CSWIP 3.

1 (SET-1) EXAM - 1
GENERAL & TECHNOLOGY – 65 (MCQ’s)
(Please Don’t Mark your Answers on this Sheet)
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1. In 10% contractual percentage of RT, if one test failed then two more joints need to take
RT as penalty. In penalty one joint is failed then, what will you do?
a. No action as 10% contract over
b. Ask for increase in the payment for extra RT% joints
c. In two penalty one joint is acceptable so accept it
d. None of the above
2. ISO 1011
a. Pre-Heat requirements
b. Welder qualification
c. Welding procedure qualification
d. NDT requirements
3. Open corner joint
a. Always Butt weld
b. Always fillet weld
c. Compound weld
d. Butt & Fillet weld
4. Difference between code and standard
a. Standards are derived from codes
b. Codes are mandatory
c. Codes are for products only
d. Codes are derived from standards
5. Burn-through is caused by
a. Excess root face
b. Excess included angle
c. Small root face
d. Excess root gap
6. In a cross country pipe line for 10mm thick pipe, which electrode is used?
a. E6011
b. E6013
c. E6017
d. E6019
7. Stabilized steels used to reduce the risk of
a. Decrease carbon content
b. Loss of chromium carbide formation along the grain boundary
c. Increase the iron carbide formation along the grain boundary
d. Increase the chromium carbide formation along the grain boundary

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 8. Oxy-fuel cutting process
a. Conventional chemical reaction
b. Endothermic chemical reaction
c. Exothermic chemical reaction
d. Conventional radiation
9. Which of the following is a fusion welding process
a. ESW
b. EBW
c. Laser welding
d. All of the above
10. Which of the following is a solid-state welding process
a. Resistance-spot welding
b. Friction welding
c. Explosion welding
d. All of the above
11. Which of the following is a Non-fusion welding process
a. Thermit welding
b. Electron beam welding
c. Plasma welding
d. None of the above
12. Preheat
a. Increases hardness
b. Yield strength increases
c. Tensile strength increases & Moisture removed
d. Toughness decreases
13. In E 43 3 B…., 3 stands for
a. Hardness
b. Toughness
c. Strength
d. Ductility
14. As per BS EN 2560. Electrode classified as “B E 43 0 1Ni RR.., then ‘B’ & ‘RR’ indicates
a. Tensile strength & type of coating
b. Yield strength & type of coating
c. Metal recovery & polarity
d. Polarity & type of coating
15. Which of the following is true
a. Carbon has greatest effect on hardness
b. Carbon has greatest effect on toughness
c. Manganese has greatest effect on hardness
d. Carbon has no effect on harndess

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 16. Copper alloys should not be welded with
a. GTAW
b. SAW
c. MAG
d. All of the above
17. Excess penetration is due to
a. Wrong Bevel angle
b. Wrong pre-heat
c. Excess root-face
d. Excess root grinding
18. Production welders are
a. Appointed by welding engineers
b. Experienced welders
c. Qualified welders
d. Selected by welding inspectors
19. Tack weld size & length is
a. Important
b. Chosen based on thickness & type of material
c. Pre-heat may be required
d. All of the above
20. Is it necessary for welding inspector to check the polarity before welding?
a. No, welder will check
b. Yes, need to inspect if penetration is considered
c. Yes, need to inspect without any consideration
d. No need to inspect by anybody
21. Excess root penetration will be caused by
a. Wrong consumable
b. Wrong polarity
c. Excess root gap
d. All of the above
22. What will you do if deposition rate is to be increase in GMAW process, change polarity
a. DCEP to DCEN
b. DCEP to ACEN
c. DCEN to DCEP
d. ACEP to DCEN
23. If heat input increases
a. Grain growth rate increases
b. A large course grain will come
c. Grain growth decreases
d. All of the above

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 24. A steel made of Z-Grade means
a. STRA > 20%
b. Good through thickness ductility
c. Poor through thickness ductility
d. Both A & B
25. BS EN ISO 1011
a. The standard deals with welding imperfections
b. The standard deals with Pre-heat requirements
c. The standard deals with Visual inspection
d. None of the above
26. Which of the following is ODD one
a. Under bead crack
b. HAZ crack
c. Toe crack
d. Hot crack
27. Which of the following will cause weld pool contamination
a. High current
b. Slope up
c. Slope out
d. Opposite to ‘a’
28. In GTAW if gas flow rate is slow then it may cause
a. Weld pool contamination
b. Porosity
c. Lack of fusion
d. Both A & B
29. In SAW using Tandem electrode system
a. AC is used to avoid Arc blow
b. DCEP is used for Lead Arc
c. Polarity will be same for both electrodes
d. Both A & B
30. A transition range is
a. Between Pre-Heat & interpass temperature
b. A plot in charpy-V notch test
c. A point in tensile test
d. Average of Hardness values
31. In MMA welding for PE position the type of electrode suitable is
a. Cellulose
b. Iron powder
c. Rutile
d. Basic

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 32. Ductile fracture
a. Necking
b. Flat surface
c. Smooth surface
d. Surface appearance will not decide type of fracture
33. Elementary welding symbol a groove with a straight line bond
a. Broad root face
b. Broad root gap
c. Narrow root face
d. Narrow root gap
34. If you found lot of porosity in weld during visual inspection on-site. So, what will you
inspect immediately
a. Welder certificate validity
b. WPS
c. Electrode storage
d. Electrode Manufacturer certificate
35. In cross country pipeline, hot pass is to be done with basic electrode to avoid crack.
Which gas leads to cracking?
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon di-oxide
c. Hydrogen
d. Any Gas
36. Distortion in thin long run plates welding is reduced by
a. Balanced welding
b. Stiffeners
c. Back-step welding
d. All of the above
37. Back purging is to avoid
a. Cracks
b. Oxidation
c. Porosity
d. Fatigue cracking
38. Half-life
a. Isotope penetration reduce by half
b. Isotope time reduce half of its full life
c. Isotope densitometer reduce half
d. Isotope sensitivity reduce half

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 39. Half-life period of ytterbium 169, iridium 192, thulium 90 & cobalt 60 is
a. 32 days, 74 days, 128 days, 5.3 Years
b. 74 days, 32 days, 5.3 Years, 128 days
c. 128 Years, 74 days, 128 days, 32 days
d. 5.2 Years, 74 days, 32 days, 128 days
40. Penetrating power of Isotopes
a. Thulium <7mm, ytterbium <12mm, iridium 10 – 75mm, cobalt 40 – 150mm
b. Thulium <12mm, ytterbium <7mm, iridium 40 – 75mm, cobalt 10 – 15mm
c. Thulium <7mm, ytterbium <12mm, iridium 40 – 175mm, cobalt 10 – 75mm
d. Thulium 10 - 75mm, ytterbium 40 – 150mm, iridium <10mm, cobalt <7mm
41. If you are inspecting contractors welding work and you find the material specified in
WPS and Welding material is different then
a. Proceed welding & Re-qualify WPS as soon as possible
b. Report to the QC Manager
c. Ask client for confirmation or concession
d. Stop welding immediately
42. You have noticed several times that a certain welder is making poor weld profile so
welds are rejected during visual inspection. Then welder should be
a. Dis-qualified
b. Suggest a period of retraining followed by re-qualification
c. Continue welder, as long as they pass radiography
d. Insist QC manager to issue warning letter
43. On shop floor you observe that low hydrogen electrodes are being used with portable
ovens which are long back baked. What will be the most likely problem
a. HIC
b. Slag inclusions
c. Porosity
d. Undercut
44. Back gouging is done to ensure sound weld metal in the root run. How will you ensure
a. By Visual inspection
b. By Ultrasonic Testing
c. By Dye penetrant Testing
d. By Radiography Testing
45. Essential variable
a. if changed beyond will effect mechanical properties
b. May need to re-qualify WPS
c. Will not affect chemical composition
d. All of the above

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 46. Tensile test is considered as
a. Fatigue failure
b. Ductile failure
c. Cyclic load failure
d. Stress corrosion failure
47. HICC occurs
a. At a specified time
b. All of a sudden
c. During welding
d. After Post heating
48. Radiography cannot reveal
a. Length of the defect
b. Depth of the defect
c. Type of the defect
d. Location of the defect
49. When DWDI is used in RT
a. Based on material type
b. Based on Thickness of material
c. Based on size of pipe
d. Based on type of Isotope
50. What are the similarities between BS EN 22553 & AWS 2.4
a. Both have same rule for depicting the other side
b. Both have same rule for depicting all around weld
c. Both have same rule for depicting sequence of operation
d. Both have same rule for depicting welding process
51. Which of the following defect is serious
a. Porosity
b. Undercut
c. Under fill
d. Excess weld metal
52. Autogenous welding cannot be done with
a. GTAW
b. EBW
c. Plasma
d. SAW
53. Curie temperature
a. 550°C
b. 650°C
c. 750°C
d. 850°C

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 54. Who should have access to WPQR
a. Welder
b. Welding inspector
c. Welding engineer
d. All of the above
55. The structure termed martensitic will form when material heated
a. Just below its lower critical temperature & rapidly cooled
b. A maximum temperature of 550C then rapidly cooled
c. Above its upper critical temperature & slowly cooled
d. To transform fully austenitic and then rapidly cooled
56. How long the welder certificate is valid
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. Valid forever, if welder making welds without defects
57. As per BS EN 287, welder is qualified in all positions if he qualifies in
a. H-L 045
b. J-L 045
c. PE
d. PF
58. Weaving technique is used in which position
a. PF
b. PG
c. PE
d. All of the above
59. Compound weld
a. Two different type of welds in a joint
b. Same type of weld in different position
c. Fillet welds in T-Joint with different leg lengths
d. All of the above
60. Austenitic stainless steels has
a. High thermal conductivity & Low thermal expansion
b. Low thermal conductivity & Low thermal expansion
c. High thermal expansion & Low thermal conductivity
d. Low thermal expansion & Low thermal conductivity
61. Line heating is used for correcting
a. Buckling in plate
b. Angular distortion in plate
c. To straighten the plate
d. Bowing in plate

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 62. A welder is qualified in PF then he is also qualified in J-L045 ?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes only with same welding process
d. None of the above
63. Carbon will not effect
a. Hardness
b. Toughness
c. Corrosion
d. Both B & C
64. SAW uses which characteristics
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Flat
d. Drooping
65. Cold Shortness
a. Sulphur
b. Phosphorus
c. Carbon
d. High restraint

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 KEY for EXAM – 1

1. D 41. D
2. A 42. C
3. B 43. C
4. D 44. C
5. D 45. D
6. A 46. B
7. D 47. A
8. C 48. B
9. D 49. C
10. D 50. B
11. D 51. C
12. D 52. D
13. B 53. B
14. A 54. C
15. A 55. D
16. C 56. C
17. D 57. B
18. C 58. A
19. D 59. A
20. C 60. C
21. D 61. B
22. A 62. B
23. B 63. D
24. D 64. C
25. B 65. B
26. D
27. A
28. D
29. D
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. B
38. B
39. A
40. A

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