Professional Documents
Culture Documents
BIOCHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following single-base DNA gene coding changes is least likely to
significantly affect the function of resulting protein? (Harper pages 361-363)
A. Missence mutation resulting to histidine-to-glutamic acid change
B. Silent mutations in the third codon base
C. Frameshift mutation
D. Nonsense mutation
4. Which of the following is true of biological membrane structure? (Harper pages 415-421)
A. Saturated fatty acids increase fluidity.
B. Cholesterol is an amphipathic molecule.
C. The inner and outer sheets are symmetrical to each other.
D. They contain transport proteins, which are mainly peripheral.
5. Which of the following defines the specificity of hormone activity in a cell? (Harper page
435)
A. The synthesis of the hormone in the target cell
B. The presence of the hormone receptor
C. The upregulation of the hormone receptor in a cell
D. Absence of other target cells adjacent to hormone-producing cells
10. Which of the following statements characterizes ATP? (Harper page 84)
A. It is used in the synthesis of DNA.
B. It contains 3 phosphate bonds for energy storage.
C. It is used to drive thermodynamically unfavorable reactions.
D. It is produced mainly by substrate level phosphorylation.
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11. Enzymes, as biological catalysts accelerate velocity of reactions by:
A. lowering the free energy of activation of reactions
B. increasing transition state of reactants and products
C. lowering the net energy change between initial and final states of the reaction
D. increasing the equilibrium constant (Keq) of the reaction
12. A general class of enzymes that join molecules by creating a new chemical bond at the
expense of ATP hydrolysis
A. lyase
B. isomerase
C. ligase
D. hydrolase
13. An enzyme catalyzing the reaction: lecithin + cholesterol -- fatty acid cholesterol ester
+ lysolecithin is classified as:
A. oxidoreductase
B. lipase
C. transferase
D. hydrolase
15. The kinetic parameter that reflects the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate is called:
A. Vmax
B. Q10
C. Km
D. Kcat
17. In the Lineweaver Burk plot, the slope of the line is equal to:
A. -1/Km
B. Km/Vmax
C. 1/Vmax
D. 1/S
19. Serum enzymes are elevated following tissue injury and death due to:
A. enzyme induction secondary to stimulation of protein synthesizing machinery of the
cell
B. allosteric enzyme activation by positive activators
C. increased cell membrane permeability and leakage of enzymes into blood
D. proteolytic activation of proenzymes or zymogens
20. Which of the following coenzymes is not appropriately paired with the enzymatic
reaction it is associated with?
E. tetrahydrofolate- transamination
F. biocytin-carboxylation
G. NAD- dehydrogenation
H. Coenzyme A- transacylation
22. In Bioenergetics, the amount of energy available for the performance of useful work is
termed:
A. entropy
B. free energy
C. enthalpy
D. equilibrium energy
2
23. During biological oxidations, reduced coenzymes such as NADH and FADH 2 generate
energy when oxidized thru the:
A. Krebs Cycle
B. Electron Transport Chain
C. Cytochrome P450 system
D. Embden Meyerhof Pathway
28. In man, glucose from dietary cellulose could not be available for energy because:
A. cellulose is made up of very long polysaccharide chain made up of 1,4 and 1,6
glycosidic bonds
B. human diet does not have a significant amount of cellulose
C. man inherently lacks enzyme to hydrolyze cellulose
D. cellulose is not made up of glucose units
29. A 3 month old infant develops diarrhea and abdominal discomfort a following a milk
formula. However feeding history revealed that he was able to tolerate breast feeding and
the same milk formula at birth. The most likely condition is
A. Primary - galactosidase deficiency
B. Milk allergy
C. Lactose malabsorption
D. Secondary lactose intolerance
30. The major pathway of glucose metabolism that exists in all cells is the:
A. Pentose Phosphate Pathway
B. Citric Acid Cycle
C. Uronic Acid Pathway
D. Embden Meyerhof Pathway
32. The end product of glycolysis in exercising muscle and red blood cells is:
A. pyruvic acid
B. acetic acid
C. lactic acid
D. acetoacetic acid
33. The most important positive regulator of the committed step of glycolysis is the availability
of
A. fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
B. ATP
C. Citrate
D. fructose 2,6 bisphosphate
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34. True of the The Malate Aspartate Shuttle
A. can be considered as an anaplerotic reaction
B. less energetically efficient than the glycerophoshate shuttle
C. transports NADH from the cytosol into the mitochondria for oxidative
phosphorylation
D. provides reducing equivalents for reductive biosynthesis of fats
36. The Hexose Monophosphate Shunt is metabolically significant to nucleic acid metabolism
because it:
A. provides NADPH
B. furnishes pentose phosphates
C. is an alternative pathway for glycolysis
D. stabilizes structure of DNA
37. The rate limiting step in the Pentose Phosphate Pathway is catalyzed by:
A. hexokinase
B. glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase
C. 6- phosphogluconolactonase
D. transketolase
38. Which of the following enzymatic reaction is common to both glycolysis and
gluconeogenesis?
A. hexokinase
B. pyruvate carboxylase
C. phosphofructokinase 1
D. phosphotriose isomerase
39. The inherent absence of this enzyme prevents muscle glycogenolysis to maintain
glucose homeostasis:
A. glycogen phosphorylase
B. glucose- 1- phosphatase
C. glucose-6-phosphatase
D. UDP-Glucose pyrophosphorylase
41. Mannose and Fructose enter the mainstream of carbohydrate metabolism via:
A. Citric Acid Cycle
B. Embden Meyerhoff Pathway
C. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt
D. Glyoxylic Acid Cycle
42. Fatty acids enter the mitochondrial matrix for oxidation in what form?
A. acyl-CoAs through active transport
B. as free fatty acids
C. following conversion to carnitine
D. complexed with carnitine as acyl-carnitine
43. The number of reduced electron carriers generated when one mole of palmitate is
subjected to oxidation:
A. 2 FADH2 and 3 NADH + H+
B. 3 FADH2 and 2 NADH + H+
C. 7 FADH2 and 7 NADH + H+
D. 5 FADH2 and 5 NADH + H+
44. Majority of the reducing equivalents necessary for fatty acid biosynthesis are generated
during conversion of:
A. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate to 3 phosphoglycerate
B. pyruvate to malate
C. glucose 6-phosphate to 6 phosphogluconate
D. 6 phosphogluconate to ribulose 5-phosphate
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45. How many moles of NADPH + H+ can be derived from the pathway utilized in the
transport of acetyl CoA out of the mitochondria?
A. 8 moles
B. 10 moles
C. 12 moles
D. 14 moles
47. Hepatocytes contribute to the overall body content of ketone bodies primarily because of
the absence of:
A. β-ketothiolase necessary to hydrolyze acetoacetyl CoA
B. HMG-CoA lyase
C. HMG-CoA synthetase
D. 3-ketoacyl-CoA transferase or acetoacetate succinyl CoA transferase
50. VLDLs are synthesized in the liver for transport of which of the following to the peripheral
tissues?
A. triacylglycerols
B. apoproteins for HDL synthesis
C. LDL receptors
D. apo B-100
53. Several of the enzymes of cholesterol biosynthesis require which of the following
cofactors?
A. biotin
B. NADPH
C. FADH2
D. TPP
54. The molecule that helps stabilize the action of pancreatic lipase on dietary lipids:
A. colipase
B. chenodeoxycholic acid
C. cholic acid
D. enteropeptidase
55. Source of the nitrogen atoms required for animal metabolism can be directly obtained
from:
A. atmospheric nitrogen
B. NO2
C. ammonia
D. nitric oxide
56. Aside from urea, the main circulatory system carrier of nitrogen atoms destined for
excretion by the kidney is:
A. glutamate
B. asparagine
C. alanine
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D. glutamine
57. A deficiency in the abilty to secrete enterokinase leads to which of the following?
A. abnormally low levels of intestinal zymogens
B. abnormally low levels of active intestinal proteases
C. abnormally low levels of undigested proteins in lower GIT
D. increase plasma levels of serum amylase
60. The production of alanine by peripheral tissue, especially by the muscle, is primarily
dependent on:
A. allosteric effectors of ALT
B. intracellular levels of pyruvate
C. intracellular levels of glutamate
D. intracellular levels of NADH
61. Nitrogen of muscle alanine can be derived from tissue ammonia through this enzyme
action:
A. glutamate dehydrogenase
B. alanine dehydrogenase
C. glutamine synthetase
D. alanine synthetase
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69. Guanine-cytosine (G-C) base pairs in a DNA molecule are more stable to denaturation
than adenine-thymine (A-T) pairs because:
A. adenine and thymine have bulkier structures than guanine and cytosine
B. A-T base pairs exhibit less electron clouds around them
C. G-C base pairs contain more hydrogen bonds than A-T pairs
D. the phosphodiester bonds among G-C base pairs are weaker
71. Anticancer drugs like 5-fluorouracil and 6-mercaptopurine act against malignant cells by:
A. being incorporated into DNA before replication
B. causing the denaturation of DNA in cancer cells
C. inactivating protein synthesis
D. inhibiting the enzymes that synthesize thymidylic acid
74. Which clinical condition does not involve a defect in purine metabolism?
A. adenosine deaminase deficiency
B. gout
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
D. orotic aciduria
75. Salvage reactions that generate purine and pyrimidine nucleosides and nucleotides are
characterized as:
A. involving the same enzymes as in de novo synthesis
B. more efficient than nucleotide synthesis from new precursors
C. providing greater output of purines and pyrimidines
D. requiring less energy than does the de novo synthesis
76. The enzyme that catalyzes the committed step of purine nucleotide de novo pathway:
A. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
B. glutamine amidophosphoribosyl transferase
C. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
D. aspartate transcarbamoylase
77. In the management of gout, allopurinol is given to inhibit xanthine oxidase, the enzyme
that catalyzes the synthesis of:
A. allantoate
B. ammonia
C. urea
D. uric acid
78. The correct flow of genetic information according to the Central Dogma of Molecular
Biology is:
A. replication -----> transcription ----> translation
B. replication -----> translation ----> transcription
C. transcription ---- > replication ----> transcription
D. translation ----> replication ----> transcription
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81. The final product of gene expression is:
A. amino acid
B. nucleotide
C. polynucleotide
D. protein
82. Normal growth and development of cells are controlled by genes known as:
A. leader genes
B. non-coding genes
C. proto-oncogenes
D. transforming genes
83. The type of mutation that involves the substitution of a purine base with another purine
base is:
A. transition
B. transposition
C. transpyrimidation
D. transversion
84. This mineral helps guard against DNA damage as a cofactor of glutathione:
A. iron
B. manganese
C. selenium
D. zinc
85. A tool in molecular biology in which a DNA sequence of interest is exponentially amplified
in vitro by repeated cycles of enzymatic DNA synthesis is:
A. DNA sequencing
B. in situ hybridization
C. Northern blotting
D. polymerase chain reaction
86. In the construction of recombinant DNA, which enzyme is used to cut DNA at precise
base sequences?
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA-RNA exonuclease
C. restriction endonuclease
D. T4 DNA ligase
87. In recombinant DNA technology, antibiotic resistance genes in plasmids are used to:
A. control copy number in bacteria
B. facilitate transformation of host cells
C. provide a marker for start of replication
D. select and screen for recombinant DNA clones
88. The pain felt by a patient with an enlarging malignant tumor is partly contributed by the:
A. exaggerated metabolism of nutrients by the tumor cells
B. loss of enzymes for glucose oxidation in cancer tissue
C. release of cytokines such as IL-1 and IL-6 by the tumor cells
D. overgrowth of blood vessels in the interior of the cancer mass
89. Malignancy may be naturally prevented if the mutated cancer gene was repaired:
A. after gene expression
B. before DNA replication
C. following transcription
D. shortly after DNA synthesis
90. With persistence of a mutation in cells during organogenesis, the resulting event is:
A. development of cancer
B. inactivation of genetic disorders
C. occurrence of physical malformations
D. promotion of sterility
91. To specifically identify the mutation in the affected DNA segment in a patient with cancer,
which blot transfer method should be used?
A. Northern
B. Southern
C. Southwestern
D. Western
92. The enzyme, Taq polymerase is used in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) because it:
A. facilitates annealing of primers
B. is resistant to heat denaturation
C. promotes DNA polymerization
D. provides optimum condition for DNA synthesis
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93. A 60-year-old woman has developed red, roughened skin in sun-exposed areas over the
past 2 years. She also has a chronic, watery diarrhea. On physical examination she
exhibits memory loss with confusion. These findings are most consistent with which of
the following vitamin deficiencies?
A. Thiamine
B. Pyridoxine
C. Niacin
D. Vitamin A
94. A clinical study is performed involving dietary iron metabolism in adults. It is observed
that intestinal absorption of iron can be enhanced in patients with iron deficiency anemia
by supplementing their diet with another nutrient. Which of the following vitamins is most
likely to have this effect?
A. D
B. E
C. C
D. B3
95. A 6-year-old child was born at term, with no congenital anomalies. She is now only 70%
of normal body weight, though she shows dependent edema of the lower extremities as
well as an enlarged abdomen. Her flaking skin shows irregular areas of depigmentation,
hyperpigmentation, and desquamation. These findings are most suggestive of which of
the following nutritional problems?
A. Marasmus
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Niacin deficiency
D. Vitamin A Deficiency
96. A 41-year-old man has had increasing dyspnea for the past year. On physical
examination he has diffuse crackles at lung bases. A chest x-ray shows pulmonary
edema and cardiomegaly. Echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 40%.
Laboratory studies show hemoglobin 14 g/dL, hematocrit 42%, and WBC count
8320/microliter. A deficiency in which of the following vitamins is most likely to produce
these findings?
A. A
B. B1
C. B2
D. K
97. A 7-year-old child has complained of pain in his legs for the past year. On physical
examination, there is bowing deformity of his lower extremities. Plain film radiographs of
his lower legs shows widened epiphyses and bowing of tibiae. Bone mineral density
appears normal, consistent with failure of osteoid matrix formation. Which of the following
vitamin deficiencies is this child most likely to have?
A. D
B. E
C. C
D. B3
98. A 28-year-old man has a history of multiple and recurrent pulmonary infections since
childhood. He also has noted foul smelling stools for the past 10 years. Laboratory
studies show an elevated sweat chloride test. He has a quantitative stool fat of 10 g/day.
A deficiency state involving which of the following nutrients is most likely to develop in
this patient?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin D
C. Calcium
D. Vitamin A
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99. A clinical study is performed to compare the risk for health problems in obese persons
with a BMI OF 35, compared with a control group of persons with a BMI between 20 and
25. Persons in these two groups are followed for 20 years. Which of the following
conditions is most likely to appear equally in both groups?
A. Cholelithiasis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes mellitus
100. A 15-year-old girl has been under a physician's care for the past year after diagnosis of
anorexia nervosa. Her BMI is now 18. On physical examination she has cheilosis.
Laboratory studies show hemoglobin 13.7 g/dL, hematocrit 41.0%, MCV 88 fL, platelet
count 191,055/microliter, and WBC count 4930/microliter. Her serum glucose is 66
mg/dL. Which of the following nutrient deficiencies is most likely to cause this patient's
findings?
A. Riboflavin
B. Vitamin C
C. Folic Acid
D. Iron
101. The metabolic function of the pentose phosphate pathway is to:
A. act as a source of ADP biosynthesis.
B. generate NADPH and pentoses for the biosynthesis of fatty acids and nucleic
acids.
C. participate in oxidation-reduction reactions during the formation of H 2O.
D. provide intermediates for the citric acid cycle.
102. The FNRI Philippine RENI Committee 2002 recommends the following protein intake:
A. 1.14 g/kg DBW/day
B. 2.14 g/kg DBW/day
C. 3.14 g/kg DBW/day
D. 4.14 g/kg DBW/day
103. Number of moles of ATP generated from the complete oxidation of pyruvate as it
undergoes the pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction and the Kreb’s cycle is:
a. 12 c. 14
b. 13 d. 15
Page 113 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 16
104. Which of the following enzymes when deficient wil result in the accumulation of
gangliosides in patients suffering for Tay Sach’s Disease?
a. glucocerebrosidase c. sphingomyelinase
b. aryl sulfatase d. hexosaminidase
Page 203 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 24
106. Just before breakfast, what is the source of glucose in the body?
a. glucose c. ketones
b. glycogen d. fatty acids
Page 102,107-108 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 13
107. For every mole of glucose that goes through the glycolytic pathway, what is the net
number of pyruvate generated?
a. one c. three
b. two d. four
Page 136-144 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 17
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109. Which enzyme generates NADPH + H needed to reduce GSSG:
a. glutathione reductase c. aldehyde dehyrogenase
b. glucose 6PO4 dehydrogenase d. lactate dehydrogenase
Page 156-165 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 19
111. The Citric acid cycle as the final common pathway in fuel metabolism provides greatest
amount of energy by being directly linked to:
a. glycerophosphate shuttle c. glycolysis
b. malate aspartate shuttle d. electron transport chain
Page 130-133 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 16
112. Cyanide poisoning is very fatal. This is bacuse cyanide has this effect of the Electron
Transport Chain:
a. inhibits complex III
b. inhibits cytochrome oxidase
c. uncouples oxidative phosphorylation
d. ienhance the transport of electrons
Page 92 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 12
114. The precursor of the sugar-phosphate moieties in the de novo synthesis of both purine
and primidine nucleotide is:
a. glucose 1 phosphate
b. glucose 6 phosphate
c. ribose 1 phosphate
d. ribose 5 phosphate
Page 286-292 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 33
117. Deficiency in the intake of carbohydrates and fats can lead to:
a. increase in protein requirements
b. increase intake of calories
c. increase deposition of fats
d. decrease in the catabolism of body proteins
Page 478-479 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 44
11
120. The receptor involved in the G-protein coupled signal transduction pathway:
a. tyrosine kinase receptor c. β adrenergic receptor
b. guanylyl cyclase receptor d. janus kinase receptor
Page 459,464-465 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 43
121. Dinitrophenol (DNP) and other uncouplers which uncouple oxidation and
phosphorylation are useful weight losing agents. They prevent ATP sysnthesis in the
Electron Transport Chain by which of the following mechanism?
a. Electron Transport is blocked
b. Protons build up in the intermembrane space
c. There is reduced availability of ADP
d. The electrochemical gradient is dissipated
Page 95-96 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 12
123. Plant fat is high in unsaturated fatty acids compared to animal fat. Which one of the
following characteristics BEST describes unsaturated fatty acids in contrast saturated
fatty acids?
a. lower rate of oxidation
b. lower rate of melting point
c. less water soluble
d. more solid at room temperature
Page 144 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 14
124. This is the mechanism of action by which penicillin kills bacterial cells:
a. it inhibits bacterial DNA replication
b. it acts as an allosteric inhibitor to the enxzyme reverse transcriptase
c. it is an analogue of D-phe-D-phe effectively preventing the synthesis of
tetrahydrofolates
d. it covalently binds to the active site of the enzyme for cell wall synthesis
Page 371-372 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 38
125. An attack of acute asthma has been attributed to leukotrienes. Which of the following
statements is TRUE regarding leukotrienes?
a. produced mainly in the nervous tissue
b. components of slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis
c. descrease vascular permeability
d. inhibit the release of lysosomal enzymes
Page 194-196 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 23
127. Bilirubin is an important endproduct during the course of hemolysis. Which of the
following statements is TRUE regarding bilirubin?
a. excreted from the liver in the form of bilirubin diglucuronides
b. conjugation mainly it takes place in the kidneys
c. unconjugated bilirubin is readily excreted in the urine
d. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to complete obstruction of the common bile
ducts is generally accompanied by increased urobilinogen in the urine
Page 280-284 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 32
129. Cancer can be attributed to mutation in the DNA. A mutation that converts an amino acid
codon to a stop codon is:
a. silent c. missense
b. frameshift d. nonsense
Page 362 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 38
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130. The process by which a polypeptide’s destination in the cell is determined by which of
these?
a. Codons c. signal peptides
b. molecular chaperones d. signal recognition particles
Page 498,503-504,508 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 46
131. Which of the following histones is uniquely associated with the linker DNA?
a. H3 c. H4
b. H1 d. H2A
Page 314-315 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 36
133. Which of the following about the salvage pathway of purine nucleotide synthesis is
correct?
a. Deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase is the
cause of Lesch-Nyan syndrome
b. The rate limiting enzyme is PRPP amidotransferase
c. The donor of the ribose 5-phosphate is the HMP shunt
d. The salvage pathway for the free bases require more ATP than the novo
sysnthesis of purine nucleotide
Page 294 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 34
134. An individual who has fasted for more than 24 hours will have an increased production of
which amino acids in his tissues?
a. aspartate and glutamine
b. glutamate and asparagine
c. valine, isoleucine and leucine
d. glutamine and alanine
Page 14-20 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 3
137. This amino acid is the source of most of the blood glucose during starvation:
a. glutamine c. glutamate
b. alanine d. aspartate
Page 236 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 27
138. Allopurinol is used in gout bacause it is an allosteric inhibitor of xathine oxidase which is
responsible for synthesizing this excretory metabolite of purines:
a. allanton c. urea
b. uric acid d. ammonia
Page 301 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 35
139. The catecholamines, epinephrine and dopamine are synthesized from this amino acid:
a. tyrosine c. arginine
b. isoleucine d. threonine
Page 445 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter
140. Which of the following is the most important role of amino acids in the body?
a. source of energy
b. precursor of nonprotein nitrogen containing substances
c. building blocks of tissue protein
d. precursor glucose
Page 249 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 30
141. Most of the ammonia that are used for the synthesis of urea are directly derived from the
deamination of:
a. leucine c. isoleucine
b. aspartic acid d. glutamic acid
Page 243-244 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 29
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142. A person suffering from gout should decrease his intake of:
a. bread c. egg
b. banana d. sardines
Page 229 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 26
144. Which statements is BEST describes the arrangement of proteins and lipids in
membranes?
a. Protein form a continous sheet on either side of the phospholipid bilayer
b. Proteins occur in the lipid bilayer as discontinous particles
c. Protein molecules are sandwiched between the exoplasmic and cytoplasmic lipid
monolayers
d. Lipid molecules “float” on a sea proteins
Page 416-417 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 41
145. Excessive ingestion of raw eggwhite is detrimental because it inhibits this step in
extramitochondrial lipogenesis:
a. formation of malonyl CoA c. reduction step
b. binding of malonyl to acyl carrier protein d. deacylation reaction
Page 173-174 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 21
146. Gelatin has a high collagen content. It is not a good source of protein because:
a. collagen contains a limited variety of amino acids
b. collagen cannot be digested
c. too much collagen causes brittle bones
d. collagen contains more sugars than amino acids
Page 38 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 5
148. Which of the following is the BEST describes the action of 5 FU in the treatment of
cancer?
a. inhibits synthesis of DNA
b. inhibits protein synthesis
c. depletes the cancer cells of necessary nutrients like vitamins
d. depletes the cancer cells of required oxygen
Page 328-330 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 36
152. In the normal resting state of humans, muscles will mainly use up energy provided by:
a. carbohydrates c. fats
b. branced chain amino acids d. muscle glycogen
Page 574-576 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 49
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Page 228 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 26
154. Which of the following is the most metabolically active plasma lipid?
a. nonesterified fatty acid c. free cholesterol
b. lecithin d. glucocerebroside
Page 57 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 7
155. Deficiency of lipoprotein lipase will result in a increased plasma level of which of the
following?
a. chylomicron remnant c. LDL
b. VLDL d. HDL
Page 125,126,207-208 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 15,25
156. Which of the following is needed for the transport of long-chain fatty acids from the
cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix?
a. carnitine c. glutathione
b. S-adenosylmethionine d. phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate
Page 180-187 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 22
160. The link between the catabolic and anabolic reactions in the energy cycle is:
a. ATP c. H+
b. O2 d. NADH
Page 82-85 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 10
163. Which vitamin is solely synthesized by bacteria and is thus absent from all plants?
a. Biotin c. Folic acid
b. Ascorbic acid d. Riboflavin
Page 494-495 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 45
164. This vitamin is required for the synthesis of neurotransmitters like epinephrine:
a. Niacin c. Pyridoxine
b. Ascorbic acid d. Riboflavin
Page495-496 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 45
165. Deficiency of this mineral is prevalent among pregnant women living in mountainous
areas:
a. iron c. copper
b. iodine d. magnesium
Page 447-449 Harper’s 26th Edition Chapter 42
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167. Which regulatory action involves a reversible covalent modification of an enzyme?
A. allosteric modulation
B. competitive inhibition
C. association of apoenzyme with a cofactor
D. phosphorylation of Ser hydroxyl on the enzyme *
168. The Ping-pong mechanism of enzyme kinetics applies to which of the reactions?
A. one-substrate
B. bisubstrate *
C. multiple substrate
D. hydrolytic
169. Enzymes hasten the rate of chemical reactions through which of the ff. ?
A. covalent modification of coenzymes and reactants
B. enhancing proximity and local concentration of substrates
C. decreasing the free energy of activation *
D. increasing the over-all free energy change of the reaction
171. Which of the ff. BEST explains why oxidation of FADH2 produces less ATP than NADH?
A. FADH2 enters ETS via complex II *
B. FADH2 transfers less electrons through ETS than NADH
C. Electrons from FADH2 are not transferred to oxygen
D. inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to FADH2
174. In the over-all scheme of human metabolism, which organ plays impt role?
A. brain
B. liver *
C. muscle
D. kidney
176. The beta pleated sheet of a protein is classified as which level of protein ?
A. primary C. tertiary
B. secondary * D. super secondary
177. What is the cause for the lactic acidosis that develops in thiamine deficiency?
A. conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is blocked *
B. conversipon of pyruvate to oxaloacetate is blocked
C. the transketolase reaction that transfers 3-carbon units is blocked
D. the transaldolase reaction has increased activity
179. Which of these BEST explains the role of HCL in the stomach?
A. kills H. pylori organisms
B. denatures proteins *
C. ideal ph for amylase action
D. stimulates pancreatic juice sec’n
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180. Which of the ff. bonds stabilizes the primary structure of a protein?
A. hydrogen *
B. disulfide
C. ionic
D. peptide
181. Which of the ff. are products of the action of salivary amylase on glycogen?
A. sucrose
B. maltose *
C. galactose
D. fructose
183. Which of the ff. is most important source of glucose during early fasting?
A. liver triglyceride C. muscle protein
B. hepatic glycogen * D. muscle glycogen
184. A young infant, who was nourished by synthetic formula, had sugar in blood & urine. This
compound gave positive reducing sugar test but negative with glucose oxidase test.
Which of the ff. compounds is MOST likely to be present in infant’s blood & urine?
A. glucose C. Sorbitol *
B. fructose D. maltose
185. In normal resting state of humans, muscles will mainly use up energy that is provided by
which of the ff.?
A. carbohydrates C. fats *
B. muscle glycogen D. amino acids
186. The anemia that develops in patients on anti-malarial therapy may be due to deficiency of
enzymes that belong to which metabolic pathway?
A. Embden-Mayerhoff C. hexose monophosphate *
B. Kreb’s TCA D. Kreb’s-Hanseleit
187. Which of the ff is the primary function of the Pentose Phosphate pathway?
A. ATP production
B. NADPH generation
C. NADPH generation & production of ribose units *
D. Provision of ribose units for nucleotide/ nucleic acid synthesis
188. Which of the ff, is the major metabolic substrate required by RBC?
A. Glycerol C. fructose
190. SRS-A, the slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis, is composed of which of the ff?
A. thromboxanes C. leukotrienes *
B. prostaglandins D. prostacyclins
191. The regulation of cholesterol synthesis primarily occurs at which enzymatic site?
A. 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA synthase
B.3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA lyase
C.3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA reductase *
D.3-methyl-3-hydroxylglutaryl CoA oxidase
192. What is the major source of reducing equivalents used for fatty acid syn?
A. pentose phosphate pathway *
B. Embden-Mayerhoff pathway
C. the tricarboxylic acid cycle
D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase pathway
17
194. Patients suffering from familial defect in Apo B 100 have significantly elevated levels of
plasma LDL’s. Which is the major reason for this?
A. inability of LDL to interact with the LDL receptor *
B. inability of LDL to activate lipoprotein lipase
C. inability of LDL to activate cholesterol transfer protein
D. LDL interaction with LDL receptors fail to stimulate endocytosis
196. In an average adult, which % of body protein is turned over on a daily basis?
A. 1 – 2 % * C. 5 – 6
B. 3 – 4 % D. 7 – 8 %
197. Which vitamin combines with opsin to form the visual pigment in the eye ?
A. A * C. E
B. D D. K
198. Which of the following is the cause of muscle fatigue following vigorous exercise?
A. sodium and potassium imbalance
B. the utilization of ATP
C. accumulation of ADP and PI
D. accumulation of lactate *
201. Which phase of protein synthesis does the release of newly synthesized polypeptide from
the ribosome take place?
A. initiation C. release
B. elongation D. termination *
202. Which of the ff. directs the polypeptide’s ultimate destination in the cell ?
A. codons C. signal peptides *
B. molecular chaperones D. signal recognition particles
204. Which of these is the first reaction in the metabolism of all sugars ?
A. hydrolysis C. isomerization
B. proteolysis D. phosphorylation *
205. Which site on the operon is the site of RNA polymerase binding ?
A. operator C. promoter *
B. regulator D. structural
209. During RNA synthesis, DNA template sequence 5’ TpApGpCp 3’ would be transcribed to
produce which of the ff. sequences ?
A. 5’- TpApCpGp- 3’ C. 3’- ApUpCpGp-5’
B. 3’- GpCpTpAp- 5’ D. 5’- GpCpUpAp-3’ *
18
210. Which of the ff. refer to sequential order of nucleotides in a polypeptide?
A. primary structure * C. tertiary structure
B. secondary structure D. quaternary structure
216. Which of the ff. reactions does RNA-directed DNA polymerase catalyze?
A. synthesis of DNA complimentary to the RNA strand *
B.synthesis of DNA complimentary to template DNA strand
C. removal of wrong nucleotide inserted during DNA synthesis
D.synthesis of an RNA that is complimentary to RNA template
217. During protein synthesis, which reads information in mRNA & transfers AA to a growing
polypeptide chain?
A. messenger RNA C. heterogenous nuclear RNA
B. ribosomal RNA D. transfer RNA *
Lipid Metabolism
222. Which of the following is TRUE of fatty acid synthase enzyme complex?
A. It can synthesize two 18 carbon atom fatty acids simultaneously.
B. It is composed of two polypeptide chains but each monomer is an active enzyme.
C. FAS enzyme complex has seven sub-units with catalytic activities.
D. The monomers are arranged in a head – to – tail configuration.
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., pp. 196-197.
19
223. The phosphopanthetheine side chain is part of which sub-unit of the fatty acid synthase
enzyme complex ?
A. acetyl transacylase C. acyl carrier protein
B. ketoacyl synthase D. malonyl transcylase
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 196.
224. Deficiency of this phospholipid results to Respiratory Distress Syndrome of the newborn:
A. phosphatidylinositol C. phosphatidylserine
B. phosphatidylinositide D. dipalmitoyl-lecithin
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 125.
225. The committed step for the β – oxidation of fatty acids is inhibited by increased
concentration of:
A. acetyl-CoA C. malonyl-CoA
B. carnitine D. palmitoyl – CoA
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 195.
226. The complete ATP yield of a saturated C16 fatty acid is:
A. 106 C. 110
B. 108 D. 112
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p.189.
228. Ketone bodies can be utilized by extra-hepatic tissues because of this enzyme:
A. beta-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase C. HMG-CoA lyase
B. HMG-CoA synthase D. succinyl CoA acetoacetate CoA
transferase
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 191.
230. This disease results from the accumulation of phytanic acid in the brain and kidneys of
patients:
A. Tay- Sach’s disease C. Refsum’s disease
B. Zellweger’s disease D. Niemann Pick’s disease
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 194.
232. The concentration of this lipoprotein is inversely related to the incidence of coronary
artery disease:
A. HDL1 C. HDL3
B. HDL2 D. pre β- HDL
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 222.
234. The only part of an odd-chain fatty acid that is glucogenic is:
A. acetyl CoA C. propionyl CoA
B. butyryl CoA D. succinyl CoA
Reference: Murray, R.K., et. al., Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 27 th ed., p.188
20
Reference: Murray, R.K., et. al., Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 27 th ed., p. 215
236. A patient with phenylketonuria has fair skin and eyes due to low levels of:
A. biopterine C. tryptophan
B. phenylalanine D. tyrosine
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 242.
238. A patient with mental retardation and pigmentation of connective tissues has a deficiency
of:
A. alanine aminotransferase C. homogentisate oxidase
B. aspartate aminotransferase D. phenylalanine hydroxylase
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 259.
239. If D.D. had ↑ blood level of argininosuccinate and friable hair, the deficient enzyme is:
A. Argininosuccinate synthethase C. Carbamoyl P Synthetase 1
B. Argininosuccinate lyase D. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 252.
NH3+
O │
║ R2- C – COO-
R2- C – COO-
243. The reaction that helps maintain normal acid-base balance is:
A. arginase C. glutamate dehydrogenase
B. glutaminase D. glutamine synthetase
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 249.
245. Which amino acid test dose administration is used to diagnose folate deficiency?
A. cysteine C. lysine
B. histidine D. tryptophan
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 254.
246. Which amino acid test dose administration is used to diagnose pyridoxal phosphate
deficiency?
21
A. histidine C. tryptophan
B. leucine D. tyrosine
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 262.
247. To prevent obtaining a false-positive test for phenylketonuria, the screening should be
done
how many days after birth?
A. immediately after birth C. 2 days
B. one day D. 3 - 4 days
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 259.
248. A 10 year old boy with pellagra-like symptoms and a urine finding of ↑ amount of large
neutral amino acids (aminoaciduria). What is the problem with this patient?
A. homocystinuria C. glycinuria
B. cystinuria D. Hartnup
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 262.
252. One of the following statements about THYROID BINDING GLOBULIN is TRUE:
A. Most of the T4 and T3 is in the unbound form.
B. Thyroxine Binding prealbuminis quantitatively more important.
C. Thyroxine binding globulin binds covalently nearly all thye T3 and T4
D. Estrogens increases the synthesis of thyroid Binding globulin.
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 462.
253. After exposing a jaundiced infant to phototherapy, the following is TRUE of bilirubin
excretion:
A. Bilirubin is converted to bilirubin diglucoronide.
B. Phototherapy provides the sulfates needed to conjugate bilirubin.
C. Bilirubin will be excreted in the feces as mesobilirubin.
D. Increased amounts of urobilin are found in the urine.
Reference: Murray, R.K., et. al., Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26 th ed., p. 280
Blood Coagulation
254. In normal patients, the fibrinolytic system of the coagulation system is have the following
characteristized by:
A. stabilization of the fibrin molecules by covalent cross-linkage bonding.
B. glycoproteins that regulate coagulation mechanism.
C. components which are thiol-dependent transglutaminases.
D. glycoproteins that contain serine dependent active protease sites.
Reference: Murray, R.K., et. al., Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26 th ed., p. 604
255. Intracellular calcium is mobilized in the cytoplasm by this PIP 2-derived second
messenger.
A. Protein kinase C C. Inositol diphosphate
B. Inositol triphosphate D. Phosphatidylinositol
Reference: Murray, R.K., et. al., Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 25 th ed., p. 546
22
257. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE of estrogen?
A. In, pregnancy, more estrone is coming from the placenta
B. Estrogens are formed by the aromatization of androgens in a complex process that
involves 2 hydroxylation steps
C. As much as 50% of estradiol produced during pregnancy are produced by the ovaries
D. All the statements are TRUE
Reference: Murray, R.K., et. al., Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 23rd ed., p. 450
258. The following is TRUE about the luteal Phase of the menstrual cycle.
A. There is follicular development
B. The endometrial lining is thickened with the glands.
C. There is low levels of estrogen.
D. FSH and LH levels are high
262. Which of the following statements about factors affecting the basal metabolic rate is
TRUE?
A. The basal metabolic rate is higher in females due to greater adiposity
B. Increase in body weight decreases the basal metabolic rate
C. Basal metabolic rate decreases with advancing age
D. Greater muscle tissue means a decrease in basal metabolic rate
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 491.
266. The following peptides arise from the proopiomelanocortin gene except:
A. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
B. Corticotropin-like intermediate lobe peptide
C. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 459.
23
268. Which of the following is the most utilized pathway of testosterone synthesis in the
human testes?
A. Dehydroepiandrosterone pathway
B. Progesterone pathway
C. Aromatase pathway
D. 21-hydroxylase pathway
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 450.
275. Which of the following is NOT a coenzyme of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
A. biotin C. coenzyme A
B. lipoic acid D. pyridoxine
Page 155
276. This enzyme of the Krebs Cycle catalyzes a substrate level phosphorylation reaction:
A. isocitrate dehydrogenase C. citrate synthase
B. malate dehydrogenase D. succinate thiokinase
Page 146
277. Which is not a reaction that synthesizes purine nucleotides?
A. synthesis form amphibolic intermediates
B. phosphoribosylation of nucleobases
C. ribosylation of purine nucleosides
D. phosphorylation of purine nucleosides
Page 301
278. The multifunctional enzyme involved in the rate limiting reaction during pyrimidine
synthesis includes:
A. IMP dehydrogenase C. orotidylic decarboxylase
B. dihydroorotase D. orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
Page 307
24
280. The endproducts of pyrimidine catabolism are:
A. less water soluble than those of purine catabolism
B. increased in patients with leukemia
C. produced by adenosine deaminase
D. increased with increased dietary intake of nucleotides
Page 308
283. Muscle glycogen is not exported for utilization by peripheral tissues because of the
absence of:
A. gluokinase C. phosphofructokinse
B. glycogen phosphorylase D. glucose 6 – phosphatase
Page 142
284. Which metabolic fuel provides the energy during prolonged starvation?
A. glucose C. amino acids
B. ketone bodies D. lactate
Page 143
285. The metabolic pathway that provides the fuel for erythrocytes is:
A. β-oxidation C. anaerobic glycoslysis
B. Tricarboxylci acid cycle D. ketogenesis
Page 143
290. The synthesis of the forward strand during replication is described as:
A. a continuous process moving from the 3’ to 5’ direction.
B. producing short DNA fragments
C. catalyzed by DNA polymerase in humans
D. requiring an RNA primer for each short strand formed
Page 336
25
292. The DNA starnd that is transcribed is referred to as the:
A. coding starnd C. template strand
B. nontemplate strand D. transcript strand
Page 348
294. The rate of transcription may be enhanced by the following sequence elements, except:
A. TATA box C. enhancers
B. sigma factor D. silencers
Page 355
296. The enzyme that catalyzes the activation of amino acids is:
A. peptidyl transferase C. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
B. RNA polymerase D. methylguanosine synthase
Page 367
297. Frameshift mutation results from:
A. deletion of a triplet C. insertion of a nucleotide
B. insertion of an amino acid D. deletion of an amino acid
Page 370
298. The role of polyA tail during translation is observed during:
A. elongation C. Termination
B. initiation D. modification
Page 372
300. DNA library that is composed of DNA copies from mRNA populations:
A. chimeric library C. cDNA
B. Colony D. genomic library
Page 408
301. Insulin promotes glucose storage in the liver and muscles by:
A. inhibition of PFK 2.
B. stimulation of G-6-DH.
C. activation of glycogen synthase.
D. increased synthesis of F-2,6 bisP.
Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s Biochemistry, 27 th Ed., p. 474.
302. A patient's DNA was analyzed for its chemical characteristics. It was found to have a high
melting temperature which means that the DNA
A. is rich in adenine-thymine base pairs
B. is denatured at a higher temperature
C. will exhibit hypochromicity at this temperature
D. cannot undergo renaturation
Harper's Biochemistry 27th edition, pp. 312-313 Application
303. A 20 year old male suffering from pneumonia was given a quinolone antibiotics by his
physician. This antibiotics inhibits bacterial DNA topoisomerase. Which step in replication
is inhibited by the quinolone?
A. Unwinding of the double helix.
B. Recognition of the origin of replication
C. Formation of the RNA primer
D. Elongation of the growing DNA polymer
Harper's 27th edition, pp. 339 - 340 Application
304. A dermatologist advised her patient to avoid too much exposure to sunlight. Aside from
sunburn, ultraviolet light causes what kind of damage to DNA?
A. Insertion or deletion of nucleotide
B. Oxidative free radical formation
C. Formation of thymine-thymine dimer
D. Cross-linkage between bases
Harper's 27th edition, p. 343 Application
26
305. Cells cultured from patients with xeroderma pigmentosum exhibit low activity to which
kind of DNA repair mechanism?
A. Nucleotide excision-repair.
B. Base excision repair.
C. Mismatch repair
D. double-strand break repair
Harper's 27th edition, p. 345 Recall
306. Damage to the mitochondria may result in impaired mitochondrial DNA synthesis. In
mammalian cells, this DNA is synthesized by which type of DNA polymerase?
A. DNA polymerase alpha C. DNA polymerase delta
B. DNA polymerase beta D. DNA polymerase gamma
Harper's 27th edition, p. 336 Recall
307. Mammalian RNA polymerase II exhibit high sensitivity to the inhibitory effect of alpha-
amanitin, a peptide toxin from a poisonous mushroom. Which of the following products
will be decreased?
A. ribosomal RNA C. messenger RNA
B. transfer RNA D. small nuclear RNA
Harper's 27th edition, p. 351 Application
308. Rifampicin, an anti-TB drug, inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Which of the
following steps of gene transcription will NOT be affected by the drug?
A. Template binding C. Chain initiation
B. Chain elongation D. Posttranscriptional modification
Harper's 27th edition, p. 349 Application
309. A patient is taking steroid drug for his frequent attacks of asthma. Steroids have anti-
inflammatory effects and also regulate gene expression. The effects of steroids are
mediated by DNA elements found in which transcription control regions of the gene?
A. Coding region C. Promoter proximal elements
B. Distal regulatory elements D. CAAT and TATA boxes
Harper's 27th edition, 354 - 356 Application
310. In beta thalassemia, the beta-globin gene is severely underexpressed resulting in
diminished synthesis of the beta-chain of hemoglobin. This is a consequence of which
posttranscriptional modification of primary RNA transcript?
A. Faulty exon-intron splicing
B. Addition of poly A tail in the 3' end
C. Incorporation of 7-methylguanosine cap in the 5' end
D. RNA editing in the coding region
Harper's 27th edition, p.362 Application
311. The genetic code is affected by insertion or deletion of nucleotides in DNA resulting in
frameshift mutation. Which characteristic of the genetic code is affected by this event?
A. Universal C. Nonoverlapping
B. Degenerate D. Unambiguous
Harper's 27th edition, p.366, 370 - 371 Application
312. Chloramphenicol, a broad spectrum antibiotics, is known to inhibit peptidyltransferase
during translation. What step in protein synthesis is affected by chloramphenicol?
A. Formation of initiation complex.
B. Elongation of the polypeptide chain.
C. Termination of protein synthesis.
D. Posttranslational modification
Harper's 27th edition, p. 374 Recall
313. The elongation stage of protein synthesis is a multistep process which can be inhibited by
antibiotics. What will happen when the translocation step is inhibited by streptomycin?
A. Incoming aminoacyl-tRNA cannot bind to the A site
B. Small ribosomal subunit is unable to dissociated from the large ribosomal subunit.
C. No peptide bond synthesis can take place.
D. Peptidyl-tRNA cannot shift from the A site to the P site.
Harper's 27the edition, p. 375 Application
314. Some patients receiving methotrexate for treatment of cancer developed drug resistance.
What could be the reason for these?
A. Methotrexate induces amplification of genes for dihydrofolate reductase.
B. The chemotherapeutic agent inhibits the transport of mRNA from nucleus to
cytoplasm.
C. The drug produces instability to the newly synthesized mRNA.
D. It promoted the use of alternative transcription start site.
Harper's 27th edition, p. 399 Application
27
315. Genomic technology oftentimes use probes. What can these molecules do?
A. They allow visualization of specific DNA fragments.
B. They are used to detect the presence of a specific fragment of DNA or RNA.
C. They amplify specific DNA sequences.
D. They are used to identify restriction sites.
Harper's 27th edition pp. 409, 420 Recall
316. Oxygen toxicity can be attributed to the destructive effects of free radicals generated.
These free radicals are removed by which of the following enzymes?
A. NADPH-cytochrome P450 reductase C. Superoxide dismutase
B. Peroxidase D. Catalase
Harper's 27th edition, pp. 97 - 98 Recall
317. A suicide victim suffered from carbon monoxide poisoning when he was trapped in the
garage with car engine running. Which component of the respiratory chain is inhibited by
the poisonous gas?
A. NADH dehydrogenase of Complex I
B. Succinate dehydrogenase of Complex II
C. Cytochrome c oxidoreductase of Complex III
D. Cytochrome oxidase of Complex IV
Harper's 27th edition, p. 107 Recall
318. People with bronchial asthma usually has hyperactive airway bronchoconstriction
because of inflammation. Which of the following eicosanoid is responsible for this?
A. leukotrienes C. thromboxanes
B. prostaglandins D. prostacyclins
Harper's 27th edition, p. 122 Application
319. A premature infant had respiratory distress syndrome after birth. Which of the following is
a major constituent of the lung surfactant?
A. distearoyl cephalin C. diarachidonyl plasmalogen
B. dioleyl lipositol D. dipalmitoyl lecithin
Harper's 27th edition, p. 125 Recall
320. Which of the following glycolipids is of considerable biologic interest because it serves as
the receptor in human intestine for cholera toxin?
A. sulfatide C. glucocerebroside
B. ganglioside (GM3) D. globoside
Harper's 27th edition, p. 126 Recall
321. Which of the following steroids although NOT derived from cholesterol acquire antirachitic
property when irradiated with ultraviolet light?
A. cholic acid C. ergosterol
B. cholecalciferol D. corticosterone
Harper's 27th edition, p. 127 Recall
322. Which of the following glycolipids is of considerable biologic interest because it serves as
the receptor in human intestine for cholera toxin?
A. sulfatide C. glucocerebroside
B. ganglioside (G
323. How will carnitine deficiency affect the metabolism of glucose?
A. It will lead to hypoglycemia.
B. There is decreased synthesis of NADPH.
C. It will promote glycogenesis
D. There is increased synthesis of glucuronic acid
Harper's 27th ed., p 187 - Application
324. A patient suffering from hypoalbuminemia will affect the transport of which lipid in the
plasma?
A. cholesterol C. unesterified fatty acid
B. triacylglycerol D. phospholipid
Harper's 27th ed., 187 - Application
325. Lack of carnitine in the mitochondria will directly and immediately affect which aspect of
fatty acid oxidation?
A. activation of fatty acid
B. transport of fatty acid into the mitochondrial matrix
C. oxidation of fatty acyl CoA
D. formation of acetyl CoA
Harper's 27th ed., 187 - Application
326. Infants born without peroxisomes will suffer from neurologic symptoms because of the
accumulation of what type of fatty acid?
A. short chain saturated fatty acid
B. medium chain saturated fatty acid
28
C. long chain saturated and unsaturated fatty acid
D. very long chain unsaturated fatty acid
Harper's 27th ed, p 194 - Recall
327. The basic form of ketosis occurs in starvation which involves depletion of carbohydrates
coupled with increased:
A. mobilization of free fatty acid
B. fatty acid synthesis
C. triacylglycerol synthesis
D. cholesterol metabolism
Harper's 27th ed., 194 - Application
328. A patient taking aspirin because of chronic arthritis will have decreased synthesis of
which of the following?
A. leukotrienes C. prostaglandin
B. ketone bodies D. glycosphingolipid
Harper's 27th ed., 196 - Application
329. Deficiency of biotin will result in decreased formation of which of the following?
A. acyl carrier protein C. phosphatidic acid
B. malonyl CoA D. ceramide
Harper's 27th ed., 197 - Application
330. Essential fatty acid deficiency may be exacerbated by increased intake of which of the
following foodstuffs?
A. margarine C. coconut oil
B. butter D. vegetable oil
Harper's 27th ed., 203 - 204 - Application
331. Which of the following enzymes that degrade phosphoglycerides is one of the major
toxins secreted by pathogenic bacteria?
A. Phospholipase A1 C. Phospholipase A2
B. Phospholipase C D. Phospholipase D
Harper's 27th ed., p. 212 - Recall
332. Enlarged liver and spleen, erosion of long bones, mental retardation in infants are seen in
which of the following lysosomal storage diseases?
A. Tay Sach's disease C. Gaucher's disease
B. Fabry's disease D. Farber's disease
Harper's 27th ed., 215 - Application
333. Patients with lipoprotein lipase deficiency will affect lipoprotein metabolism in what way?
A. Increased formation of lipoprotein remnants
B. Increased degradation of VLDL
C. Decreased synthesis of HDL
D. Decreased triglyceride hydrolysis in chylomicron
Harper's 27th ed., 219 - 220 - Application
334. Administration of simvastatin will decrease the activity of which of the following enzymes
involved in cholesterol synthesis?
A. HMG-CoA synthase C. Squalene oxidocyclase
B. HMG-CoA reductase D. Mevalonate kinase
Harper's 27th ed., p 231 - Recall
335. During protein analysis a new amino acid was found which has a pK3 value, 3 units lower
than that of cysteine. This so-called 21st amino acid is:
A. aluminocysteine C. manganocysteine
B. selenocysteine D. mangesimosysteine
Harper's 27th ed., p. 14 - Recall
336. A protein isolated from a cancerous tissue absorbs visible light in the region of 280 nm.
Which amino acid component of the protein is responsible for this?
A. glycine C. valine
B. arginine D. tryptophan
Harper's 27th ed., p. 18 - Recall
337. Hemoglobin has the ability to neutralize protons released by carbonic acid. Which of the
following amino acids is responsible for this?
A. lysine C. histidine
B. glutamine D. isoleucine
Harper's 27th ed., p. 45 - Application
338. Proteins must be purified prior to analysis. Size exclusion chromatography separates
proteins based on their Stokes radius which is a function of:
A. molecular mass and shape
B. solubility characteristics
29
C. chemical interactions with other groups
D. denaturation and renaturation potential
Harper's 27th ed., p. 21 - 22 -- Application
339. Scurvy which is due to vitamin C deficiency results in the formation of defective collagen
characterized by:
A. decreased number of hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine
B. increased in the number of covalent cross-links
C. decreased synthesis of disulfide bridges
D. increased interactions with copper and other minerals
Harper's 27th ed., p 39 - Application
340. Tissue aminotransferases reversibly interconvert which of the following three amino acids
and their corresponding alpha-keto acids?
A. serine, threonine and tyrosine
B. lysine, arginine and histidine
C. glycine, alanine and isoleucine
D. valine, leucine and isoleucine
Harper's 27th ed., p. 243 - Application
341. Which of the following is NOT a part of the stages occuring in urea biosynthesis:
A. transamination
B. transaminidation
C. oxidative deamination of glutamate
D. ammonia transport
Harper's 27th ed., 247 - Application
342. Deficiency of which of the following coenzymes will result in decreased transamination of
amino acids?
A. thiamine pyrophosphate C. pyridoxal phosphate
B. biotin D. tetrahydrofolate
Harper's 27th ed., 248 - Application
343. Transdeamination refers to the concerted reactions catalyzed by which of the following
pair of enzymes?
A. glutamate aminotransferase and glutamate dehydrogenase
B. glutamate dehydrogenase and glutamine synthetase
C. L-amino acid oxidase and cyseine desulfurase
D. Serine dehydrase and glutamate transaminase
Harper's 27th ed., 248 - Application
344. Of the six participating amino acids in urea synthesis which of the following functions
solely as an enzyme activator?
A. ornithine C. citrulline
B. argininosuccinate D. N-acetylglutamate
Harper's 27th ed., p. 249 - Recall
345. Ammonia intoxication impairs neuronal functions of the brain because it:
A. impairs the synthesis of glutamine
B. inhibits the activation of asparagine synthetase
C. depletes the levels of alpha-ketoglutarate of the Kreb's cycle
D. produces respiratory alkalosis
Harper's 27th ed., p. 248 - Application
346. Which of the following chemical reactions typically initiates amino acid catabolism?
A. glutamate dehydrogenation C. transmethylation
B. transamination D. transulfuration
Harper's 27th ed., p. 254 - Recall
347. Alkaptonuria, an inborn error of tyrosine metabolism, is characterized by darkening of the
urine on exposure to air. This is due to oxidation of excreted:
A. homogentisic acid C. maleylacetoacetate
B. hydroxyphenylpyruvate D. fumarate
Harper's 27th ed., p. 259 - Application
348. Maple syrup urine disease is a metabolic disorder of branched-chain amino acid
catabolism. This is due to which of the following?
A. lack of leucine, isoleucine and valine aminotransferase complex
B. defective alpha-keto acid decarboxylase
C. mutation of dihydrofolate reductase
D. inability to attached the biotin coenzyme
Harper's 27the ed., p. 265 - Application
349. S-adenosylmethionine is important in the body because it is involved in which of the
following reactions?
A. transulfuration C. methylation
30
B. acetylation D. conjugation reaction
Harper's 27th ed., p 274 - Recall
350. Which is a mechanism of oncogene activation? page 794 , MPL = 1
A. chromosome translocation C. promotion
B. initiation D. proliferation
351. TRUE of oncogene activation of chronic myelogenous leukemia: page 794, MPL= .25
A. It involves gene re-arrangement of chromosome 9 and 14
B. The mutation results to fusion of BCR-ABL gene
C. It is a recessive type of mutation
D.It results to overexpression of c-myc.
354. Which of the following molecules function to transfer information from the nucleus to
the cytoplasm? (page 309, MPL=1)
A. DNA C. tRNA
B. mRNA D. proteins
355. Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein
synthesis, serving as a template for translation, and transporting amino acid, respectively,
are:
(Page 341, MPL=0.5)
A. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA C. rRNA, tRNA, mRNA
B. tRNA, mRNA, rRNA D. rRNA, mRNA ,tRNA
356. What is added to the 3'-end of many eukaryotic mRNAs after transcription?
(Page 356, MPL=0.75)
A. introns
B. a poly A tail A
C. a cap structure, consisting of a modified G nucleotide
D. the trinucleotide 5'-CCA
357. The regions of DNA in a eukaryotic gene that encode a polypeptide product are called:
(Page 352, MPL=1)
A. hnRNAs C. enhancers
B. exons D. leader sequences
359. The sequence of a gene that is transcribed but excised before translation:
(Page 365, MPL = 1)
A. enhancer
B. exon
C. intron
D. repressor
31
361. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the genetic code?
(Page 366, MPL = 0.5)
A. Some amino acids are encoded by several codons
B. In general, the third nucleotide in a codon is less important than the first two in coding
for a specific amino acid
C. It is universal with the exception of tRNA molecules in mitochondria
D. The reading of the genetic code may involve overlap of codons in some
instances
362. The genetic code is said to have this property because multiple codons code for the
same amino acid. (Page 366, MPL = 1)
A. degenerate
B. unambiguous
C. universal
D. no punctuation
364. Which of the following structural motifs is important for the transcriptional activation
produced by some steroid-bound hormones? [pp. 393-396] MPL- 1.0
A. zinc fingers
B. gly-x-y
C. immunoglobulin folds
D. EF hands
365. Irreversible activator of adenylyl cyclase causing ribosylation of the αstimulatory - subunit of
the G-protein: [p. 567] MPL- 0.5
A. pertussis toxin
B. phosphodiesterase
C. cholera toxin
D. calcium
368. Leprechaunism is a rare condition characterized by elfin facies, low birth weight,
decreased muscle mass and subcutaneous fat due to which of the following defects?
[25th ed., pp. 622-623] MPL- 0.5
A. growth hormone deficiency
B. thyroid hormone receptor defect
C. growth hormone receptor defect
D. insulin receptor defect
369. Growth hormone is synthesized and stored in large amounts in the anterior pituitary
gland. Which of the following statements accurately describes GH?
[25th e4d., pp. 551-553] MPL- 0.5
A. it is secreted continuously
B. it stimulates cartilage and bone growth via somatomedin C
C. it has a proinsulin-like effect in addition to its other actions
D. synthesis is stimulated by the action of somatostatin
371. Which of the following is a direct effect of parathyroid hormone in regulating calcium
metabolism? [25th ed, p. 570] MPL – 0.5
A. increases bone resorption
B. increases intestinal absorption of calcium
C. decreases renal excretion of calcium
D. decreases bone mineralization
32
372. The bond that links together complementary base pairs along DNA strands :
A. hydrogen
B. glycosidic
C. phosphodiester
D. peptide
(Page 303, MPL = .5)
373. Poly A tail and 7 methyl guanosine cap are features of:
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. rRNA
(Page 309, MPL = .5 )
374. DNA synthesis occurs during this phase in the cell cycle :
A. G1 C. G0
B. G2 D. S phase
(Page 333, MPL = .5)
376. A blot transfer procedure for RNA analysis. (Page 409, MPL = 1)
A. Southern blot C. Northern blot
B. Western blot D. Southwestern blot
377. A manual enzymatic method of DNA sequencing. (Page 410, MPL = 0.5)
A. Sanger’s method
B. Restriction fragment length polymorphism
C. Maxam-Gilbert method
D. Polymerase chain reaction
378. This is a method of amplifying a target sequence of DNA. (Page 410, MPL = 1
A. Flourescence in situ hybridization C. Sanger’s method
B. Polymerase chain reaction D. Microarray technology
379. A two year old boy, SHORT for his age, presented with leg edema and abdominal
swelling. He was weaned from breast milk at one year of age, because of the coming of
another baby. He was fed rice or lugaw everyday mixed with condensed milk. The
edema is caused by:
A. Lack of protein in his diet
B. Excessive intake of water
C. Kidney failure
D. Presence of intestinal parasites
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., Murray, Granner & Rodwell
2006 The macgraw-Hill Companies, Inc., p. 241, par. 1, p. 487, par. 3
380. Catabolism of amino acids requires the participation of transaminase enzymes. What
Coenzyme form of vitamin B is an important participant in this reaction?
A. Thiamin pyrophosphate
B. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
C. Tetrahydrofolic acid
D. Pyridoxal phosphate
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 247 par. 2 , p. 498 - 499
381. In marasmus, the affected person has very little fat reserves and there is wasting of
Muscles. The person is said to be in :
A. Positive nitrogen balance
B. Negative nitrogen balance
C. Nitrogen balance
D. Equilibrium
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 487 par. 3
382. Persons who consume large amounts of unleavened whole-wheat products may
Experience calcium deficiency because:
A. Wheat is poor in calcium
B. Wheat contains phytic acid which prevents calcium absorption
C. The wheat is deficient in vitamin D
33
D. Absorbable form of calcium is not generated
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 485 par. 5
383. An elderly woman is believed to be suffering from vitamin B12 deficiency. Which of the
Following can be the basis for this statement?
A. She has been diagnosed to be deficient in cobalt
B. She is a vegan
C. She has methylmalonic aciduria
D. Any of the above
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 499-500
384. The patient was in coma. Since diabetes was ruled out, how does one explain the
condition?
A. Patient has ammonia intoxication because of the liver pathology
B. Coma is due to marked ketosis
C. Acid-base balance of the patient is disturbed
D. There is increase urea production
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 248 par. 4
385. The obese matron was instructed by her physician to alter her diet and eat only protein
foods to bring down her weight. The matron was afraid however that the absence of
carbohydrates in her meals will cause hypoglycemia and give her more problems. The
physician was certain she does not have to worry about this because:
A. She's going to cheat on her diet anyway
B. The excess body fat will be converted to glucose
C. Amino acids in excess are converted to glucose
D. She has a lot of glycogen slores
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 172 par. 2, p. 175 summary,
P. 269 summary
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 504 Table
387. An infant with genetic deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase also known as von Gierke's
disease will exhibit this clinical sign:
A. Poor exercise tolerance
B. Muscle dystrophy
C. Hypoglycemia & lactic acidemia
D. Glycogen with few branch points
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 166 Table
388. In the absence of creatine kinase enzymes, an athlete would have problem in:
A. Oxidizing creatine
B. Releasing ATP from biological oxidation
C. Aerobic glucose oxidation
D. Generating ATP reserves for muscle contraction
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 583 par. 1-3
389. A young woman already in her fifth month of a carbohydrate and lipid-free diet was
advised by her physician to increase the amount of fats in her diet because she appears
to be suffering from vitamin A deficiency despite her regular vitamin intake. Which of the
following complaints presented by the woman supports the diagnosis?
A. She has lesions of the corner of the mouth
B. Her wounds take longer time to heal
C. She finds it hard to see in the dark when in a movie theater
D. She has this sensation of "burning feet".
Application
34
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 27 th edition, p. 491, par. 4, line 3
390. Tests done on a two month-old baby showed deficiency in enzymes of the Uronic Acid
Pathway. What clinical manifestation may be observed?
A. Elevated urinary glucuronic acid
B. Yellow coloration of the skin
C. High direct-reacting bilirubin in plasma
D. Accumulation of heme
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 27 th edition, p. 289 par. 2, p. 290 par.
2
391. A 35 year old Muntinlupa inmate was confined to 6 weeks of isolation because of bad
behavior. Although he was given regular meals, he stayed in the underground cell for
the duration of the 6 weeks. If the prisoner became deficient in vitamin D because of this,
what signs should the attending physician look for? In the inmate:
A. There may be kidney stones formation
B. The inmate may complain of tiredness
C. He can easily be fractured
D. Serum calcium will be extremely low
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 27 th edition, p. 492 - 493
392. Thiamine deficiency can result in Wernicke- Korsakoff's syndrome. The absence of the
vitamin prevents the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coa on a high carbohydrate diet.
Which compound would be found to be high in concentration in the plasma?
A. Glucose
B. Lactate & pyruvate
C. Acetyl coa
D. Alcohol
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 27 th edition, p. 496- 497
393. Important in the synthesis of collagen, this vitamin serves as cofactor of the mixed
function oxygenase enzymes, proline & lysine hydroxylases:
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin C
D. Folic acid
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 242 par. 3, line 9
394. Unlike other vitamins, niacin is a semi-essential vitamin because it can be synthesized
from this amino acid:
A. Proline
B. Phenylalanine
C. Tryptophan
D. Histidine
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 498, par. 1
395. Activity of the aldose reductase enzyme in the lens of the eye increases in the presence
of high concentration of glucose. This initiates the conversion of glucose to a compound
that has been linked to osmotic damage and cataract formation. What compound is this?
A. Mannitol
B. Galactitol
C. Ribitol
D. Sorbitol
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 185 last par.
396. A patient was tested for transketolase activity of the erythrocyte lysate. Results showed
markedly low activity of the enzyme, consistent with the physicians impression of
deficiency of this vitamin:
A. Vitamin B2
B. Vitamin B3
C. Vitamin B5
D. Vitamin B1
Application
35
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 497, par. 1
397. Inorganic iron is best absorbed by the body in the ferrous form. What is the rationale
behind the addition of vitamin C in many iron preparations?
A. Vitamin C can take the place of iron
B. Absorption of other minerals is prevented
C. Vitamin C chelates iron
D. Vitamin C keeps the iron in reduced (ferrous) state
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 485 - 486
398. In a routine medical check up, an executive showed elevated plasma levels of lactic acid
dehydrogenase enzymes 1 & 2 and low levels of LDH 5. This prompted his physician to
refer him to a cardiologist because:
A. Low levels of LDH 5 indicated a clogged vessel
B. It is part of the medical check up
C. Increase levels of LDH 1 & 2 is indicative of myocardial infarction
D. Angioplasty was needed
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 57
399. A tourist from the Caribbean fell ill and was diagnosed to have malaria. He was given
primaquine upon admission to the hospital and was thought to be recuperating when he
showed signs of hemolytic anemia. Tests showed he had glucose 6- phosphatase
deficiency. What is the biochemical explanation for the hemolysis?
A. The malarial parasite had invaded the rbc
B. Inactivity of the Hexose Monophosphate Shunt prevented the NADPH -
reduction of membrane glutathione
C. The drug oxidized membrane proteins
D. Absence of G6PD initiated release of peroxides
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 177 par. 2, p. 183 par. 2
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 186 par. 2
400. A born-again vegetarian was diagnosed to be suffering from vitamin B12 deficiency.
Which
Of the following suggestions should be followed?
A. The vegetarian should include meat in the diet
B. He should be tested for pernicious anemia
C. The born-again can take in vitamin B12 preparation to meet the requirement
D. Intrinsic factor should be released from bonding
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 499 - 500
401. A woman had just given birth by ceasarean section. For fast recuperation she should be
Advised to:
A. Eat nutritious and protein-rich foods
B. Rest in bed until the incision heals
C. Include more carbohydrates in the diet
D. Drink a lot of water
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 487 - 488
Questions # 402-404
A 32 year old married woman consulted at the OPD because of increasing thirst and frequent
urination. She is 5 feet 2 inches tall and weighs 168 lbs.
402. Which of the following statements best described the metabolic status in this patient?
a. Her energy expenditure is greater than food intake hence she is diuresing
b. She is obese and she has increased mortality
36
c. The (BMR) basal metabolic rate of this patient is higher compared to a man of the
same body weight
d. She is frequently urinating because she has increased protein reserves
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 486
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 486 par. 2
404. You want to give this patient a 1,500 cal/day diet because you want her to lose weight.
How
Do you formulate an appropriate plan for this patient?
A. Carbohydrate - 55% Fats = 35%
Protein = 10%
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 132
405. The edema of a patient with kwashiorkor should respond best when prescribed with:
A. Diet rich in protein
B. Diuretics
C. Bed rest
D. Virgin coconut oil
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 487
406. A 32 year old physician suffered a 3rd degree burn. He stayed in the hospital for almost
one month. What can be said of his metabolic condition
A. The excretion of nitrogenous compounds is less than the dietary intake
B. Negative nitrogen balance
C. Positive nitrogen balance
D. There is net retention of the nitrogen in the body as protein
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 487
407. The human body, even at rest, uses up energy. This amount of energy expenditure is
termed as:
A. Respiratory Quotient
B. Basal Metabolic Rate
C. Respiratory Burst
D. Body Mass Index
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 486
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 140, par. 3, line 1
409. Between meals, the blood glucose concentration of the body is maintained through
These metabolic pathways:
A. Glycolysis & gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenesis & glycogenolysis
37
C. Glycolysis & glycogenolysis
D. Glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 134, par. 4, line 8
410. During continuous anaerobic physical activity, e.g. When working out in a gym, this
metabolic pathway is used by the muscles
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycolysis
C. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt
D. Glycogenesis
Recall
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 151, p. 158
411. When tested, a young woman, complaining of fatigability and poor exercise tolerance
was found to have only one sixth the amount of carnitine found in others who had no
muscle disease. This means that the above symptoms she is experiencing is due to:
Recall
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 187 par. 4
412. Newborn infants can generate more heat needed by the body because they contain
Thermogenin, an uncoupling protein. This protein exerts its effect by:
A. Increasing the amount of substrate oxidized
B. Preventing heat loss
C. Dissociating respiratory chain oxidation from ATP synthesis (phosphorylation)
D. Activating respiratory chain enzymes
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 107, par. 4, p. 228 - 229
413. Erythrocytes are hemolyzed when there is impairment of the Pentose Phosphate
Pathway and this is manifested in a person as hemolytic anemia. This defect is due to:
A. Lack of NADPH from the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
B. Non-synthesis of ATP
C. Failure to release ribose
D. Defect in the membrane transport
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 183- 184, par.1
414. A 30 year old patient was diagnosed to be suffering from a mitochondrial disease that
specifically involves defect in mitochondrial energy transduction.
Which of the following signs/symptoms will be evident?
A. High body mass index (BMI), hyperactivity, increased appetite
B. Hyperventilation, clammy sweat
C. Muscle weakness, excessive perspiration, and elevated BMR (Basal
metabolic
Rate)
D. Lack of appetite, hypoventilation
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 100, par. 2
415. A newborn infant tested positive in the phenylketonuria screening. The attending
pediatrician ordered a change in the infant milk to one which contains negligible amount
of:
A. Lactose
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Glucose
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 259, par. 3
416. A drug used as an adjunct in the treatment of obesity inhibits pancreatic lipase. Following
its intake, which of the following is expected to be excreted in great amount in the feces?
A. Cholesterol
B. Triacylglycerols
38
C. Free fatty acids
D. Bile salts
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 483, par. 4, p. 484 diagram
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 555 par. 5
418. In the rare disease, analbuminemia, there is complete lack of serum albumin. The
affected
Individual presents with this:
A. Extreme edema
B. Edema & presence of free fatty acids
C. Accumulation of triglycerides
D. Elevated plasma cholesterol
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 592 par. 1, p. 187 par. 3 P.
711 Clinical Correlation , Textbook of Biochemistry, 5th ed., Thomas Devlin, Editors,
2002 Wiley-Liss
419. Metabolic screening was requested for a week-old newborn because the grandmother
had noticed the dark stains on the wet diaper whenever she attended the infant. Tests
identified the condition as alkaptonuria. What urinary metabolic should the physician
request in the laboratory tests?
A. Tryptophan
B. Tyrosine
C. Homogentisic acid
D. Melanin
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p.259 par. 2
Textbook of Biochemistry, 5th ed., Thomas Devlin, p. 801, Clinical
Correlation
420. Skeletal muscles do not have the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase. This means:
A. They cannot degrade glucose
B. Glucose cannot be synthesized
C. ATP cannot be generated
D. Glycogen is stored in big amount
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 161, p. 167
421. L-xylulose reductase catalyzes the reduction of xylulose to xylitol. In affected individuals,
Absence of this enzyme results in:
A. Formation of cataracts
B. Failure to synthesize nucleic acids
C. Excretion of large amounts of urinary pentose
D. Presence of skeletal deformities
Recall
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 184 par. 2
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 27th ed., p. 194 last par. , p.195 , 2nd par.
(summary)
423. Measurement of hba1c or glycosylated hemoglobin provides valuable information for the
management of diabetes mellitus because it:
39
A. Is elevated in diabetes mellitus
B. Reflects the mean glucose concentration over the preceding 6 - 8 weeks
C. Is formed by reaction with hba
D. Is released when rbc dies
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 48, par.1
424. Inherited enzyme deficiencies of the Krebs-Henseleit cycle always present with this
observation:
A. Increase urea production
B. Formation of organic metabolites
C. Ammonia intoxication
D. Depletion of citrulline
Application
Referenece: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 251, par. 4
425. The urine-soaked diaper of a week old baby was noted by the mother to smell like burnt
sugar. Her concern turned into worry when the pediatrician told her the baby may be
suffering from maple syrup urine disease. To confirm this, activity of the keto acid
decarboxylase complex has to be measured. Which amino acids will have increased
concentration in plasma and urine?
A. Serine, threonine & hydroxyproline
B. Cysteine, cystine, methionine
C. Valine, leucine & isoleucine
D. Glycine, alanine & asparagine
Application
Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 265, par. 2
426. Calcium deficiency manifestations may also be seen in people who consume:
A. Large amounts of unleavened whole wheat products
B. High concentrations of fatty acids
C. High amounts of oxalates
D. All of the above
Application
Referenece: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 265, par. 2
427. Milk intolerance, common among Asian populations and characterized by an osmotic
type of diarrhrea following the intake of milk is attributed to deficiency of:
A. Pancreatic amylase
B. Lactase
C. Sucrase
D. Maltase
Recall
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 483, par. 1, line 3
428. Rate-limiting reaction in cholesterol synthesis which is inhibited by the "statins" group of
Drugs is catalyzed by this enzyme:
A. Cholesterol esterase
B. Squalene cyclase
C. Mevalonate kinase
D. Beta hydroxyl-beta methyl glutaryl coa reductase
Recall
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 231, par. 2
429. All the carbon atoms of cholesterol are synthesized from this common metabolite:
A. Alanine
B. Acetyl coa
C. Glucose
D. Palmitate
Recall
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 230, par. 3
430. Carbohydrates, lipids & proteins can be oxidized to acetyl coa or specific metabolites
intermediates using a final common pathway. The pathway functions in gluconeogenesis,
lipogenesis and interconversion of amino acids. This pathway is known as:
40
A. Glycolysis
B. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt
C. Citric Acid Cycle
D. Glucuronic Acid Pathway
Recall
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 145, par. 1
431. In the capillaries, hemoglobin releases oxygen and accepts carbon dioxide. The process
generates protons e which can then lower the blood ph. The buffering action of
hemoglobin will prevent this from taking place. What amino acid residues in hemoglobin
are most important in this shift in ph buffering effect at normal blood ph?
A. Arginine
B. Lysine
C. Histidine
D. Glutamate
Recall
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 43
432. The highest number of energy released as ATP is obtained by complete oxidation of this
compound to carbon dioxide and water
A. An amino acid
B. A triglyceride
C. Glucose
D. A nucleic acid
Application
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 142, table 16-1, p.189, par.1
433. Laboratory tests done on a 3 year old boy showed excessive nucleic acid bases in the
urine and negligible activity of hgprtase. Which statement explains the results obtained?
Application
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 308, par. 1
434. In myocardial infarction where a major coronary artery is occluded, ischemia results and
a lowered oxygen supply diminishes the amount of ATP available in the cell. This effect
on cellular energy is due to:
A. Release of enzymes
B. Lack of oxygen which slows down the mitochondrial electron transport chain
C. Inhibition of substrate level phosphorylation
D. Kind of occlusion
Application
Ref. Textbook of Biochemistry, 5th ed., Thomas Devlin, p. 591,
Clinical Correlation
435. The patient was diagnosed to be suffering from megaloblastic anemia. Results of urinary
tests showed 10 mg of formiminoglutamic acid (FIGLU), making the physician conclude
that the patient has folic acid deficiency. Which statement explains the diagnosis given?
A. Megaloblastic anemia is a unique feature of folic acid deficiency
B. Transfer of formimino group of histidine to tetrahydrofolate does not take place
and figlu is excreted
C. Figlu is a metabolite of folate
D. One carbon compounds are carried by folic acid
Application
Ref. Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th ed., p. 254 par. 6
41
D. A non-heme protein
MPL = 0.5 page: 40
447. This is the process of forming glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors like lactate,
amino acids and glycerol:
A. glycolysis
B. gluconeogenesis
C. glycogenesis
D. cori cycle
MPL= 0.5 p. 133
448. Muscles glycogen cannot contribute directly to plasma glucose because it lacks this
enzyme:
42
A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
B. Phosphoglucomutase
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase
D. Glucokinase
MPL=0.75 p. 142
449. Nearly all products of digestion of carbohydrates, fats and proteins are metabolized to
what common metabolite?
A. Acetyl CoA
B. pyruvate
C. Glucose-6-phosphate
D. lactate
MPL=0.5 144
450. It is referred to as the final common pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrates, lipids and
proteins:
A. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Glucuronic acid pathway
D. Citric acid cycle
MPL=1.0 p. 145
451. These two amino acids yield only Acetyl CoA on oxidation, and hence cannot be used for
gluconeogenesis:
A. Glycine and Lysine
B. Lysine and leucine
C. Valine and Leucine
D. Proline and Glycine
MPL=0.5 p. 139
453. A major role of this vitamin is in the control of cell differentiation and turnover:
A. Vit A
B. Vit C
C. Vit E
D. Vit D
MPL=0.75 p. 491
455. What is the most important function of lipid in the adipose tissue and around internal
organs?
A. as electrical insulator
B. as thermal insulator
C. as source of energy
D. for lipid transport
MPL:75% p. 121
456. Which among the following is a complex lipid composed of fatty acid and shingosine and
carbohydrate?
A. fats
B. oil
C. phospholipids
D. glycolipids
MPL:50% p. 121
43
B. Hydroxylation
C. Dehydrogenation
D. Oxidation
MPL:50% p. 123
44
A. Fa,b
B. The antigen determinant site
C. The N-terminal of both the light and the heavy chain
D. The hypervariable regions of both the L and H chains
MPL:0.5 p. 601
471. The C-reactive protein is so called as such, because it binds with the _________,
of Pnuemococci, haptoglobin, α, acid glycoproteises:
A. C-monomers
B. C-dimers
C. C-polypeptides
D. C-polysaccharides
MPL:0.25 p. 590
473. The most potent activator of platelet aggregation in thrombus formation is:
A. Collagen
B. TXA
C. ADP
D. fibrinogen
MPL:0.25 p.; 609
45
MPL:0.5 p. 49
480. Enzymes that are activated through covalent modification usually involved
75
phosphorylation of this amino acid residue in the active site.
A. phenylalanine
B. tryptophan
C. lysine
D. serine
MPL:0.5 p. 75
481. Carbon monoxide from vehicle exhaust inhibit mitochondrial ATP production by,
A. decreasing overall potential of the electron transport chain
B. uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation
C. disturbing proton gradient across intermembranous space and matrix
D. binding to cytochrome oxidase
484. Which of the following is responsible for the polarity of a strand of nucleic acid?
A. acid
B. base
C. sugar
D. phosphate
486. What is the bond that links nucleotides together to form a strand of nucleic acid?
A. glycosidic bond
B. phosphodiester bond
C. phosphoester bond
D. hydrogen bond
487. Which vitamin in the diet is required for de novo pathway of adenosine monophosphate
synthesis and whose deficiency may lead to purine deficiency, a rare disease in humans?
A. folic acid
B. nicotinic acid
C. pantothenic acid
D. vitamin C
46
C. Lipoxygenase pathway
D. Kreb’s citric acid cycle
491. Glycerol phosphate, the backbone of TAG, is synthesized in adipose tissue by:
A. phosphorylation of glycerol by glycerol kinase
B. phosphorylation of diacylglycerol
C. reduction of dihydroxyacetone phosphate
D. glycerol dehydrogenase
492. Which of the following is not true of the beta-oxidation of palmitic acid?
A. occurs in the matrix of mitochondria
B. two oxidation steps generate 5 mols of ATP per cycle
C. cleavage reaction occurs between the beta and gamma carbons
D. the cell conserves 129 moles ATP per mole of palmitic acid
494. This hormone is synthesized and released immediately in its final form:
A. aldosterone
B. insulin
C. T3
D. DHT
MPL:1.0
498. Which of the following disaccharides is best suited to provide the structural sugars?:
A. Sucrose
B. Lactose
C. Mannose
D. Cellubiose
501. Which of the following backbone will make the lipid saponifiable ?:
A. Isoprene nucleus
B. Steroid nucleus
C. Sphingosine
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D. Prostanoic acid
502. The presence of which fatty acid will make the membrane more fluid:
A. Myristic
B. Palmitic
C. Stearic
D. Lignoceric
48
A. Acetyl CoA
B. Citric acid
C. Glucose 6 phosphate
D. Pyruvate
516. This metabolite leads to the production of NAD in Embden Meyerhoff pathway:
A. Acetyl CoA
B. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
C. Lactic acid
D. Pyruvate
521. In beta oxidation, for every break of an ester bond (saturated) this much amount of ATP
is generated:
A. 23
B. 3
C. 5
D. 12
522. In fasting and starvation the level of these metabolites are increased:
A. Oxysteroid
B. Ketone bodies
C. Thyroxine
D. Insulin
523. Arachidonic acid deficiency usually do not occur because of this enzyme:
A. Polymerase
B. Kinase
C. Desaturase
D. Ligase
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C. Vanillyl mandylic acid
D. Paraamino hippuric acid
530. Which of these enzyme deficiency produces abdominal pain with out skin manifestation?:
A. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
B. Uroporphyrin synthase
C. Ferrochelatase
D. Pyrollase
A. Ligase
B. Polymerase
C. Exonuclease
D. Kinase
536. A very anxious student hyperventilates an hour before the biochemistry board exam.
What is the effect of hyperventilation on his Pco 2 and blood pH?
A. Pco2 decreases and pH increases.
B. Pco2 decreases and pH decreases.
C. Pco2 increases and pH decreases.
D. Pco2 increases and pH increases.
Ans. A
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. Pp. 18-19
MPL: 0.25
537. A protein rich in which of the following amino acids will provide the greatest buffering
capacity at physiologic pH?
A. Valine
B. Aspartic acid
C. Lysine
D. Histidine
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Ans. D
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.26
MPL: 0.75
538. Which of the following laboratory results would best indicate metabolic alkalosis?
A. Increased Pco2, increased pH, increased HCO3.
B. Normal Pco2, increased pH, decreased HCO3.
C. Increased Pco2, increased pH, normal HCO3.
D. Decreased Pco2, increased pH, normal HCO3.
Ans. A
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.304
MPL: 0.75
539. What is the property of water that will contribute the most to its ability to dissolve
compounds?
A. Very few interactive forces in its structure.
B. Hydrogen bond formation between water and long-chain fatty acids.
C. Covalent bond formation between salt and water.
D. Hydrogen bond formation between water and biochemical molecules.
Ans. D
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.15-17
MPL: 0.75
540. A 3-year old child is diagnosed to have Hurler’s syndrome. The diagnosis of Hurler’s
syndrome is MOST efficiently made by analyzing the patient’s DNA for:
A. A region of DNA that does not encode RNA.
B. Alternative forms of the L-Iduronidase gene.
C. The entire set of genes in one leukocyte.
D. A nucleotide substitution in the L-Iduronidase gene.
Ans. B
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 678
MPL: 0.25
541. Which of the following statements regarding a double-helical molecule of DNA is TRUE?
A. All hydroxyl groups of pentoses are involved in linkages.
B. Bases are perpendicular to the axis.
C. Each strand is identical.
D. Each strand replicates itself.
Ans. B
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.386
MPL: 0.75
542. A newborn baby has a sibling with sickle cell anemia and is at risk for this disease. The
appropriate diagnostic test for sickle cell anemia in this baby would include which of the
following?
A. DNA amplification
B. Hemoglobin antibodies
C. Red cell counting
D. DNA fingerprinting
Ans. A
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 468
MPL: 0.25
Ans. D
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 476
MPL: 0.25
544. What is that process that occurs at the 5-position of Cytidine and is often correlated with
gene inactivation?
A. Gene conversion
B. Sister chromatid exchange
C. Gene rearrangement
D. DNA methylation
Ans. D
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.466
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MPL: 0.75
545. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) analysis can only be used to follow
the inheritance of a genetic disease if:
A. The disease-causing mutation is at or closely linked to an altered
restriction site.
B. Proteins of mutated and normal genes migrate differently upon gel
electrophoresis.
C. Mutations are outside restriction sites so that cleaving still occurs.
D. mRNA probes are used in combination with antibodies.
Ans. A
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 478
MPL: 0.25
546. The chromosomes of mammalian cells are 20 times as large as those of Escherichia coli.
How can replication of mammalian chromosomes be carried out in just a few minutes?
A. The higher temperature of mammalian cells allows for an exponentially higher
replication rate.
B. Hundreds of replication forks work simultaneously on each piece of
chromosomal DNA.
C. Many RNA polymerases carry out replication simultaneously on chromosomal
DNA.
D. The presence of histones speeds up the rate of chromosomal DNA replication.
Ans. B
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 407
MPL: 0.75
547. Following ultraviolet damage to DNA in the skin, which of the following is MOST likely to
occur?
A. A specific nuclease detects damaged areas.
B. Purine dimmers are formed.
C. Both strands are cleaved.
D. Endonuclease removes the damaged strand.
548. Which of the following statements about the genetic code is the MOST accurate?
A. Information is stored as sets of dinucleotide repeats called codons.
B. The code is degenerate.
C. There are 64 codons, all of which code for amino acids.
D. Information is stored as sets of trinucleotide repeats called codons.
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552. The consensus sequence 5’-TATAAAA-3’ found ineukaryotic genes is almost similar to a
consensus sequence observed in prokaryotes. The consensus sequence is important as
the:
A. Only site of binding of RNA polymerase II.
B. Promoter site for all RNA polymerases.
C. Termination site for RNA polymerase II.
D. First site of binding of a transcription factor for RNA polymerase II.
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. pp. 421-422
MPL: 0.75
553. The so-called “caps” of RNA molecules:
A. Allow tRNA to be processed.
B. Occur at the 3’-end of tRNA.
C. Are composed of poly A.
D. Are unique to eukaryotic mRNA.
554. In bacterial RNA synthesis, what is the function of the “rho” factor?
A. It binds catabolite repressor to the promoter region.
B. It increases the rate of RNA synthesis.
C. It eliminates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
D. It participates in the proper termination of transcription.
555. Which of the following statements correctly describes the nucleolus of a mammalian cell?
A. It differs from that found in bacterial cells in that histones are present.
B. It may contain hundreds of copies of genes for different types of ribosomal
RNAs.
C. It synthesizes 5S rRNA.
D. It synthesizes all ribosomal RNA primary transcripts.
556. Which of the following statements correctly describes the synthesis of mammalian
mRNA?
A. Each mRNA often encodes several different proteins.
B. Several different genes may produce identical mRNA molecules.
C. Mammalian mRNA undergoes minimal modification during its maturation.
D. The RNA sequence transcribed from a gene is identical to the mRNA that exits
from nucleus to cytoplasm.
557. Certain amino acids are not part of the primary structure of proteins but are modified after
translation. In scurvy, which amino acid that is normally part of collagen is not
synthesized?
A. Hydroxytryptophan
B. Hydroxytyrosine
C. Hydroxyhistidine
D. Hydroxyproline
559. Which of the following proteolytic enzymes is activated by acid hydrolysis of the
proenzyme form?
A. Trypsin
B. Elastase
C. Pepsin
53
D. Carboxypeptidase
561. The oxygen carrier of muscle is the globular protein myoglobin. Which of the following
amino acids is highly likely to be localized within the interior of the molecule?
A. Arginine
B. Aspartic acid
C. Glutamic acid
D. Valine
563. Under normal conditions in the blood, which of the following amino acid residues of
albumin is neutral?
A. Arginine
B. Aspartate
C. Glutamine
D. Histidine
564. Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in a diet of strict
vegetarians?
A. Amylose
B. Lactose
C. Cellulose
D. Glycogen
565. The major metabolic product under normal circumstances by erythrocytes and by muscle
cells during intense exercise is recycled through the liver in the Cori cycle. The metabolite
is:
A. Oxaloacetate
B. Glycerol
C. Alanine
D. Lactate
566. Following a fad diet of skimmed milk and yogurt, an adult female patient experiences
abdominal distention, nausea, cramping, and pain followed by watery diarrhea. This set
of symptoms is observed each time the said meal is consumed. A most likely diagnosis
is:
A. Steatorrhea
B. Lactase deficiency
C. Sialidase deficiency
D. Lipoprotein deficiency
54
567. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the high-energy phosphorylation of substrates
during glycolysis?
A. Pyruvate kinase
B. Phosphoglycerate kinase
C. Triosephosphate isomerase
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
568. Which of the following enzymes is common to both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
A. Pyruvate carboxylase
B. Hexokinase
C. Phosphoglycerate kinase
D. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
569. During the first week of a diet of 1500 calories per day, the oxidation of glucose via
glycolysis in the liver of a normal 59-kg woman is inhibited by the lowering of which of the
following?
A. Citrate
B. ATP
C. Ketone bodies
D. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
571. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes phosphorylation with the use of inorganic
phosphate?
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Phosphoglycerate kinase
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
572. After a well-rounded breakfast, which of the following would be expected to occur?
A. Increased activity of pyruvate carboxylase
B. Decreased activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase
C. Decreased rate of glycogenesis
D. Decreased rate of protein synthesis
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D. The plot of percentage of oxygen bound versus oxygen pressure is
sigmoid in shape
575. Which of the following mutations would produce a severe form of thalassemia?
A. Deletion of one α-globin locus
B. Deletion of one β-globin locus
C. Oxidation of heme groups to produce methemoglobin
D. Altered RNA processing at both
576. An increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen may result from which of the following?
A. Initial binding of oxygen to one of the four sites available in each
deoxyhemoglobin molecule
B. High pH
C. High carbon dioxide levels
D. High 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate levels within erthrocytes
577. The functions of many enzymes, membrane transporters, and other proteins can be
quickly activated or deactivated by phosphorylation of specific amino acid residues
catalyzed by enzymes called:
A. Cyclases
B. Kinases
C. Phosphatases
D. Proteases
579. In the study of enzymes, the sigmoidal plot of substrate concentration versus reaction
velocity may indicate:
A. Michaelis-Menten Kinetics
B. Myoglobin binding oxygen
C. Cooperative binding
D. Competitive inhibition
582. Which of the following enzymes is regulated primarily through allosteric interaction?
A. Chymotrypsin
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
56
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Aspartate transcarbamoylase
584. Which of the following compounds is a member of the electron transport chain?
A. Octanoyl carnitine
B. Cytochrome c
C. NADH
D. Palmitoyl carnitine
585. All known effects of cyclic AMP in eukaryotic cells result from:
A. Activation of the catalytic unit of adenylate cyclase
B. Activation of synthetases
C. Activation of protein kinase
D. Stimulation of calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum
586. The connection between oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport is BEST
described by:
A. Existence of higher pH in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum than in the
cytosol.
B. Synthesis of ATP as protons into the mitochondrial matrix along a proton
gradient that exist across the inner mitochondrial membrane
C. Dissociation of electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation
D. Absence of ATPase in the inner mitochondrial membrane
587. If all potential sources of ATP production are taken into account, the net number of ATP
molecules formed per molecule of glucose in aerobic glycolysis is:
A. 2
B. 6
C. 18
D. 36
589. Which of the following products of triacylglycerol breakdown and subsequent β-oxidation
may undergo gluconeogenesis?
A. Propionyl CoA
B. Acetyl CoA
C. All ketone bodies
D. Some amino acids
57
590. Inhibition of ATP synthesis during oxidative phosphorylation by oligomycin is thought to
be due to:
A. Blocking of the proton gradient between NADH-Q reductase & QH 2
B. Blocking of the proton gradient between cytochrome C1 and cytochrome C
C. Dissociation of cytochrome c from mitochondrial membranes
D. Inhibition of mitochondrial ATPase
595. The important receive group of glutathione in its role as antioxidant is:
A. Serine
B. Sulfhydryl
C. Tyrosine
D. Acetyl CoA
596. A newborn develops jaundice that requires laboratory evaluation. Which of the following
porphyrin derivatives is conjugated, reacts directly, and is a major component of bile?
A. Stercobilin
B. Biliverdin
C. Bilirubin
D. Bilirubin diglucuronide
597. Which of the following poryphrins give stools their characteristic brown color?
A. Biliverdin
B. Urobilinogen
C. Heme
D. Stercobilin
58
A. Phosphatidyl serine
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Phosphatidyl glycerol
D. Phosphatidyl choline
599. Humans MOST easily tolerate a lack of which of the following nutrients?
A. Protein
B. Iodine
C. Carbohydrate
D. Lipid
601. Which of the following vitaminswould MOST likely become deficient in a person who
develops a completely carnivorous lifestyle?
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Cobalamin
D. Vitamin C
604. A 3 month old boy presents with poor feeding & growth, hypotonia, lactic acidemia, and
mild acidosis. The pyruvate to lactate ratio is high, and there is decreased conversion of
pyruvate to Acetyl CoA. Which of the following may be considered for therapy?
A. Thiamine
B. FFA
C. Biotin
D. Vitamin C
605. A 2-year old child presents with cough and bronchitis, growth failure, & chronic diarrhea
with light-colored foul smelling stools. A deficiency of which vitamin should be
considered?
A. Vit B6
B. Vit C
C. Vit A
D. Vit B1
59
606. An infant presents with prominent forehead, bowing of the limbs, broad & tender wrists,
swelling at the costochondral junction of the ribs, and irritability. Which of the following
treatments is the most appropriate for this patient?
A. Removal of eggs from diet
B. Milk & Sunlight exposure
C. Diet of baby food containing liver & ground beef
D. Diet of baby food containing leafy vegetables
607. Allopurinol effectively treats gout but has NO effect on the severe neurological symptoms
of Lesch-Nyhan patients because it does not:
A. Decrease de Novo purine synthesis
B. Decrease de Novo Pyrimidine syntheis
C. Inhibit xanthine oxidase
D. Increase PRPP levels
609. Which of the following contributes nitrogen atom to both purine & pyrimidine rings?
A. Aspartate
B. Carbonage PO4
C. CO2
D. None of the above
610. What is the end product of fatty acid synthase activity in human?
A. Palmitic acid
B. Palmetoleic acid
C. Linoleic
D. Arachidonic acid
611. For every 2 moles of free glycerol released by lipolysis of triglycerides in adipose tissue?
A. 1 mole of glucose can be synthesized via gluconeogenesis
B. 2 moles of triacrylglyceride is released
C. 2 moles of FFA is released
D. 3 moles of Acyl CoA is produced
612. A 45 year old man ha s a mild heart attack and is placed on diet and Mevastatin therapy.
Which of the following will result in this therapy?
A. Low blood glucose level
B. Low blood LDLs
C. High blood cholesterol
D. Low oxidation of Fa
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