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B 1. The inhibition in noncompetitive reaction _________________.

a. competes with the active site of the enzyme
b. binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site
c. increases the rate of reaction
d. both b and c

A 2. The order and sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide determines what protein structure
a. primary c. tertiary
b. secondary d. quaternary

B 3. Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the organism are called__________.

a. non essential amino acids c. standard amino acids
b. essential amino acids d. alpha amino acids

A 4. Which hormones regulates the level of blood sodium?

a. aldosterone c. corticosteroid
b. sterol d. cortisone

A 5. It is a precursor of vit. A
a. B-carotene c. retinal
b. retinol d. opium

C 6. Which of the following is a precursor of vitamin D?

a. prostaglandin c. cholesterol
b. linoleic acid d. aldosterone

D 7. Which of these class of enzymes introduces double-bond by the removal of hydrogen

a. dehydronegase c.decarboxylase
b. dehydrolase d. lipase

A 8. The ionic property of amino acid is exhibited by its

a. zwitterions form c. COO group
b. NH2 group d. positively charged groups

D 9. All of the following are simple proteins except:

a. glutelins c. albumins
b. globulins d. glycoproteins

C 10. The simplest monosaccharide is __________________

a. erythrose c. glyceraldehydes
b. starch d. arabinose

C 11. Denaturation of protein is a result of

a. cleavage of the peptide bond c. breaking of H-bond
b. formation of H-bond d. none of these

A 12. Competitive inhibition is a _________________ reaction.

a. reversible c. pH ^ temperature dependent
b. irreversible d. none of these

A 13. In the Seliwanioff's test, the reaction of resorcinol and acid on the sugar forms___________.
a. hydroxymethyl furfural c. hydraxine
b. pyranose d. purine

A 14. High concentration of neutral salts causes the precipitation of proteins. This is called__________.
a. salting out c. coagulation
b. salting in d. both b & c

A 15. It is the type of enzyme inhibition reaction whereby the inhibition competes with the substrate active site.
a. competitive inhibition c. reversible inhibition
b. noncompetitive d. incomplete inhibition

A 16. The following are waxes except:

a. beeswax c. bile acids
b. sperm oil d. lanolin

A 17. The inactive form of enzymes are called ___________.

a. zymogens c. cofactor
b. apoenzymes d. both B & C

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D 18. Which of the following amino acids has no alpha amino group?
a. proline c. glycine
b. hydroxyproline d. both a and

B 19. An enzyme is a substance which

a. convert heat to energy b. act as a catalyst
c. change chemically in reaction d. is not specific in reaction

B 20. Milk curdling enzyme present in gastric juice of infants:

a. pepsin b. rennin
c. trypsin d. maltase

A 21. Carbohydrates are

a. polyhydroxyaldehydes / polyhydroxyketones c. hemiacetals
b. polyhydroxy acids d. polymers of amino acids

C 22. Insulin is usually classified as:

a. protein b. enzyme
c. hormone d. carbohydrates

A 23. What amount of glucose is present in the human blood?

a. 60 to 90 mg in 100 ml blood c. 2% of the total human body weight
b. 5 to 6 g in 100 ml blood d. none of these

A 24. It is the organelle which serves as the site of the electron transport chain.
a. mitochondria b. ribosome
c. nucleus d. lysosome

C 25. The end product of the hydrolysis of glycogen is:

a. galactose b. fructose
c. glucose d. arabinose

C 26. Iodine test is a reaction which may be used to identify carbohydrates. The reaction is due to
a. presence of the free aldehyde group
b presence of alcohol group
c. presence of amylose portion
d. presence of glucose

B 27. Benedict’s reagent yield positive result to:

a. monosaccharide only b. reducing sugars
c. sucrose d. polysaccharides

B 28. Hypertonic solutions will cause the cell to:

a. swell b. shrink
c. burst d. undergo hemolysis

A 29. Rancidity of fats maybe due to:

a. oxidation b. hydrogenation
c. saponification d. condensation

C 30. The deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes mellitus:

a. progesterone b. testosterone
c. insulin d. glucagons

A 31. The active proteolytic enzyme in gastric juice is:

a. pepsin b. trypsin
c. maltase d. catalase

B 32. The site of oxidation reaction in electron transport chain is in the

a. nucleus b. mitochondrion
c. ribosome d. golgi bodies

B 33. Protein digestion starts in the

a. mouth b. stomach
c. intestine d. pancreas

A 34. The conversion of an amino acid to sugar is:

a. gluconeogenesis b. glycolysis
c. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysisp

B 35. Which of the following is not an amino acid?

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a. leucine b. choline
c. valine d. glycine

C 36. When trypsinogen is conoverted into tyrpsin, the enzyme is called:

a. pepsin c. enterokinase
b. zymogen d. amylase

A 37. The protein part of the enzyme molecule is the:

a.apoenzyme c. cofactor
b.coenzyme d. holoenzyme

C. 38. Optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the body:

o o
a.40 C c. 37 C
o o
b.60 C d. 10 C
B 39. Glucose is stored in the liver, as:
a. galactose c. lactose
b. glycogen d. fructose

B 40 The enzyme confirmation adapts to the incoming substrate in

a. Lock and Key theory c. competitive inhibition
b. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysis

B 41. The process of converting glucose into glycogen is called

a. gluconeogenesis c. glycolysis
b. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysis

A 42. All are pyrimidine bases except:

a. guanine c. uracil
b.cystocine d. thymine

B 43. Glucose, amino acid and fatty acid enter the citric acid cycle by their conversion into:
a. pyruvate c. acetoacetyl CoA
b. acetyl CoA d. palmitic acid

A 44. A hormone which stimulates glycogenesis:

a. insulin c. epinephrine
b. glucagons d. vasopressin

A 45. These are chemicals that are extracted from organism such as bacteria and can inhibit growth or destroy other
microorganisms:
a. antibiotic c. hormone
b. enzyme d. vitamins

C 46. The gland or tissue that regulates the blood glucose level.
a. parathyroid c. pancreas
b. thyroid d. adrenal

D 47. Which vitamin is formed in the body by exposure to ultraviolet Irradiation or sunlight
a. vit. A c. vit. C
b. vit. B d. vit. D

C 48. Excess vit. A & D is stored in the body, but excess vit. C & D is readily excreted. What property shows this?
a. vit C & D are water soluble c. both a & b
b. vit. A & D are fat soluble d. none of these

A 49. It is the entire genetic make up of an organism.

a. gene c. codon
b. anticodon d. mutation

B 50. The vitamin which is used in the prevention of degenerative changes in the central nervous system.
a. vit. A c. vit. C
b. vit. B complex d. vit. D

A 51. It is a model which best explains the enzyme-substrate action

a. lock & key c. VSEPR
b. molecular d. Kreb

D 52. The activation of pepsinogen requires:

a. pepsin c. enterokinase
b. NaOH d. HCL

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B 53. DNA is primarily found in the

a. cytosol c. cell wall
b. nucleus/mitochondria d. endoplasmic reticulum

B 54. It is the enzyme which hydrolyzed starch to dextrin and maltose

a. catalase c. pepsin
b. amylase d. lactase

D 55. A synthetic DNA is called

a. replicated DNA c. gene
b. plasmid d. recombinant DNA

B 56. Hydrolysis of ATP is an

a. energy requiring reaction c. no energy is involved
b. energy producing reaction d. energy is absorbed
C 57. Which of the following characteristic of lipid?
a. zwitterions c. hydrophobic
b. amphiphilic d. hydrophilic

A 58. It is a condition that results when sugar level is below normal

a. hypoglycemia c. ketonuria
b. hyperglycemia d. uremia

A 59. An example of globular protein

a. albumin c. fibrin
b. collagen d. silk

A 60. Complimentary base pairs in the DNA double helix are bonded by
a. H-bond c. vander waals
b. ester bond d. dipole dipole

C 61. Which nitrogen base is not found in DNA?

a. thymine c. uracil
b. cytosine d. guanine

C 62. An organic cofactor in an enzyme

a. vitamins c. a & b
b. coenzymes d. none of these

B 63. At what stage of glucose oxidation is most of the energy produced?

a. glycolysis c. glycogenesis
b. aerobic stage d. glycogenolysis

D 64. The best known building blocks of RNA and DNA are
a. purines c. fatty acids
b. pyrimidines d. a and b

C 65. It is responsible for the storage and transmission of genetic information.

a. adenine c. DNA
b. RNA d. nucleic acid

C 66. Build up of urea in the kidney is called

a. ketonuria c. uremia
b. glycemia d. all of these

A 67. The transfer of genetic information from DNA by the formation of mRNA
a. transcription c.transamination
b. translation d. replication

D 68. What is the end product of electron transport chain?

a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide
b. hydrogen d. water

B 69. The energy producing reaction

a. metabolic c. anabolic
b. catabolic d. all of these

D 70. It is the molecule that directs the activity of the cells

a. DNA c. nucleoproteins
b. RNA d. hormones

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C 71. The sugar involved in DNA

a. ribose c. deoxyribose
b. pentose d. xylose

C 72. The common metabolic pathway

a. glycosis c. Kreb's cycle
b. beta oxidation d. glucogenesis

B 73. Rosenheim's test is used to detect the presence of:

a. ethanolamine b. cholesterol
b. choline d. glycone moiety

C 74. Detects the presence of alpha amino acids:

a. Biuret c. Ninhydrin
b. Molisch d. Hopkins-cole

B 75. The process of producing fats from acetyl co-A is called

a. glycolysis c. glycogenolysis
b. lipogenesis d. glucogenesis

A 76. The ff. test reagents to detect the presence of amino acids, execpt:
a. Grignard's c. Millon-Nasse
b. Xanthoproteic d. Sakaguchi

A 77. The condition that lowers the pH of the blood due to starvation is called
a. acidosis c. hyperglycemia
b. alkalosis d. glycosuria

B 78. The substance responsible or the emulsion of fats is

a. HCI c. pepsin
b. bile acids d. trypsin

B 79. Hubl's solution is used to acertain degree of:

a. saturation c. peroxidation
b. unsaturation d. acidity

B 80. IUPAC name of acrolyn

a. pentenal c. hexanal
c. propenal d. acetone

B 81. The positive indication for the presence of glycerol in acrolein test:
a. yellow colored solution c. silver mirror formed in the test tube
b. black markings on filter d. play of colors, from blue to shades paper of red

B 82. Cerebrosides are positive in the ff. tests, except:

a. Molisch c. Lassaigne's
b. Biuret d. none of the above

B 83. Osmic test is used to detect the presence of _______ in lipids:

a. metals c. unsaturated groups
b. prostate groups d. glycerol

A 84. The most sensitive chemical test to detect the presence of glycerol in acrolein test:
a. Liebberman-Burchard b. Formaldehyde-sulfuric acid
b. Salkowski reaction d. Colorimetric spectrophotometry

D 85. The ff. are phospholipids, except:

a. plasmalogen c. cephalin
b. lecithin d. choline

C 86. A mixed triglyceride contains:

a. three similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
b. two similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
c. three differebt fatty acids esterified with glycerol
d. all of the above

C 87. The central compound found in the structure of sphingolipids:

a. glycerol c. ceramide
b. sphingosine d. phosphocholine

A 88. Lipid whose specific test is the Furter-Meyer test:

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a. tocopherol c. sphingomyelin
b. retinol d. cerebroside

A 89. Precipitate of ___________ indicates the presence of phospholipids in the lipid sample:
a. ammonium phosphomolybdate c. phosphorous triiodide
b. phosphorous periodate d. phospho-ammonium sulfate complex

B 90. The ff. are glycolipids except:

a. globosides c. gangliosides
b. phosphatides d. cerebrosides

B 91. The parent compound of phosphoslipids:

a. glycerol c. ethanolamine
b. phosphatidic acid d. none of the above

D 92. A non-pentose sugar which is also positive for Tollen' sphloroglucinol test:
a. galactose c. fructose
b. glucose d. cellobiose

C 93. The reagent present is Molisch test which is responsible for the dehydration reaction:
a. sodium carbonate c. sulfuric acid
b. magnesium stearate d. NaOH

C 94. ID test to detect the presence of glycogen:

a. phloroglucinol c. iodine
b. molisch d. seliwanoff

C 95. The only sugar that readily forms insoluble osazone crystals:
a. lactose c. mannose
b.sucrose d. sucrose

D 96. Important structural material found in the exoskeletons of many lower animals:
a. chnondroitin c. hyaluronic acid
b. heparin d. chitin

B 97. Hydrolysis of osazones produce:

a. phenylhydrazones c. sugars
b. ozones d. none of the above

C 98. General term for a group of polysaccharides present in the primary cell wall:
a. xanthan c. pectin
b. mucilage d. carageenan

C 99. Specific test for galactose, due to the formation of highly insoluble crystals:
a. phenylhydrazine test c. mucic acid
b. fermentation d. molisch

A 100. Type of RNA which serves as template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized:
a. mRNA c. rRNA
b. tRNA d. none of the above

B 101. Positive indication for Anthrone test:

a. purple ring c. effervescenve
b. blue-green color d. yellow ppt

B 102. Differentiating test between helical and linear polysaccharides:

a. Molisch c. Schweitzer
b. iodine d. fermentation

C 103. The difference between Benedict's and Barfoed's test reagent lies in:
a. sequestering agent used c. pH of the solution
b. active component used d. alkali used

C 104. Hydrolytic product of chitin:

a. iduronatet c. acetylglucosamine
b. acetylgalactosamine d. glucuronic acid

C 105. Glucose and fructose are:

a. anomers c. geometric isomers
b. epimers d. allosteres

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B 106. The complementary strand of CGACCTTGATCGACGTCGA:

a. TCGTTCCAGCTAGTACTAG c. AGCAAGGTCGATCATGATC
b. GCTGGAACTAGCTGCEGCT d. ATCAAGGTCGATCATGATC

C 107. Alkaline bismuth reagent is used to detect the presence of:

a. polysaccharides c. reducing sugars
b. dissacharides d. glycitols

D 108. Action of dilute alkali on sugars:

a. dehydration c. hydrolysis
b. hyperconjunction d. tautomerization

A 109. The ff. are the components of DNA nucleosides, except:

a. phosphoric acid c. adenine
b. sugar d. cytosine

D 110. Central dogma concept wherein the RNA molecule is used as template
for the synthesis of DNA molecule:
a. transcription c. mutation
b. translation d. none of the above

D 111. The ff. proteins are present in egg white, except:

a. ovomucin c. albumin
b. ovoglobulin d. osseomucoid

C 112. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the

a. nucleus c. cytoplasm
b. mitochondria d. lysosomes

D 113. Ketogenic amino acids:

a. leucine c. pheylalanine
b. tyrosine d. all of the above

B 114. Osazone test is also known as:

a. Nylander's c. Trommer's
b. Kowarsky test d. Folin's test

A 115. Genetic defect characterized by mental retardation and cataract, since the unmetabolized sugar is toxic to the
lens of the eyes:
a. galactosemia c. pentosuria
b. fructosemia d. fructosuria

D 116. Body functions of lipids:

a. transformation into proteins and carbohydrates
b. catabolism to provide body with heat and energy
c. insulation and paddings for organs
d. all of the above

B 117. Pyridoxine is a component of this enzyme:

a. enolase c. hydrogenase
b. decarboxylase d. isomerase

B 118. The ff. are neutral amino acids, except:

a. methionine c. threonine
b. lysine d. leucine

D 119. In man, the principal end product of protein metabolism is:

a. uric acid c. pyruvic acid
b. lactic acid d. urea

B 120. Condition wherein acetone accumulates in the blood:

a. ketosuria c. ketosis
b. ketonemia d. ketonuria

A 121. Glutamine is a _____________amino acid:

a. neutral c. acidic
b. basic d. racemin

B 122. Oxidation product of ketone bodies:

a. reduced sugars c. alcohols

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b. carbon dioxide d. aldehydes

C 123. Phospoprotein found in egg yolk:

a. ovocasein c. vitelin
b. tendomucoid d. avidin

C 124. Amino acids positive for sakaguchi reaction:

a. gelatin c. arginine
b. alanine d. tyrosine

B 125. Histidine is negative for:

a. Pauly reaction c. ninhydrine
b. sodium nitroprusside d. xanthoproteic

C 126. An official simple protein obtained from corn:

a. glutelin c. zein
b. gliadin d. maize

C 127. Principle involved in the isolation of casein milk:

a. salting in c. isoelectric precipitation
b. salting out d. none of the above

A 128. Process of converting liver glycogen into blood glusoce:

a. glycogenolysis c. glycolysis
b. gluconeogenesis d. glycogenesis

B 129. Genetic information is stored and carried in all cells by:

a. single-stranded DNA c. double-stranded RNA
b. double-stranded DNA d. single stranded circular DNA

B 130. Principal site for the synthesis of urea:

a. kidney c. spleen
b. liver d. intestinal mucosa

C 131. Pentose present in gum arabic:

a. xylose c. arabinose
b. ribose d. threose

C 132. Which of the following is responsible for the transfer of genetic information?
a. ATP c. DNA
b. GTP d. RNA

C 133. Only form of inorganic nitrogen which can be utilized by living cells:
a. urea c. ammonia
b. ornithine d. nitrogen gas

A 134. The ff. are essential amino acids, except:

a. tyrosine c. methionine
b. lysine d. arginine

C 135. The chief end product of purine metabolism in man

a. CO c. uric acid
b. urea d. ammonia

D 136. The principal end product of protein metabolism:

a. carbon dioxide c. hippuric acid
b. ammonia d. urea

B 137. Presence of glucose in appreciable amounts in the urine:

a. hematuria c. glycosemia
b. glycosuria d. akbuminaria

D 138. The ff. are the tests for kidney efficiency, except:
a. phenolsulfophthalein test c. water output test
b. urea clearance test d. crystallization method

B 139. Growth hormone is also known as:

a. thyrotropic hormone c. ganodotropin
b. somatotropin d. interstitial stimulating hormone

A 140. What is the anticodon in tRNA that corresponds to the codon ACG in mRNA?

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a. UGC c. GCA
b. TGC d. CGU
A 141. Condition wherein bile pigment is present in excess in the blood:
a. jaundice c. cirrhosis
b. hepatitis d. cystic fibrosis

B 142. The ff. are non-essential amino acids, except:

a. glycine c. cysteine
b. leucine d. glutamine

B 143. Principal digestive constituent of the gastric juice:

a. trypsin c. gastrin
b. pepsin d. enterokinase

B 144. Condition wherein the concentration of uric acid accumulates in blood reaches as high as 1mg.percent:
a. leukemia c. murexia
b. gout d. any of the above

C 145. The study of the composition and the chemical processes occurring in the living matter is:
a. qualitative chemistry d. quantitative chemistry
b. organic chemistry e. inorganic chemistry
c. biochemistry

A 146. What is a wobble?

a. the ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base
b. an error in translation induced by streptomycin
c. a mechanism that allows for a peptide extension in the 50S submit of the ribosome
d. thermal motions leading to local denaturation of the DNA double helix

C 147. The most important function of HCL in the stomach is

a. hydrolysis of protein d. destruction of bacteria
b. neutralization of chime e. stimulation of pancreatic
c. activation of pepsinogen secretion

C 148. Transmission is:

a. conversion of amino acid to hydroxyl acid
b. loss of ammonia from amino acids
c. conversion of amino acids to keto acids
d. formation of ammonium salt from ammonia

A 149. The lipid that is converted to Vitamin D2 upon irradiation

a. ergosterol c. cholesterol
b. glycerol d. all of the above

A 150. The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in

a. the reticuloendothelial system c. the white blood cells
b. the red blood cells d. the liver cell

C 151. The amino acid that is an important precursor of hemoglobin is

a. alanine c. glycine
b. proline d. cysteine

C 152. Serine is converted to ethanolamine by the removal of:

a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide
b. ammonia d. carboxyl group

C 153. Ninhydrin give a blue coloration with

a. proteins c. amino acids
b. carbohydrates d. simple sugars

A 154. Which is the monomer unit of proteins?

a. amino acid c. fatty acid
b. monosaccharide d. purine

A 155. The proteinase that is found mostly in gastric juice of young animals
a. rennin d. ptyaiin
b. pepsin e. none of the above
c. steapsin

B 156. Conjugated proteins which are a combination of amino acids and carbohydrates

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a. nucleoproteins c. phosphoproteins
b. glycoproteins d. chromoproteins

A 157. Gamma decarboxylation of aspartic acid produces

a. alanine c. glutamic acid
b. asparagines d. glycine

B 158. Rotation of polarized light is caused by solutions of all of the following amino acids, except:
a. alanine c. leucine
b. glycine d. valine

A 159. It is a disease due to protein deficiency

a. Kwashiorkor c. albuminuria
b. diabetes d. jaundice

C 160. Which of the following amino acids is not essential in mammals?

a. phenylaline c. tyrosine
b. lyxsine d. methionine

D 161. The following are examples of chromoprotein except:

a. chlorophyll c. cytochromes
b. hemoglobin d. heparin

D 162. For the amino acid cycteine, choose the appropriate description of its side chain.
a. acidic c. aromatic
b. basic d. sulfur-containing

C 163. Which of the following amino acids has a net positive charge at physiologic pH?
a. cysteine c. lysine
b. glutamic acid d. valine

D 164. Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal hemoglobin molecule.
The mutationl event responsible for the mutation in the beta chain is:
a. crossing over c. deletion
b. insertion d. point mutation

C 165. When starches are heated, they produce

a. sugars c. dextrins
b. glycogen d. disaccharides

B 166. Check the incorrect statement

a. ribose is an aldopentose c. galactose is an aldohexose
b. maltose is a ketohexose d. glucose is an aldohexose

A 167. The reducing property of sugars is due to this group

a. aldehyde c. carboxyl
b. nitro d. methyl

D 168. The monosaccharide most rapidly absorbed from the small intestine is
a. glucose c. mannose
b. fructose d. galactose

C 169. A condition known as atherosclerosis results as an accumulation in the blood vessels

a. calcium c. cholesterol
b. pathogens d. ketones

C 170. Ketoses can be differentiated from aldoses by this test

a. Molisch's test c. Seliwanoff's
b. Benedict's test d. Tollen's test
C 171. The clinical test for the determination of cholesterol
a. Liebermann-Burchard c. both a & b
b. Salkowski d. none of the above

C 172. Concentrated dehydrating acids change monosaccharides to

a. simple sugars d. uronic acids
b. saccharic acids e. aldric acids
c. furfurals

C 173. A mucopolysaccharide which possesses an anticoagulant property

a. pectin d. chitin

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b. hyaluronic acid e. chondroitin sulfate

c. heparin

A 174. Which of the following is the test for reducing sugars for urine?
a. Benedict's test c. Biuret test
b. Acrolein test d. Brown Ring test

B 175. Lactose can be differentiated from fructose by

a. Mucic acid test d. Iodine test
b. Barfoed's test e. Tollen's test
c. Fehling's test

B 176. Polymers that are responsible for the metabolic capabilities and morphology of organisms are
a. carbohydrates c. polysaccharides
b. proteins d. nucleic acids

B 177. The product obtained from the partial hydrolysis of collagen

a. myosin d. fibrinogen
b. gelatin e. thrombin
c. actin

B 178. The main carbohydrate of the blood is

a. D-fructose c. mannitol
b. D-glucose d. sorbitol

B 179. A normal value of glucose in the blood

a. 100 to 200 mg% c. 50 to 75 mg%
b. 80 to 120 mg% d. 200 to 300mg%

B 180. Butter becomes rancid upon exposure to air due to formation of

a. acetic acid c. formic acid
b. butyric acid d. propionic acid

C 181. The cholesterol molecule is

a. an aromatic ring c. a steroid
b. a straight chain acid d. tocopherol

C 182. Which of the following is a phospholipids

a. glycogen c. sphingomyelin
b. prostaglandin d. oleic acid

C 183. The passage of the end products of digestion from the small intestine into the blood stream
a. metabolism d. oxidation
b. digestion e. reduction
c. absorption

A 184. Endocrine gland that is a small oval body situated at the base of the brain
a. hypophysis c. adrenal
b. pancreas d. none of the above

A 185. Cellular elements of the blood devoid of nucleus

a. RBC c. thrombocytes
b. WMC d. all of the above

C 186. Is the sum total of all acitivities directed towards the maintenance of life
a. catabolism d. photosynthesis
b. anabolism e. fermentation
c. metabolism

C 187. This substance accumulates in the muscles as a result of vigorous exercise

a. muscle glycogen c. lactic acid
b. amino acids d. glucose

B 188. A common intermediate of metabolism of carbohydrates, fatty acids, and amino acids is
a. glycerol d. oxaloacetate
b. acetyl CoA e. acetylcholine
c. acetoacetate

B 189. The principal site of glucose production in the human body is the
a. blood c. pituitary gland
b. liver d. small intestine

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A 190. The major buffer of the extracellular fluid

a. bicarbonate-carbon dioxide c. phosphate
b. amino acids d. none of the above

C 191. Separates from cells when blood is coagulated

a. fibrogen d. thrombin
b. plasma e. none of the above
c. serum

C 192. These are the glycolipids found in high concentration in the brain and nerve cells especially in the myelin
sheath
a. lecithin c. cerebrosides
b. cephalins d. sphingolipids

A 193. Alcohol in the body is

a. oxidized to CO2 and HOH c.excreted by kidneys
b. excreted mainly by lungs d. excreted by large intestine

C 194. Which of the following tissues contains the enzyme glucose-6-Phosphatase and is able to supply glucose to
the blood?
a. heart c. liver
b. brain d. none of the above

D 195. Complete digestion of all foodstuffs occurs in the

a. large intestine d. small intestine
b. stomach e. pancreas
c. mouth

B 196. This compound id not a normal constituent of urine

a. sodium chloride c. urea
b. albumin d. uric acid

A 197. Decomposition of carbohydrates brought about by the action of enzymes liberating ethyl alcohol and carbon
dioxide
a. fermentation d. hydrolysis
b. adsorption e. saponification
c. detoxification

C 198. Blood clotting can be prevented by

a. sodium chloride c. sodium citrate
b. potassium chloride

D 199. This hormone elevates blood sugar concentration

a. insulin c. estrogen
b. progesterone d. glucagons

D 200. Deficiency in this vitamins causes red blood cell fragility

a. vitamin A c. vitamin D
b. vitamin K d. vitamin E

C 201. The end-product in the hydrolysis of glycogen is:

a. galactose c. glucose
b. mannose d. arabinose

A 202. In which form is glucose stored in the liver?

a. glycogen c. sucrose
b. glucose {unchanged} d. starch

B 203. Which of the following is NOT an ID test for proteins and amino acids?
a. Ninhydrin c.Biuret
b. Bial’s d. Xanthoproteic

D 204. What vitamin deficiency causes pellagra?

a. riboflavin c. pantothenic acid
b. thiamine d. nicotinic acid

D 205. All are pyrimindine bases, except:

a. cytosine c uracil
b. thymine d. guanine

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B 206. The sugar that yields only glucose when hydrolyzed is:
a. galactose c. fructose
b. maltose d. sucrose

D 207. Which is NOT a B-complex vitamin?

a. folic acid c. Riboflavin
b. nicotinic acid d. ascorbic acid

A 208. The following sugars are aldohexoses EXCEPT:

a. fructose c. glucose
b. galactose d. mannose

D 209. All the amino acid below contain sulfur, EXCEPT:

a. cystine c. cysteine
b. methionine d. glycine

A 210. The following are essential fatty acids, EXCEPTt:

a. oleic acid c. linolenic acid
b. linoleic acid d. arachidonic acid

D 211. The test detects the presence of two or more peptide bonds:
a. Ninhydrin c. Tollen’s
b. Fehling’s d. Biuret

B 212. This vitamin easily undergoes oxidation

a. vitamin A c. vitamin B12
b. vitamin C d. vitamin B1

B 213. The end product f anaerobic glucose metabolism is:

a. pyruvate c. carbon dioxide
b. lactate d. water

A 214. The inactive form of an enzyme is sometimes called:

a. zymogen c. apoenzye
b. holoenzyme d. coenzyme

A 215. Photosynthesis is a process involved in the manufacture of

a. carbohydrates c. proteins
b. fats d. all of the above

B 216. The major extracellular cation is

a. potassium c. calcium
b. sodium d. iron

B 217. Which sugar will NOT give a red precipitate with cupric oxide when heated with Benedict’s solution?
a. glucose b. maltose
c. sucrose d. fructose

A 218. Night blindness is a symptom of a deficiency in this vitamin.

a. vitamin A c. vitamin B
b. vitamin C d. vitamin D

D 219. The activation of pepsinogen requires:

a. NaOH c. acetic acid
b. bicarbonate d. HCI

D 220. Nucleosides upon hydrolysis will yield:

a. adenine + phosphate c. histones + ribose
b. quinine + phosphate d. cytosine + ribose

C 221. Protein digestion starts in the

a. mouth c. stomach
b. small intestine d. large intestine

C 222. Major form of utilizable energy in all cells.

a. ADP c. ATP
b. GDP d. GTP

A 223. Which of the following supplies the highest amount of energy per gram?
a. fat c. protein
b. glycogen d. starch

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A 224. The following are proteins in milk, EXCEPT?

a. rennin c. lactoalbumin
b. casein d. lactoglubulin

A 225. The conversion of beta carotene to vitamin A is carried out in the

a. liver c. lungs
b. small intestine d. pancreas

A 226. This sugar is also called an “invert sugar”

a. sucrose c. glucose
b. fructose d. galactose

A 227. What type of sugar is found in nucleic acids?

a. riboses b. mannoses
b. glucoses d. galactoses

D 228. The biochemical function of hemoglobin is:

a. defense c. structural
b. regulatory d. oxygen transport

C 229. The following enzymes catalyze hydrolysis reactions, EXCEPT:

a. proteases c. transaminases
b. esterases d. nucleases

C 230. Porphyrins are involved in the building of

a. bones c. blood
b. muscles d. connective tissue

B 231. Which among the following sugar is sweetest?

a. glucose c. sucrose
b. fructose d. galactose

A 232. Information and control centers of the cell:

a. nucleoproteins c. carbohydrates
b. enzymes d. lipids

A 233. Hydrolysis of nucleoproteins will yield:

a. nucleic acids and histones c. nucleic acid and purines
b. nucleic acid and sugar d. nucleic acid and pyrimidines

C 234. The condition wherein protein is found in the urine is:

a. glycosuria c. proteinuria
b. ketonuria d. dysuria

A 235. Alpha-hydroxy propionic acid is:

a. lactic acid c. ascorbic acid
b. aminoacetic acid d. pyruvic acid

B 236. This test detects the presence of indole rings

a. Molisch c. Millon’s
b. Hopkin’s cole d. Niinhydrin

C 37. The steps of central states:

a. replication, translation and transcription
b. replication, translation and transmission
c. replication, translation and translation
d. transcription, translation and replication

D 238. Reverse transaction takes place in:

a. bacteria c. algae
b. viruses d. molds
D 239. The number of chromosomes in the human:
a. 41 c. 43
b. 42 d. 46

A 240. Digestion of starch starts in the:

a. mouth c. small intestine
b. stomach d. large intestine

D 241. The ordered steps in protein sysnthesis:

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a. transcription, transplantion, activation, elongation

b. activation, elongation, initiation, termination
c. initiation, activation, elongation, termination
d. activation, initiation, elongation, termination

D 242. Genetic code is:

a. universal c. continuous
b. composed of three nucleotides d. all are correct

B 243. Which of the following is called transamination?

a. conversion of amino acids to hydroxyl acids
b. conversion of amino acids to keto acids
c. lose of ammonia from amino acids
d. formation of ammonium salts from ammonia

A 244. Dextran is:

a. carbohydrate c. glycoside
b. glucose polymer d. protein

B 245. A genetic disease due to defective mechanism for pyrimidine dimers:

a. phenyl ketonuria c. albinism
b. xeroderma pigmentosum d. galactosemia

A 246. The bond joining pentose sugar to nitrogen base is:

a. 1, 4 glycosidic bond c. peptide bond
b. B 1, 4 glycosidic bond d. N-glycosyl linkage

D 247. The type of RNA molecule that brings amino acids to the site of protein synthesis is:
a. rRNA c. mRNA
b. aRNA d. Trna

D 248. Most allergies are caused by:

a. error in the immune system c. dust
b. histamines produced by the body d. all of the above

B 249. RNA which plays an important role in the structure and biosynthetic function of ribosome:
a. mRNA c. tRNA
b. rRNA d. DNA

D 250. In the secondary structure of RNA:

a. adenine will always pair with thymine
b. cytosine will always pair with thymine
c. cytosine will always pair with uracil
d. adenine will always pair with uracil

D 251. A nucleic acid is made up of:

a. sugar, nucleoside and a base
b. proteins, sugar and a phosphate group
c. nitrogenous base, amino acid and sugar
d. nitrogenous base, phosphate and sugar

C 252. Bond between 2 amino acids

a. glycosidic bond c. peptide bond
b. N-glycosyl linkage d. hydrogen bond

A 253. Which of the following is NOT a test for protein?

a. acrolein c. Millons
b. Biuret d. xanthoproteic

A 254. Acetyl CoA combines with oxaloacetate to form:

a. citrate c. acyl-carnitine
b. carnitine d. none of the above

B 255. The proteins that make the fur, wool, claws, and feathers.
a. collagen c. silk
b. keratin d. none of the above

B 256. Liquid vegetable oils may be transformed into solid fats by the process of:
a. oxidation c. substitution
b. hydrogenation d. reduction

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B 257. The chemical messengers produced by the endocrine glands:

a. genes c. vitamins
b. hormones d. enzymes

A 258. It is the sugar found in milk:

a. lactose c. sucrose
b. maltose d. rafinose

C 259. Prostaglandins are synthesized from:

a. oleic c. essential fatty acid
b. stearic d. non-essential fatty acids

C 260. Amino acid at an isoelectric point exists as:

a. acid c. zwitterions
b. base d. all of the above

B 261. The color of the skin, hair and eyes due to pigment called:
a. cyctochrome c. keratin
b. melanin d. heparin
B 262. Starches are partially digested in the mouth by:
a. protease c. pepsinogen
b. ptyalin d. pepsin

C 263. The only element in living matter from strong multiple bonds readily are:
a. oxygen c. carbon
b. nitrogen d. all of the above

A 264. Serotonin, a neurotransmitter is derived from amino acid:

a. tryptophan c. tyrosine
b. threonine d. phenylalanine

A 265. Alkaline hydrolysis of fat:

a. saponofication d. glucocortoids
b. corticosteroids e. all of the above
c. bile acids

C 266. The main center of biosynthesis of nucleic acid is the:

a. cell wall c. nucleus
b. cytoplasm d. none of the above

A 267. Normal pH of the blood:

a. 7.4-7.5 c. 5.5-5.6
b. 6.6-6.9 d. 4.8-8

A 268. Known as good cholesterol:

a. HDL c. ACTH
b. ergocalciferol d. LDL

A 269. Optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the body:

a. 40C c. 10C
b. 60C d. 0C

A 270. Blood minus its cellular components:

a. plasma c. hemoglobin
b. serum d. fibrin

B 271. Which of the following is NOT an amino acid:

a. leucine c. valine
b. choline d. lysine

A 272. Are globular proteins, except:

a. collagen c. serum globulins
b. serum albumins d. hemoglobin

D 273. The precursor of vitamin A is:

a. arachidonic acid c. naphtoquinone
b. isoprene d. carotene

B 274. Are fibrous proteins, except:

a. keratin c. elastin
b. histones d. collagen

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C 275. A type of antibodies that plays an importance role in allergic response which causes anaphylactic shock,
hayfever and asthma:
a. IgA c. IgE
b. IgM d. IgG

C 276. An inherited disease that affect red blood cells

a. albenism c. sickle cell anemia
b. hyperglycemia d. hypoglycemia

D 277. Are esters of fatty acids with glycerol:

a. phospholipids c. waxes
b. glycolipids d. fats

A 278. The metallic salt of a high fatty acid:

a. soap c. inorganic salt
b. detergent d. glycerin

A 279. The following are enzymes found in pancreatic juice, except:

a. papain c. chymotrypsin
b. trypsin d. carboxypolypepticase

C 280. The following are pathological constituents of urine, except:

a. glucose c. creatinine
b. albumin d. blood
D 281. All of the following carbohydrates are considered to be polysaccharide,except:
a. heparin c. glycogen
b. starch d. maltose

C 282. Which of the following hormones promotes rapid glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle?
a. ACTH c. epinephrine
b. glutamine d. proclactin

D 283. Fruity odor of urine is indicative of acetone bodies, a diagnostic value in case of acidosis in:
a. diabetes insipidus c. cretinism
b. porphyria d. diabetes milletus

B 284. Rotation of polarized light is caused by solutions of all of the following amino acids, except:
a. alanine c. leucine
b. glycine d. valine

C 285. The precursor of vitamin D3:

a. ergosterol c. 7-dehydrocholesterol
b. stigmasterol d. cholesterol

B 286. The enzyme present in the stomach which hydrolyzes proteins:

a. trypsin c. amylopsin
b. pepsin d. enterokinase

B 287. The reaction that takes place in ctoplasm

a. aerobic c. oxidation
b. anaerobic d. reduction

C 288. Compounds of protein with a carbohydrate component:

a. lipoproteins c. glycoproteins
b. phosphoproteins d. nucleoproteins

D 289. What amino acid functions as a hormone?

a. valine c. alanine
b. leucine d. thyroxine

B 290. The pathway that occurs in the mitochondria.

a. urea cycle c. glycolysis
b. citric acid cycle d. fatty acid cycle

C 291. Carbohydrates that cannot be hydrolyzed to compounds with simpler molecules.

a. oligosaccharides c. monosaccharides
b. disaccharides d. polysaccharides

D 292. In the metabolism of protein, the liver

a. synthesizes amino acid c. absorbs blood

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b. breaks down amino acid d. stores amino

B 293. What is the stage of glucose oxidation that requires oxygen?

a. anaerobic c. catabolic
b. aerobic d. anabolic

B 294. An important protein in contractile muscle.

a. keratin c. elastin
b. myosin d. fibrin

C 295. Which is the main constituent of the group substance in the connective tissues?
a. heparin c. hyaluronic acid
b. fructosan d. mannosan

C 296. Raffinose, an important non-reducing sugar is a:

a. monosacchride c. trisaccharide
b. disaccharide d. tetrasaccharide

A 297. Non-protein molecules that are often associated with proteins are called
a. prosthetic group c. zwitterions
b. side chain d. casein

A 298. They are chemical messengers

a. hormones c. vitamins
b. enzymes d. amino acids

C 299. It is a polysaccharide
a. lactose c. amylase
b. maltose d. fructose

B 300. Which sugar contains an aldehyde group?

a. ketose c. sorbitol
b. aldose d. mannitol

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