phrase in the poem implies grandmother might suffer from dementia?
______________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(c) Where is “the awful place grandmothers go”?
______________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(d) How do you recall the memory with a loved one who had passed away?
______________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

Give a reason to support your answer.
______________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
33. The following are the novels studied in the literature component in English Language.
Dear Mr Kilmer - Anne Schraff

Captain Nobody - Dean Pitchford
Sing to the Dawn - Minfong Ho
Choose any one of the novels above and answer the question below
“Friends make the world beautiful.”
With close reference to the text , how far does this reflect in the novel you have read ?

[15 marks]

Tips
[1449/1]
[1449/2] Mathematics
• Read the questions carefully and do not miss out the important information
• Rule out the irrelevant answers and work on the relevant answers.
• Do not spend too much time on each questions. Skip to the next questions and don't forget to go back to the questions that you have
skipped.
• Spend the last ten fifteen minutes to check all your answer.
• Read the questions carefully and do not miss out the important information.
• Provide the complete workings for all the questions since the marks will be deducted if the workings are not complete.
• Provide the workings and the answer in the space provided.
• Do not spend too much time on each questions. Skip to the next questions and don't forget to go back to the questions that you have
skipped
• For question in chapter "Plan and Elevation", the diagram must be drawn correctly as the measurement will not be considered once the
diagram is wrong.
• Choose the questions in section B wisely.
• It is not advisable to do all the questions in Section B.
• Spend the last ten to fifteen minutes to check all your answers.
Mathematic Paper 1 [1449/1]

[Time suggested: 1 hour 15 minutes ]
1 Which quotient is rounded off to three significant figures? 7 In Diagram 2 , PQRSTUVW is a regular octagon
Quotient (3 s.f)
W V
A 0.0275 ÷ 12 0.003
B 0.2333 ÷ 0.52 0.448
C 3600 ÷ 2 180
P U
D 46200 ÷ 30 1540
2 57 × 107 − ( 4 × 102 ) 3 x
A 5.06 × 108 Q T
B 5.58 × 108 y
C 5.64 × 108

D 5.66 × 108
R S
3 A rectangular wall has width 140 m and length 260 m. 20% of the Diagram 2
wall will be covered with purple square tiles and the side of tiles Find the value of x + y
is 40 cm. Calculate the number of purple tiles requires to cover A 135
the wall B 105
C 175
A 4.55 × 105 D 160
B 1.82 × 105
C 1.82 × 104
D 4.55 × 104 8 Diagram 3 shows a regular hexagon ABCDEF. PQR is a straight
line
4 Given 100002 + x2 = 1001012, find the value of x
B
A 111012
B 110102
C 101012 A x° C
D 1012
5 658 + 150 = D
F
A 1125 123° 110°
B 13035 E
C 2035 y° R
D 985 Q
75°
6 In Diagram 1, QRU is an equilateral triangle
P
T
140
U Diagram 3
100
Calculate the value of x – y
x°
S A 70
80 B 92
C 120
D 28
Q R
Diagram 1
Find the value of x
A 135
B 70
C 110
D 90
9 In Diagram 4, BCD and DEF are common tangents to the circle 12 In the figure below, the point R and point S lie on the arc of a
with centre O at C and E respectively unit cirlce with centre O
D y
C
B
R (0.55 , 0.75)
H O S (0.68 , 0.65)
b°
E
a°
x
G
F
Find the value of 2 sin a° + cos b°
Diagram 4
A 1.85 C 2.05
Given that EG = 6 cm and radius of the circle is 5 cm. Find the B 2.11 D 1.95
perimeter of a quadrilateral OHEG
13 In Diagram 7 shows a right angled triangle PQR
A 19 C 18
B 21 D 24 P
10 Diagram 5 shows a pattern formed under several clockwise

rotations about the centre O. Right-angles triangle S is the m
object of the transformation
x
Q
T O S R n
U V
Diagram 7
Given sin x°= 12 , express m in terms of n

n
A
tan 30°
B −n tan 30°
Diagram 5 n
C cos 60°

Given points U, O and V are collinear. Find the angle of rotation D n cos 60°
if triangle T is the image of triangle S
14 Diagram 8 shows a right prism with trapezium PKWQ as the
A 90° C 180° horizontal base and its uniform cross section too
B 120° D 210°
S T
11 Diagram 6 shows five points plotted on a Cartesian plane

y
W K
4
A U
R V
2
K
-4 -2 0 2 -2 x
-2 Q P
B D
-4 C
Diagram 8
Name the equivalent angle between the plane VWS and the
Diagram 6 plane KWST
Which of the points, A,B,C or D, is the image of point K under A ∠ SWK C
∠ TSK
an enlargement with scale factor of -1 at center ( 2 , -1 ) ? B ∠ PKW D
∠ PWK
15 It is given that the angle of elevation of N from M is 40° . The

horizontal distance between point M and N is 20 m. Which of 19 k = −2 (s + 2) , express s in terms of k
5s − 1
the following diagram represents the angle of depression of point
M from point N?
A s= k+4 C s= k+4
5k + 2 5k − 2
A 40°
20m B s= k−4 D s= k−4
5k + 2 5k − 2
M

B N 4p2 + 8q 8p
40° 20 Express ÷ as a single fraction in the
p2 −16 p−4
simplest form
M
20m p2 + 2q p + 2q
A C
2p (p + 4) p+4

C N
p+4
40° B D p2 + 2q
p + 2q p+4
M
20m

D M 40° 21 Factorise completely (2k − 3)2 + 17k − 18
N A (4k − 9)(k − 1) C (4k + 9)(k + 1)

16 Diagram 9 shows a building MN and two vertical poles, OP and
QR with equal height B (4k + 9)(k − 1) D (4k − 9)(k + 1)
N
6t − 6
22 = 7 − (t − 4) = , find the value of t
4
O Q
A -5 C 19
B 4 D 5
23 Simplify 64m3n2
M P R
4m3n--4
5m 10m 4n5
A
4 mn C
Diagram 9 m
2n5
B D 2m5
Given that the angle of elevation of the peak N from the peak O
is 65°. Calculate the angle of depression of peak Q from peak N m n
A 54°27' C
35°33' 24 Diagram 9 shows a number line
B 44°22' D
45°37'
17 Point K , L and M lie on a horizontal plane. The bearing of point

L from point K is 210°. M lies due north of L. Given that ∠LMK
is 115°. Calculate the bearing of M from K.
-1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
A 35° C 175° Diagram 9
B 115° D
245°
A -1 , 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 C 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 4
B -1 , 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 D 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5
18 U and V are two points on the Equator and O is the centre of the
earth. U lies due east of V and the longitude of U is 50° E and
∠VOW = 110˚ . Find the longitude of V 25 List all the integer of x that satisfy the
A 160° W C
60° W two inequalities 4x − 3 < x and 2x ≥ 5x − 12
7
B 160° E D
60° E
A 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
B 0, 1, 2, 3
C -1, 0, 1, 2, 3
D -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
26 Diagram 10 is a pictogram which shows the sales of books on 29 Diagram 13 shows a Venn diagram with the universal set ,
Friday, Saturday, Sunday and Monday. The sales for Saturday ξ=R S T
and Monday are not shown R
C
S
Friday
D T
Saturday B
A
Sunday
Diagram13
Monday
Represents 30 books Which region A, B, C, D that satisfy S T R ?
Diagram10
30 Diagram 14 shows a group of 80 students who like to play
Sales of books on Friday, Saturday, Sunday and Monday in the hockey and badminton. Given that set H = {students who like
ratio 3 : 9 : 6 : 4. Find the total number of books sold in to play hockey} and B = {students who like to play badminton}
four days
B
A 1000 C 640 H
B 880 D 1200
27 Diagram 11 is a pie chart that shows distribution of the number

of types of flower trees found in Sheila ‘s garden Diagram14
Hibiscus 41 of them like to play hockey and 53 like to play badminton.

Rose How many students like to play badminton only?
75°
A 12 C 27
Dahlia B 14 D 39
Sunflower
Diagram11 31 Diagram 15 shows a straight line TU on a Cartesian plane

y
Number of rose trees are 82 more than the number of dahlia, T
while the number of hibiscus trees are 50. U (0, 8)
State the percentage of dahlia trees in Sheila’s garden
A 44 C 10
B 20 D 50 O V (6, 0)
Diagram15
28 Diagram 12 shows the sketching of a graph function Given TU = 2UV, find the coordinates of the point T
y
A (20, 8) C (5, 8)
10 B (-20, 8) D (8, 5)
x
-0.5 0
32 Diagram 16 shows a straight line KLM
y
K (p,5)
Diagram12
2 L
The equation of the graph function is
25 5 x
A y = C y =
x x
M (6,-7)
25 5 Diagram16
B y = − D y = −
x x
A 2 C -2
1
B 3 D -
2
33 A straight line passes through the points ( 0 , 3 ) and ( 6 , 6 ). 38 Given 3 Q P = k , such that k is a constant. Which of the
Find the x-intercept of the straight line
following statement is true?
A -6 C 6
A P varies directly as cube root of Q
B -3 D 1 B P varies directly as cube of Q
2 C P varies inversely as cube root of Q
D P varies inversely as cube of Q
34 Diagram 17 shows two straight lines, PQ and RS, on a
Cartesian plane
y 39 Find the value of x in the following matrix equation
( (
( (
(
(
Q 1 4x 5 −2x
2 50 − 4 3 = 13
4 S
A 2
B 7
x C 5
-5 O D 10
P R

(
Diagram17
−2 0 ( (
(−2
Given that PQ is parallel to RS, find the equation of RS 40 3
5 1
A y = 5x + 4 C 5y − 4x = 0 4 3
3
B 5y + 4x = 4 D 5 = − x A (−6 13 16)
4
()
−6

35 A shop has 270 jars of strawberry jam of 50 ml , 100 ml and B 13
150 ml. There are 100 jars of 50 ml in the shop. If a jar of 6
strawberry jam is chosen at random from the shop, the
()
probability of 100 ml jam chosen is 4 .How many jars 6
9 17
strawberry jam of 150 ml are available in the shop? C
18
A 80 C 60
B 70 D 50 D (−6 19 16)
36 A container contains some red, blue and yellow ice cream sticks.
If an ice cream stick is selected at random from the container,
the probability of getting a red ice cream stick is 3 and the
7
probability of getting a blue ice cream stick is 1 .Find the
3
number of yellow ice cream sticks in the container if it contains
18 red ice cream sticks
A 18 C 15
B 10 D 5
37 The weight, W kg, of a spherical shot put ball varies directly to

the square of its radius and the diameter is 4 cm when the weight
is 5 kg. Find the weight in kg, of the shot put ball of the diameter
is 12 cm
A 45 C 28.8
B 31.25 D 180
Mathematic Paper 2 [1449/2]
SECTION A
[52 marks]
Answer all questions in this section
1 On the graph in the answer space, shade the region which satisfies the three inequalities,
y ≥ 3 x + 6 , 4y < −3x + 24 and x > −8

4
[3 marks]
Answer: y
3
y= x+6
4

x
x = −8
2 A rectangular piece of manila card is folded to make the curve surface of a cylinder. The length of the manila card is
12 cm more than its width. If the area of the curved surface is 45 cm2 .
Find the width of the manila card.

[4 marks]
Answer:
3 The total height of Damia and her brother is 180 cm. The height of their mother is 150 cm which is equal to the
5 1
total of 4 Damia and 2 of her brother. Find the height of Damia and her brother.
[4 marks]
Answer:
4 Diagram 1 shows a right prism PQRSTUVWMN place on a horizontal plane
T U
W V
M S N R
("
P Q

Diagram1
3
Given that TU = MP = 4 UR, QR = 5 cm and TS = 12 cm.
(a) Name the angle between the line QT and the plane TWMPS
(b) Calculate the angle between the line QT and the plane TWMPS
[4 marks]
Answer:
5 Diagram 2 shows four containers with a cone shape, fully filled with oil. The oil from the containers are poured into the
bucket with a cylindrical shape. Given that the height the cylinder is 42 cm and the diameter is 28 cm
14cm
Diagram2
If the oil fills only 2 of the cylinder, calculate the height, in cm, of each cone
21
( Use = 22 )
7
[4 marks]
Answer:
6 In diagram 3, ABCD is a trapezium drawn on a Cartesian plane where O is the origin

y
D (-8, 5) C
x
0 3
A
Diagram 3
The vertical height of point B from the x-axis is 2 cm. Find

(a) the gradient of straight line BC,
(b) the equation of the straight line AD,
(c) the y-intercept of the straight line AD
[5 marks]
Answer:
(a)
(b)
(c)
7 (a) Determine whether each of the following statement is true or false
(i) All prime number can be divided by 2

1 1
(ii) k -1 = k and k = k 2
(b) Premise 1 : If the sum of the four numbers is 20, then its mean is 4
Premise 2 :
Conclusion : The sum of the four numbers is not 20
(n − 2) × 180°
(c) Each interior angle of a regular polygon with n sides is n
Make one conclusion by deduction for each interior angles of octagon

[5 marks]
Answer:
(a) (i)
(ii)
(b) Premise 2
(c)
8 In Diagram 4 , ABC and DEF are pie-shaped with common centre O

A
C F
0

Diagram4
Given that OA = OD = 8 : 3, and OF = 6 cm. By using = 22 ,calculate

7
(a) perimeter, in cm , of the shaded region,
(b) he area, in cm² , of the shaded region
[6 marks]
Answer:
(a)
(b)
9 Diagram 5 shows 3 labelled cards in Box R and four labelled cards in box S
Box R Box S
Diagram 5
Aisha is required to form 2-digit number code from the labelled cards in Box R and Box S. Two cards are picked at random,
one card from Box R and one card from Box S
(a) List the sample space.
(a) Find the probability of the events that
(i) the code is even number

(ii) the sum of the digit of the code is an odd number.
[6 marks]
Answer:
(a)
(b) (i)
(ii)
10 Diagram 6 shows the speed-time graph for the journey of a car for a period of 30 seconds.
Speed (ms-1)
20
0 Time (s)
6 12 18 24 30
Diagram 6
(a) State the length of time, in s, that the car moves with uniform speed.
(b) Calculate
(i) the rate of change of speed, in ms-2 , of the car in the last 6 seconds,
(ii) the value of V, if the total distance travelled for the period of 30 seconds is 450 m
[6 marks]
Answer:
(a)
(b) (i)
(ii)
(
(3
3 k
11 (a) Given the matrix A = has no inverse. Find the value of k
−6
(b) A booth sells two types of ice cream, chocolate and strawberry in two different sizes, small and regular cups. On hot day,
the amount of ice cream sold is shown in the Table 1 below
Types of ice creams Small Cup Regular Cup Total Sales ( RM )
Chocolate 30 20 140
Strawberry 50 40 260
Table 1
By using the matrix method, calculate the price for one small cup and one regular cup ice cream sold

[6 marks]
Answer:
(a)
(b)
SECTION B
[52 marks]
Answer any questions from this section
12 (a) Complete Table 2 in the answer space for the equation y = − 5

x
[2 marks]
(b) Using a scale of 2 cm to 1 unit on the x-axis and 2 cm to 1 unit on the y-axis, draw
the graph of y = − 5 for −4 ≤ x ≤ 5 and −5 ≤ y ≤5
x
[4 marks]
(c) From the graph in 12(b), find
(i) the value of y when x = 2.5

(ii) the value of x when y = -3.5
[2 marks]

(d) Find the values of x which satisfy the equation 2 = 5 − x for −4 ≤ x ≤ 5 and −5 ≤ y ≤ 5

x
[4 marks]
Answer:

(a)
x -4 -2 -1 1 1.5 2 3 4
y 1.25 5 -5 -3.33 -2.5 -1.67
Table 2
(b) Refer graph.

(c) (i) y =
(ii) x =
(d) The equation of the straight line :
x=
Graph for question 12
SOALAN ULANGKAJI SPM 2018
31

13 Diagram 7 shows trapezium ABCD and PQRS drawn on a Cartesian plane.
P Q
6
K
4
2
R
S
-6 -4 -2 2 4 6
-2

-4
C
D
A B
Diagram 7

(a) Transformation E is a rotation 90° anticlockwise about ( 2 , 0 )
Transformation T is a translation ( 4 ).
-3
State the coordinates of the image of point K under each of the following transformations :
(i) ET
(ii) E2

(b) PQRS is the image of ABCD under the combined transformation XY .
Describe in full, the transformation
(i) Y
(ii) X
(c) It is given that PQRS represents a region of area 220 m2. Calculate the area, in m2, ABCD. [ 12 marks ]
Answer:
(a) (i)
(ii)
(b) (i)
(ii)
(c)
14 Diagram 8 shows the histogram for marks of students in a class.
Frequency
12
10
4

2

0 Marks %
44.5 49.5 54.5 59.5 64.5 69.5 74.5 79.5
Diagram 8

(a) Based on the histogram in Diagram 8, complete Table in the answer space.
(b) Based on Table 3,
(i) state the modal class,

(ii) calculate the estimated mean marks of the students of the class

(c) By using a scale of 2 cm to 5% on the x-axis and 2 cm to 2 students on the y-axis, draw a frequency polygon based on the data.
(c) Based on the frequency polygon, calculate the percentage of students who its marks exceeding 62%. [ 12 marks ]
Answer :
(a)
Marks Frequency Midpoint
(%)
40-44 0
Table 3
(b) (i)
(ii)
(c) Graph
(d)
Graph for question 14

34 JAWAPAN boleh didapati di laman web www.afterschool.my/spm
15 (a) Diagram 9.1 shows a composite solid, formed by combination of a right prism and a cuboid at the plane STUV. Base of
WXTRQS on a horizontal plane. Edge MN and OVT are vertical. Rectangle UVWX is an inclined plane and height VT
is 3 cm.
M
P
N
U 7cm
Q
V
S R
4cm
W
T
6cm 4cm

Diagram 9.1
Draw to full scale, the plan of the solid.
Answer:
(a)
(b) A solid is cut and removed from the solid in Diagram 9.1. The remaining Solid is shown in Diagram 9.2. Rectangle KLGH is a
horizontal plane.
EG = FH = 2 cm are vertical edge and OE = FN = 1cm.
M
I
J
P
N
F
L
E
K O
U
H
Q
G
S V
T
B
A X
Diagram 9.2
Draw to full scale,
(i) the elevation of the composite solid on a vertical plane parallel to XTR as viewed from B
(ii) the elevation of the composite solid on a vertical plane parallel to WX as viewed from A

Answer :
(b) (i)
(ii)

16 D(25°N, 35°E), E(25°N, 40°W), F and G are four points which lie on the surface of the earth. DG is a diameter of the common of
parallel of latitude 25°N.
(a) Find the longitude of G.
(b) F lies 3 960 nautical miles due south of D measured along the surface of the earth. Calculate the latitude of F.

(c) Calculate the shortest distance, in nautical mile, from D to G measured along the surface of the earth.
(d) An aeroplane took off from F and flew due north to D and then flew due west to E. The total time taken for
the whole flight was 12 hours 40 minutes
(i) Calculate the distance, in nautical mile, from D due west to E measured along the common parallel of latitude.
(ii) Calculate the average speed, in knot, of the whole flight.
[ 12 marks]
Answer :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) (i)
(ii)
Tips
[1249/1]
[1249/2] Sejarah
KERTAS 1 [ 1249/1]
BIL HURAIAN
1 : Sila baca soalan dengan teliti dan cuba memahami apakah kehendak soalan dengan pantas.
2 : Ketepikan pilihan jawapan yang diyakini bukan pilihan jawapan yang tepat.
3 : Setiap soalan tidak boleh mengambil lebih daripada 2 minit.

4 : Setelah selesai menjawab, anda boleh menyemak bilangan A, B, C, dan D adalah lebih kurang sama banyak bilangannya.
KERTAS 2 [ 1249/2]
BIL HURAIAN
1 : Sila jawab semua soalan struktur dan 3 soalan esei. Elakkan menjawab lebih daripada 3 soalan esei kerana anda akan kekuran-
gan masa untuk memberikan jawapan yang mantap.
2 : Baca soalan sekurang-kurang 3 kali . Kemudian jawab soalan yang mudah berdasarkan pengetahuan anda. Tinggalkan soalan
yang agak sukar. Jika mempunyai lebih masa, anda boleh kembali kepada soalan yang sukar tadi terutama soalan struktur.
3 : Cuba menjawab setiap soalan yang diberikan walaupun anda mempunyai pengetahuan yang agak terhad. Jangan sesekali
meninggalkan ruangan jawapan kosong terutama soalan KBAT. Tidak perlu bimbang tentang betul atau salah jawapan yang
diberikan.
4 : Fokuskan minda anda kepada kata TUGAS soalan seperti bagaimana, faktor, isu , kesan dan lain-lain. Namun begitu, terdapat
soalan yang menggunakan perkatan tiada dalam buku teks contoh sebab digantikan dengan rasional. Anda tidak perlu panik.
5 : Jawapan anda perlu dijawab dengan ayat yang lengkap. Manakala soalan KBAT buat ayat berlapis yang mempunyai fakta,
huraian, contoh atau kesan atau kepentingan.
KERTAS 3 [ 1249/3]
BIL HURAIAN
1 : Jawab semua soalan. Soalan 1 hingga 4 kebiasaannya diambil daripada buku teks
2 : Jawapan anda perlulah ditulis dalam perenggan. Sila pastikan tulisan anda mudah dibaca.
3 : Formula untuk mengira perenggan ialah mengikut markah yang diberikan .

Contoh: 20 markah ÷ 5= 4 perenggan jawapan yang anda perlu buat.
4 : Pastikan soalan KBAT ( kebiasaan soalan 5, 6 dan 7) dijawab dengan ayat berlapis kerana kemungkinan penandaan mengikut
format Holistik.
Sejarah Kertas 1 [1249/1]

Arahan: Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 40 soalan. Jawab semua soalan. Tiap-tiap soalan diikuti oleh empat pilihan jawapan,
iaitu A, B, C dan D. Bagi setiap soalan pilih satu jawapan sahaja. Hitamkan jawapan anda pada kertas jawapan objektif yang
disediakan. Jika anda hendak menukar jawapan, padamkan tanda yang telah dibuat. Kemudian hitamkan jawapan yang baharu.
Pada tahun 1922, pengkaji Mesir Purba , Howard Carter Saling bergantungan antara satu sama lain
menemui mayat Tutankhamun II yang diselaputi emas
6 Pernyataan di atas merujuk kepada hubungan antara kerajaan
1 Merujuk pernyataan di atas, apakah kesimpulan yang dapat agraria dengan kerajaan maritim
dibuat?
A Upacara pemujaan semangat Apakah kesan hubungan tersebut kepada kerajaan agraria?
B Konsep kehidupan selepas mati A Menjadi kuasa laut yang unggul
C Percaya kepada kelahiran semula B Pesaing yang hebat
D Amalan penyembahan nenek moyang C Pembekal sumber makanan
D Menakluk kawasan berhampiran
2 Perkembangan yang pesat dalam perancangan bandar berlaku
pada sekitar tahun 2000 S.M dalam Tamadun Indus. Tarikh : 6 Ogos 610 Masihi bersamaan 17 Ramadhan
Apakah faktor yang mendorong perkembangan tersebut ? Tempat : Gua Hirak
A Kemahiran ilmu geomerti Peristiwa : Allah menurunkan wahyu yang pertama
B Kejayaan kegiatan penerokaan kepada Nabi Muhammad SAW
C Keluasan kawasan pemerintahan
D Kegiatan keagamaan 7 Jadual di atas berkaitan dengan sejarah awal perkembangan
Islam di Makkah. Apakah kesan peristiwa tersebut?
A Zaman Jahiliah berakhir
• Tempat pertarungan pahlawan
B Pelbagai kaum bersatu
• Berbentuk kubah
C Negara bangsa diasaskan
• Siap semasa Maharaja Flavian
D Sistem khalifah dilaksanakan
3 Maklumat di atas merujuk kepada binaan Perang al-Basus

A Pantheon • Berlaku antara Bani Taghlib dengan Bani Bakar
B Aqueduct • Berlangsung selama 40 tahun
C Acropolis
D Colloseum 8 Maklumat di atas merujuk kepada peperangan yang berlaku di
kalangan masyarakat Arab pada zaman Jahiliah.
4 Negara berikut mengamalkan sistem pemerintahan demokrasi
yang diwarisi daripada tamadun Yunani. Bagaimanakah peperangan tersebut dapat dielakkan?
A Mengimbangi taraf ekonomi antara etnik
• Malaysia B Meningkatkan persefahaman penduduk
• Indonesia C Memperkuatkan bidang ketenteraan
• Amerika Syarikat D Meningkatkan kemajuan infrastruktur

Apakah ciri demokrasi yang diamalkan oleh negara tersebut?
Tahun Peristiwa
A Perdana Menteri mengetuai negara
B Rakyat diberi hak memilih pemimpin 627 Masihi Perang Khandak
C Dewan Senat meluluskan undang-undang
D Ahli Dewan Perhimpunan dilantikk oleh ketua negara 9 Jadual di atas berkaitan dengan peperangan yang berlaku antara
orang Islam dengan pihak Quraisy Makkah.
5 Unsur mitos merupakan elemen penting dalam kerajaan awal
di Asia Tenggara. Apakah strategi Nabi Muhammad s.a.w dalam peperangan
Apakah kepentingan unsur tersebut? tersebut?
A Serang hendap
A Memperkukuhkan kedudukan pemerintah B Perang gerila
B Mendaulatkan sistem perundangan C Mengali parit
C Mengiktiraf golongan pendeta D Membina tembok
D Mengekalkan warisan tradisi

18 Apakah aspek yang ditekankan oleh Gereja Katolik pada Zaman

Orang Islam Madinah yang memihak ke Makkah tanpa Pertengahan di Eropah?
kebenaran penjaganya tidak perlu dipulangkan A Penguasaan kemahiran teknologi
B Pengukuhan institusi kekeluargaan
10 Pernyataan di atas merupakan satu daripada syarat Perjanjian C Penerokaan wilayah baru
Hudaibiyah. D Pembelajaran ilmu akhirat
Mengapakah Nabi Muhammad s.a.w menerima syarat tersebut

Pada zaman Revolusi Perindustrian
walaupun tidak dipersetujui para sahabat yang lain?
Akta Antipenggabungan melarang penubuhan
A Menggelakkan peperangan
Kesatuan Sekerja
B Mempertahankan imej Islam
C Memelihara hubungan kekeluargaan
D Memudahkan penyebaran ajaran Islam 19 Merujuk kepada pernyataan di atas, apakah implikasinya
kepada pekerja?
11 Apakah kepentingan Piagam Madinah yang dirangka oleh Nabi A Kenaikan gaji disekat
Muhammad s.a.w pada tahun 622 Masihi? B Wanita dilarang bekerja
A Menamatkan permusuhan dengan Rom C Pergaulan pekerja disekat
B Melindungi tradisi masyarakat Arab D Eksploitasi pekerja dilarang
C Memberi panduan pemerintahan negara

D Menyediakan strategi menghadapi ancaman
Quraisy Makkah Tahun Peristiwa
1887 British menubuhkan Lembaga
12 Bagaimanakah khalifah dilantik pada zaman pemerintahan Pesuruhjaya Wang di bawah
kerajaan Bani Abbasiyah? Ordinan XIII
A Pemilihan dilakukan oleh ulama
B Mengamalkan sistem perwarisan 20 Berdasarkan maklumat di atas, apakah kesan peristiwa tersebut?
C Melalui perundingan Majlis Syura A Mata wang tradisional terhapus
D Berdasarkan wasiat khalifah terdahulu B Nilai mata wang merosot
C Pinjaman wang sukar diperoleh
13 Mengapakah undang-undang Islam sukar dilaksanakan D Penggunaan wang asing dibenarkan
sepenuhnya oleh pemerintah Islam di Asia Tenggara?
A Pembesar kurang memberi galakan 21 Jadual berikut berkaitan dasar pendidikan Belanda di Indonesia
B Mendapat tentangan daripada penduduk
C Masih terikat dengan undang-undang adat Sistem pendidikan di Indonesia awal abad ke-19
D Perang saudara di kalangan pemimpin tempatan
Bandar Anak golongan priyayi
14 Apakah sumbangan Ibn Battuta yang menjadi rujukan Kampung Anak orang kebanyakan
sehingga kini?
A Merancang strategi peperangan Mengapakah Belanda mengasingkan sistem pendidikan
B Mengasaskan teori matematik tersebut?
C Memperkenalkan ilmu perubatan A Mengelak masalah pemberian bantuan
D Mencatatkan fakta pengembaraan dengan tepat B Menyekat penghijrahan penduduk
C Memecah belah perpaduan penduduk
15 Sekolah pondok merupakan institusi pendidikan penting di D Menghapuskan amalan tradisi tempatan
Tanah Melayu pada abad ke-17. Pernyataan manakah yang
berkaitan dengan institusi tersebut? 22 Mengapakah corak gerakan nasionalisme di Asia Tenggara
A Peperiksaan secara berpusat berubah daripada sederhana kepada radikal?
B Waktu pembelajaran tidak terbatas A Sekatan pengaruh luar
C Mufti mengawal sukatan pelajaran B Perjuangantahap pertama tidak berkesan
D Bangunan dibina oleh pemerintah C Kekurangan sumber kewangan
D Sokongan pemerintahan tempatan
16 Mengapakah institusi baitulmal diperkenalkan oleh kesultanan
Melayu Melaka? 23 Akhbar berikut digunakan oleh Kaum Muda sebagai wadah
A Menetapkan kadar cukai perjuangan mereka di Tanah Melayu pada 1930-an.
B Menguruskan harta kerajaan
C Mengendalikan adat istiadat istana • Al-Imam
D Mengehadkan bidang kuasa raja • Neracha
• Saudara
17 Pada abad ke-16, Gerakan Reformation berlaku di Eropah Barat.
Apakah bidang yang berkaitan dengan gerakan tersebut? Apakah isu yang dimuatkan oleh akhbar tersebut
A Pendidikan A Peranan golongan pembesar
B Kewangan B Mengkritik kelemahan raja
C Agama C Penghapusan amalan penghambaan
D Politik D Menggalakkan pendidikan barat
24 Dialog berikut mungkin berlaku antara ahli Kaum Muda

Piagam Atlantik 1945
Azmi : Kita tidak dapat bergerak di
Negeri-negeri Melayu 28 Apakah gesaan Pertubuhan Bangsa-Bangsa Bersatu (PBB)
Yusuf : Ya, memang betul yang terkandung dalam piagam di atas?
A Dasar liberalisasi
B Amalan realpolitil
Mengapakah perkara tersebut berlaku? C Dasar Dekolonisasi
A Kekurangan kewangan D Amalan monarki
B Sekatan undang-undang
C Sikap dingin masyarakat 29 Senarai berikut menerangkan berkenaan pertubuhan yang
D Kesukaran sistem perhubungan ditubuhkan di Tanah Melayu selepas Perang Dunia Kedua
25 Bagaimanakah Bismarck berjaya memenangi dan membangkit • Angkatan Pemuda Insaf (API)
semangat rakyat Prussia di Medan peperangan? • Angkatan Wanita Sedar (AWAS)
A Melaksanakan pelbagai taktik kotor • Barisan Tani Malaya (BATAS)
B Melancarkan sistem kediktatoran
C Mengadakan kerjasama dengan ahli Apakah persamaan pendirian ahli pertubuhan tersebut?
D Menggunakan isu membenci kuasa asing A Menyokong Malayan Union
B Menyetujui pendidikan sekular
26 Apakah peranan Buapak dalam sistem pemerintahan yang C Menentang kemasukan imigran
berasaskan Adat Perpatih di Negeri Sembilan? D Membubarkan Sistem Ahli
I Menasihati Undang 30 Apakah manfaat yang diperoleh orang Melayu melalui

II Memilih Anak Buah Perjanjian Persekutuan Tanah Melayu 1948?
III Mengetuai Perut A Kedudukan istimewa dilindungi
IV Melantik Lembaga B Menentukan kerakyatan
C Menguasai pentadbiran
A I dan II D Kebebasan berpolitik
B I dan IV
C II dan III 31 Mengapakah parti berikut ditubuhkan?
D III dan IV
Parti Parti Kemerdekaan Malaya
27
Pengasas Dato’Onn bin Jaafar
∙ Count Camillo Benso di Cavour
Tahun Penubuhan 1951
∙ Otto Eduard von Bismark
A Menyekat pengaruh komunis
B Mewujudkan perpaduan kaum
Kedua-dua tokoh berikut berjaya menyatukan negara masing- C Mempertahankan hak peribumi
masing di Eropah pada abad ke-19. Apakah persamaan kedua- D Mengurangkan pengaruh golongan radikal
dua tokoh tersebut?
A Mengenepikan perbezaan warna kulit

B Menyatukan masyarakat majmuk Vyner Brooke menyerahkan Sarawak
C Menggunakan kaedah realpolitik kepada British pada tahun 1946
D Membina empayar yang luas
32 Mengapakah penyerahan tersebut ditentang oleh pemimpin

dan persatuan kaum tempatan Sarawak?
A Penentangan Majlis Negeri
B Penipuan terhadap pembesar
C Penghapusan hak istimewa peribumi
D Percanggahan dengan Perlembagaan 1941

33 Jawatankuasa berikut ditubuhkan pada bulan Julai 1961 Dasar luar Malaysia
Jawatankuasa Pengerusi Sebelum 1971 Pro-Barat
Jawatankuasa Donald Stephens Selepas 1971 Berkecuali
Perunding Perpaduan
Kaum 37 Jadual di atas menunjukkan perubahan dasar luar Malaysia
Mengapakah berlaku perubahan dasar di atas?
Apakah peranan jawatankuasa tersebut?
A Merangka perlembagaan tersebut A Suasana aman di Vietnam
B Menetapkan tarikh pilihan raya umum B Bantuan pertahanan dari komanwel
C Menjelaskan tentang gagasan Malaysia C Pengaruh Britain di Timur berkurangan
D Merintis kerjasama pelbagai parti politik D Perjanjian Inggeris-Tanah Melayu ditandatangani
34 Situasi berikut merujuk kepada masalah yang dihadapi oleh 38 Apakah faktor pembubaran Liga Bangsa?
seorang rakyat Malaysia A Kemelesetan ekonomi dunia
B Perluasan pengaruh komunis
• Disabitkan dengan kesalahan C Kegagalan menghalang peperangan
Jenayah oleh mahkamah D Pengisytiharan kemerdekaan kebanyakan negara

• Diisytiharkan muflis
39 Apakah masalah yang dihadapi oleh negara bekas tanah
jajahan Barat selepas Perang Dunia kedua?
Dalam sistem pilihan raya di Malaysia, individu tersebut
tidak berhak I Membentuk kerajaan baru
A Membuang undi II Mewujudkan perpaduan ekonomi
B Menganggotai parti politik III Membangunkan sektor ekonomi
C Menyediakan manifesto IV Menghapuskan warisan penjajah
D Menjadi calon
A I, II dan III
35 Rajah di bawah menerangkan langkah kerjasama untuk B I, II dan IV
memajukan ekonomi negara. C I, III dan IV
D II , III dan IV
Lembaga Pembangunan Industri
Desa (RIDA) digantikan dengan
Majlis Amanah Rakyat • Persatuan Negara-negara Asia Tenggara
1 Mac 1966 (ASA) - 1961
• Persatuan Negara-negara Asia Tenggara
Bank Bumiputera ditubuhkan (ASEAN) - 1967
Apakah kesan langkah tersebut?

A Pembukaan tanah pertanian secara besar-besaran 40 Kedua-dua pertubuhan di atas mempunyai matlamat yang
B Perkembangan pesat kemudahan asas sama iaitu
C Peningkatan produktiviti sektor perkilangan A Menyelaraskan sistem pentadbiran
D Memulihkan kawasan berproduktiviti rendah B Mengadakan pakatan ketenteraan
C Mewujudkan kebudayaan serantau
36 Kerajaan telah memperkenalkan program pembangunan in-situ D Menjalinkan kerjasama dalam pelbagai bidang
melalui Dasar Pertanian Negara (DPN)
Apakah tujuan program tersebut?

A Membuka petempatan baru
B Menambah peluang pekerjaan
C Memperkemaskan sistem pemasaran
D Memulihkan kawasan berproduktiviti rendah
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

Sejarah Kertas 2 [1249/2]
Bahagian A
[40 markah]
Jawab semua soalan
1 Prinsip undang-undang Rom telah menjadi asas kepada undang-undang pada hari ini.
(a) Nyatakan dua cabang undang-undang Rom?

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [2 markah]
(b) Jelaskan prinsip undang-undang dalam Tamadun Rom?

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [4 markah]
(c) Pengamalan sistem perundangan yang adil dapat menjamin kemakmuran negara. Berikan penjelasan anda.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [4 markah]
2 Kedatangan Islam ke Tanah Melayu telah mempengaruhi sistem ekonomi masyarakat sebelum kedatangan Barat.
(a) Nyatakan ciri-ciri sistem mata wang pada masa tersebut?

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [2 markah]
(b) Bagaimanakah pengaruh Islam berjaya memajukan ekonomi Kesultanan Melayu Melaka?
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [4 markah]
(c) Huraikan langkah-langkah yang harus dilakukan untuk mengekalkan kemajuan ekonomi negara.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [4 markah]
3 Negeri Sembilan mengamalkan prinsip demokrasi dan konsep persekutuan dalam sistem pemerintahannya

(a) Nyatakan dua buah negeri yang terdapat dalam Kerajaan Negeri Sembilan.
i _______________________________________________________________________
ii _______________________________________________________________________
[2 markah]
(b) Jelaskan bagaimana prinsip demokrasi diamalkan dalam pemerintahan Kerajaan Negeri Sembilan.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [4 markah]
(c) Berdasarkan pengetahuan am anda, apakah cadangan yang boleh diberikan kepada pemimpin negara untuk meningkatkan
kecekapan pentadbiran negara?
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________ [4 markah]
4 Pilihan raya ialah proses memilih wakil rakyat untuk memerintah negara sama ada peringkat negeri atau persekutuan.
(a) Nyatakan ciri-ciri pilihan raya di Malaysia.

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [2 markah]
(b) Jelaskan apakah tanggungjawab Suruhanjaya Pilihan raya.

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [4 markah]
(c) Berdasarkan pengetahuan sejarah anda, mengapakah pilihan raya penting bagi negara kita?
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________ [4 markah]
Bahagian B
[ 60 markah ]
Jawab mana-mana tiga (3) soalan daripada tujuh (7) soalan yang disediakan
5 Pada tahun 628 Masihi bersamaan 6 Hijrah, Perjanjian Hudaibiyah telah dimeterai antara pihak Islam dengan orang Arab Quraisy
di Makkah.
(a) Apakah peristiwa yang membawa kepada Perjanjian Hudaibiyah.

[4 markah]

(b) Terangkan kepentingan Perjanjian Hudaibiyah.
[8 markah]

c) Berdasarkan pengetahuan sejarah anda, mengapakah Perjanjian Hudaibiyah ini menggambarkan kebijaksanaan
Nabi Muhammad s.a.w.
[8 markah]
6 Zaman Renaissance bermula di Itali pada abad ke-14 dan kemudiannya berkembang ke Eropah Barat sehingga kira-kira abad ke-17.
(a) Jelaskan maksud Renaissance.

[4 markah]

(b) Mengapakah zaman Renaissance bermula di Itali?
[4 markah]
(c) Berdasarkan pengetahuan sejarah anda, apakah kebaikan yang diperoleh daripada Zaman Renaissance?
[8 markah]

7 Dasar British telah membawa kepada perkembangan perbandaran dan sistem pengangkutan di Tanah Melayu pada awal abad ke-20.
(a) Terangkan faktor kemunculan Bandar-bandar baru.

[4 markah]

(b) Bincangkan kepentingan sistem pengangkutan di Tanah Melayu.
[8 markah]
(c) Berikan cadangan anda untuk meningkatkan kualiti pengangkutan awam di negara kita.
[8 markah]
BAPA Raja Mongkut

ANAK Raja Chulalongkorn
Rajah 1
8 Rajah 1 menunjukkan pemerintah Siam iaitu Raja Mongkut dan anaknya , Raja Chulalongkorn.
(a) Bagaimanakah tokoh tersebut dapat mengekalkan kemerdekaan Siam?

[4 markah]

(b) Gerakan nasionalisme di Thailand terbahagi kepada dua tahap Bincangkan.
[8 markah]
(c) Pada pandangan anda, apakah kebaikan sistem birokrasi Barat yang boleh dicontohi oleh negara kita?
[8 markah]
9 Persekutuan Tanah Melayu telah dibentuk pada 1 februari 1948 melalui Perjanjian Persekutuan Tanah Melayu yang menggantikan
Perjanjian Malayan Union.
(a) Jelaskan faktor-faktor pembentukan Persekutuan Tanah Melayu.

[4 markah]
(b) Berdasarkan pengetahuan sejarah anda, apakah kepentingan Persekutuan Tanah Melayu 1948 dalam
pembentukan negara dan bangsa Malaysia? [8 markah]
(c) Pada pandangan anda, apakah kebaikan penubuhan Perjanjian Persekutuan Tanah Melayu 1948?
[8 markah]

10 Parti Perikatan telah bertindak untuk mendapatkan kemerdekaan Persekutuan Tanah Melayu setelah kejayaan cemerlang Parti Perikatan
dalam pilihan raya pertama pada 1955.

(a) Terangkan isu-isu yang diberi perhatian oleh ahli jawatankuasa Suruhanjaya Reid dalam merangka perlembagaan
merdeka Persekutuan Tanah Melayu.
[4 markah]
(b) Nyatakan isi penting Perjanjian Persekutuan Tanah Melayu 1957 yang menjadi asas kepada pembentukan

Persekutuan Tanah Melayu yang merdeka.
[8 markah]
(c) Berdasarkan pengetahuan sejarah anda, nyatakan kepentingan Perjanjian Persekutuan Tanah Melayu 1957.
[8 markah]
11 Malaysia mempunyai dasar luarnya yang tersendiri, iaitu berbaik-baik dengan semua negara.

(a) Huraikan matlamat yang ingin dicapai oleh Malaysia melalui dasar luarnya.
[4 markah]
(b) Terangkan faktor penggubalan dasar luar Malaysia.
[8 markah]
(c) Jelaskan tahap-tahap perkembangan dasar luar Malaysia.
[8 markah]
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

Tips
[1511/1]
[1511/2] Science
KERTAS 2 [1511/2] SOALAN NO. 10
KUNCI SOALAN Kunci jawapan
KEMAHIRAN PROSES SAINS
HIPOTESIS Hubungan iv-dv
KEMAHIRAN SAINTIFIK YANG DIUJI TUJUAN EKSPERI- Mengkaji / menyiasat.....
• Mengukur dan menggunakan nombor MEN
• Memerhati MENGENAL PASTI Pembolehubah dimanipulasikan:
• Mengawal pemboleh ubah PEMBOLEH UBAH Pembolehubah bergerak balas:
• Membuat hipotesis Pembolehubah dimalarkan:
• Membuat inferens
SENARAI RADAS Senaraikan dari soalan dan tambah apa
• Menginterpretasi data
DAN BAHAN yang perlu

• Mentafsirkan data
• Mendefinisikan secara operasi PROSEDUR ATAU Mesti bernombor
KAEDAH Dapat dijalankan
CARA MENJAWAB SOALAN BERKAITAN PEMERHA- PENJADUAL DATA Buat jadual
TIAN Pembolehubah dimanipulasikan di kiri
■ PEMERHATIAN Pembolehubah bergerak balas di atas
✓ Perhati rajah yang diberi
✓ Cari keputusan / hasil daripada rajah SOALAN NOMBOR 11/12 [PILIHAN]
✓ Buat perbandingan jika ada dua rajah
✓ Catat APA YANG DILIHAT sahaja ■ 11(a) / 12(a)
✓ Perbezaan
■ INFERENS ✓ 1 persamaan 3 perbezaan
✓ Menyatakan sebab kepada pemerhatian (sebab berdasarkan apa ✓ Terangkan proses / faktor
kamu nampak) ✓ Nyatakan kebaikkan / keburukkan / sifat
✓ Mesti ada perkataan 'KERANA'
■ 11(b) / 12 (b)
■ PEMBOLEHUBAH ▶ Soalan mengkonsepsi [bina konsep]
✓ Format / rangka jawapan [murid mesti ingat / hafal]
Dimalarkan Dimanipulasi ber- Bergerak balas
✓ Maklumat : Dua ciri sepunya
sama /tetap beza / berlainan keputusan / hasil
◆ Konsep awal
eksperimen
◆ Satu contoh lain
✓ Pembolehubah boleh dikenalpasti daripada: ◆ Satu bukan contoh
◆ Gambarajah dalam soalan - Graf ◆ Konsep sebenar
◆ Jadual - Pernyataan soalan
■ 11(b) / 12(b)
■ DEFINISI SECARA OPERASI ▶ Soalan menyelesaikan masalah
✓ Definisi berdasarkan : ✓ Format / rangka jawapan [murid mesti ingat / hafal]
◆ Soalan ✓ Kenal pasti masalah - [Tulis semula - ada di dalam soalan]
◆ Bahan / tindak balas / keadaan jirim ✓ Penjelasan masalah - [Tulis semula - ada di dalam soalan]
◆ Pemerhatian ✓ Kaedah yang digunakan
✓ Penjelasan kaedah
INTERPRETASI DATA
■ PINDAHKAN DATA DARI JADUAL KE GRAF ATAU
✓ Tandakan titik ke graf guna -x ■ 11(b) / 12(b)
✓ Graf garis lurus - Guna pembaris ▶ Soalan membuat pilihan / keputusan
✓ GRAF LENGKUNG - Tidak boleh guna pembaris 'free hand' ✓ Format / rangka jawapan [murid mesti ingat / hafal]
✓ GRAF BAR / HISTOGRAM ✓ Tujuan pemilihan - [Tulis semula - ada di dalam soalan]
✓ Saiz bar mesti sama ✓ Penerangan ciri-ciri pilihan yang diberi
✓ Pilih yang terbaik / susun ikut urutan keutamaan
■ Langkah-langkah untuk melukis graf ✓ Sebab kepada pilihan
1. Baca skala pada paksi X dan paksi Y
2. Plot titik
3. Sambungkan titik
4. Jika garis lurus mesti guna pembaris
5. Garis lengkung tidak boleh guna pembaris
Science Paper 1 [1511/1]

This question paper consists of 50 questions. Each question is followed by four options A, B, C and D.
Choose one correct answer for each question. Answer all the questions.
1 Diagram 1 shows the structure of the human brain. 5 How many chromosomes can be found in the nucleus of a
child’s cheek cell who suffers from Down’s Syndrome?
A 45 C 47
B 46 D 48
6 Diagram 3 shows the formation of a female zygote.

K
Diagram 1
What will happen to the person if part K is injured? Diagram 3

A Deaf

B Blind Which of the following chromosomes can be found in the
C Mentally impaired sperm, ovum and female zygote?
D Paralysed in certain parts of the body Sperm Ovum Female zygote
A 22 + Y 22 + X 22 + XY
2 Diagram 2 shows the endocrine system in humans. B 22 +X 22 +X 22 +XX
C 22 +X 22 +X 44 +XX
D 44 +X 44 +X 44 +XX
A
B 7 Diagram 4 shows the inheritance of flower’s colour of a plant.

R is the dominant gene for red rose flower while r is the
recessive gene for white rose flower.
D
Red rose flower White rose flower
C
Diagram2 Parent
Which of the following endocrine glands will be affected if a

person consumed a lack of iodine in his diet?

Gamete R r r r
3 Which of the following parts of the body controls the jerking
away of the hand from a hot object?
A Cerebrum C Spinal nerve
B Spinal cord D Medulla oblongata
Offspring W X Y Z
4 Which of the following is true about sex determination? Diagram 4

A The sex of a child is determined by the number of
chromosomes in a sperm. Which offspring has purple flower ?
B The sex of a child is determined by the type of sex A W only
chromosome carried by the ovum. B X only
C When an ovum is fertilized by a sperm which carries the C W and Z only
XY chromosomes, it will produce a male zygote. D X and Y only
D When an ovum is fertilized by a sperm which carries the
X chromosome, it will produce a female zygote.
8 Diagram 5 shows the locations of elements P, Q, R and S in the 12 Table 2 shows chemical cells X, Y and Z and their uses.
Periodic Table.
Type of chemical cell Use

RS
P Q
X
Diagram 5
Y
A P C R
B Q D S
9 Which of the following examples consist of atomic, ionic and Z

molecular particles?
Table 2
Atom Ion Molecule
A Iron Bromine Zinc Which of the following represents chemical cells X, Y and Z?
B Chlorine Iron Sulphur
C Sodium chloride Zinc bromide Copper X Y Z
D Copper Sodium chloride Chlorine A Dry cell Lead-acid Alkaline battery
accumulator
10 Diagram 6 shows the physical changes in the state of a matter. B Nickel-cadmium Silver oxide-zinc Lead-acid
battery cell accumulator
C Alkaline battery Dry cell
Silver oxide-zinc
P T cell
D Silver oxide-zinc Nickel-cadmium Lead-acid
cell battery accumulator
Q U
R
13 Diagram 7 shows the apparatus set up of an experiment.
S
Glass Wool Metal Filings
Diagram 6 Potassium
manganate
Which of the following processes involve the absorption (V11)
of heat energy? crystals
A P, R, U
B Q, S, T
C P, S, T
D Q, R, U Heat Heat
Diagram 7
11 Table 1 shows the elements J, K, L and M with their respective
number of protons, number of neutrons and nucleon number. What is the function of potassium manganite (VII) crystals
in this experiment?
A To speed up the reaction of metal
Element Number of Number of Nucleon B To supply oxygen to react with metal
protons neutrons number C To absorb moisture in the boiling tube
J 5 6 11 D To remove all the air in the boiling tube
K 6 6 12
L 6 7 13 14 Which of the following equations represents the reaction that
takes place in a blast furnace during the extraction of tin ore?
M 7 7 14
A Tin + carbon dioxide → tin oxide + carbon
Table 1 B Tin oxide + carbon → tin + carbon dioxide
C Tin carbonate → tin oxide + carbon dioxide
Which of the following is a pair of isotopes? D Tin oxide + zinc → tin + zinc oxide
A J and K
B K and L
C K and M
D L and M
15 Diagram 8 shows a reaction between calcium and water to 19 A student has three coloured filters, X, Y and Z. When X, Y
produce a colourless gas. and Z overlap each other, different colours are formed on
the screen.
Gas
Light Mixture Colour Formed
Test tube X+Y Magenta
X+Z Cyan
X + Y+ Z White
Water Which of the following represents X, Y and Z ?

K L M
Calcium
A Blue Red Green
Diagram 8 B Blue Green Red
C Red Blue Green
The gas produced is
D Green Red Blue
A turns limewater into cloudy
B turns red litmus paper into blue
C rekindles a glowing wooden splinter 20 Which of the following pairs functions to control the amount
D produces a ‘pop’ sound when tested with a lighted of light that enters?

wooden splinter
Eye Camera
16 Diagram 9 shows a nuclear fission of uranium to produce A Iris Diaphragm
nuclear energy.
B Pupil Shutter
Uranium nucleus C Retina Lens
D Ciliary body Focus adjuster
21 Diagram 11 shows an object is placed at different positions in

Particle X front of a convex lens. At which positions marked A, B, C or D,
will the size of image formed be smaller than the object ?
Diagram 9
A B C D
A Proton C Neutron
Object
B Electron D Helium atom
2F F F 2F
17 Why is gamma radiation suitable to be used to sterilise food ?
A It can enhance the flavour of food
B It can kill all the bacteria and fungi in food Diagram 11
C It can cause mutation to the microorganisms
D It can change the chemical composition of food 22 How do the mixing coloured pigments differ from the addition
of coloured lights ?
18 Diagram 10 shows the deflection of radioactive rays K, L and M A Its colour is pure.
in an electrical field. B The primary colours of pigments are green, red and blue
C It produces white colour when three primary colours
mixed together.
D The principle used in mixing coloured pigment is
subtraction of colour.
K
L
23 Diagram 12 shows a type of alloy.
M
Diagram 10
Foreign atom
Diagram 10
What are represented by K, L and M ?

Diagram 12
K L M
Alloy Foreign atom
A Alpha ray Beta ray Gamma ray
B Beta ray Gamma ray Alpha ray A Steel Carbon
C Gamma ray Alpha ray Beta ray B Brass Antimony
D Beta ray Alpha ray Gamma ray C Pewter Iron
D Bronze Lead
24 Diagram 13 shows an experiment to study the hardness of brass, 29 Which of the following is an effective method to destroy
copper, aluminium and tin. bacteria spores?
A Boiling C Antiseptics
B Heating D Autoclaving
30 Diagram 15 shows a type of bacteria found on the root

Weight nodules of a plant
Steel Ball
Cellphone tape
Metal block Bacteria
Diagram 13
When a weight is dropped onto the metal block, which metal

block could have the smallest diameter of dent?
A Tin C Copper
B Brass D Aluminium Diagram15
Which of the following statements is correct ?

25 Which of the following substances is produced by fungi and A The bacteria will destroy the roots of plant
able to stop bacterial growth? B The bacteria are known as nitrifying bacteria
A Antigen C Antibody C The bacteria mostly live in the root nodules of
B Antibiotic D Antiseptic leguminous plants such as pea plants
D The bacteria convert nitrogen gas into nitrite
compounds which are needed by plants
26 Which of the following diseases can be treated by using
antiserum injection?
A Malaria C Tetanus 31 Diagram 16 shows a family who live in the North Pole
B Cholera D Tuberculosis
27 Diagram 14 shows the reproductive process of a microorganism.
Diagram 16
Diagram 9
Diagram 9 Which of the following explains that they need food that is rich
in fats?
Diagram14 A Builds more new cells
B Supplies more energy
Which of the following pairs is correct? C Increases fatty tissues
D Increases the body’s immunity
Reproductive method Microorganism
A Budding Yeast
B Conjugation Paramecium
C Binary fission Amoeba
D Spore formation Mould
28 An individual can acquire an artificial active immunity if he

A drinks his mother’s milk
B has been cured from a disease
C receives an injection of a vaccine
D receives an injection of antiserums
32 Table 3 shows the calorific values of three types of food. 36 The problem of increased carbon dioxide content in the
atmosphere can be prevented by
Calotific value per 100 g/kJ A fixing air filtration systems
Food
per 100 g B planting more green plants
C fixing catalyst converters on all exhaust pipes of vehicles
D fixing electrostatic precipitators in chimneys of factories
650
37 The following word equation shows the reaction between fatty
acid and potassium hydroxide solution to produce soap
590 Processs X
Fatty acid + sodium hydroxide solution soap + water
What is process X ?
1512 A Sterilisation C Saponification
B Esterification D Polymerisation
38 Which of the following shows the difference between saturated

Table 3 fats and unsaturated fats correctly ?

A man consumes 250 g noodles, 120 g chicken and 150 g egg for Saturated fats Microorganism
his lunch meal. What is the calorific value of the food consumed?
A Obtained from Obtained from
A 2 752 kJ C 4 770 kJ plant sources animal sources
B 3 272 kJ D 5 463 kJ
B High cholesterol Low cholesterol
C Less hydrogen atoms More hydroen atoms
33 Which of the following is the function of the ozone layer? D Low melting points High melting points
A To protect the Earth from ultraviolet rays
B To reflect some of the heat energy of the Sun back into space 39 The picture below shows four types of shoe’s heel of the same
C To absorb heat from the Sun in order to maintain the weight placed on a table
earth’s temperature
D To absorb Sulphur dioxide in the air to prevent the
occurrence of acid rain
34 The following information shows some human activities. W X
• Logging
• Mining
• Clearing of forest
• Fishing
Y Z

What is the common effect of the activities shown above? Which shoe produces pressure from the lowest to the highest?
A Causes air pollution A Z,X,Y,W
B Causes the thinning of the ozone layer B Y,X,Z,W
C Destroys the habitats of flora and fauna
C X,Y,W,Z
D Threatens the human health
D Z,W,Y,X
35 Diagram 17 shows a food chain.

40 The following picture shows, some applications used in our
daily life.
Diagram 17
What will happen to the population of grasshoppers and grass

if all the snakes are caught?
Grasshopper Grass What is the operational principle used in these applications?

A Inertia
A Increases Decreases
B Pascal’s principle
B Decreases Decreases C Archimedes’ principle
C Increases Increases D Principle of conservation of momentum
D Decreases Increases
41 An object with 10 kg mass moves with a velocity of 5 ms-1 45 The picture shows two methods of processing food
A 2 N s C 20 N s
B 5 N s D 50 N s
42 Diagram 18 shows a helicopter
P Q
What is the disadvantage of method P compared to method Q?
A It destroys food nutrients.
X B It can be only used in limited food
C It spoils the taste and colour of food
D It can keep the food for a short period of time
Diagram 18
46 The picture shows the foods that need to be processed
What is the function of part X ?
A To enable the helicopter to move upwards
B To stabilise the helicopter during the flight

C To minimise the gravitational force acting on the helicopter
D To overcome the air resistance that resists the movement
of helicopter
Which is the most suitable way to process the food above so that
43 Diagram 19 shows a fresh milk their freshness could be maintained for export purposes?
A Freezing C Pasteurisation
B Irradiation D Vacuum packaging
47 Diagram 20 shows the structure of a type of plastic
Diagram 20
Which of the following has this above structure?
Diagram 19
A Epoxy C Melamine
This type of food cannot be kept for too long. This is because the B Bakelite D Polyvinyl chloride
A enzymes spoiled the milk 48 Which of the following monomer and polymer pairs is correctly
B oxygen in the air oxidises the milk matched?
C bacterial spores are not destroyed
D nutrients in the milk are already spoilt Monomer Polymer
A Propene Polypropene
B Neoprene Chloroprene
44 Table 4 shows chemical substances and their functions.
C Polythene Ethene
Chemical substance Function D Styrene butadiene rubber Butadiene
P To remove the natural colour of
food and look pure 49 Diagram 21 shows a symbol of electronic component.
Q To add taste and fragrance
to food
Diagram 21
R To stabilize a mixture of oil
and water What is this electronic component?
Table 4 A Diode C Capacitor
B Resistor D Transistor
Which of the following are chemical substances P, Q and R?
P Q R 50 Which of the following types of satellites can detect and draft
map to show the location of petroleum source ?
A Bleach Flavouring Emulsifier A Military satellite
B Antioxidant Emulsifier Flavouring B Navigational satellite
C Flavouring Sweetener Stabiliser C Earth surveyor satellit
D Preservative Antioxidant Flavouring D Weather forecast satellite
END OF QUESTIONS PAPER

Science Paper 2 [1511/2]
Section A
[20 marks]
Answer all questions in this section.
1 Table 1 shows the data obtained when the body weight of students in a class 5 Iswara is measured
Weight of students/kg 31 - 40 41 - 50 51 - 60 61 - 70 71 - 80
Number of students 6 8 10 7 4
Table 1
(a) Using the data above, draw a histogram on the graph paper below to show the number of students against their body weight
Number of students

10
Weight of students/ kg
31-40 41-50 51-60 61-70 71-80
[ 2 marks ]
(b) What type of variation is shown by the body weight of students?

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(c) State one other example of the same type of variation among humans, as stated in (b)
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
(d) State one factor that influences the variation

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
2 Diagram 2 shows an experiment to compare the reactivity of metals X, Y and copper with oxygen
Glass Wool Metal Filings
Potassium
manganate
(V11)
crystals
Heat Heat
Diagram 2
Table 2 shows the observation of the experiment
Metal Reactivity of metal with oxygen

X Lights up brightly
Y Glows with a bright flame
Copper (b)
Table 2
(a) State the variables in this experiment
(i) Controlled variable:

___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(ii) Manipulated variable:

___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(b) What can be observed when copper reacts with oxygen?

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(c) When metal Y reacts with oxygen, a white solid is formed. What could metal Y be?
____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(d) Arrange the metals based on its reactivity with oxygen in an ascending order
Reactivity increases
[ 1 mark ]
3 Table 3 shows an experiment is carried out to study the growth of bacteria under different conditions
Experiment Condition of the Petri dish Presence of bactuerial colonies
Petri dish
Nutrient agar +
II bactueria
S
Incubated in a dark place
Petri dish
Nutrient agar +
bactueria
T
Incubated in a bright place

Table 3
(a) Mark ( ✓ ) Table 3 at those Petri dishes that show the presence of bacterial colonies at the end of the experiment [ 1 mark ]
(b) What observation can be seen on the nutrient agar to indicate the presence of bacteria?
____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(c) What factor to be studied in this experiment

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(d) State the hypothesis in this experiment

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(e) What inference can be made from this experiment?

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
4 Diagram 4 shows an experiment to study the relationship between force and pressure
Weight
0 mm
Sponge 5 mm
10 mm
Diagram 4
The distance of compressed sponge is recorded in the Table 4
Weight mass/g 100 200 300 400

Distance of compression/mm 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
Table 4
(a) What is the relationship between weight mass and the distance of compression?
____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(b) State the variables in this experiment
(i) Manipulated variable:

___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(ii) Responding variable:

___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(c) Predict what will happen to the distance of compression if the weight is replaced with same mass but smaller
surface area.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
(d) State the operational definition of pressure

____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
Section B
[ 30 marks ]
(Answer all the questions in this section.)
5 Diagram 5 shows the reflex are of a relfex action when Amy's finger is pricked by a thumb tack
P
R
Diagram 5
(a) (i) Name the part labeled P

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(ii) What is the function of structure labeled R?

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(b) (i) What happens to the structure Q when Amy’s finger is pricked by a thumb tack?
____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(ii) Which part of the nervous system controls this action?

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(c) State the importance of reflex action to us.

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark]

6 Diagram 6 shows some stages of a cell division occuring in human
W X Y Z
Diagram 6
(a) (i) What type of cell division is this?

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
(ii) Rearrange the stages of cell division as mentioned in (a)(i)

, , , [1 mark ]
(b) What happens at Stage Y?

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
(c) State one reason for the importance of this cell division.
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
(d) Name two sections in plants which experience this cell division.
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
7 Diagram 7 shows a process in alloying
+ Foreign atoms
Pure metal Alloy

Diagram 7
(a) Give one benefit from the above process

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(b) (i) Why is a pure metal soft and not strong?

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(i) How can alloying change the properties of the pure metal in (b)(i)?
____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(c) Pewter is a type of alloy
(i) Name the composition of pewter

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(ii) State the properties of pewter

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(iii) State one use of pewter

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
8 Diagram 8.1 shows the structure of an oil palm fruit
J: K:
kernal
Diagram 8.1
(a) Name the structures labelled J and K in the boxes provided in Diagram 8.1 [ 2 marks]

(b) Which part of the oil palm fruit produces the high quality oil?
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
(c) Diagram 8.2 shows the stages involved in extracting palm oil from the oil palm fruit.
X Threshing Digestion
Purification Filtration Y
Diagram 8.2
(i) What is process Y?

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(ii) State one importance of process X

____________________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(d) State one vitamin found in the palm oil.

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
9 Diagram 9 shows communication satellites orbit around the Earth
Diagram 9
(a) What type of wave is used in satellite communication system to send information?
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
(b) How can we receive information from the communication satellite in space?
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
(c) State two advantages of information transmission through communication satellite
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________ [ 2 marks]
(d) Give one application of satellite in our life

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
(e) State another type of satellite which is used to detect the movements of ships at sea
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark ]
Section C
Answer Question 10 and either Question 11 or Question 12
10 Study the following statement

Magnesium and copper show different reactivity
when reacting with dilute acid
You are given magnesium ribbon, copper filings and dilute hydrochloric acid
(a) Suggest a hypothesis to investigate the above statement

[1 mark]
(b) Describe an experiment to test your hypothesis in (a) based on the following criteria
(i) Aim of the experiment [1 mark]

(ii) The variables [2 marks]
(iii) List of apparatus and materials [1 mark]
(iv) Procedure [4 marks]

(v) Tabulation of data [1 mark]
11 (a) State two differences between organic compound and inorganic compound.
Give one example of each type of compound.
[4 marks]
(b) Diagram 11 shows three examples of food that contain saturated fat
Diagram 11
Study the examples in Diagram 11 and construct the concept of saturated fat. Your answer should be based on the
following aspects:
(i) Identify two common characteristics [2 marks]

(ii) Give one other example of saturated fat [1 mark]
(iii) Give one example of unsaturated fat and state one characteristic [2 marks]
(iv) Relate the common characteristic to construct the concept of saturated fat [1 mark]
12 (a) Draw a diagram to show the water cycle and briefly explain the processes. [4 marks]
(b) Study the following statement
The opening of a new housing estate in the new city will result in land exploration and deforestation.
Many natural resources need to be sacrificed to build housing development in new cities.
Explain how you can construct a concept on the adverse effects of the activities on the environment. Your answer should be
based on the following aspects.
l Identify two common adverse effects of opening of land and deforestation [2 marks]
l Develop a concept by relating to its adverse effects on the environment [1 mark]
l Suggest one method which can solve the problems caused by the activities and one which cannot solve the problem [2 marks]
l Give one reason for your answer [1 mark]

Tips
[3472/1]
[3472/2] Additional Mathematics
TEKNIK MENJAWAB MATEMATIK TAMBAHAN
1. Untuk Kertas 1, jawab dalam ruang-ruang yang di sediakan dalam kertas soalan.
Untuk Kertas 2 , Gunakan kedua-dua belah mukasurat. Seelok-eloknya gunakan muka surat
baru untuk setiap soalan terutama dalam bahagian B dan Bahagian C. Elakkan menulis jawapan dalam dua atau tiga lajur.
2. Boleh menjawab soalan yang mudah dahulu sebelum menjawab soalan yang lebih sukar.
Untuk Kertas 1, semak semula untuk memastikan semua soalan telah dijawab .
Untuk Kertas 2, calon boleh menjawab mana-mana soalan walaupun dalam Bahagian C atau B Dahulu. Isikan `Helaian Tambahan’
untuk memastikan 6 soalan dalam Bahagian A, sekurang-kurangnya 4 soalan dalam Bahagian B dan sekurang-kurangnya 2 soalan dalam
Bahagian C telah dijawab.

Pastikan nombor soalan dan sub-soalan telah ditulis dengan jelas.
3. Tunjukkan langkah penyelesaian dengan jelas, kemas dan sistematik. Calon digalakkan menulis rumus yang akan digunakan sebelum
menggantikan nilai ke dalam rumus tersebut. Sentiasa rujuk senarai rumus yang dibekalkan.
4. Sediakan jadual untuk melukis graf. Sertakan jadual bagi tajuk Hukum Linear untuk melukis garis lurus penyuaian tebaik, atau
Frequency Table dalam Statistik untuk memudahkan pengiraan ∑ fx atau ∑ fx2
Patuhi skala yang diberi ketika melukis graf dalam tajuk Hukum Linear, Pengaturcaraan Linear atau melukis Histogram dalam Statistik
Pastikan bentuk graf kuadratik, fungsi sinus, kosinus, tangen, salingan dan titik-titik penting `dilihat’ ketika melakar graf.
5. Elakkan pembundaran pada peringkat awal. Jangan bundarkan jawapan perantaraan yang akan digunakan dalam penyelesaian
seterusnya, kurang dari empat nilai bererti dan dua tempat perpuluhan. .Bagaimana pun, untuk tajuk hukum linear nilai dalam jadual
boleh dibundarkan kepada 2 tempat perpuluhan.
6. Jika jawapan dalam bentuk pecahan, berikan jawapan akhir dalam bentuk teringkas. Jika dalam bentuk perpuluhan, tuliskan jawapan
dalam sekurang-kurangnya 4 nilai bererti dan 2 tempat perpuluhan, kecuali ada arahan lain.
Contohnya : 123.456 = 123.46, 12.344 = 12.34. 0.0012345 = 0.001235
120 300 36 = 12.310 ,7.001cm bukan 7 cm
7. Ikut arahan soalan bila menggantikan nilai π, contohnya gunakan π = 3.142. Boleh juga terus guna π dalam kalkulator.
8. Terjemahkan maklumat yang diberi dalam bahasa biasa kepada bahasa/simbol matematik , contonya: kadar perubahan isipadu
dV perubahan hampir dalam y ialah atau ὂy jumlahkuasa dua nilai-nilai x ialah ∑x2. Sentiasa cuba melakar rajah untuk
ialah —,
dt
memudahkan mengenalpasti kehendak soalan.
9. Tulis strategi penyelesaian masalah yang penting , contohnya,

Perimeter rantau berlorek = AP + PQ + QB +BA
Luas rantau berlorek = luas ∆ ABC + luas sektor BCD
10. Berhati-hati dengan unit, mungkin melibatkan penukaran meter ke cm, RM dan sen, jam ke minit.
11. Pastikan masa yang diperuntukan mencukupi. Jangan terlalu lama menjawab satu-satu soalan. Panduan:
Kertas 1 : 3 – 6 minit untuk setiap soalan .
Kertas 2 : Bahagian A : 7-8 minit untuk setiap soalan
Bahagian B : 15 minit untuk setiap soalan
Bahagian C : 15 minit untuk setiap soalan
Additional Mathematic Paper 1 [3472/1]

Answer all questions
1 Compute the mean, standard deviation and median for the following data:
1, 4, 3, 6, 2, 7, 18, 3, 7, 2, 4 and 3 .
Then explain which measures of central tendency and variability provide a better description of the sample. [2 marks]
Answer:
2 On a multiple choice examination with three possible answers for each of the five questions, what is the probability that a
candidate get 4 or more correct answers just by guessing?

[2 marks]
Answer:

3 There are 16 sweets, each with a different color, which are to be divided equally between 2 children. Find the number of
different ways the division of the sweets can be done.
[3 marks]
Answer:
4 Twenty four people had a blood test and the results are shown below.

A , B , B , AB , AB , B , O , O , AB , O , B , A
AB , A , O , O , AB , B , O , A , AB , O , B , A
(a) Construct a frequency distribution for the data.
(b) If a person is selected randomly from the group of twenty four people, what is the probability that his/her blood
type is not O? [3 marks]
Answer:
5 y
P (1 , 9)
Q
x
O S R
Diagram 5
The diagram shows a curve y = 2x2 + 1 and a rectangle PQRS.
(a) Calculate the coordinate of Q.
(b) Calculate the area of the shaded region [3 marks]

Answer:
6 A rectangular water tank in diagram 6 , is being filled at the constant rate of 20 liters / second. The base of the tank
has dimensions w = 1 meter and L = 2 meters. What is the rate of change of the height of water in the tank?
(express the answer in cm / sec). [2 marks]
W
Diagram 6

Answer:

7 Diagram 7 shows a ball is thrown vertically up from the top of a 15 m tall building. The distance h m of the ball from
the ground at any time t(seconds) is given by h= 5t (2-t) + 15. Find the maximum value of h and the time taken. [3 marks]
15 m
Diagram 7
Answer:
8 Find the equation of locus P(x, y) which moves in such a way that the distance from x-axis is twice the distance from y-axis.
[2 marks]
Answer:
9 Given A(-2, 3), B(6, 9) and C(2, 6) are the vertices of triangle ABC. Find the equation of perpendicular bisector of BC.
[4 marks]
Answer:

→ →
10 Given A(−2, 6), B(4, 2) and C(m, p), find the value of m and the value of p such that AB + 2 BC = 10i - 12j. [3 marks]

Answer:
11 Given that f : x →7 - 2x.
(a) State the range of the function f(x) for the domain 1 < x < 3
(b) Find the value of x that maps onto itself. [4marks]

Answer:
12 Diagram 12 shows that function f maps X onto y and function g maps y onto z.
f g
x y z
8
Diagram 12
Calculate
(a) f -1 (5)
(b) (gf )-1 (8). [2 marks]
Answer:
13 After cooling for t minutes, the temperature of a solution, in ºC, is given by 80(1-0.125)t. Find the minimum number of
minutes required for the solution to reach a temperature of 40ºC. [3 marks]
Answer:
14 Given that p = 3a and q = 3b, express log9 p - log27 q2 in terms of a and / or b. [4 marks]

Answer:

15 Given f : x → 3x – 1 and g : x → 2x2 + 3, find
(a) fg(−2),
(b) the value of x when f 2(x) = 8 [3 marks]
Answer:
16 Diagram 16 shows the graph of log4 y against x. The variable x and y are related by the equation y = apx, where a and p
are constant. Find the value of a and p [4 marks]

log 4 y (6, 5)
(2, 3)
x
Diagram 16

Answer:
17 The quadratic equation 3x2 + 9x - 8 = 0 has roots α and β. Find the quadratic equation whose roots are α-2 and β-2. [4 marks]
Answer:
18
y
y = 4 - (x +k)2
x
O
1 5
Diagram 18

Diagram 18 shows the graph of the function y = 4 - (x + k)2 , where k is a constant.
(a) Determine the value of k.
(b) State the equation that is formed when y = 4 - (x + k)2 is reflected in the y-axis. [2 marks]

Answer:
19
C
A D
B
O

Diagram 19
Diagram 19 shows a hand fan. AB and CD are arcs of two sectors with center O . If AOB = 1500. OA : AC = 2 : 3, and
the length of OD = 60 cm. Find the area of the paper needed to make the hand fan. [3 marks]

Answer:

20 Find all the solutions of the equation. 2sin2 x = 2 + cos x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π. [4 marks]
Answer:
21 An arithmetic progression has 9 terms. The sum of the first four term is 24 and the sum of all the odd terms is 55. Find
(a) the first term and the common difference,
(b) the seventh term [3 marks]
Answer:
22 A motorbike was purchased for RM 18000 on 1st January. On 1st January each following year, the value of the motorbike
is 80% of its value on1st January in the previous year.
(a) What was the value of the motorbike exactly 3 years after it was purchased?
(b) The value of the motorbike falls below RM1000 for the first time n years after it was purchased. Find the value of n. [4 marks]

Answer:

23 A production facility is capable of producing 60,000 widgets in a day and the total daily cost of producing x widgets in a
day is given by,
C (x) = 250,000 + 0.08x + 200,000,000
x
How many widgets per day should they produce in order to minimize production costs? [4 marks]

Answer:
24 A large group of students took a test in Physics and the final grades have a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of 10.
If we can approximate the distribution of these grades by a normal distribution, what percent of the students
(a) scored higher than 80?
(b) should pass the test (grades≥60)?
(c) should fail the test (grades<60)? [4 marks]
Answer:
25 A group of boys decided to buy a cake for their friend. The cost of the cake is RM60 and will be shared equally by the
group of the boys. There are 4 girls who want to share the cost of of the cake as well . Each students pay RM 0.50 less.
Determine the total number of the students sharing the cost of the cake. [4 marks]

Answer:
Additional Mathematic Paper 2 [3472/2]

Section A [40 marks] / Bahagian A [40 markah]
Answer all question
1 Diagram 1 shows a piece of land which has a perimeter of 58 m. Pak Abu rears red tilapia in that land .
He also plants maize in an area of 680 m2.
y
Red tilapia
15 m Maize x
40 m
Diagram 1

Calculate the values of x and y [5 marks]

2 (a) The bacteria in a culture solution double every 5 minutes. Professor Lee begins an experiment with 20
bacteria at 10.00 a.m. Find
(i) The number of bacteria at 10.30 a.m.

(ii) The time when the number of bacteria is 10240. [5marks]
(b) At 11.00 a.m ,the bacteria stop growing and begin to die at a rate of 500 per minute. Determine the number
of bacteria at 11.15 a.m. [3 marks]
3 Diagram 2 shows the curve of a quadratic function y = -x2 + px + 3. The curve has a maximum point at (4,k)
and intersects the y-axis at point A.
(4, k)
Diagram 2

(a) By using the method of completing square, find the values of p and k. [4 marks]
(b) State the coordinates of point A [1 mark]
(c) Determine the range of values of x if y < -6 [2 marks]

4 Table 1 shows the cumulative frequency of the scores for a group of students in a quiz.
Scores 6 7 8 9 10
Culmulative frequency 3 7 y 15 20
Table 1

The mean score is 8.1. Find

(a) The range of the scores
(b) The value of y
(c) The standard deviation of the scores [6 marks]

y x
5 (a) Given that loga x2 y = m and loga ( )= n , express loga ( y ) in terms of m and n. [4 marks]
x3
(b) 2log10 x2 y = 3 + log10 x - log10 y where x and y are both positive,

(i) Express y in terms of x.

(ii) Hence, if x - 2y = 1, find the value of x and y. [4 marks]
x x
6 (a) Given that f : x ⟶ 2x - 3 and g : x ⟶ y + 2, find
2
(i) f -1 g [3 marks]
(ii) function h such that hg : x ⟶ 2x + 4. [3 marks]

Section B [40 marks] / Bahagian B [40 markah]
Answer any four questions from this section
7 Use the graph paper to answer this question

Table 2 shows the values of two variables, x and y, obtained from an experiment. The variables x and y are
related by the equation y2 = pnx where n and p are constants.
x 1 2 3 4 5 6
y 3.82 5.04 6.62 8.35 10.68 13.81
Table 2

(a) Based on Table 2, construct a table for the values of log10 y [2marks]

(b) Plot log10 y against x by using a scale of 2 cm to 1 unit on the x- axis and 2 cm to 0.2 unit on the log10 y
Hence, draw the line of best fit. [3marks]

(c) Use the graph in 2 (b) to find the value of

(i) p

(ii) n [5 marks]
Graph for Question 7

8 (a) The ages of workers in a factory are normally distributed with a mean of 38.2 years and a variance of
16 years. Calculate

(i) The probability that the age of a worker, selected at random, lies between 40 and 45 years

(ii) The percentage of teachers who are below 36 years. [5 marks]
(b) The masses of the girls in a school are normally distributed with a mean of μ and a standard
deviation of ó. Given 5% of the girls are less than 42 kg and 10% of the girls are more than 56kg.
Calculate the values of μ and ó. [5 marks]
9 Diagram 3 shows a semicircle OADEB centre O and sector TOFC with centre T. Given that OB = 5cm and
TO = 15cm.
C
F

D
E
A O B T
Diagram 3

Calculate / hitung:

(a) TCO [3 marks]
(b) The perimeter, in cm, of the shaded region [4 marks]
(c) The area, in cm2, of the shaded region [3 marks]

10 Diagram 4 shows triangle OPQ. The point T lies on QP and the point S lies on OP. The straight line OT
intersects the straight line QS at the point R.
P
S
T R
Q O
Diagram 4

1 1 →
It is given that OS = OP, QT = 3 QP, OP = p and OQ = q
2

(a) Express in terms of p and q

→
(i) QT
→
(ii) QS
→
(iii) ST [4 marks]
→ → → →
(b) Given that OR = mOT and QR = nQS, where m and n are constants, find the value of m and of n. [6 marks]
11 Diagram 5 shows straight line x + y = 4 that intersects with the curve y = (x - 2)2 at points P and Q
y
y = (x - 2) 2
P
A Q
B x+y=4
O x
Diagram 5

Find
(a) The coordinates of Q [2 marks]
(b) The area of the shaded region A [4 marks]
(c) The volume generated, in terms of Л, when the shaded region B is revolved through 360° about x-axis. [4 marks]
Section C [20 marks] / Bahagian C [20 markah]
Answer any two questions from this section
12 Diagram 6 shows a quadrilateral KLMN.
5.3 cm
6.6 cm 115°
M
K
3.0 cm 85°
L Diagram 6
Calculate
(a) The length, in cm, of of KM [2 marks]

(b) KMN [2 marks]
(c) LKM [3 marks]
(d) The area, in cm2,of quadrilateral KLMN [3 marks]
13 Table 3 shows the prices and the price indices of five components P,Q,R,S and T needed to produce
a certain type of digital camera. Pie chart 13 shows the relative quantity of components in producing
the camera.
Price index for the year 2012 based

Price (RM) per unit
Components on the year 2010.
P 1.20 1.21 110

Q 1.80 x 120
R 3.20 4.00 150
S 2.50 3.05 122
T 2.00 2.80 y
Table 3
P
Q
T 80º 35º
40º
R
160º
S
Diagram 7
14 Use a graph paper to answer this question
A factory produces two types of pillow, type A and type B. In a day, it can produce x pillows of type A and y pillows
of type B. The time taken to produce a pillow type A is 20 minutes and a pillow of type B is 30 minutes.

The production of the pillows per day is based on the following constraints:

I The time takes to make pillows of type A is not more than the time taken to make pillows of
type B.

II The total number of pillows produced is not more than 500.

III The number of pillows of type B must exceed the number of pillows of type A by at most 200.

(a) Write three inequalities, other than x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0 which satisfy all the above constraints. [3 marks]

(b) By using the scale of 2 cm to 100 pillows on both axes, construct and shade the region R which satisfies
all the constraints. [3 marks]


(c) Use a graph from 15(b), to find
(i) the maximum number of pillows of type A if 200 pillows of type B produced.
(ii) maximum profit that can be obtained, if the profit of selling pillow A is RM20 and
pillow B is RM12. [4 marks]
Graph for Question 14

15 A particle moves along a straight line and passes through a fixed point O. The velocity, v ms-1, of the
paricle is given by v = 3t2 - 18t + 32, where t is the time, in seconds, after passing through O
(a) The initial velocity, in ms-1, of the particle. [1 mark]
(b) The minimum velocity in ms-1 of the particle. [3 marks]

(c) The displacement of the particle after 4s [3 marks]

(d) Sketch the velocity-time grapah for 0 ≤ t ≤ 5 [3 marks]


Tips
[4531/1]
[4531/2] Physics
BAGAIMANA MENGUASAI SOALAN DAN SUBJEK FIZIK:
✓ Kaitkan apa yang dipelajari dengan kehidupan seharian
✓ Fahamkan konsep sesuatu topik
✓ Cari contoh perkara yang dipelajari di sekeliling kita
✓ Gunakan perseimbangan logik

✓ Membuat banyak latihan penyelesaian masalah dalam fizik
✓ Lukiskan masalah yang kurang difahami, kemudian selesaikan
✓ Ingat apabila menyelesaikan msalah Fizik: Konsepnya sama, cuma nombor dan angkanya sahaja yang berubah
Physics Paper 1 [4531/1]
1 The mass of an object is two centigram. Which of the following 5 The acceleration-time graph shows the movement of a car.
explains the statement above ? Which velocity-time graph represents the movement of the
car?
A The mass of the object is 2 x 10-1 g Acceleration
B The mass of the object is 2 x 10-2 g
C The mass of the object is 2 x 10-3g
D The mass of the object is 2 x 10 2 g
E The mass of the object is 2 x 10 6 g
0 Time
2 The speed of light is 3 x 10 8 ms-1 . Its speed can also be written as
A 3 x 105 nms-1
B 3 x 105 mms-1
C 3 x 105 cms-1 v v
D 3 x 105 dms-1 A C
E 3 x 105 ms-1

3 Which of the following shows the relationship of base quantities
t t
for acceleration ? 0 0
length
A time
length
B time x time v v
B D
length x length
C time x time
length t t
0 0
D
time x time x time
4 The diagram shows a book falling down from a table.?
6 A student carried out an experiment using a ticker timer and a

trolley. She obtained a chart from the ticker tape by cutting it
into five ticks length as shown in the figure.
Length (cm)
Book
100
90
80
70
Which physical quantity of the book increases while it is falling? 60
50
A Potential energy 40
B Chemical energy 30
20
C Mass 10
D Acceleration 0
E Kinetic energy Time (s)
Which physical quantity of the book increases while

it is falling?
A The trolley is coming to a stop with constant deceleration

B The trolley moves from rest with uniform acceleration
C The trolley moves from rest with increasing velocity

7 Which of the following is the easiest to stop? 11 The diagrams shows a simple barometer. Which diagram
correctly shows the measurement taken to determine the
A Pencil C Iron rod atmospheric pressure?
B Sponge D Car
A C

8 A spring produces an extension of 8 cm when a stretching force
of 2 N is applied to it. Calculate the elastic constant of the spring
in use
A 1 Ncm-1 D 2 Ncm-1
5
B D
B 1 Ncm -1
E 3 Ncm -1
2
C 1 Ncm-1
v (ms-1)
9
12 The diagram shows a simple manometer used to measure the
6
pressure of a gas. If the atmospheric pressure is 76 cm Hg,
5 what is the pressure of the gas in the cylinder?
4
3
2
1

t (s)
0 1 2 3 4 5
The graph shows the motion of an object. How far does the
object move in 5s?
A 10 cm Hg
A 5 m D 20 m B 16 cm Hg
B 10 m E 30 m C 20 cm Hg
C 18 m D 50 cm Hg
13 The diagram shows an experiment conducted using a

10 The diagram shows a cylinder containing cooking oil and water Bernoulli’s tube. When air is made to flow though the apparatus
of density 800 kgm-3 and 1000 kgm-3 respectively. What is the in the direction as shown, what can be observed about the
pressure at the base of the cylinder due to the oil and water? height of water that rises in the vertical tubes X, Y and Z ?
Oil 3 cm
Water 7 cm

A X<Y and Y<Z

A 500 Pa B X>Y and Y>Z
B 820 Pa C X<Z and Z<Y
C 940 Pa D X>Z and Z>Y
D 1060 Pa
E 1200 Pa
14 Two ships traveling in the open sea are not encouraged to
move parallel to each other in the same direction so as to avoid
colliding with each other. This can be explained by
A Archimedes’ Principle.
B Bernoulli’s Principle.
C Pascal’s Principle
15 The diagram shows a Bunsen burner. Which of the following 20 Lead has a higher specific heat capacity than copper. If a piece
statements is false? of lead of mass 200 g and a piece of copper of the same mass
is heated at the same rate, which of the following statements is
true?
air hole A The rise in temperature of copper is greater than the rise
in temperature of lead
to as supply B The rise in temperature of lead is greater than the rise
in temperature of copper
A Gas flows with high speed inside the cylindrical tube C Both metals experienced the same increase in temperature
of the Bunsen burner
B Air flows into the Bunsen burner via the air hole 21 A piece of metal with specific heat capacity 200 J kg-1 °C-1
C The atmospheric pressure outside the Bunsen burner dropped from an aeroplane flying at an altitude of 800 m above
is lower than the pressure of the gas inside the Bunsen the ground. Assuming that all the gravitational potential energy
burner of the metal is converted to heat when the piece of metal hits
the ground, what is rise in temperature?
16 The diagram shows a cuboid with dimensions 2 m x 3 m x 5
m. The weight of the cuboid is 6000 N. What is the minimum A 20°C D 35°C
pressure exerted by the cuboid if it is placed on the ground?
B 25 °C E 40°C

C 30°C
3m
weight
6000 N 22 The graph shows the temperature change when liquid wax
2m cools to form solid. At which point, labelled A, B, C or D does
the wax exists in a mixture of solid and liquid?
5m
A 1000 Pa D 200 Pa Temperature
B 600 Pa E 100 Pa
C 400 Pa
A
17 The head of a thumbtack is big and thus have a big surface area. C
What is the advantage of this structure in the thumbtack? D
B
A To save material when making the thumbtack Time
B To reduce the pressure on the thumb
C To produce a large force on the thumbtack
23 The diagram shows a balloon filled with air fully immersed in a
D So that the thumbtack do not break easily
container of water. What will happen to the size of the balloon
if the container is heated slowly?
18 What is the advantage of using mercury in a liquid-in-glass
thermometer?
Balloon
A Mercury is non toxic Water
B Its specific heat capacity is high
Stone
C It is a liquid
D It expands uniformly when heated
19 The diagram shows part of the scale of a thermometer. What is

the reading as shown?
A increases C remains unchanged

B decreases
24 What are the characteristics of image if an object at infinity is

seen through a concave mirror?
A 23.2°C C 23.8°C
B 23.4°C D 24.4°C A Virtual, upright, enlarged and behind the mirror
B Real, inverted, diminished and behind the mirror
C Virtual, upright, enlarged and in front of the mirror
D Real, inverted, diminished and in front of the mirror
25 32 The process whereby audio frequency and radio frequency is
combined is known as
A modulation C diffraction
B rectification D interference
33 Which of the following statement is TRUE?

Waves Produced by
The figure above shows a ray diagram of convex mirror. Which A X-rays High velocity electrons stopped
beam of the ray is not necessary for determining the position of by heavy metal
the image? B Visible light Cathode Ray
C Microwaves Uranium-238
A 1 C 3
B 2
34 Which of these electric appliances will not function when
connected to the alternative current supply?
26 • Side mirror of car • Blind corner mirror
A refrigerator
What is the similar nature of the mirror used in the two B electric kettle
applications above? C transformer

D moving coil galvanometer
A It produces multiple reflection
B It provides a wide field of vision 35 Electrical devices with metallic casing should be fitted with an
C Its image is enlarged “earth” wire as a safety precaution. What is being protected by
D It concentrates light at the principal focus the “earth” wiring?
A The fuse in the device

27 What type of mirror and lens used in the slide projector? B The user of the device
C The wires connected to the device
Mirror Lens
A Convex Convex 36 All the resistors shown below are identical. Which of the
B Concave Convex following circuits will produce the lowest effective resistance?
C Convex Concave
D Concave Concave A C
28 Which of following is not true about astronomical telescope?
A It consists of two convex lenses

B The length of a telescope at a normal adjustment is equal

to fO + fm.
C The final image formed is real, inverted and bigger B D
compared to the object
D The objective lens is a convex lens with a wide aperture
and long focal length
29 Which of the lens is used to make magnifying glass?
A Short focal length convex lens.

B Short focal length concave lens 37 Which of the following circuits can be used to determine the
C Long focal length convex lens resistance of the bulb?
D Long focal length concave lens
30 A mechanical wave is a wave that A C
A needs a medium to propagate

B can propagate in a vacuum
C have big wavelength
31 Which of the following quantity decreases when a system

undergoes damping? B D
A Velocity

B Frequency
C Amplitude
D Wavelength
38 The graph below shows the variation of the induced current of a 44 Which of the following electronic devices allows current flow
simple a.c. generator varies with time in one direction only?
Induced current
I (μ A) A Thermistor C Transistor
B Resistor D Diode
Time, t (s)
0 10 20 30 40
45
What is the frequency of the rotation of the a.c. motor

The combination of the three logic gates above is equivalent
A 10 Hz C 50 Hz
to gate
B 20 Hz D 100 Hz
39 What is the name of the electrical device that uses a low current A NAND C AND
primary circuit to switch on or to switch off a high current B NOR D EX-OR
circuit?
46 Cobalt-60 is used in the treatment of cancer cells because it

A Electromagnet C Solenoid A has a short half-life
B Relay D Transformer B produce no side effect
C radiates gamma rays
40 What is the efficiency of an ideal transformer?
D decays randomly
A 0% D 100% 47 Caesium-137 is used to determine leakage in underground

B 20% E 110% water pipes because
C 50%
A it is not harmful to human
41 Both electric motor and generator B it emits β-particles
C it is colourless
A have commutator as one of its component D it is odourless
B use electrical energy
C produce electrical energy
48
D convert energy from one form to another
42 Which of the following circuits will produce a full wave

rectification?
A C
The diagram above shows

B D A a chain reaction C an α-decay
B a nuclear fission D a neutron decay
49 An α-particle is the same as

43 Which of the following circuits will produce a full wave
rectification? A a high speed electron
B X-ray
diode C helium nucleus
D positron
c.r.o resistor
50 The nucleus of uranium-235 will split if it captures
What would the trace on the screen of the CRO looks like if the
time-base is switched on? A an α-particle
B an electron
C a proton
A C
D a neutron

B D

Physics Paper 2 [4531/2]
Section A
[60 marks]
Answer all questions in this section.
1 Diagram 1.1 shows the meniscus of mercury in a measuring cylinder. A, B and C are three eye positions while measuring the
volume of the mercury
Diagram 1.1 Diagram 1.2
(a) State the sensitivity of that measuring cylinder

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) (i) From the diagram, which position of the eye is correct whilst taking the reading?
[1 mark]
(ii) What is the volume of the mercury?
[1 mark]
(c) Use a ruler to draw the meniscus if 32 cm3 if the water is poured in the empty measuring cylinder
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
2 Diagram 2 shows a man standing still on reflexology therapy stones. He exerts a pressure on the reflexology therapy stones
Diagram 2
(a) What is meant by pressure?
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) The mass of the man is 50 kg and the area of contact of the man with the reflexology therapy stone is 40 cm2 .
Calculate the pressure exerted by the man on the reflexology therapy stones.
____________________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
(c) Based on diagram 2, state one way by which the man can reduce the pain experienced by his soles when walking barefooted.
Explain your answer.
____________________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
3 Diagram 3 shows a boy carrying a block of ice of 2.5 kg that he just bought from a shop. He could feel that the ice is at a constant cold
temperature. The surface of the ice is wet and water is dripping down from the block of ice.
Diagram 3

(a) Name the heat energy which is absorbed by the block of ice
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) State one reason why the temperature of the block of ice and the water dripping down are the same even though heat is supplied
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(c) Calculate the heat energy, which is absorbed from the block of ice.
[The specific latent heat of fusion of water, l = 3.365 x 105 J kg-1]
[2 marks]
(d) Sketch the graph of temperature against time to show the change of phase
[2 marks]
4 Diagram 4.1 shows a SONAR waves is sent by transmitter at the lower part of the boat and the echoes are detected by hydrophone.
Diagram 4.2 shows the trace on the screen of oscilloscope
(a) What is meant by wavelenght?

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) Sound waves with frequency of 5.8 x 105 Hz are used to determine the depth of the sea. The speed of sound waves
in sea water is 1250 ms-1. The time-base of the oscilloscope is adjusted at 50 ms cm-1. If the time interval between
the transmitting and receiving a pulse of waves is 1.2 s. Calculate
(i) the depth of the sea.

[2 marks]
(ii) wavelength of the sound wave.
[2 marks]
(c) Observe the Diagram 4.1 and 4.2.
(i) Compare the amplitude of the reflection waves

[1 mark]
(ii) Explain your answer in (c) (i)
[1 mark]
5 Diagram 5.1 shows a load placed on an ice block. Diagram 5.2 shows an ice block without the load
Load
Ice block

(a) What is meant by density?
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) Explain why the ice block float in water

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(c) What are the forces acting on the ice block?

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(d) Base on Diagram 5.1 and Diagram 5.2,
(i) compare the volume of water displaced

[1 mark]
(ii) compare the buoyant force
[1 mark]
(iii) State the relationship between buoyant force and the weight of water displaced
[1 mark]
(iv) Name the principle of physics involve
[1 mark]
6 Diagram 7.1 shows the use of a transistor in a circuit as an automatic switch
Magnet
N
Hollow cardboard
Solenoid Galvanometer
Diagram 6
Magnet Magnet
N N
Hollow cardboard Hollow cardboard
Solenoid Solenoid Galvanometer

(a) Underline the correct answer in the bracket to complete the answer below. The method of producing electricity without
the electrical supply is known as (electromagnet, electromagnetic induction, transformer).
____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) Observe Diagram 6.1 and Diagram 6.2,
(i) Compare the direction of the current flow

[1 mark]
(ii) Compare the magnitude of current flows
[1 mark]
(iii) Compare the polarity of magnet at P
[1 mark]
(iv) Relate between the relative motion of the magnet to the polarity at P.
[1 mark]
(c) State the physics law involved in b(iv)

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(d) Base on the information and the diagram given above, explain term of energy changes involved in the system
____________________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
7 Diagram 7.1 shows the use of a transistor in a circuit as an automatic switch.

X Lamp
R1 27ω 12 V, 24W
12 V
Y
R2 3ω
Z
Diagram 7.1
(a) Name the type of transistor shown in Diagram 7.1.

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b)Based on Diagram 7.1:

(i) What is the potential difference across XZ?
________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(ii) What is the total resistance between point X and point Z?

________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(iii) Using the answers from (b)(i) and b(ii), calculate the potential difference across XY.
________________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
(iv) Tick (x) to show what will happen to the lamp,L, if the base-emitter potential difference, VBE is 2 V?
Bulb
On Off
[2 marks]
(c) Diagram 7.2 shows a transistor is used to light up the lamp,L during the night. The resistor R2 is replaced
with a light dependent resistor. Lamp, L
R1 240V, 24W
27k
12 V
Y
ω
LDR
Z
Diagram 7.2
Some modifications need to be done to the circuit in Diagram 7.2 so that the lamp can be automatically switched on
during the day. State the suitable modification and give one reason for the modification.
(i) The position of LDR.

________________________________________________________________________
Reason _________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
(ii) An electrical component connected to lamp 240 V, 24 W.

________________________________________________________________________
Reason _________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
8 Diagram 8.1 shows an electric kettle with specification of 240 V, 1.2 kW
Diagram 8.1
(a) What is meant by the label 240V, 1.2 kW?

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) Calculate
(i) the current flows through the electric kettle [2 marks]
(ii) the resistance of the heating elements in the kettle [2 marks]
(c) Four electric kettles W, X , Y and Z with specification 240 V, 2 kW are made from the materials with different characteristics
Table 8.1 shows the characteristics of the materials.
The characteristics of the materials

are used in the heating element in the kettle
Kettle
Resistivity
Boiling point Fuse
10-2mΩ
W 3501 13.5 8A
X 3501 5.2 10A
Y 3501 12.4 10A
Z 3501 4.63 8A
Table 8.1
(i) Based on the characteristics of the heating elements in Table 8.1, suggest two electric kettles are suitable to heat
water. Give the reason for your answer. [3 marks]
(ii) Based on the fuse used in the Table 8.1 , suggest two electric kettles are suitable to heat water. Give the reason
for your answer.
[3 marks]
(ii) Using your answer in (b)(i) and (b)(ii), suggest which electric kettle is the most suitable to heat water. Give the
reason for your answer.
[3 marks]
Section B
[20 marks]
Answer any one questions from this section.
9 A slide projector is used to view an image from a slide. The power of the lens used by the projector slide is + 5D
(a) What is meant by power of lens?

____________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(b) A student used a slide projector to view the image from the slide. When the slide is place nearer to the lens the sharp
image form on the screen as shown in Diagram 9.1.
When the slide is place further from the lens the sharp image form on the screen as shown in Diagram 9.2

Based on Diagram 9.1 and Diagram 9.2, compare the object distance, the image distance and size of image that formed
on the screen. Relate the object distance to the image distance and the object distance to the size of image that formed
on the screen
[5 marks]
Diagram 9.3
(c) While driving a car on a hot day, you may see a mirage on the road. Explain how mirage occurred
[4 marks]
(d) Diagram 9.4 shows a simple astronomical telescope
Diagram 9.4
By using two prism and a telescope in Diagram 9.4, suggest modification that can be done to make a binocular
(i) draw the arrangement of the prisms and lenses

(ii) draw ray diagram to explain how the image form
(ii) state two advantages using binocular compared to telescope when observing far object on the ground
[10 marks]
10 (a) Diagram 10.1 shows water waves moving towards the shore
Diagram 10.1
(i) Name the wave phenomena in Diagram 10.1? [1 mark]

(ii) What happens to the waves as it approaches the headland ? Give reasons [3 marks]
(b)
Situation 1 Situation 2
A student can hear the sound from the stopwatch at its loudest Diagram 10.3 shows a man fishing. Eye A can see the
when cardboard tube B is at the position shown in Diagram 10.2 man’s image on the water’s surface
(i) Name the types of waves in Situation 1 and Situation 2 [2 marks]
(ii) Based on Diagrams 10.2 and 10.3, compare the directions of wave propagation [1 mark]
(ii) Based on Diagrams 10.2 and 10.3, compare the angles of wave propagation and the normal [1 mark]
(ii) Based on Diagrams 10.2 and 10.3 ,relate the angles before and after the wave phenomena [1 mark]
(ii) State the wave phenomena for Situation 1 and Situation 2 [1 mark]
(c) To attract more tourist to the island in Diagram 10.4 , a contractor wants to build a beach resort .As a consultant you
are asked to give suggestions on the proposed project based on the following aspects:
(i) The location of the resort

(ii) Features to reduce the erosion of the shore
(ii) Features to enable children to enjoy swimming in calm water
Diagram 10.4
[10 marks]
Section C
[20 marks]
Answer any one questions from this section.
11 (a) Archimedes’ principle states that:
"An object that is totally or partially submerged in fluid experiences a buoyant force equal to the weight of fluid displaced"
(i) What is meant by buoyant force? [1 mark]

(ii) Diagram 11.1 shows a block is submerged in a liquid
Keys:
Liquid surface
h1 : depth of upper surface

h2 : depth of bottom surface
Diagram 11.1
Using the idea of difference in pressure P1 and P2 for different depth, h1 and h2 , show that the buoyant force is equal
to the weight of liquid displaced
[4 marks]
(b) Table 11.2 through pages 25 to 27 show four hot air balloons, P, Q, R and S, with different specifications
P Q R S
Envelope
Envelope
Envelope
Envelope
Size of the
envolope
and number of Skirt
burners used Skirt Skirt Skirt
Burner Burner
Burner Burner
Basket Basket Basket Basket

Propane Tanks Propane Tanks
Propane Tanks Propane Tanks
Material of envelope Canvas Nylon Canvas Nylon

Material of basket Iron Rattan Iron Rattan
Table 11.2
You are required to determine the most suitable balloon which can be used for safe recreation. Study the specifications of
all the four balloons from the following aspects:
• the balloon envelope

• the size of the balloon
• the number of burner used
• the type of basket used to carry the passenger
[10 marks]
(c) A hot air balloon is adhered to the ground. The balloon contains 1200 m3 of hot air of density 0.8 kg m-3.
The mass of the balloon (not including the hot air) is 400 kg . The density of the surrounding air is 1.3 kg m-3
(i) the total weight of the balloon and the hot air. [2 marks]
(ii) the buoyant force exerted on the balloon. [1 mark]
(iii) the net force exerted on the ballon when it is released? [2 marks]
12 Diagram 1.1 shows the meniscus of mercury in a measuring cylinder. A, B and C are three eye positions while measuring the
volume of the mercury
Distribution
Socket
box
Switch
Fuse chasis
Live wire
240 V Insulator
Nuetral wire Diagram 1.1
(i) What are the properties of a fuse wire. [1 mark]
(ii) How does a fuse wire work to prevent damage to the electrical coil due to overheating? [3 marks]
(iii) Why is it unwise to connect the fuse to the neutral wire? [1 mark]
(iv) Some electrical appliances have an outer chasis made of metal. What modification has to be done to
prevent electric shock when the coil is damaged and the live wire touches the metal chasis? [1 mark]
(b) Fuse takes some time to melt or blow. A fast-blowing fuse is required to protect semiconductor equipments
which cannot stand high current surge for too long. When a fuse blows, sparking may occur which produces high
temperature. The fuse wire is placed in a sheath or catridge as shown in diagram 12.2 to prevent it’s sparks
from causing damage
Table 12.1 shows the specifications of five fuses that can be used to protect a semiconductor device

Fuse Thickness of fuse wire Catridge Type Rating Melting Point
P Medium Rubber 10 A Medium
Q Medium Rubber 10 A Low

R Thin Ceramic 13 A Low
S Thin Plastic 10 A High
T Thick Ceramic 13 A Low
Table 12.1
Determine the most suitable fuse to protect a 240 V, 2400 W semiconductor device. Study the specifications of all five fuses
based on the following aspects
• The thickness of wire

• The catridge type
• The rating of the fuse
• The melting point
Explain the suitability of the aspects and justify your choice

[10 marks]
(c) Diagram 12.3 shows two bulbs connected in series. Diagram 12.4 shows the same bulbs connected in parallel.
Assuming the battery has no internal resistance, calculate the power output of bulb A and B in both the circuits
Ω Ω Ω
Diagram 12.3
[4 marks]

Tips
[4541/1]
[4541/2] Chemistry
1.0 FORMAT OF AN INSTRUMENT OF CHEMISTRY BEGINNING SPM 2003
No Item Paper 1 (4541/1) Paper 2 (4541/2) Paper 3 (4541/3)

1 Type of instrument Objective test Subjective test Written Practical Test
2 Type of item Mutiple choices Section A : Subjetive Item :
Structured Item Structured Item
Section B : Extended Response Item :
Essay restricted response Item (Planning an experiment )
Section C :
Essay extended response Item
3 Number of question 50 (answer all ) Section A : 6 (answer all) Structured Item:

Section B : 2 (choose one) 1/2 items (answer all)
Section C : 2 (choose one) Extended Response Item : 1 item
4 Duration of time 1 hour 2 hour 30 minutes 1 hour 30 minutes
15 minutes
2.0 TIPS TO SCORE "A" CHEMISTRY

2.1 Try to get :-
Ü 40 marks above for paper 1
Ü 80 marks above for paper 2
Ü 40 marks above for paper 3 (Total = 160/2 = 80, A in SPM)
2.2 Master the topics that contains the basic concepts of chemistry :
1. The structure of the atom
2. Chemical Formula and Equations
3. Periodic Table
4. Chemical Bond
2.3 Master in important concepts which related in all the chapter in chemistry
1. Concept and calculation in mole
2. Chemical equation / ionic equation / half ionic equation
3. Electrochemistry series
4. Concentration of solution
2.4 Familiarize with different types of questions as listed below and complete the previous SPM papers:
1. Objectives questions (MCQ) (Paper 1)
2. Structured questions (Paper 2&3)
3. Essays (Paper 2)
4. Planning an experiment (Paper 3)
5. Draw and label the diagram
6. Writing chemical equation (balanced equation, ionic equation, half equation)
2.5 Do a lot of practice in paper 1 because score in paper 1 Indicates student's level of understanding in chemistry :
i. Less than 20 - very weak
ii. 20 - 25 - weak
iii. 26 - 30 - average
iv. 31 - 39 - good
v. 40 - 45 - very good
vi. 46 - 50 - excellent
Chemistry Paper 1 [4541/1]

Each question is followed by four options. Choose the best option for each question and then blacken the correct space
on the answer sheet.
1 Diagram 1 shows the electron arrangement for one atom of Y 7 Which of the following substances is an electrolyte in molten
state ?
x x
A Aluminium oxide
B Ethanol
C Sulphur
x x
x x
D Glucose
x
x x x 8 Diagram 2 shows the apparatus for the separation of lead (II)

sulphate salt from the product mixture
Lead (II) sulphate
Diagram 1

What is the number of proton for ion Y
A 10
B 11
C 12
D 13
2 Which of the following substance will undergo sublimation

process when heated?
A Iodine Diagram 2
B Sulphur
C Sodium chloride Among these substances which is suitable for the production
D Lead (II) bromide of lead (II) sulphate salt?
3 Which substance can be used to reduce gastric pain of a patient? A Lead and sulphuric acid
B Lead (II) nitrate solution and sodium sulphate solution
A Ammonia C Lead (II) carbonate and sulphuric acid.
B Calcium carbonate D Lead (II) nitrate solution and sodium hydroxide solution
C Hydrochloric acid
D Magnesium hydroxide
9 Diagram 3 shows the apparatus set-up for the reaction between
4 What is the main component found in pewter? an acid and a metal
Dilute nitric acid
A Magnesium
B Aluminium
C Iron
D Tin
Hydrogen
5 Which salt is insoluble in water? Metal Q
gas
A Potassium carbonate
B Ammonium chloride Diagram 3
C Calcium nitrate
D Silver chloride Which of the following is not metal Q?
A Tin C Copper
6 The equations below represent reactions between propanoic B Zinc D Aluminium
acid and ethanol.
C2H5COOH + C2H5OH Q + H2O 10 Which oxides has acidic properties?
Which of the following is the homologous series for Q? A MgO C Cl2O7

B Na2O D Al2O3
A Ester
B Alkene
C Alcohol
D Carboxylic acid
11 One mole of nitrogen, N2 and one mole of ammonia , 15 Which of the following is a chemical property of an acid?
NH3 have
A Turn red litmus paper blue
A the same number of molecules B Reacts with a metal oxide to produce salt and oxygen
B the same number of atoms C Reacts with a carbonate to produce salt, water and
C the same proton number carbon dioxide
D the same mass D Reacts with a reactive metal to produce salt and
water
12 Diagram 4 shows the structural formula of Vitamin C that is
found in an orange 16 The following information is about the properties of a metal
• Able to form complex ions

• Able to form coloured compounds
• Have variable oxidation states
Which metal has the properties stated above?

A Potassium C Calcium
B Aluminium D Iron
17 Which acid contains the highest number of hydrogen ions?

Diagram 4
A 20 cm3 of 1 mol dm-3 phosphoric acid
What is the empirical formula of Vitamin C? B 20 cm3 of 1 mol dm-3 carbonic acid
C 20 cm3 of 1 mol dm-3 ethanoic acid
A C4H4O4 D 20 cm3 of 1 mol dm-3 nitric acid
B C3H4O3
C C6H8O6
D C8H6O8 18 When 1.02g of a metal oxide of Z is reduced, 0.54 g of the
metal is obtained. Determine the empirical formula of the
metal oxide. [RAM: O,16; Z,52]
13 Diagram 5 shows an apparatus set-up to study the corrosion
of iron A ZO2
B Z2O
C ZO3
Iron nail D Z3O
Metal
Container 19 In a chemical reaction of calcium carbonate with hydrochloric
acid, 180cm3 of carbon dioxide gas is collected at room
Potassium temperature. What is number of mole of carbon dioxide
collected?
nitrate solution
Diagram 5 [1 mole of gas occupies a volume of 24 dm3 at room
temperature and pressure]
Which metal container causes the iron nail to corrode
the fastest?
A Magnesium C Zinc A 0.0075 mol
B Silver D Tin B 0.075 mol
C 7.50 mol
14 An experiment is carried out to determine the empirical formula D 1.75 mol
of copper (II) oxide.
The heating, cooling and weighing processes are done several 20 Substance X used in the room air conditional and fridge is in
times but a constant mass of the product is still not obtained. liquid form at -15 °C. Which of the following might be the
Which of the following can be done to get a constant mass of melting point and boiling point of substance X.?
the product?
Melting point / 0C Boiling point/0C
A The combustion tube must be stoppered during weighing A 10 120
B The combustion tube must be slanted slightly during heating
B -12 30
C Dry hydrogen gas is passed through the combustion tube
during cooling C -80 -20
D Dry hydrogen gas is passed through the combustion tube D -30 -10
non-stop during heating
21 Which statement explains why the boiling point of the 25 Table 1 shows the degree of dissociation of four solutions of
elements in Group 1 decreases down the group? alkalis which have the same concentration.
A The physical state of the elements changes from solid to Solution Degree of dissociation
liquid at room temperature P High
B The valence electron at the outermost shell becomes further
Q Very high
from the nucleus
C The attractive force of nucleus on the valence electron R Low
becomes weaker S Medium
D The metallic bond between atoms becomes weaker Table 1
Which solution has the lowest pH value?

22 When sodium hydroxide solution is added to salt X and A P C R
heated, a gas which turns moist red litmus paper to blue is B Q D S
produced. The gas produces white fumes with hydrogen
chloride gas.
26 Diagram 6 shows Curve I are obtained when 2.0g of
magnesium ribbon reacts with excessive nitric acid at the
Which of the following is salt X? temperature of 40ºC
A Copper (II) carbonate

B Ammonium nitrate Volume of hydrogen gas/cm3
C Zinc chloride
D Iron (II) chloride I
23 The figure below shows electron arrangement for YZ2 II

compound
Time
Z Y Z Diagram 6
Which of the followings can produces Curve II?

A Using 1.0 g of magnesium powder
● Valence electron for atom Y B Increase the temperature of acid to 50°C
○ Valence electron for atom Z C Using 3.0g of magnesium ribbon
D Adding distilled water to nitric acid
Which pair below shows the possible group for Y and Z in
the periodic table? 27 Diagram 7 shows the process for the production of a
nitrogen fertiliser
Y Z
Substance X
A 2 17 Ammonium
Ammonia
B 16 17 sulphate
C 14 16
D 17 16 Diagram 7
What is substance X?
24 During the reaction between magnesium and chlorine to form A Sulphuric acid C Sulphur
a compound B Nitrogen D Sodium sulphate
A A magnesium atom shares a pair of electron with two

chlorine atoms 28 Table 2 shows the voltage reading of three simple chemical
B A magnesium atom shares two pairs of electron with two cells formed by immersing a pair of metal electrodes into
chlorine atoms an electrolyte. What is the voltage produced by using P and S
C A magnesium atom donates two electrons to two electrodes?
chlorine atoms
D A chlorine atom donates two electrons to a magnesium atom Electrodes Voltage / Volt Negative terminal
P/Q 2.7 P
Q/R 2.0 R
Q/S 0.5 Q
Table 2
A 0.7 Volt C 2.5 Volt

B 2.2 Volt D 3.2 Volt
29 Which statement explains why solid calcium carbonate 34 The following equation represents the reaction between
does not conduct electricity? sodium chloride solution and lead(II) nitrate solution
A Does not have free moving ions

B Contains cations and anions 2NaCl + Pb(NO3)2 PbCl2 + 2NaNO3
C It is a covalent compound
D Has high melting point
What is the mass of lead (II) chloride precipitate produced
30 Diagram 8 below shows molecular formulae of two when 50 cm3 of 0.2 mol dm-3 sodium chloride solution reacts
hydrocarbon compounds completely with excess lead(II) nitrate solution?
[Relative atomic mass: Pb = 207, Cl = 35.5]
Compound A Compound B
A 2.78 g
H H H H
B 2.87 g
H H H H C 1.39 g
H C C C C H D 4.87 g
H C C C C C H
H H H
H H H H H H
C
35 The following shows the thermochemical equation for the
H
precipitation of silver chloride
Diagram 8
What is substance X? AgNO3 + NaCl→ AgCl + NaNO3 Δ H = -58.8 kJ mol-1

A Compound B is soluble in water
B Compound A is soluble in water
C Compound B is an unsaturated hydrocarbon If 25 cm3 of 0.5 mol dm-3 silver nitrate solution is poured into
D Compound A is an unsaturated hydrocarbon a plastic cup containing 25 cm3 0.5 mol dm-3 sodium chloride
solution , calculate the temperature change of the mixture.
31 Calculate the mass of sodium hydroxide present in 100 cm3
sodium hydroxide 0.25 mol dm-3 solution. [H,1; O,16; Na,23] A 2.0 °C
B 3.5 °C
A 0.4 g C 5.0 °C
B 0.5 g D 7.0 °C
C 1.0 g
D 2.0 g
36 Which of the following properties enables lead crystal glass
32 Calculate the volume of sodium hydroxide of concentration to be used for making lenses and prisms?
0.5 mol dm-3 needed to neutralise 25.0 cm3 sulphuric acid
of concentration 0.20 mol dm-3 A Easily broken
B High refractive index
A 10 cm3 C Easy to change its shape
B 20 cm3 D Withstand heat and resistant to chemical substances
C 25 cm3
D 50 cm3
37 Based on the question above, what could substance X be?
33 Which of the following aqueous cations will produce a
precipitate when mixed with excess ammonia solution? Substance X + Sulphuric acid Salt Y
+ Water + Carbon dioxide
I Fe2+ I I I Ca2+
I I Pb2+ I V Zn2+ A Copper (II) oxide
B Magnesium metal
C Zinc carbonate
A I and II C II and III D Sodium hydroxide
B I and IV D III and IV
38 The thermochemical equation represents a neutralisation 42 Which of the following shows the arrangement of atoms
reaction in bronze?
KOH + HCl → KCl + H2O ∆H = −57 kJ mol-1

A C
Which neutralisation reaction has the same value for the heat
of neutralisation?
A NaOH + HNO3 → NaNO3 + H2O

B HCl + NH3 → NH4Cl B D
C CH3COOH + KOH → CH3COOK + H2O
D H2SO4 + 2 NH4OH → (NH4)2SO4 + H2O
39 Which observations can differentiate between ethene

and ethanol ?
A Ethene is miscible in water whereas ethanol is not

43 Diagram 10 shows the apparatus set-up for a chemical cell.

B Ethene burns in air whereas ethanol is not
C Ethene produces fruity smell when reacts with carboxylic
acid whereas ethanol does not v
D Ethene decolourised the brown colour of bromine water
at room temperature whereas ethanol does not
Aluminium Plumbum
40 Table 3 shows the electrolysis of two solutions using
plate plate
carbon electrodes
Electrolyte Product formed at

Anode Cathode
Sodium chloride solution 1.0 mol dm-3 P Hydrogen
Sodium chloride solution 0.001 Q Hydrogen Glacial ethanoic acid
mol dm-3 Diagram 10
Table 3
It was found that there is no deflection on the voltmeter
What are the products P and Q? needle. What should be done to make sure that the voltmeter
needle deflects?
P Q
A Reduce the distance between the two metal plates
A Chlorine gas Chlorine gas B Replace the aluminium plate with a sodium plate
B Chlorine gas Oxygen gas C Add water into the glacial ethanoic acid
C Oxygen gas Hydrogen gas D Add dry cells in series in the circuit
D Oxygen gas Chlorine gas
44 Which pair is incorrectly matched?
41 Which of the following pairs of homologous series and Type of food additives Example
general formula is correct?
A Preservatives Sodium benzoate
B Antioxidants Ascorbic acid
Homologous series General formula
C Flavouring agents Triphenyl compound
A Alkane CnHn+ 2 D Thickening agents Acacia gum
B Alkene CnH2n+ 1
C Alcohol CnH2n+1OH
D Carboxylic acid CnHn+1COOH
45 Table 4 below shows the molecular formula of two cleaning 48 What is the change in the oxidation number of iron and
agent, X and Y. manganese in this reaction?
5Fe2+ + MnO-4 + 8H+ 5Fe3+ + Mn2+ + 4H2O

CH3(CH2)14COONa CH3(CH2)11OSO3Na
Iron Manganese
Cleaning agent X Cleaning agent Y A From +3 to +2 From –1 to +2

B From +2 to +3 From +4 to +2
Table 4
C From +2 to +3 From +7 to +2
What statement about X and Y is correct?
D From +2 to 0 From +2 to 0
X Y
49 Diagram 12 shows the apparatus set-up for the electroplating
A Non-biodegradable Biodegradable of iron ring with nickel
Effective in acidic Less effective in acidic
B
water water
C Less effective in hard water Effective in hard water

Nickel
Does not reduce the Reduce the surface tension plate
D
surface tension of white of water
Iron ring
46 Diagram 11 shows a structural formula which represents a food
flavouring substance
Nickel (II) sulphate solution
H H Diagram 12
O
= H H
H C C C Which half-equation represents the reactions at the anode
and cathode?
O C C H
H H Anode Cathode
H H A Ni → Ni2+ + 2e- Ni2+ + 2e- → Ni
Table 11 B Ni2+ + 2e- → Ni Ni → Ni2+ + 2e-
Which of the following can be used to make the flavouring C Ni2+ + 2e- → Ni Fe2+ + 2e- → Fe
substance?
D Ni2+ + 2e- → Ni 4OH- → 2H2O + O2 + 4e-
A Ethanol and butanoic acid
B Ethyl ethanoate and ethanol
C Propanol and ethanoic acid
D Ethanol and propanoic acid 50 Diagram 13 shows a “breathlyzer” which uses by the policemen
to detect the presence of alcohol in drunk driver. The police
47 W, X, Y and Z are four metals. Consider the reactions below always carry out road block to test the presence of alcohol in
involving these metals the air exhaled by the road users by using device which contains
substance Y.
Z sulphate + X Z + X sulphate
Z sulphate + W No reaction
Y sulphate + W Y + W sulphate Diagram 13
Arrange the metals W, X, Y and Z in ascending order of

electropositivity
A X, W, Z, Y
B Y, W, Z, X
C X, Z, W, Y A Ethanoic acid
D Y, Z, W, X B Acidified potassium dichromate(VI) solution
C Bromine water
D Chlorine water

Chemistry Paper 2 [4541/2]

Section A
[60 marks]
1. Diagram 1 show an apparatus set-up to investigate reaction between concentrated ammonia and hydrochloric acid which exist as gases.
The reaction between these gases form white fumes.
Glass tube
P Q R S
Cotton soaked in Cotton soaked in

concentrated ammonia hydrochloric acid
Diagram 1

(a) State the name of gas formed by concentrated hydrochloric acid.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the type of particles of gas formed by concentrated ammonia.

[ 1 mark ]
(c) Reaction between gases from concentration ammonia dan concentration hydrochloric acid produce white fume.
(i) Name the chemical substance of the white fume produced.

[ 1 mark ]
(ii) State the process involved that can cause the reaction the gases to form white fume.
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) The relative molecular mass of gas produced from concentrated ammonia and concentrated hydrochloric acid,
are 17 and 36.5 respectively. Mark ‘X’ in the combustion tube at Diagram 1 where the white fume is formed.
[ 1 mark ]
(iv) Explain your answer in (c)(iii).
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Pineapple is a tropical plant which consists of many nutrients such as niacin or vitamin B3.
Diagram 2 shows a picture pineapple and the enlargement of the structural formula of niacin in a pineapple.
Diagram 2
(i) What is the molecular formula of niacin?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) State the type of particle in niacin.

[ 1 mark ]
(iii) 5.0 kg of pineapple it consists of 2.5 g of niacin. What is the number of mole of niacin in 5.0 kg of pineapple?
[Relative Atomic Mass: H=1, C=12, O=16, N=14]
[ 2 marks ]
2 Diagram 3 shows the production of compound M.
Haber Process Process X
Compound P + Sulphuric Acid Compound M
Diagram 3
(i) Name process X
[ 1 mark ]

(ii) In process X, the catalyst and high temperature is used to increase the rate of reaction. State the catalyst and the
temperature used.
Catalyst :

Temperature : [ 2 marks ]
(b) In Process X, sulphur trioxide gas is not directly dissolved into water to form liquid sulphuric acid. Explain why.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the name of compound P that is produced through Haber process?
[ 1 mark ]

(d) Sulphuric acid reacts with compound P to produce compound M.
(i) Name compound M

(ii) Name the chemical equation for the reaction (d)(i)
[ 2 marks ]
(e) State one of the use of compound M.

[ 1 mark ]
3 Diagram 4.1 shows the apparatus set-up to electroplate an iron spoon with copper.
Copper rod
Iron spoon
Copper (II) nitrate solution
Diagram 4.1
(a) State all the ions present in copper(II) nitrate solution.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) After 10 minutes, electroplating does not occur on the iron spoon. State the mistake in the Diagram 4.1
[ 1 mark ]

(c) After the mistake in the Diagram 4.1 is corrected,
(i) State one observation for the electroplating process.
[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Write the half equation for the reaction that occurs at the anode.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Diagram 4.2 shows that the dry cell in Diagram 4.1 is replaced by a voltmeter.
V
Copper rod
Iron spoon
Copper (II) nitrate solution

Diagram 4.2

(i) On Diagram 4.2, draw arrow (→) to show the direction of the electron flow.
[ 1 mark ]

(ii) State the negative terminal. Explain your answer.
[ 2 marks ]
(iii) Write the half ionic equation for the product formed at the positive terminal.
[ 1 mark ]
(iv) The iron spoon in Diagram 4.2 is replaced with a zinc rod. What happens to the voltmeter reading?
Explain your answer.

[ 2 marks ]
4. Two experiments to investigate the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide were carried out as shown below.
Experiment I

3 g of manganese (IV) oxide powder was added to 10 cm3 of 0.1 mol dm-3 hydrogen peroxide in a conical flask.
Experiment II

3 g of manganese(IV) oxide powder was added to 10 cm3 of 0.2 mol dm-3 hydrogen peroxide in a conical flask.
(a) Suggest a method to collect the gas such that the volume of gas liberated could be recorded easily every ½ minute.
[ 1 marks ]
(b) Write the chemical equation for the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.
[ 2 mark ]

(c) Using the same axes, sketch the graphs of the volume of gas against time for both the experiments.
[ 2 mark ]
(d) (i) In which experiment was the rate decomposition of hydrogen peroxide higher?
[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Explain your answer in (c) (i)
[ 1 mark ]
(e) (i) Manganese (IV) oxide acted as a catalyst in this experiment. Using the collision theory, explain the role of
manganese (IV) oxide in increasing the rate of reaction.

[ 2 marks ]
(ii) Suggest an alternative substance which could be used to replace manganese(IV) oxide in this experiment.
[ 1 marks ]
(f) Name one factor, other than catalyst and concentration of hydrogen peroxide, which can increase the rate of
decomposition of hyrogen peroxide.

[ 1 mark ]
5. Diagram 5.1 shows bromine water added to two test tubes which contain potassium iodide solution and potassium iodine
solution and potassium chloride solution respectively.
Bromine water Bromine water
Potassium chloride solution

Potassium iodide solution
Diagram 5.1
(a) Tetrachlorometane liquid then added to test tube I and test tube II and the mixture is shaken.
(i) State the colour of the tetrachlorometane layer after the mixture being shaken.

Test tube I :

Test tube II : [ 2 marks ]

(ii) Write the ionic equation for redox reaction in test tube I.
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Explain the colour formation at the tetrachlorometane layer in the test tube I.
[ 1 mark ]
Diagram 5.2 shows the apparatus set-up to investigate the transfer of electrons at a distance in a redox reaction.
G
Carbon electrode X Carbon electrode Y
Iron(II) sulphate solution Acidified potassium

dichromate (VI) solution
Dilute sulphuric acid
Diagram 5.2
Based on diagram 5.2

(c) State the function of dilute sulphuric acid
[ 2 mark ]
(d) The following equation shows the reaction that takes place at carbon electrode Y.
Cr2O72- + 14H+ + 6e- �▶ Cr3+ + 7H2O
(i) State the change ofoxidation number for chromium.

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Write the half ionic equation of the reaction that occurs at electrode X.
[ 2 marks ]
6. Diagram 6 shows the structural formula of a detergent and a soap.
O
O
C
O-S-O-Na2
O-Na2
O
Part P Part Q Part P Part Q

Diagram 6
(a) (i) Name part P of the detergent and soap molecules.

[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Differentiate the detergent and soap molecule the aspect of:

Detergent Soap
Name of part Q
Sources
Effectiveness in hard water

[ 3 marks ]
(iii) Some of detergent are not biodegradable .What is meant by not biodegradable?
[ 2 marks ]

(b) Preservative and antioxidant are two types of food additive.
(i) State the function of antioxidant.
[ 1 mark ]

(ii) State one example of food preservative.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the type of medicine should be given to a patient who is stress and depressed . Give an example of the
medicine.
(i) Type of medicine:
[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Example of medicine:
[ 1 mark ]
Section B
[20 marks]
7 Diagram 7.1 shows parts of the Periodic Table of elements.

1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
R S
P Q T
Diagram 7
(a) Write the electron arrangements for Q atom and S atom.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) Describe the formation of the following chemical bonds and draw the electron arrangement of compounds formed

(i) Ionic bond between P and T . [ 5 marks ]
(ii) Covalent bond between R and T . [ 5 marks ]
(c) Explain each of the following statements.

(i) Compound formed in (b)(i) can conduct electricity in the molten state while compound formed in (b)(ii)
cannot conduct electricity in any state. [ 4 marks ]
(ii) The melting and boiling points for compound in (b)(i) is higher than compound in (b)(ii). [ 4 marks ]
8 (a) Table 3 shows the molecular formula of hydrocarbon A and hydrocarbon B.
Hydrocarbon Molecular formula
A C4H10
B C4H8
Table 3
(i) Identify the saturated hydrocarbon and unsaturated hydrocarbon.

Explain why. [ 4 marks ]
(ii) Hydrocarbon A produced more soot than Hydrocarbon B when it is burnt in oxygen. Explain why.
[ Relative atomic mass : C = 12 ; O = 16 ] [ 3 marks ]
(iii) Draw the structural formula of any one of the isomer of hydrocarbon A and state the name of the structural
formula. [ 4 marks ]
(iv) Hydrocarbon B can be converted to a alcohol.

State the name of the process and the condition needed

Write the chemical equation involved [ 4 marks ]

(b) Diagram 7.2 shows series of chemical reaction

P C3H7OH
}
Propyl ethanoate
Q
Diagram 7.2
(i) State the name of P, Q and Process II. [ 3 marks ]
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction in Process II. [ 2 marks ]
Section C
[20 marks]
Answer any one questions
9 (a) What is meaning of heat of neutralisation? [ 1 mark ]
(b) Table 4 shows the values of heat of reaction between different types of acids and alkalis.
Reaction Chemical equation Heat of reaction
I NaOH(aq) +HCl(aq)→ NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) 7 kJ
II KOH(aq) +HNO3(aq) → KNO3(aq) + H2O(l) 57 kJ
III 2NaOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) 114 kJ

IV NaOH(aq) + CH3COOH(aq) → CH3COONa(aq) +H2O(l) 55 kJ
Explain why based on following statement.

• heat of neutralisation I equal to heat of neutralisation II.
• heat of reaction III is double the heat of reaction I.
• heat of neutralisation IV less than heat of neutralisation I. [ 7 marks ]
(c) Describe an experiment to determined the heat of neutralisation between dilute hydrochloric acid
and sodium hydroxide solution. You must include the calculation and precautions that need to be taken. [12 marks]
10. (a) Table 5 shows the observations from two experiments involving the reactions of magnesium with
hydrogen chloride gas dissolved in two different types of solvents.
Reaction Observation
Magnesium with hydrogen chloride dissolved in

Experiment I No observable change
tetrachloromethane
Gas bubbles are
Experiment II Magnesium with hydrogen chloride dissolved in water
given off
Table 5
Explain the different observation in Table 5. [7 marks]
(b) A student found a bottle of solution without a label. Describe two tests to show that the solution is an acid without
using any indicator or a pH meter. Your description should include observation and related ionic equation. [10 marks]
(c) Shampoo used to wash our hair is slightly alkaline. Explain why lime juice can be used as a hair conditional after
washing hair with shampoo. [3 mark]

Tips
[4551/1]
[4551/2] Biology
HOW TO SCORE BIO
1. Use acronyms to memories the concept or process in Biology.

Example : To memories major element in the cell
Nak Makan Sup Pedas, Campur Cili

Na Mg S P Ca Cl
2. To memorise the concept of biology, you can use info-diagram method.

Example: Draw a blood circulatory system of human in the center of A4 paper.

Then, label the structure and write down all the fact about the diagram.
This will help you to memorise and understand the structure of heart and the physiology process as well.
3. During the revision, always take a note of the key words for steps in the Biology process. You should have small note book for that.
You must find important key words and start using the key word for structure or essay question.
4. Always practice to draw diagram. If you able to draw diagram without referring to reference book, it means that you already
understanding the structure or process in Biology.
5. Try to visualize the process in Biology by watching animation video or simplify the process by using flow chart or mind map.
6. To remember a long word in Biology such as Dichlorophenolindophenol, try to write the word repeatedly until you can
pronounce and write the word without refer to the reference or text book.
7. Do exercise on Past Year Question. (Paper 1, paper2 and paper3).Complete all set of question at least for the previous 5 years.
8. You must score Calculation Question in Biology because it is very direct question.
Remember the formula and using the formula during answer the question.
9. You should master the technique to answer the question especially technique to answer paper 2 and paper3.
10. During answer the structure or essay question, you should give attention to the task of question such as state, explain why, explain
how, compare or predict.
11. For Paper 3, you should master the technique to answer all the question which is based on the science process skill.
“GOod luCK”
Biology Paper 1 [4551/1]
1 Diagram 1 shows a plant cell 5 A housewife noticed that cucumber slices become firm when
immersed in distilled water.
P Which process causes the condition of cucumber slices?
A Water diffuses into the cucumber slices by osmosis

B Water diffuses out the cucumber slices by osmosis
C Water diffuses into the cucumber slices by
facilitated diffusion
D Water diffuses out the cucumber slices by
facilitated diffusion
Diagram 1
What is organelle P? 6 Sample R is tested with Benedict’s solution. It produced a brick-

A Mitochondrion red precipitate. What is R?
B Chloroplast A Lactose C Glycogen
C Nucleus B Sucrose D Celullose

D Vacuole
2 Diagram 2 shows the structure of Paramecium sp. which can be 7 Diagram 4 shows the structure of an enzyme molecule at the
found in fresh water pond temperature 26 °C
Diagram 2
Diagram 4
What is the function of P?
A To store food Which of the following is the structure of the enzyme molecule
B To absorb excess water at the temperature of 60 °C
C To expel excess water
D To maintain the shape Paramecium sp A C
3 Diagram 3 shows a type of animal tissue
B D
8 In traditional method practiced by some Malaysian, papaya

leaves are used to marinate meat. What is the purpose of using
Diagram 3 papaya leaves?
A To trap heat
What is the tissue ? B To soften the meat
A Nerve tissue C Epithelial tissue C To digest the fat in meat
B Muscle tissue D Connective tissue D To add flavour to the meat
9 An organism has 44 chromosomes.

4 Which of the following substances is transported across the How many chromosomes in the daughter cell that are formed
plasma membrane by simple diffusion? through meiosis?
A Fatty acid A 22 C 66
B Glucose B 44 D 88
C Amino acid
D Water
10 Diagram 5 shows event of phase X in a cell cycle 15 Table 1 shows the data of an experiment to determine the
content of vitamin C in pineapple juice
Sample Volume of sample needed to decpolourise

1 ml DCPIP solution (ml)
1 2 3
0.1%
ascorbic 1.0 1.0 1.0
acid
Diagram 5 Pineapple 2.5 2.7 2.6
What is X ? juice
A G1 C Mitotic phase
B G2 D Cytokinesis Table 1
11 The following information shows the characteristic of a child Calculate the concentration of vitamin C in the pineapple juice?
with genetic disorder A 0.26 mg/ml C 0.38 mg/ml
B 2.6 mg/ml D 3.80 mg/ml
• Slanted eye
• Protruding tongue 16 Diagram 7 shows the digestive system of a ruminant

• Mentally retarded D
What is the cause of this genetic disorder ?

A Synapsis did not occur during prophase I
B Cytokinesis did not occur during telophase II C
A
C Nuclues membrane did not form during telophase II
D Sister chromatid did not separate during anaphase
12 Which of the following food pyramid fulfil the need of

an athlete ? B
Diagram 7
A C
Fats Fats
Protein Protein Which part labelled A, B, C or D , contain a lot of symbiotic
Carbohydrate Fruits
bacteria?
Fruits Carbohydrate
17 Diagram 8 shows the apparatus set up to determine the energy
value in peanut
Fruits Fats Thermometer
B D
Protein Fruits Cotton wool
Fats Protein
Carbohydrate Carbohydrate Boiling tube
Retort stand
20 ml water
13 Swee Lan looks pale and lethargic. She was diagnosed with
anaemia. Which of the following food is suitable for her to solve Peanut
the problem? Pin
A Rice C Chicken liver Plasticine
B Butter D Coconut oil
Diagram 8
14 Diagram 6 shows the human alimentary canal
What is the purpose of using thermometer in this experiment?
A To stabilize water temperature
B To measure the change of water temperature
C To measure the temperature of peanut
D To measure the temperature of the boiling tube
18 When 0.4 g of groundnut is completely burnt, the temperature

of 20 ml of water rises from 30°C to 70°C. The specific heat
capacity of water is 4.2 Jg°C-1 .
Diagram 6 Calculate the energy value of the groundnut
A 1400 J/g C 8400 J/g
Which parts labelled A, B ,C or D involve in absorption of B 3400 J/g D 7620 J/g
glucose?
19 Diagram 9 shows the respiratory structure of an insect Which statement correctly describe point P?
A Respiration starts
B Photosynthesis stop
C The rate of respiration is equal to the rate of photosynthesis
D The rate of respiration is more than the rate of photosynthesis
X
23 Which of the following is a producer in an ecosystem?
A Elodea sp C Mucor sp
Diagram 9 B Paramecium sp D Amoeba sp
What is X ?
24 Table 2 shows the result of a study on the population of snails
A Trachea C Muscle in a garden
B Spiracle D Tracheole
Visit Number of snails
20 Diagram 10 shows a unicellular organism Marked Unmarked
First 50 0
Second 10 40
Table 2
What is the estimated population size of the snails?
A 250 C 200
B 8 D 13
Diagram 10
If the unicelullar organism undergoes anaerobic respiration, 25 Diagram 13 shows a food web
which of the following are the product of the process?
A Lactic acid and energy Bird
B Lactic acid and carbon dioxide
C Ethanol, carbon dioxide and energy
D Ethanol and energy Snail
Fish
21 Diagram 11 shows a part of human respiratory system
Tadpole
M Plant Small animals
Diagram 13
N
Which organisms are in the second trophic level?
Diagram 11
A Snail, Fish
B Bird, Tadpole
Which of the following is happening to the structures C Bird, Fish, Small animals
M and N during exhalation? D Snail, Tadpole, Small animals
M N
A Move upwards and downwards Contracts 26 Diagram 14 shows a human’s activity
B Move upwards and downwards Relaxes
C Move downwards and inwards Contracts
D Move downwards and inward Relaxes
22 Diagram 12 shows the relationship between photosynthesis and

respiration
Carbon dioxide
absorption increase
P
light intensity Diagram 14
Carbon dioxide
releases increase Which of the following is not the effect of the activity?
low high A Eutrophication C Land slide
B Soil erosion D Global warming
Diagram 12
27 Table 3 shows the time taken for methylene blue solution to 30 Diagram 17 shows the blood circulatory system of an organism
decolorized in three water samples of P, Q and R
Water sample P Q R
Time taken for methylene 8 hours 3 hours 5 hours
blue solution to decolourise.
Which of the following is the sample water for P, Q and R?
P Q R
A Pond water Drain water Tap water
B Drain water Tap water Pond water
C Drain water Pond water Tap water
D Tap water Drain water Pond water Diagram 17
Which of the following organism has the circulatory system?

28 Diagram 15 shows the thinning of ozone layer in the earth’s

A Fish C Frog
stratosphere B Bird D Lizard
Ultra violet rays

Ozone hole 31 Diagram 18 shows the longitudinal section of human heart
Ozone layer
Earth
Diagram 15
Which of the following substances causes the phenomenon? Diagram 18

A Carbon dioxide C Carbon monoxide
B Nitrogen dioxide D Chlorofluorocarbon Which of the labelled parts A, B, C or D ,pumps blood to the
whole parts of the body?
29 Diagram 16 shows a type of human blood cell
32 The following information refers to the stages of the blood

clotting mechanism in human
P – Fibrinogen changes into fibrin

Q- Clumped platelets
R- Meshwork of threads are formed over the wound
S- Release of thrombokinase
T- Prothrombin changes into thrombin
Diagram 16
Which sequence is correct?
What is the main function of the cell? A S → T → Q → P → R
A To undergo phagocytosis B P → Q → R → S → T
B To transport glucose C Q → S → T → P → R
C To transport oxygen D Q → P → S → T → R
D To produce antibody
33 Diagram 19 shows the part of a tree where the ring of bark has 37 Diagram 22 shows a fish with its caudal fin is being cut
been removed. The tree is watered everyday
Diagram 22
Beginning After 1 month What happened to the fish movement in wáter?

A The fish rolls to the side when swimming
Diagram 19 B The fish is unable to turn left and right
C The fish is unable to swim forward quickly
Which statement explain the observation?
D The fish yawing when swimming
A Fungus infection at the part of the bark
B Water diffuse out from the part of the bark
C Glucose cannot be transport to the root 38 What is the function of axon in afferent neuron?
D Glucose and water cannot be transported to the leaves
A To release neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft
B To carry impulse away from the cell body

34 Diagram 20 shows a lumbar vertebra C To speed up the conduction of impulse
D To carry impulse towards the cell body
39 Which of the following plant hormone stimulates the ripening

process of fruit?
A Auxin
P
B Cytokinine
C Ethylene
D Gibberellin
Diagram 20 40 A patient with kidney failure uses a haemodialysis machine to

eliminate urea from his blood. Which statement explains the
What is P ? situation?
A Centrum C Neural canal A Concentration of water in the blood and in the dialysis
B Neural spine D Vertebra arterial canal fluid is the same
B Concentration of water molecules in the blood is higher
than in the dialysis fluid
35 Which of the following organism has hydrostatic skeleton? C Concentration of urea in the dialysis fluid is higher than
A Prawn C Grasshopper in the blood
B Caterpillar D Cockroach D Concentration of urea in the blood is higher than in the
dialysis fluid
36 Diagram 21 shows a typical joint

41 Diagram 23 shows the structure of a human brain
Diagram 23
Diagram 21 Which of the following actions may occur if structure X

is found damaged?
What is Q?
A The person unable to response to reflex
A Ligament B The person unable to control his/her respiration
B Cartilage C The person unable to remember telephone numbers
C Capsule D The person unable to coordinate his/her body movement
D Synovial membrane
42 An accident victim injured his head and had difficulties in 46 The following statement refers to technique used to overcome
breathing. Which part of his brain was injured? infertility
A Cerebrum
B Cereblum
C Medulla oblongata • Fertilisation takes splace in laboratory glassware
D Hypotalamus rather than inside the body
• Embryos are injected in the women’s uterus to

43 Diagram 24 shows a female reproductive system allow implantation to occur
What is the technique?

Y
A Vasectomy
B Intrauterine device
C In vitro fertilisation
D Artificial insemination
47 What is the genotype of the offsprings in F1 generation in a

monohybrid cross between RR x rr ?
A 100% are Rr
Diagram 24 B 100% are RR
C 100% are rr
What is the part labelled Y ? D 75% are Rr and 25% are rr
A Fallopian tube
B Ovary
C Uterus 48 Diagram 26 shows a genetic diagram for sex determination
D Vagina in human
44 Which of the following is true about the development of the part

of flower into fruit?
Meiosis
Parts of flower Parts of fruit
A Diploid zygote Cotyledon
B Triploid nuclues Embryo
C Ovule Seed
D Integument Endosperm
45 Diagram 25 shows the changes in the thickness of the uterus

wall during menstrual cycle. The changes are controlled by Diagram 26
specific hormones
If the parents get a baby boy, what are the chromosome content
of P , Q and R?
P Q R
A 22 + Y 22 + X 44 + XY
B 22 + X 22 + Y 22 + XY
C 22 + Y 22 + X 22 + XY
D 22 + X 22 + Y 44 + XY
Diagram 25
Which of the following statement is true about the thickness

of endometrium wall on day 21 ?
A Level of Follicle stimulating hormone is maximum
B Level of oestrogen hormone is maximum
C Level of progesterone hormone is maximum
D Level of pluteinising hormone is maximum
49 Diagram 27 shows a type of chromosomal mutation 50
The mango plant has leaves of various sizes
a
b a Which of the following graph represents the variation
shown by the characteristic of the leaves?
c c
A
Number
of leaves
Length of
d d leaves/cm
e e
f f
B
g g
Number
of leaves Length of
leaves/cm
Diagram 27
What type of this mutation?

A Deletion C
B Inversion
C Duplication
D Translocation Number
of leaves Length of
leaves/cm
D

Number
of leaves Length of
leaves/cm

Biology Paper 2 [4551/2]
Section A
[60 marks]
Answer all questions in this section
1 Diagram 1.1 shows the different phases of a cell cycle

Diagram 1.1
(a) State what happen during each of the following phases

G1 ______________________________________________________________________
S ______________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(b) Diagram 1.2 shows nucleus of a parent cell and the nuclei of the daughter cells after a cell division in M phase
Parent cells
M phase
Daughter cells
Diagram 1.2
(i) State the diploid number of chromosome of the organism.

______________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(ii) Explain how the chromosomal number in daughter cells are equal to parent cell
______________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
(c) (i) Explain the effect of exposing radioactive rays to the daughter cells
Effect :
_______________________________________________________________________
Explanation:
_______________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(ii) State two precaution to be taken to prevent the effect in c(i)

______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
(d) Diagram 1.3 shows planarian degeneration after being cut at point X and Y
Diagram 1.3
Explain the process above

_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________ [3 marks]
2 Diagram 2 .1 shows mechanism action of sucrose
X: Y: Z:
Diagram 2.1
(a) (i) Label X, Y and Z in Diagram 2.1 [2 marks]

(ii) In Diagram 2.1 complete the mechanism of enzyme reaction [1 mark ]

(b) Based on Diagram 2.1, state two characteristics of enzyme
1 : _______________________________________________________________________
2: _______________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(c) The effect of different temperature on the rate of enzymatic reaction can be seen on the graph in Diagram 2.2
Rate of
enzymatic
reaction
optimum
temperature
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70
Diagram 2.2
(i) Based on graph in Diagram 2.2, explain the reaction of enzymes between the temperature 0°C - 30° C
______________________________________________________________________ [3 marks]
(ii) Draw a line (-------) to show the enzymatic activity in Diagram 2.2 after 40°C [1 mark]
(d) During Hari Raya, fermented glutinous rice is one of the famous meal in our country. It is produce by using food
processing method that involves an enzyme. Name the enzyme and explain how the enzyme act
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________ [3 marks]
3 Table 1.1 shows the respiration equations shown by muscle cells and yeast cells during cellular respiration
Cell type Respiration equation

Glucose + Oxygen→ Carbon dioxide + Water + 2898 KJ Energy
Glucose → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol + 210 KJ Energy
Table 1.1
(a) Fill in Table 1 by writing in muscle cells or yeast cells that matches with its respiration equation [2 marks]
(b) (i) State the type of respiration that occurs in the muscle cells and the yeast cells
Muscle cells :
_______________________________________________________________________
Yeast cells
_______________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(ii) State three differences between the types of respiration carried out by the muscle cells and the yeast cells
Muscle cells Yeast cells
[3 marks]
(c) Explain what happen to the yeast cells if there is too much ethanol produced
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
(d) Table 1.2 shows the result of an experiment to study the effect of vigorous exercises on the rate of heartbeat
Student Rate of heartbeat (beats per minute)

At rest After vigorous exercise
A 80 145
B 81 130
Table 1.2
Explain why the rates of the student’s heartbeat are differ when they are at rest and after vigorous exercises
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________ [3 marks]
4 Diagram 4.1 shows the blood circulation in the heart of human and frog
Left atrium Left atrium

Right atrium Right atrium
Right ventricle Left ventricle ventricle

Septum
Human heart Frog heart

Table 4.1
(a) State one difference between the heart of human and the heart of frog
_________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(b) Why the human heart is more efficient compared to the frog’s heart?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________ [3 marks]
(c) Diagram 4.2 shows human heart with the valves

Q
Tricuspid valve
Semilunar valve
Bicuspid valve
X
S
Table 4.2
If the tricuspid valve is not functioning properly, what is the problem will be faced by the person.
_________________________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(d) A child with heart problem has a hole in the septum at S. Explain how the defect affects the blood pressure in
blood vessel Q
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
(e) A graph in diagram 4.4 shows that the main cause of death in the world is heart disease
Types of disease The main death in the world
Heart disease
Infection
Lung cancer
Cancer
Others
AIDS
Total number of people (millions)
0 2 4 8 10 12 14 16 18
Diagram 4.4
(i) Why does this happen?

______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________ [2 marks]
(ii) State three suggestion to reduce the risk of heart disease

______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________ [3 marks]
5 Diagram 5.1 and 5.2 shows impulse pathway that occur in human nervous system
Brain Dorsal root

Ear receptor ganglion Spinal cord
Receptor Neuron
Neurone
Ringing bell
Muscle
(effector)
Effector Flame
(a) Name the type of action in Diagram 5.1 and 5.2
Diagram 5.1 :
__________________________________________________________________________
Diagram 5.2 :
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(b) (i) Draw pathway of nerve impulses in Diagram 5.1 by using arrow (→)
[1 mark]
(ii) Complete diagram 5.2 with the neuron involved in the action. Mark the direction of the impulse
movement on the neurones
[2 marks]
(c) State one similarity and one difference responses in Diagram 5.1 and Diagram 5.2
Similarity :
__________________________________________________________________________
Difference :
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(d) State the importance of responses in
Diagram 5.1 :
__________________________________________________________________________
Diagram 5.2 :
__________________________________________________________________________

[2 marks]
(e) Muhammad Ali was a famous boxer in the world. At the end of his life, he suffered from Pakinson’s disease.
The disease is caused by insufficient secretion of dopamine in the brain
State three symptom of this disease :

1. __________________________________________________________________________
2. __________________________________________________________________________
3. __________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
Section B
[40 marks]
Answer any two questions from this section.
6 (a) Diagram 6.1 shows two types of mechanisms used by antibodies to destroy antigen
Bacteria
Virus
Bacterium
Type A
Type B
Diagram 6.1
Suggest how the mechanisms Type A and Type B are able to destroy antigen
[6 marks]
(b) Diagram 6.2 shows the concentration of antibody in the blood of a person who acquired two different
types of immunity
Concentration on Concentration on
antibody antibody
Immunity level Immunity level
10 20 30 40 Time (weeks) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1st injection
1st injection 4th injection
Situation X Situation Y
Table 6.2
(c) How the immunity achieved in situation X and Y are different?

[8 marks]
(d) Milk is the primary source of nutrition for newborn babies before they are able to eat and digest other food.
Suggest how to promote mothers to feed their newborn with mother’s milk. What advice can be given to them?
[6 marks]
7 (a) Diagram 7.1 shows an energy pyramid of an ecosystem
Tertiary consumer
Energy loss
Secondary consumer
Primasy consumer
Producer
Energy transferred

Diagram 7.1
Explain the energy transfer in the ecosystem [4 marks]
(b)
Microorganisms have been used to produce products for thousand of years.The use of
microorganism in biotechnology is continuously developing to contribute in our daily lives.
Diagram 7.2 shows two medical products manufactured by biotechnology
Antibiotic Insulin
Diagram 7.2
Explain how microorganism are used in producing the medical produce in Diagram 7.2 ? [6 marks]
(c) Diagram 7.3 shows cricket in a grass field.ition for newborn babies before they are able to eat and digest other food
Diagram 7.3
Describe the sampling techniques used in estimating the population of:
(i) Grass :
(ii) Cricket
[10 mark]
8 Diagram 8.1 shows two pairs of homologous chromosomes of a parent. A father has genotype IA IO and his wife has genotype IA IO
Father Mother
Meiosis
A B
P Q R S
Table 8.1
(a) (i) Predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring Q, R and S [3 marks]
(ii) Based on Diagram 8.1, explain the result using Mendel’s First Law [3 marks]
(b) In your opinion, explain the causes of variation in the inheritance of different phenotypes in human
[8 marks]
(c) Diagram 8.2 shows the karyotype of an individuals who has experienced chromosomal mutation
Table 8.2
Explain the cause of mutation in Diagram 8.2

[6 marks]
9 (a) The following is a news paper clipping about illegal logging in Malaysia
PUTRAJAYA August 30 - The government will enforce the law to impose a

mandatory jail sentence of one year or a maximum of 20 years without a compound of the offenders involved in illegal
logging.
Firm decision was made at the Meeting of the National Foresty Council (NCC) 19th chaired by Deputy Prime Minister
Datuk Seri Najib Tun Razak here today.
Accordingly, the Attorney General will conduct a study and research about which is expected to take about six months to
ensure that law enforcement can be carried out immediately due.
Najib firm, the decision was taken in view of the compound which has no effect on fighting illegal logging even involve the
millions of dollars. In addition to the loss of millions of dollars, illegal logging has affected the well-being of the people with
problems involving the environment, air and water.
Illegal logging is still going on in this country is done by the same group, but this did little syndicate numbers. So now MPN
agree that we do not use the compound (to deal with) but continued to be charged in court, he said. He was speaking at a
press conference after chairing the meeting at Perdana Putra Building here today.

Meetings involving all the Chief Minister and the Chief Minister was also attended by the Minister of Natural Resources and
Environment Minister Datuk Seri Adenan Satem.
According to Najib, the results were much better because it involves action against offenders prison more restrictive than the
existing enforcement. He added that a prison sentence will be carried out in accordance with the provisions of a special law
that would be formed under the National Foresty Act 1984
(Amendment 1993).
Diagram 9.1
Based on above article, describe how the activity affect the ecosystem
[10 marks]
(c) Introducing the first electric hybrid with electrifying performance.

Our engineers have invented the industry's most advanced hybrid vehicle. Unlike other hybrids on the market,
ours uses a patented Lithium Polymer battery. It has 40% less volume, it's 25% lighter and 10% more efficient.
The battery also has a longer life-span, it comes with a lifetime warranty guarantee. So you can feel good about
preserving the environment for the life of your vehicle
Based on the promotion, discuss the benefits of using an eco-friendly car.

[10 marks]

Analisa
[3756/1]
[3756/2] Prinsip Perakaunan
TIPS UNTUK SKOR A+ PRINSIP PERAKAUNAN
• Mengingati semua format dan cara menjawab paling penting adalah Akaun Perdagangan dan Untung Rugi (perlu kuasai bentuk
”T” dan bentuk penyata) Penyata Kedudukan Kewangan.
• Faham dan menguasi topik pelarasan dengan baik
• Sentiasa mengulangkaji dan membuat latih tubi
• Mempunyai pengetahuan dan kefahaman bagi semua topik (penting untuk kertas 1)
• Jangan panik, baca soalan dengan betul dan gariskan perkara-perkara penting supaya anda mudah memahami kehendak
soalan.
CARA MENJAWAB SOALAN KERTAS 2
BAHAGIAN A - 3 SOALAN JAWAB SEMUA
• Soalan 1 – 10 markah
- Soalan pendek/struktur/isi tempat kosong/buat jurnal @ lejar
- Tumpuan soalan lebih kepada pengetahuan dan kefahaman
- Semua topik ting 4 dan ting 5
- Masa diperuntukkan : 7 – 10 minit sahaja.
• Soalan 2 – 25 markah
- Menyediakan Penyata Kewangan sama ada Milikan Tunggal @ Perkongsian @ Kelab dan Persatuan @ Rekod
Tak Lengkap
- Mesti ingat format Akaun Perdagangan dan Untung Rugi/ Penyata Kedudukan Kewangan / Akaun
Pengasingan Untung Rugi / Akaun Semasa / Akaun Realisasi
- Faham pelarasan terakru, terdahulu, peruntukan susut nilai, peruntukan hutang ragu, hutang lapuk dan
ambilan
- Masa diperuntukan 35 – 40 minit.
• Soalan 3 - 25 markah
- Soalan yang mungkin daripada tajuk Pembubaran Perkongsian / Realisasi, Kelab dan Persatuan / Syarikat Berhad /
Akaun Pengeluaran / Penyata Penyesuaian Bank
- Mesti faham dan ingat cara menyediakan setiap akaun-akaun tersebut
- Masa diperuntukan 35 – 40 minit
BAHAGIAN B - 3 SOALAN PILIH DUA SAHAJA.
• Soalan 4, 5 dan 6 (Semua topik tingkatan 4 dan 5) – 20 markah setiap satu

- Topik-topik daripada Ting 4 dan Ting 5 seperti Dokumen Sumber, Lejar, Buku Tunai Runcit, Persamaan Perakaunan,
Analisis Nisbah dan Tafsiran Kewangan, Analisis Kos Volum Untung dan Syarikat Berhad.
- Masa diperuntukan 25- 30 minit sahaja
Prinsip Perakaunan Kertas 1 [3756/1]

Jawab semua soalan
1 Bentuk organisasi perniagaan manakah yang mempunyai 7 Urus niaga manakah yang direkodkan dalam Jurnal Am
liabiliti yang terhad? I Membeli sebuah lori secara kredit untuk perniagaan
II Mengambil tunai perniagaan untuk kegunaan keluarga
A Kedai Buku Izzat III Membayar Akaun Belum Bayar dengan cek
B Klinik Azian dan Elina IV Mengambil barang niaga untuk tujuan promosi
C Pasar Mini Nina
D Idaman Seni Berhad A I dan II C II dan III
B I dan IV D III dan IV
2 Antara yang berikut, manakah ciri-ciri Aset Bukan Semasa?
I Sukar ditukar menjadi tunai 8 Pernyataan manakah benar tentang catatan kontra dalam
II Mudah ditukar menjadi tunai Buku Tunai
III Boleh digunakan untuk jangka masa pendek
IV Boleh digunakan untuk jangka masa panjang A Menyediakan cara pembetulan kesilapan dalam
Buku Tunai

A I dan II C II dan III B Merupakan kaedah pembayaran diskaun tunai ke atas
B I dan IV D II dan IV cek tak laku
C Menyelaras jumlah antara diskaun diberi dengan
3 Urus niaga manakah yang menambahkan aset dan liabiliti diskaun diterima
perniagaan? D Merujuk kepada pemindahan tunai dari pejabat ke
dalam bank dan sebaliknya
A Beli lengkapan secara kredit
B Bayar Akaun Belum Bayar dengan cek 9 Pernyataan berikut menunjukkan nama sebuah organisasi
C Terima tunai daripada Akaun Belum Terima perniagaan
D Ambilan barang niaga untuk kegunaan sendiri
Butik Muslimah Diena
4 Jadual yang berikut menunjukkan nilai aset, liabiliti, ekuiti
pemilik Apakah belanja kendalian bagi perniagaan tersebut?
Aset Liabiliti Ekuiti Pemilik A Kadar bayaran prabayar

RM45 180 Y RM25 000 B Faedah atas simpanan
C Faedah atas pinjaman
Hitungkan nilai Y D Komisen belum terima
A RM11 280 10 Nurin, seorang peniaga telah menggunakan wang perniagaan

B RM24 120 untuk membayar kadar bayaran kediamannya.
C RM20 180 Apakah catatan bergu bagi urus niaga tersebut?
D RM70 180
Debit Kredit
5 Dokumen manakah yang merupakan dokumen bukan sumber A Akaun Kadar Bayaran Akaun Tunai
dalam perniagaan B Akaun Tunai Akaun Kadar Bayaran
C Akaun Kadar Bayaran Akaun Modal
A Resit D Akaun Ambilan Akaun Tunai
B Memo
C Nota Debit
D Penyata Akaun 11 Maklumat berikut berkaitan butiran jualan kredit bagi
Perniagaan Rahul pada bulan September 2017
6 Encik Amin ialah pemilik SS Enterprise. Invois yang diterima
RM
oleh SS Enterprise telah terkurang caj.
Apakah dokumen yang digunakan untuk membetulkan Baki awal Akaun Belum
kesilapan tersebut? Terima 15 480
Jualan kredit 35 550
A Nota Debit Pulangan Jualan 390
B Nota Kredit Baki akhir Akaun Belum
C Makluman Kredit Terima 17 460
D Makluman Debit
Hitung jumlah penerimaan daripada Akaun Belum Terima
A RM32 550
B RM32 940
C RM33 180
D RM35 160
12 Petikan Imbangan Duga berikut diambil daripada 17 Pada 1 Jun 2017, TJ Enterprise telah membeli sebuah van
Perniagaan Harry: dengan harga RM82 000. Pada 1 Jun 2018, nilai semasanya
ialah RM65 000. Apakah sebab nilainya berkurang?
Butir Debit Kredit
RM RM A Berlaku kemelesetan ekonomi
Belian dan Jualan 43 500 68 000 B Kos penyelenggaraan semakin tinggi
P 3400 C Prestasi peniagaan kurang memuaskan
Diskaun 200 320 D Berlaku kemerosotan fizikal dan keusangan
Q 6 000
18 Maklumat berikut diperoleh daripada buku Perniagaan Zarina
Berdasarkan Imbangan Duga tersebut, P dan Q mungkin pada 31 Disember 2017
P Q RM
A Ambilan Pemiutang Perabot 5 200
B Faedah pinjaman Modal Susut nilai terkumpul perabot 1 040
C Gaji Dividen Perabot tersebut dijual dengan harga RM4 420 pada 31
D Faedah simpanan Insurans Disember 2018.
Berapakah untung atau rugi pelupusan perabot tersebut?
13 Mengapakah nilai inventori akhir perlu ditentukan pada akhir A Rugi pelupusan RM260
tempoh kewangan? B Rugi pelupusan RM780

C Untung pelupusan RM260
A Supaya inventori dapat dikemas kini D Untung pelupusan RM780
B Supaya perbezaan antara kos jualan dengan jualan
dapat ditentukan 19 Pernyataan yang berikut menunjukkan kesilapan yang berlaku
C Mengira perbezaan antara kos barang untuk dijual dalam buku Perniagaan Miera
dengan jualan
D Supaya keuntungan atau kerugian perniagaan Belian barang niaga secara tunai RM800 terlebih catat
dapat dihitung sebanyak RM80 dalam Akaun Tunai dan Akaun Belian.
Apakah jenis kesilapan tersebut?
14 Maklumat berikut diperoleh daripada Asyraff Trading
RM A Kesilapan prinsip
Inventori 23 400 B Kesilapan songsang
C Kesilapan saling mengimbangi
Akaun Belum Terima 5 360 D Kesilapan komisen
Lengkapan 24 000
Akaun Belum Bayar 1 800 20 Bayaran mengecat premis RM2 200 dengan cek tersilap rekod
Overdraf 2 720 ke Akaun Premis. Bagaimanakah kesilapan ini diperbetulkan
dalam Jurnal Am?
Berapakah modal kerja
Butir Debit Kredit
A RM37 520 C RM48 240 RM RM
B RM29 680 D RM24 240
Premis 2 200
A
Bank 2 200
15 Maklumat berikut berkaitan dengan bayaran gaji dalam buku
pernigaan Syima Enterprise Belanja mengecat 2 200
B Premis
RM Premis 2 200
Gaji Prabayar pada 1 Januari 2017 550 Belanja mengecat 2 200
Gaji Belum Bayar pada 31 Disember 2017 390 C Premis
Pembayaran gaji sepanjang Tahun 2017 860 Bank 2 200
Premis 2 200
Berapakah bayaran gaji bagi tahun tersebut? D Belanja
mengecat Premis 2 200
A RM700 C RM860
B RM1 800 D RM1 020 21 Maklumat berikut diperoleh daripada buku Perniagaan Fareeda
16 Pada akhir tempoh perakaunan, buku Jessica Trading RM

menunjukkan baki-baki berikut: Jualan 34 000
RM Pulangan Jualan 1 500
Aset 23 680 Kos Jualan 16 000
Liabiliti 12 420
Berapakah peratus Untung Kasar atas Jualan?
Berapakah modal awal perniagaan jika Jessica Trading
mengalami kerugian sebanyak RM3 860? A 48.53% C 50.77%
B 52.94% D 54.93%
A RM7 400 C RM32 240
B RM15 120 D RM39 960
22 Apakah maksud Kadar Pusing Ganti Inventori yang tinggi? 27 Maklumat berikut berkaitan dengan perniagaan Perkongsian
YMK
I Risiko kerosakan tinggi RM
II Kos penyimpanan yang tinggi
Jumlah Aset
III Pengurusan inventori yang cekap
(tidak termasuk Bank) 50 000
IV Inventori cepat ditukar kepada tunai
Jumlah liabiliti 5 500
A I dan II Belanja Realisasi 2 500
B I dan III Aset direalisasi 42 500
C II dan IV
D III dan IV Berapakah Rugi Realisasi?
A RM4 500
23 Maklumat berikut diperoleh daripada buku Aleesya Trading B RM10 000
pada 31 Disember 2017 C RM10 500
D RM15 500
RM
Modal Awal 20 000
Modal Akhir 25 000 28 Apakah faktor yang menyebabkan berlakunya kurangan dalam
Modal Tambahan 6 700

Akaun Modal Pekongsi?
Untung Bersih 4 100
A Sumbangan modal pekongsi terlalu tinggi.
Berapakah nilai Ambilan bagi perniagaan Aleesya Trading? B Ambilan yang dibuat oleh pekongsi terlalu banyak.
C Untung realisasi yang diperoleh terlalu tinggi.
A RM5 800 D Nilai aset yang diambil alih oleh pekongsi rendah.
B RM2 400
C RM3 700
D RM4 200 29 Antara yang berikut, butiran manakah tidak terdapat dalam
Akaun Semasa Pekongsi?
24 Situasi yang manakah merujuk kepada rekod tak lengkap I Pinjaman

II Gaji Pekongsi
A Peniaga tidak merancang dengan baik III Faedah atas modal
B Rekod perakaunan yang hilang atau musnah IV Faedah atas Pinjaman Bank
C Jumlah imbangan duga tidak dihitung dengan tepat
D Tiada kawalan tunai dalam perniagaan A I dan II
B I dan IV
C II dan III
25 Antara berikut, butiran manakah terdiri daripada pembayaran D III dan IV
dalam Belanjawan Tunai?
I Pinjaman 30 Apakah dokumen yang mengandungi maklumat-maklumat

II Sewa berkaitan penubuhan dan pengurusan syarikat?
III Modal
IV Faedah pinjaman A Ikatan Perjanjian
B Notis Penubuhan
A I dan II C Notis Pemerbadanan
B I dan III D Perlembagaan syarikat
C II dan IV
D III dan IV
26 Encik Afnan telah membuat pembayaran sebanyak RM755

dengan cek. Selepas membuat semakan, beliau mendapati
bahawa catatan yang direkodkan dalam Buku Tunai ialah
RM775 manakala catatan dalam Penyata Bank adalah RM755.
Apakah yang perlu dilakukan oleh Encik Afnan?
A Mendebitkan Buku Tunai RM20

B Mengkreditkan Buku Tunai RM20
C Mendebitkan Buku Tunai RM755
D Mngkreditkan Buku Tunai RM755
31 Pada 2 Jun 2017, Syarikat Medinna Bhd. telah menerbitkan 36 Item manakah yang diambil kira dalam menghitung
1 500 000 unit Syer Biasa pada harga RM1.00 kepada orang Kos Prima?
awam. Semua syer yang diterbitkan telah dilanggan dan dibayar
penuh. Berapakah jumlah Modal Diterbitkan dan Berbayar I Belanja alat kecil
II Susut nilai mesin
A RM2 000 000 III Gaji operator kilang
B RM50 000 IV Angkutan masuk bahan langsung
C RM2 500 000
D RM1 500 000 A I dan II
B I dan IV
C II dan III
32 D III dan IV
SYARIKAT PASTI JAYA BERHAD
Apakah yang dimaksudkan dengan perkataan “Berhad” yang 37 Maklumat berikut diperoleh daripada Kilang Kasut Nicchi
terdapat dalam nama di atas
RM
A Bilangan ahli syarikat dihadkan kepada 50 orang Bahan langsung 8 500
B Syer tidak boleh dipindah milik kepada orang awam Buruh langsung 3 500
C Bilangan pemegang syer terhad kepada individu tertentu Susut nilai mesin 1 000
D Liabiliti pemegang syer terhad kepada jumlah modal Buruh tak langsung 2 000
dilaburkan
Barang siap 20 000
Kerja dalam proses awal 4 500
33 Kelab Rekreasi Seri Alam telah menerima derma untuk Kerja dalam proses akhir 2 100
pengubahsuian premis kelab.
Apakah kesan urus niaga tersebut? Hitungkan Kos Pengeluaran
A Menambahkan pendapatan modal A RM5 600 C RM4 500

B Mengurangkan pendapatan modal B RM15 400 D RM17 400
C Menambahkan pendapatan hasil
D Mengurangkan pendapatan hasil 38 Kilang Serbuk Pencuci Dino menjual Serbuk Pencuci Dino
dengan harga RM8 seunit. Kos berubah seunit ialah RM2 dan
kos tetap ialah RM12 000.
34 Apakah yang dimaksudkan dengan Yuran Belum Terperoleh? Berdasarkan maklumat berikut, berpakah unit keluaran Serbuk
Pencuci Dino yang harus dijual untuk mencapai Titik Pulang
A Yuran tahun lepas yang telah diterima Modal?
B Yuran tahun lepas yang belum diterima
C Yuran tahun hadapan yang telah diterima terdahulu A 1 200 unit C 1 500 unit
D Yuran tahun semasa yang diterima terdahulu B 6 000 unit D 2 000 unit
35 Maklumat berikut berkaitan dengan aset dan liabiliti Kelab 39 Butiran manakah yang tidak terdapat dalam Buku Tunai
Futsal Taman Sentosa pada 1 Januari 2017? sebelum dikemaskini?
RM A Deposit belum dikreditkan

Yuran Belum Terperoleh 370 B Belian
Yuran Belum Terima 330 C Jualan
Perabot 3 200 D Faedah atas simpanan
Sewa Belum Bayar 280
Bangunan Kelab 27 500 40 Antara berikut yang manakah komponen ekuiti pemilik bagi
Bank 9 700 perniagaan perkongsian?
Hitungkan Dana Terkumpul pada 1 Januari 2017 I Modal

II Ambilan
A RM40 080 III Untung Bersih
B RM40 730 IV Akaun Semasa
C RM40 360
D RM41 380 A I dan II
B I dan IV
C II dan III
D III dan IV
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

Prinsip Perakaunan Kertas 2 [3756/2]

Bahagian A
[60 markah]
Jawab semua soalan
1 (a) Berikan akaun kontra bagi akaun induk berikut
(i) Akaun Belian

(ii) Akaun Alatan Pejabat
[2 markah]
(b) Nyatakan konsep, pinsip atau andaian bagi setiap situasi yang dinyatakan di bawah
(i) Insurans prabayar dan faedah belum diterima diambil kira untuk menentukan keuntungan bagi sesuatu
tempoh perakaunan

[1 markah]
(ii) Syarikat Melati telah mencatatkan nilai kenderaan pada harga belian RM80 000 walaupun harga pasaran
kenderaan ialah RM68 000
[1 markah]
(c) Urus niaga berikut dipetik daripada buku perniagaan Aleeya Enterprise
Aleeya Enterprise telah membeli barang niaga bernilai RM7 400 daripada Sasliza Sdn Bhd.
Namun, invois yang diterima oleh Aleeya Enterprise terkurang caj RM100
(i) Apakah dokumen perniagaan yang perlu dikeluarkan untuk menyelesaikan situasi di atas?
[1 markah]
(ii) Siapakah yang perlu mengeluarkan dokumen tersebut?

[1 markah]
(d) Maklumat berikut diperoleh daripada Perniagaan Danny

Belanjawan (RM) Sebenar (RM) Varian (RM) Memuaskan/
Tidak Memuaskan
Jumlah Pembayaran 16 500 18 600
Anda dikehendaki melengkapkan jadual tersebut

[2 markah]
(e) Maklumat di bawah diperoleh daripada Perniagaan Nusantara bagi tahun kewangan berakhir 31 Disember 2016
RM
Inventori Awal 15 780
Inventori Akhir 26 320
Jualan 164 190
Maklumat tambahan :
Kadar pusing ganti inventori bagi tempoh perakaunan berakhir 31 Disember 2016 ialah enam kali
Anda dikehendaki menghitung :

(i) Inventori purata [1 markah]
(ii) Kos jualan [1 markah]

2 Hakeem dan Ziera merupakan rakan kongsi untuk Perkongsian HAZIE yang beroperasi di Bandar Setia Saujana. Berikut adalah
maklumat kewangan yang diperoleh bagi tahun perakaunan berakhir 30 Jun 2017
RM
Kenderaan 75 000
Perabot 29 000
Modal
60 000
Hakeem
Ziera 40 000
Ambilan Zeira (1September 2016) 3 000
Akaun Semasa
4 500
Hakeem
Ziera 1 250
Pinjaman Hakeem 10 000
Gaji Zeira 2 500
Akaun Belum Terima 3 850
Akaun Belum Bayar 2 750

Inventori pada 30 Jun 2017 4 500
Bank 17 350
Tunai 950
Susut nilai terkumpul kenderaan 11 700
Susut nilai terkumpul perabot 4 300
Faedah atas pinjaman Hakeem 500
Untung bersih 1 150
Maklumat tambahan
(i) Pada 14 Disember 2016, Encik Naim, seorang penghutang muncul kembali dan menjelaskan hutangnya dengan
cek sebanyak RM1 500 yang telah dihapuskan sebagai hutang lapuk pada 30 Jun 2014. Urus niaga ini belum
dicatatkan di dalam mana-mana buku.
(ii) Komisen yang masih belum diterima adalah sebanyak RM800
(iii) Insurans berjumlah RM1 200 adalah untuk setahun bermula 1 Januari 2017
(iv) Perkongsian telah membuat pinjaman daripada Hakeem pada 1 Julai 2016
(v) Ikatan Perjanjian Perkongsian menyatakan syarat berikut:
(a) Faedah atas ambilan dikenakan sebanyak 8% setahun
(b) Faedah atas pinjaman pekongsi sebanyak 5% setahun
(c) Faedah atas modal 5% setahun dibayar atas baki modal pada akhir tahun kewangan
(d) Gaji tahunan Ziera RM3 000.
(e) Untung atau rugi dikongsi secara sama rata
Anda dikehendaki menyediakan
(a) Penyata Pelarasan Untung Bersih bagi tahun berakhir 30 Jun 2017 [5 markah]
(b) Penyata Pengasingan Untung Rugi bagi tahun berakhir 30 Jun 2017 [6 markah]
(c) Akaun Semasa Pekongsi (beruangan) [6 markah]
(d) Penyata Kedudukan Kewangan pada 30 Jun 2017 [8 markah]

3 Encik Salman Khan merupakan pemilik Pasar Mini Salman telah menjalankan perniagaan jenis milikan tunggal sejak dua tahun
yang lalu di Taman Dato’ Bandar, Klang. Encik Salman tidak mengamalkan sistem catatan bergu untuk merekod urus niaga
perniagaannya. Anda dikehendaki membantu Encik Salman dalam menyelesaikan masalah beliau untuk menentukan untung atau
rugi perniagaannya.
Maklumat berikut diambil daripada buku perakaunan Pasar Mini Salman bagi tahun berakhir 31 Mac 2017
1 April 2016 31 Mac 2017
RM RM
Inventori barang niaga 15 860 14 500
Inventori Alat tulis 80 60
Premis (kos) 10 000 10 000
Perabot (kos) 3 400 4 900
Alat pejabat (kos) 5 000 ?
Gaji prabayar 100 -
Komisen belum terima - 150
Akaun Belum Terima 3 550 ?

Akaun Belum Bayar 2 650 3 200
Bank 1 000 4 590
Tunai 500 2 075
Ringkasan penerimaan dan pembayaran adalah seperti berikut:
Penerimaan Tunai Bank
RM RM
Komisen diterima 450 3 000
Jualan 3 000 30 800
3 450 56 350
Pembayaran Tunai Bank

RM RM
Belian 1 000 28 660
Ambilan 200
Gaji 6 400
Kadar bayaran 420
Perabot 2 000
Alat tulis 80
Angkutan masuk 125
1 825 52 760
Maklumat tambahan
(i) Jumlah jualan kredit ialahRM24 600 dan jumlah belian kredit ialah RM16 250.
(ii) Pulangan jualan berjumlah RM200 belum direkod dalam mana-mana buku
(iii) Peruntukan hutang ragu diwujudkan 5% atas penghutang bersih.
(iv) Alat pejabat telah dibeli pada 1 Oktober 2016 dengan kos RM5 000. Pemiagaan mernperuntukkan susut nilai
20% setahun mengikut kaedah baki berkurangan.Tiada pelarasan susut nilai dibuat sejak tarikh pembelian aset tersebut
(a) Akaun Kawalan Belum Terima [5 markah]

(b) Akaun Perdagangan dan Untung Rugi bagi tahun berakhir 31 Mac 2017 [11 markah]
(c) Penyata Kedudukan Kewangan pada 31 Mac 2017 dengan menunjukkan Modal Kerja. [9 markah]
4 (i) Maklumat berikut dipetik daripada buku Syarikat Raihanah Berhad pada 31 Disember 2017
Modal pada 1 Januari 2017

3 000 000 unit 5% Syer Keutamaan RM6 000 000
4 000 000 unit Syer Biasa RM4 000 000
Syarikat telah membayar Dividen Interim untuk Syer Keutamaan dan 3 sen sesyer untuk Syer Biasa pada 30 Jun 2017.
Bagi tahun berakhir 31 Disember 2017, Lembaga Pengarah Syarikat Raihanah Berhad telah mengisytiharkan
Dividen Akhir 6 sen bagi setiap unit Syer Biasa

(a) Menghitung :
(i) Modal Diterbitkan dan Berbayar Penuh [3 markah]
(ii) Jumlah Dividen Interim [2 markah]
(iii) Jumlah Dividen Akhir [2 markah]
(b) Menunjukkan bahagian Ekuiti Pemilik dalam Penyata Kedudukan Kewangan pada 31 Disember 2017. [3 markah]
(ii) Maklumat berikut diperoleh dari buku Aima Trading bagi bulan Januari 2017
Baki Lejar Jualan pada 1 Januari 2017: Baki Lejar Belian pada 1 Januari 2017:
RM RM
Amira Trading 240 Pembekal Izara 1 090
Collin Enterprise 2 310 Zuza Store 3 050
Kedai Azian 1 980
Perniagaan Maju 570
Buku Tunai (Petikan)
Tarikh Butir Diskaun Bank Tarikh Butir Diskaun Bank
2017 RM RM 2017 RM RM
Jan 5 Perniagaan Maju 50 520 Jan 7 Belian 1300
10 Collin Enterprise 1 600 12 Zuza Store 130 2 510
19 Kedai Azian 80 1 900 18 Pembekal Izara 500
24 Jualan 2 000 22 Zuza Store 440
26 Kedai Azian 1 900
Jurnal Belian Jurnal Jualan
Tarikh Butir No. Invoice Jumlah Tarikh Butir No. Invoice Jumlah
2017 RM 2017 RM
Jan 1 Pembekal Izara 321 1 500 Jan 3 Perniagaan Maju 009 1 300
18 Zuza Store 452 2 500 11 Kedai Azian 010 1 660
23 Idaman Trading 632 1 800 26 Perniagaan Maju 011 1 700
31 Akaun Belian 5 800 31 Akaun Jualan 4 660
Jurnal Pulangan Belian Jurnal Pulangan Jualan

Tarikh Butir No. Invoice Jumlah Tarikh Butir No. Invoice Jumlah
2017 RM 2017 RM
Jan 20 Zuza Store 250 Jan 6 Perniagaan Maju 150
31 Akaun Pulangan Belian K23 250 13 Kedai Azian NK012 230
31 Akaun Pulangan Jualan NK013 380
Maklumat tambahan
(i) Hutang lapuk dihapuskan sebanyak RM240

(ii) Peruntukan hutang ragu ialah 2% daripada baki penghutang
(iii) Angkutan masuk ialah RM150
(iv) Pindahan baki lejar jualan ke lejar belian sebanyak RM590
(a) Akaun Kawalan Belum Terima [6 markah]

(b) Akaun Kawalan Belum Bayar [4 markah]
5 Maklumat berikut diperoleh daripada Reffa Sdn. Bhd. sebuah kilang yang mengeluarkan pakaian jenama Reffa pada 30 Jun 2017
1 Julai 2016 30 Jun 2017

RM RM
Inventori Bahan Langsung 2 210 1 980
Inventori Barang Siap 5 420 4 850
Alat-alat Kecil 220 750
Kerja Dalam Proses
Bahan Langsung 720 680
Buruh Langsung 600 590
Kos overhed 510 500
Belian bahan langsung 21 820
Duti atas belian bahan langsung 560
Paten menggunakan jenama “Reffa” 2 000
Gaji pengurus kilang 4 600

Gaji pengurus pemasaran 5 500
Belanja am kilang 250
Belanja am pejabat 200
Sewa bangunan 3 000
Insurans 1 600
Kadar bayaran 1 800
Operator pengeluaran 2 000
Angkutan keluar kilang 500
Bahan api kilang 3 500
Loji dan mesin 100 000
Belian alat-alat kecil 1 300
Angkutan masuk bahan langsung 500
Maklumat tambahan
(i) Loji dan mesin baru RM18 000 dibeli pada 1 Januari 2016 belum direkodkan
(ii) Loji dan mesin disusutnilaikan 10% setahun atas kos
(iii) Kadar bayaran untuk kilang 60% dan pejabat 40%.
(iv) Insurans hendaklah dibahagikan antara kilang dan pejabat dengan nisbah 3:2
(v) 70% daripada sewa bangunan untuk kilang dan bakinya untuk pejabat
(vi) Satu nota debit untuk caj angkutan belian bahan langsung bernilai RM80 belum direkodkan
(vii) Gaji operator pengeluaran RM400 tersalah rekod ke dalam gaji pengurus pemasaran
(a) menyediakan Penyata Kos Pengeluaran bagi tahun berakhir 30 Jun 2017 [17 markah]
(b) menghitung Titik Pulang Modal dalam unit jika harga jualan seunit pakaian RM26 dan kos berubah
seunit pakaian RM21
[3 markah]
6 (a) Akaun Belum Terima bagi Syarikat Oppa adalah seperti berikut:
Tahun RM
2015 50 500
2016 65 300
2017 59 700
Andaikan dasar syarikat ialah mengadakan satu peruntukan hutang ragu pada kadar 5% atas Akaun Belum Terima
pada 31 Disember setiap tahun
(a) Akaun Peruntukan Hutang Ragu bagi tahun 2015, 2016 dan 2017. [5 markah]
(b) Catatan dalam Akaun Untung Rugi bagi tahun berakhir 31 Disember 2015, 2016 dan 2017 [3 markah]
(c) Catatan dalam Penyata Kedudukan Kewangan pada 31 Disember 2015, 2016 dan 2017 [3 markah]
(b) Yang berikut adalah petikan Buku Tunai Perniagaan Perabot Elly pada 31 Disember 2017
Buku Tunai (Petikan)

Tahun RM Tahun RM
Baki b/b 12 000 Insurans 6 000
Sewa Diterima 9 000 Kadar bayaran 6 400
Maklumat tambahan
(i) Tempoh perakaunan adalah setahun berakhir 31 Disember 2017

(ii) Insurans diambil untuk tempoh setahun berakhir 31 Januari 2018
(iii) Sewa belum terperoleh adalah sebanyak RM3 000
(iv) Kadar bayaran belum bayar berjumlah RM300
(i) Akaun Insurans

[2 markah]
(ii) Akaun Kadar Bayaran
[2 markah]
(iii) Akaun Sewa Diterima
[2 markah]
(ii) Penyata Kedudukan Kewangan pada 31 Disember 2017
[3 markah]
KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

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SOALAN ULANGKAJI SPM 2018 1

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TEMA - (Langkah – cara/usaha/ikhtiar) (Faedah – kepentingan/kebaikan/kesan baik/kesan positif/implikasi positif/manfaat/

2. Bahagian kesimpulan gunakan kata kunci Kesimpulan/Oleh itu,……agar/supaya…

PENGETAHUAN DAN KEMAHIRAN BAHASA

1. Elakkan daripada melakukan kesalahan ejaan atau tatabahasa.

Bahasa Melayu Kertas 1 [1103/1]

PERSEDIAAN MENGHADAPI BANJIR

Lampu suluh Telefon Bimbit Dokumen Penting

Makanan ruji Makanan dalam tin Pakaian yang bersesuaian

2. Setiap ahli keluarga merupakan nadi kepada kebahagiaan sesebuah keluarga

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Tulis laporan anda itu selengkapnya

Bahasa Melayu Kertas 2 [1103/2]

Soalan 2 (a) Petikan Umum

i. Berikan maksud progresif akademik murid. [2 markah]

Soalan 2 (b) Petikan Cerpen

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Dipetik daripada cerpen Jaket Kulit Kijang Dari Istanbul

Soalan 2 (c) Petikan Prosa Tradisional

Dipetik daripada cerita “Burung Terbang Dipipiskan Lada”

(i) Berikan maksud kedua-duanya sama orang berasal. [2 markah]

Gurindam Dua Belas (Fasal yang Ketiga)

Apabila terpelihara mata,

Apabila terpelihara kuping,

Bersungguh-sungguh engkau memelihara tangan,

Apabila perut terlalu penuh,

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Anggota tengah hendaklah diingat,

Hendaklah pelihara akan kaki,

Mohd Yusof Md Nor dan Abd Rahman Kaeh

i. Apakan yang dimaksudkan dalam rangkap ke-4 guridam di atas? [3 markah]

Soalan 3: Pengetahuan dan Kemahiran Bahasa

(i) Untung atas angin

(i) Songket Berbenang Emas karya Khairuddin Ayip

KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

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English Paper 1 [1119/1]

Time: One hour and forty-five minutes

SECTION A: Directed Writing

In your letter, include the following:

When writing your letter, remember to:

You are advised to spend about one hour on this section.

Write a composition of about 350 words on one of the following topics:

1. Write a story when Justice was prevailed in your neighborhood.

END OF QUESTION PAPER

English Paper 2 [1119/2]

KLANG: Ten-year-old Muntimah, who has been living alone

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The Eclipsed One

I think it is high time for the government to implement strong

B. Dislike D. Responsibility B. Dejected D. Traumatized

Get Fit Gym is in the Town!

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For enquiries: Weekdays: 7.00a.m. -10.30p.m.

Name of Fitness Centre 16.

Free Trial Period 17.

21. Get Fit Gym aims to help their members’ __________________________________.

24. During weekends, complimentary passes can be given to _______________________________________________

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9 The call was relayed to the Marine Rescue Coordination Centre in

(Adapted from Reader’s Digest, August 2010)

(b) From paragraph 5, why it was ‘a bad decision’?