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IAS P.T.

TEST SERIES - 2014


SET NO: 06
By S.K. Mishra, IAS (Retd.) & Manoj K. Jha

ENVIRONMENT, RESOURCES & BIODIVERSITY


Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SET NUMBER IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test Booklet in
the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else
on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong
answer.
5. In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question(s) or the Responses; a written representation
explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Question
No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within
time shall not be entertained at all.
6. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
7. All items carry equal marks.
8. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a question which is
left blank.
9. Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet, the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admit Card and
Instructions.
10. While writing Name and Roll No. on the top of the Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use "ONLY
BLACK BALL POINT PEN".
11. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you
the Test Booklet.

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1. Consider the following statements about the 4. Consider the following statements.
draft Municipal Solid Waste (management and 1. Australia has largest gold reserve in the
handling) rules 2013? world.
1. Municipal bodies shall develop the 2. Australia is also the largest producer of gold
necessary infrastructure for collection,
in the world.
storage, segregation, transportation,
3. India is the largest consumer of gold in the

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processing and disposal of municipal solid
waste directly not engaging other agencies. world.
2. The new rules also make it mandatory for
Which of the statements given above are

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the municipal authority to prepare solid
correct?
waste management plan as per the policy
of the state government. (a) Only 1 & 2
3. It will become mandatory for the (b) Only 2 & 3
municipalities in the state to develop (c) Only 1 & 3
landfills. (d) All of the above

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Select the correct code: 5. Consider the following statements.
(a) Only 1 & 2
1. A biodiversity hotspot is a region with a
(b) Only 2 & 3 high number of endemic species.
(c) Only 1 & 3 2. The concept of biodiversity hotspots was
(d) All of the above originated by Norman Myers.
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2. Consider the following statements about PEACE 3. Hotspots are formally recognised or
(Promoting Energy Access through Clean governed areas.
Energy) initiative.
Which of the statements given above are
1. It is a joint initiative of India and USA.
correct?
2. It focuses on sharing best practices and
(a) Only 1 & 2
institutional and other approaches.
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(b) Only 2 & 3


3. "PEACE setter fund" will be established
under the initiative. (c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
Which of the statements given above is/are
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correct? 6. Consider the following statements about Basel


(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 Convention?
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above 1. It is an international treaty that was
designed to reduce the movements of
3. Consider the following statements about hazardous waste between nations.
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Temperate Deciduous Forests.


2. It specifically focuses on to prevent transfer
1. These are found in the north eastern part
of hazardous waste from developed to less
of USA, China, New Zealand, Chile and
developed countries (LDCs).
also found in the coastal regions of Western
Europe. 3. It also addresses the movement of
2. They shed their leaves in the winter season. radioactive waste between different
nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 (a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Both 1 & 2 (c) Only 1 & 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All of the above

2 IAS TEST SERIES 2014


7. Consider the following statements about the 10. GHGs are beneficial for the human existence as
"National Mission for a Green India": without it the earth would have been cooler,
1. To regenerate at least 4 million ha of and far too cold for life to exist. But few GHGs
degraded forest. are generated only through anthropogenic
activities such as:
2. Increase density of forest cover on 2 million
ha of moderately dense forest 1. Methane

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3. Overall increase the density of forest and 2. Nitrous oxide
tree cover on 10 million ha of forest, waste, 3. Sulfur hexafluoride
and community lands 4. Perfluorocarbons

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Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the facts given above are correct?
correct? (a) Only 2, 3 & 4 (b) Only 1, 2 & 3
(a) Only 1 (c) Only 3 & 4 (d) Only 1 & 4
(b) Only 1 & 2
11. Consider the following statements about

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(c) Only 1 & 3
Stockholm Convention.
(d) All of the above
1. This Convention aims to eliminate or restrict
8. Recently a combination of bio-ozolyte treatment the production and use of persistent organic
process and bio-remediation has been used to pollutants (POPs).
recover polluted water bodies by the 2. POPs are defined as chemical substances
government to save the Ooty Lake. What does that persist in the environment, but do not
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the term bioremediation implies? bio-accumulate through the food web.
1. Bioremediation is a process that uses micro- 3. Convention has listed the chemicals in three
organisms or their enzymes to return the categories of A-Elimination, B-Restriction
environment altered by contaminants to its and C-Unintentional Production.
original condition. 4. The United States and Israel have not
2. When used in water bodies, it increases the ratified the Convention.
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dissolved oxygen (DO), by bringing down


Which of the statements given above are
the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and
correct?
chemical oxygen demand (COD).
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 2, 3 & 4
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Only 1, 3 & 4 (d) All of the above
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correct?
12. Consider the following statements about the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
various programmes and activities initiated by
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Bureau of Energy Efficiency:
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9. Consider these statements. 1. GOI has launched the Perform, Achieve


and Trade Scheme to enhance energy
1. Solar radiation management involves
efficiency in large energy-intensive
processes which can reflect sunlight back
industries and facilities.
and thus reduce global warming.
2. The Bachat Lamp Yojana under the Clean
2. Creation of stratospheric sulphur aerosols
Development Mechanism (CDM) of
is a part of solar radiation management.
UNFCCC as a public initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The initiatives are applicable to public
correct? industries only.
(a) Only 1 Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only 2 correct?
(c) Both 1 & 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only 2 & 3 (d) All of the above
IAS TEST SERIES 2014 3
13. Consider the following statements related to 16. Consider the following statements related to the
Indian Rhinos Vision 2020: benefits of artificial recharge:
1. The goal of IRV 2020 is to increase the total 1. Aquifer water can be improved by
rhino population in Assam from 2,000 to recharging with high quality injected water.
3,000 by the year 2020 2. Recharge can significantly increase the
2. Pabitora National Park has the largest sustainable yield of an aquifer.

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number of one horned rhinos in the world 3. It is contamination free.
3. Kaziranga National Park has the highest Which of the statements given above are
density of rhinos in the world.

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correct?
4. Translocations of rhinos from source (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
populations in Kaziranga and Pabitora to (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
target areas such as Manas.
17. Consider the following statements about
Which of the statements given above are Ramsar Convention.
correct?

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1. The Ramsar Convention is an international
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 1 & 4 treaty for the conservation and sustainable
utilization of wetlands.
(c) Only 1, 2 & 3 (d) Only 2, 3 & 4
2. Under the convention definition of
14. Consider the following statements related to the wetlands include "areas of marine water
benefits of wetlands: the depth of which at low tide does not
exceed six meters" as well as fish ponds,
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1. It is storehouses of plant genetic material. rice paddies and salt pans.
2. It maintains watertables and nutrient 3. The nation with the highest number of sites
retention in floodplains under the convention is China.
3. It helps in controlling floods by trapping
Which of the statements given above are
suspended solids and nutrients to the lakes.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
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incorrect? (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above


(a) Only 1 18. A 'carbon footprint' is a measure of the
(b) Only 1 & 2 greenhouse gas emissions associated with an
activity, group of activities or a product. A
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(c) Only 2 & 3


carbon footprint is made up of the sum of two
(d) None of the above parts, the primary foot print and the secondary
footprint. Match the following activities with
15. Consider the following statements related to the
the correct form of carbon footprint.
approaches of environmental ethics:
List 1 List 2
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1. Anthropocentric approach states that


A. Burning of fossil fuels 1. Primary footprint
human has power to manipulate and use
B. Production of garbage 2. Secondary
nature for their own benefit.
footprint
2. Biocentric approach states that humans are C. Use of light bulbs at 3. Primary footprint
the 'stewards or caring managers'. homes
3. Ecocentric approach seeks respect for all D. Irrigation 4. Secondary
life and demands reverence towards the footprint
entire environment.
Select the correct code:
Which of the statements given above are (a) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1
correct? (b) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 (c) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above (d) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2
4 IAS TEST SERIES 2014
19. Study of pug marks can provide the certain 22. Match the following:
information such as: List A (Nutrients) List B (Polluting effect)
1. Presence of different species in the area of I. Nitrogen A. oxygen transportation
study. capacity of the blood
2. Population of large cats (tigers, lions etc.). decreases
3. Sex ratio of large cats. II. Ammonia B. Eutrophication

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4. It helps in determination of age also. III. Nitrate C. Blue Baby Syndrome
Which of the statements given above are IV. Cadmium D. kidney dysfunction

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correct?
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2, 3 & 4
(a) I-B; II-A; III-C; IV-D
(c) Only 1, 2 & 4 (d) All of the above
(b) I-A; II-B; III-C; IV-D
20. Kyoto protocol is one of the major protocols (c) I-B; II-D; III-A; IV-C
under the UNFCCC which has the aim to (d) I-D; II-B; III-C; IV-A

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contain emissions of the main greenhouse gases
(GHGs). Consider the following statements 23. Energy efficient towns may include:
about Kyoto protocol and select the correct
1. Use of CFL to reduce energy by 85%.
answer:
1. Protocol established legally binding 2. More use of public transportation
commitments to reduce emissions of 3. Recycling of business wastes.
greenhouse gases for Annex-I Parties.
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Which of the statements given above are
2. One of the main objectives is to minimize
correct?
Impacts of climate change in Developing
Countries by establishing an adaptation (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
fund for climate change. (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
3. The Protocol allows for several "flexible
mechanisms", such as emissions trading, 24. Which of the following are correct about the
the clean development mechanism (CDM) benefits of rainwater harvesting?
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and joint implementation to allow Annex I 1. It improves the quality of groundwater


countries to meet their GHG emission through the dilution of fluoride, nitrate, and
limitations by purchasing GHG emission salinity.
reductions credits from elsewhere.
2. Prevents soil erosion and flooding.
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4. First commitment period under the Kyoto


3. Reduce production of greenhouse gases
Protocol is 2008-2012.
4. Energy savings
Select the correc code:
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 1, 2 & 4 Select the correct code:
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(c) Only 2, 3 & 4 (d) All of the above (a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2, 3 & 4
21. Which of the following pair is/are incorrect? (c) Only 1, 3 & 4
1. National Afforestation and Eco-
(d) All of the above
Development Board - Ministry of
Environment and Forests 25. Why wind energy is called indirect solar energy?
2. National River Conservation Directorate - (a) The uneven absorption of the solar radiation
Ministry of Water Resources by the earth's surface causes flow of winds.
3. Central Ground Water Board - Ministry of
(b) The kinetic energy of the solar radiation
Environment and Forests
can be harnessed by converting it into
Select the correct code: mechanical energy or electrical energy.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 & 3 (c) Wind energy generate during sunlight only.
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above (d) None of the above.
IAS TEST SERIES 2014 5
26. Consider the following statements and mark 30. Consider the following statements.
the correct answer related to geothermal energy: 1. The Ganges shark is a critically endangered
1. It is the natural heat from the interior of species found in India.
the earth that is converted to heat building 2. Ganges River is the only habitat of Ganges
and generate electricity.
shark.
2. The minerals in the steam are toxic to fishes
3. Bull shark also inhabits the Ganges River.

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and also corrosive to the pipes and
equipments. Which of the statements given above are
correct?

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Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above

27. Which of the following industries could be 31. Consider the following statements about
negatively affected by global warming? Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.

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1. Insurance 1. The Biosafety Protocol seeks to protect
2. Food processing industry biological diversity from the potential risks
3. Wool industry posed by genetically modified organisms.
4. Alcoholic beverages and soft drinks 2. It is an international agreement on
biosafety, as a supplement to the
Select the correct code: Convention on Biological Diversity.
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(a) Only 2 & 3 (b) Only 2, 3 & 4 3. The Protocol applies to the transboundary
(c) Only 1 & 4 (d) All of the above movement, transit, handling and use of all
living modified organisms.
28. Consider the following statements about the
Chilka Lagoon: Which of the statements given above are
1. It is the largest wintering ground for correct?
migratory waterfowl. (a) Only 1 & 2
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2. It is spread over the Puri, Khurda and (b) Only 2 & 3


Ganjam districts of Andhra Pradesh.
(c) Only 1 & 3
3. It is the second largest coastal lagoon in
India after Vembanad. (d) All of the above
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Which of the statements given above are 32. Consider the following statements.
correct? 1. Elvira Rat is a critically endangered species
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 & 3 found only in India.
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above 2. Red-headed Vulture, also a critically
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endangered species, is mainly found in the


29. Which of the following has been identified as Indian Subcontinent.
Critically Endangered species in India according
to the Red Data Book of International Union 3. Leatherback sea turtle, the largest of all
for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)? living turtles is also a critically endangered
1. Himalayan Quail. species.
2. Pygmy hog. Which of the statements given above are
3. Sumatran rhinoceros. correct?
4. Andaman shrew (a) Only 1 & 2
Select the correct code: (b) Only 2 & 3
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 2, 3 & 4 (c) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 1, 3 & 4 (d) All of the above (d) All of the above

6 IAS TEST SERIES 2014


33. Consider the following statements about the 36. Consider the following statements about Bonn
Mangroves for the Future. Convention.
1. Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a 1. It aims to conserve terrestrial, marine and
partnership-based initiative promoting avian migratory species throughout their
investment in coastal ecosystems for range.
sustainable development. 2. Migratory species threatened with

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2. India has been a part of the Mangroves for extinction are listed on Appendix I of the
the Future regional initiative since 2006. Convention.
3. Mangroves for the Future promote only the 3. There were 119 Parties to the Convention

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development of mangroves. but countries like China, USA, and Russia
are not party to the convention.
Which of the statements given above are
incorrect? Which of the statements given above are
incorrect?
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 3 (d) All of the above

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(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) None of the above
34. Consider the following statements.
37. The carbon credits can also be traded on
1. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is exchanges like Carbon Trade Exchange, which
an important management tool for ensuring is like a stock exchange for carbon credits.
optimal use of natural resources for Which among the following are such
sustainable development. exchanges?
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2. EIA has now been made mandatory under 1. The European Climate Exchange.
the Environmental Protection Act, 1986 for 2. NASDAQ OMX Commodities Europe
all categories of developmental activities.
3. Commodity Exchange Bratislava.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct code:
correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
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(b) Only 1 & 3


(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2 & 3
35. Consider the following statements about the (d) All of the above
National Afforestation and Eco-Development
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38. Consider the following statements about GRIHA


Board (NAEB).
RATING System.
1. The National Afforestation and Eco-
1. Green Rating for Integrated Habitat
Development Board (NAEB) was set up in
Assessment (GRIHA) is India's national
1992.
rating system for Green buildings.
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2. NAEB is responsible for promoting


2. GRIHA rating system consists of 34 criteria
afforestation, tree planting, ecological
but does not include criteria such as Site
restoration and eco-development activities Selection and Site Planning.
in the country.
3. GRIHA is a 100 point system consisting of
3. NAEB does not cover national parks, some core points, which are mandatory,
sanctuaries and other protected areas. while the rest are optional.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2 (a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3 (b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3 (c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above

IAS TEST SERIES 2014 7


39. Consider the following statements. 42. Consider the following statements about the
1. Leadership in Energy and Environmental SAVE.
Design (LEED) is a set of rating systems for 1. Saving Asia's Vultures from Extinction
the design, construction, operation, and (SAVE) is a consortium of like-minded,
maintenance of green buildings only. regional and international organizations,
2. LEED is developed by the U.S. Green which helps in conservation of south Asia's

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Building Council (USGBC). vulture.
2. SAVE also focuses on creation of vulture
Which of the statements given above are safe zones, breeding centres and release

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correct? programmes.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 3. According to IUCN list vulture are
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 'critically endangered' species.

40. Consider the following statements about Asiatic Which of the statements given above are
wild dog or Indian wild dog. correct?

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1. Asiatic wild dog or Indian wild dog is also (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 1 & 3
called Dhole. (c) Only 2 & 3 (d) None of the above
2. Dhole has been classified as an endangered
43. Consider the following statements about the
species by the IUCN.
Mangroves.
3. Dholes are protected under Schedule 2 of
the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 under 1. Mangroves are various types of trees that
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which permission is required to kill any grow in saline coastal sediment habitats
individual. only in the tropics and subtropics.
2. Mangroves help in containing flood, store
Which of the statements given above are atmospheric carbon and contribute to the
incorrect? expansion of the land mass.
(a) Only 1 & 2 3. Mangroves can also survive in extreme low
(b) Only 2 & 3 and high temperatures.
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(c) Only 1 & 3


Which of the statements given above are
(d) None of the above correct?
41. Consider the following statements about the (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 1 & 3
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National Green Tribunal (NGT). (c) Only 2 & 3 (d) All of the above
1. The National Green Tribunal has been
44. Consider the following statements about the
established for effective and expeditious
Ecological Sensitive Area (ESA).
disposal of cases relating to environmental
1. It is a bio-climatic unit wherein human
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protection and conservation of forests and


other natural resources. impacts have locally caused irreversible
changes in the structure of biological
2. NGT does not have jurisdiction in cases of
communities and their natural habitats.
legal right relating to environment and
giving relief and compensation for damages 2. Protected areas in contrast to ESA, largely
to persons and property. focused on flagship species and their
habitats, leaves out small, unique habitats.
3. The Tribunal is mandated to make disposal
of applications or appeals finally within 6 3. ESA's may have Protected areas embedded
months of filing of the same. in them, of various extents.

Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above (c) Only 2 & 3 (d) All of the above
8 IAS TEST SERIES 2014
45. Consider the following. 48. Though renewable energy is clean resource, it
1. Central American Highland Forests has many environmental challenges. Consider
the following statements related to it:
2. Western Ghats
1. To set up solar array one square kilometer
3. Eastern Madagascar
of land is required to produce about 20-60
4. Temperate Andes MW.

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Which of the above has been identified as 2. Inundation of large areas of forests,
biodiversity hotspots by IUCN? farmlands due to creation of reservoir.
3. Nutrient laden sediments are trapped

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(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
behind the dam which leads to
(b) Only 1 & 2
eutrophication.
(c) Only 2, 3 & 4
(d) All of the above Which of the statements given above are
correct?
46. IUCN has classified the threatened species of (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3

as
plants and animals into three categories for the (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
purpose of their conservation. Which of the
following are correct in this context? 49. To improve the quality of air resource, Clean
1. Endangered Species includes those species Development Mechanism has been introduced.
which are in danger of extinction. Consider the following statements related to the
advantages of CDM:
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2. Vulnerable Species includes the species
which are likely to be in danger of 1. Provide credits to developing countries for
extinction in near future if the factors technology transfer.
threatening to their extinction continue. 2. The prices of credits are flexible as it crowds
3. Rare Species includes the species whose out legitimate projects.
population is very small in the world and 3. Benefit developed countries more as they
confined to limited areas. provide technological and environmental
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markets.
Select the correct code:
Which of the statements given above are
(a) Only 1 & 2
correct?
(b) Only 1 & 3
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
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(c) Only 2 & 3


(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) Only 2 & 3
(d) All of the above
50. The provision of Demand Side Management for
47. Consider the following statements. energy efficiency includes:
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1. Biomes are defined as contiguous areas with 1. Shifting from high energy intensive
different climatic conditions on the Earth. industries to high capital or labour intensive
2. Biomes are often identified with particular industries.
patterns of ecological succession. 2. Technology substitution
3. Biomes are of two types-terrestrial (land) 3. To shift demand from peak to off peak
biomes and aquatic biomes. interval at the load period.

Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2 (a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3 (b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3 (c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
IAS TEST SERIES 2014 9
51. Consider the following statements: fringes of the forest, who sustain their
1. A large gene pool indicates extensive livelihood partially or wholly from forest
genetic diversity. resources or products.
2. Low genetic diversity can increase chances 3. The first Reserve Forest Of India was
of extinction. Corbett National Park
3. Genetic drift can help, if population is 4. It is declared by respective State

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small, to save from extinction. governments.

Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are

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correct? correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2 (a) Only 2, 3 & 4
(b) Only 2 & 3 (b) Only 1, 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3 (c) Only 1, 3 & 4
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above

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52. What does the term "Green Road" signifies: 55. Consider the following statements related to the
major fishing grounds of the world:
(a) Roads are constructed using natural rubber
latex blended with asphalt emulsion. 1. The meeting of cold and warm currents in
the fishing grounds creates clear sky thus
(b) Sustainable development of roads without
sun rays penetrate more.
clearing of vast tracks of trees.
2. The best fishing grounds are found above
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(c) Use of cold mix technology for construction
continental shelves which are not more than
of roads.
200 metres below the water surface.
(d) Diesel is not used as a source of energy for
3. The meeting of cold and warm currents
construction of roads.
allows the water to be well aerated.
53. Bio-diesel is being used as a diesel additive to 4. Marine life is found to be best developed in
reduce vehicle emissions or in its pure form to oceans with a temperature above 20°C.
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run a vehicle. Consider the following statements


related to the properties of Bio-diesel: Select the correct code:
1. It has lower cetane ratings thus reduces (a) Only 1 & 4
fuel system wear. (b) Only 2 & 3
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2. It has a high boiling point and low vapour (c) Only 1, 2 & 4
pressure. (d) Only 1, 3 & 4
3. The flash point of biodiesel is higher than
the gasoline. 56. To reduce pollution from plastics, a new
biodegradable plastic known as Biopol, is
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Which of the statements given above are produced industrially, using starch and glucose
correct? from plants. The properties are:
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 1. It is stable in air even when stored in humid
conditions.
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
2. It is insoluble in water.
54. Consider the following statements related to the 3. It has good resistance to acids and bases.
term "Reserve Forests":
4. It is biocompatible thus suitable for medical
1. The term was first introduced in the Indian applications.
Forest Act, 1927 in British India, to refer to
certain forests granted protection under the Which of the statements given above are
British crown in British India correct?
2. Rights to activities like hunting and grazing (a) Only 1, 3 & 4 (b) Only 1, 2 & 3
are given to communities living on the (c) Only 1, 2 & 4 (d) All of the above
10 IAS TEST SERIES 2014
57. Which of the following pair is related to the cause not only water pollution but have
goods and services provided by ecosystems: impacts on other things also.
1. Salt - Goods
Select the correct code:
2. Sequester atmospheric carbon - Goods
3. Contribute to aesthetic beauty - Services (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
4. Control weather extremes and impacts - (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above

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Services
60. Consider the following statements about
5. Seaweeds - Goods
Montane Temperate forests:

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Select the correct code: 1. Wet montane temperate forests are found
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3 in east of Nepal into Arunachal Pradesh in
(b) Only 3, 4 & 5 North and in Nigliri Hills in the South.
(c) Only 1, 2, 4 & 5 2. The forests in the northern region are less
denser than in the South.
(d) All of the above
3. Montane forests have oak, alder, chestnut,

as
58. Ground water is continuously being exploited birch, and cherry trees. There are a large
for drinking, irrigation and various other variety of orchids, bamboo and creepers in
purposes. Consider the following statements such forests.
related to the initiatives taken by the GOI to
improve groundwater resource: Which of the statements given above are
1. Central Ground Water Authority has correct?
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prepared a Master Plan for artificial (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 & 3
recharge of ground water in the country.
(c) Ony 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
2. National Groundwater Mission has been set
up with the objective of conserving water 61. Consider the following statements related to
and marine resources. Livestock resource and its contribution to
3. Model Bill has been prepared by the human livelihood:
Ministry of Water Resources to enact
1. It provides cash income or income in kind
's

ground water legislation for its regulation,


development and conservation. through the sale of animals.
2. It promotes gender equity.
Which of the statements given above are 3. The growth in livestock sector remained
incorrect?
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about 1.5 times larger than in the crop


(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 sector.
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
Which of the statements given above are
59. Haphazard development of urban areas has incorrect?
changed the land use pattern. Consider the
By

(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3


following statements related to land use pattern
in India: (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) None of the above
1. Urbanization causes the "impermanence
62. For achieving a sustainable land use, which of
syndrome" leading to a reduction in
the following initiative should be taken?
investment in new technology or
machinery. 1. Treat degraded lands.
2. Urban development reduces the "critical 2. Computerization of land records.
mass" of farmland necessary for the 3. Use of localized irrigation method to avoid
economic survival of local agricultural soil erosion.
economies. Which of the above initiatives are correct?
3. Urban runoff often contains nutrients, (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
sediment and toxic contaminants, and can (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above

IAS TEST SERIES 2014 11


63. Consider the following statements related to 66. The importance of coral reefs especially for the
horticulture sector in India. tropical waters are:
1. It led to development of 'terminal markets' 1. The zooxanthellae algae symbiotic with
for fruits, vegetables and other perishable corals remove carbon dioxide from the
goods. air.
2. Horticulture Sector includes medicinal and 2. Make carbohydrates available as food.

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aromatic crops also. 3. The warm water limits nutrients essential
3. It acts as an input for agro-based industries. for life thus helps in maintaining
temperature.

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Identify the correct code: 4. Assist in recycling of the nutrients.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 & 2 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(c) Only 2 & 3
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(d) All of the above
(b) Only 2, 3 & 4

as
64. Consider the following statements related to (c) Only 2 & 3
oceans as a source of energy: (d) Only 1, 3 & 4
1. OTEC system uses the ocean's natural
thermal gradient by converting solar 67. Consider the following statements related to
radiation to electric power. thorium:
1. Thorium is a fissile material and is
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2. Generation of tidal energy affects the flow
of salt water, which in turn changes abundant more in nature than Uranium.
salinity, hydrology, and other intrinsic 2. The most common source of thorium is the
features of the site. monazite, nearly half of the world deposits
3. The most attractive locations for OTEC and are found in India.
tidal energy in India is Gulf of Cambay 3. Thorium fuels breed fissile uranium-233.
only.
's

Which of the statements given above are


Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
correct? (a) Only 1 & 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 & 3
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(b) Only 2 (c) Only 1 & 3


(c) Only 1 & 2 (d) None of the above
(d) Only 2 & 3
68. Consider the following statements related to
65. Energy related activities lead to the pollution. challenges faced by coal sector in India.
By

Which of the following mentioned activities are 1. Majority of the coal projects have been
source of water pollution? halted and delayed due to issues in
1. Stockpiling of nuclear weapons acquiring land and strict rules and
2. Hot water discharge from thermal water regulations.
plants. 2. Recently GOI has allowed the drilling of
3. Runoffs from mining sites. coal bed methane from coal reserve which
in turn reduces the quality of coal in India.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Identify the correct code:
(a) Only 1 (a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 & 3 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 3 (c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of these (d) Neither 1 nor 2

12 IAS TEST SERIES 2014


69. The Brahmaputra basin represents an acutely 72. Remedial conservation for the Mangroves
flood-prone region due to which Assam include:
annually faces disaster but it has now become 1. Reduce freshwater supply that feeds
more man-made than being natural because:
estuarine mangroves.
1. of the limited width of the valley and the
2. Flush the dry hypersaline soil with tidal
abruptly flattened gradient;
waters through construction of artificial

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2. poor maintenance of infrastructure leads
creeks.
to problem of siltation which makes river
channel narrow; 3. Prevent mechanized raft operations.

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3. frequent landslides due to deforestation Which of the statements given above are
blocks the river channel;
correct?
4. heavy rainfall by SW Monsoon.
(a) All of the above
Which of the above statements define the (b) Only 1 & 3
anthropogenic factors? (c) Only 2 & 3

as
(a) Only 1 & 4 (b) Only 1, 2 & 3 (d) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 2 & 3 (d) Only 1, 3 & 4
73. Biome denotes a large naturally occurring
70. Consider the following statements related to the community of flora and fauna occupying a
benefits of Participatory Forestry: major habitat. The factors that shape the
1. Allows people to have voice in determining characteristics of biome are:
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objectives.
1. Length of day light and darkness which
2. Ensures equitable sharing of resources.
decides the rate of photosynthesis.
3. Leads to gender equality and
2. Mean temperature only whereas difference
empowerment.
in temperature does not play a major role.
Which of the statements given above are 3. Slope of the landform which decides the
correct? rate of erosion.
's

(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3


Which of the above factors are correct?
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
(a) Only 1 & 2
71. Consider the following statement and select the (b) Only 2 & 3
correct answer.
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(c) Only 1 & 3


1. World Conservation Congress was held in
Republic of Korea on 11 September 2012. (d) All of the above
2. International Union for Conservation of 74. The temperate grassland biome is facing changes
Nature (IUCN) has released a list of 100
due to human response such as:
By

different species to be first in line for


extinction from 48 different countries at the 1. The land has been converted to granaries
conference. of the world.
3. Main threatened species from India include 2. Rate of extinction of animals increased due
namely the Great Indian Bustard, White- to hunting
bellied Heron, the Peacock Tarantula as 3. The composition of native vegetation
well as the Spoon-billed Sandpiper. changed due to domestication of animals.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the above changes are correct?
correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3 (c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above

IAS TEST SERIES 2014 13


75. The impact of GHGs on oceans ecosystem are: 2. To improve the livelihoods of about 3
1. Biological productivity of the ocean million households living in and around
decreases. forest areas.
2. Alkalization of oceans increases. 3. To decrease annual CO2 sequestration.
3. Coral bleaching
Which of the statements given above are
4. Reduces the transport of nutrients from

s
correct?
deeper layers to the surface by horizontal
(a) Only 1 & 2
circulation.
(b) Only 1 & 3

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Which of the above stated impacts are correct? (c) Only 2 & 3
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 2 & 4 (d) All of the above
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) Only 2, 3 & 4
79. Consider the following statements related to the
76. The term 'acid rain' refers to the deposition of Global Climate Risk Index 2014:
wet or dry acidic materials from the atmosphere 1. India was ranked 18 in the Climate Risk

as
on the earth's surface. The impact of acid rain Index (CRI) table for 2012.
on environment are:
2. The countries affected most due to climate
1. As the pH falls below 5, the total biomass
change in 2012 were Haiti, the Philippines
of the ecosystem decreases.
and Pakistan.
2. Acidic conditions affect the reproductive
capabilities of fish, resulting in a slow Which of the statements given above are
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decline of fish population. correct?
3. It is responsible for forests dieback. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the above stated impacts are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 80. Consider the following statements related to the
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above advantages of crop rotation:
1. It helps in reducing the pollution by
's

77. Consider the following steps related to


nitrogen in natural resources.
monitorable targets for the 12th Plan:
2. Crop rotation helps to minimise the growth
1. To reclaim wetlands/inland lakes/ponds by
of weeds that needs to be eradicated and
2017.
so reducing the use of fertilizers.
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2. To increase forest and tree cover by 5


percentage points. 3. Lead to higher soil-carbon content and so
contribute to combating climate change.
3. To reduce 20-25 per cent energy use per
unit of GDP by 2017. Which of the statements given above are
By

correct?
Which of the statements given above are
correct? (a) Only 1 & 2
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 3 (c) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above
81. Consider the following statements related to
78. A National Mission for a Green India (GIM) noise pollution:
has been approved as a Centrally Sponsored 1. Noise is not considered as the form of
Scheme by the Cabinet Committee on Economic environmental pollution as it does not have
Affairs. The objectives of the scheme are: impact on ecosystem.
1. To increase forest/tree cover and improve 2. The loudest sound that a person can stand
the quality of forest cover. without discomfort is about 80 decibels.

14 IAS TEST SERIES 2014


3. According to the World Health 4. area gets heavy snowfall.
Organization, the industrial limit of sound
in the industries must be 75 dB. Which of the above reasons are correct?
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 2 & 4
Which of the statements given above are
correct? (c) Only 2, 3 & 4 (d) All of the above
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 85. Consider the following statements about IUCN's

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(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above Classification of Direct Threats to biodiversity?

82. Earthworms are used to enhance the process 1. Direct threats are the proximate human

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of waste conversion and produce a better end activities or processes that have caused, are
product in the process of vermicomposting. The causing, or may cause the destruction,
disadvantages of vermicompost are: degradation, and/or impairment of
1. It can take as long as six months for biodiversity.
earthworms to digest the organic matter 2. These have been divided into 11 categories.
and turn it into a usable soil amendment. 3. Catastrophic geological events such as

as
2. Acidic or high salty food, digesting meat, volcanic eruption, earthquakes etc have not
dairy and greasy foods cannot be digested been included in direct threats.
by earthworms.
3. Decreases germination, plant growth, and Identify the correct code:
crop yield. (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
4. High or low temperature, may highly affect (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
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survival & performance of earthworm.
86. India believes that 'Common but differentiated
Which of the statements given above are responsibility' for countering the menace of
correct? environmental degradation at the international
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 2, 3 & 4 level, to which the developed countries do not
(c) Only 1, 2 & 4 (d) All of the above subscribe to.Which of the following statements
is a part of action in line with the above
83. Consider the following statements related to
's

principle?
biodiversity hotspot:
1. Polluter must pay.
1. A biodiversity hotspot is a bio-geographic
region with a significant reservoir of 2. Differential contribution to the Global
biodiversity that is under threat from Environment Facility (GEF)
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humans. 3. Differential reduction in the green house


2. The criteria for demarcating hotspots are gases emissions.
that it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 4. Different prices for carbon credits for the
species of vascular plants as endemics, and developed and the developing countries.
have lost at least 70% of its primary
By

vegetation. Select the correct code:


3. Western Ghats and Eastern Himalayas are (a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 2, 3 & 4
the only two biodiversity hotspots in India. (c) Only 1, 3 & 4 (d) All of the above
Which of the statements given above are 87. Consider the following statements about
correct?
MARPOL Convention.
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
1. It is an International Convention for the
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above Prevention of Pollution from Ships.
84. The productivity is low in tundra region because: 2. It was adopted in 1973 at International
1. Absence or scarcity of nutrients such as Maritime Organisation (IMO).
nitrogen and phosphorous in the soils. 3. It covers prevention of pollution of the
2. minimum sunlight and insolation marine environment by ships only from
3. scarcity of moisture in the soils accidental causes.

IAS TEST SERIES 2014 15


Which of the statements given above are 91. A clean technology involves..
correct? 1. Green transportation
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 2. Switching an energy source from coal or
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above other fossil fuels
3. Green Chemistry
88. Consider the following statements. 4. Reducing carbon footprint

s
1. Ecological succession is the process of
change in the species structure of an Which of the statements given above are
ecological community over time. correct?

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2. Under the succession community moves (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 1, 2 & 3
towards a more stable, diverse community (c) Only 2, 3 & 4 (d) All of the above
structure after initial disturbance to the
community. 92. Consider the following statements related to the
concept of urban heat island:
3. Human actions and climatic change are
1. Urban heat islands impact occur on the
two important factors influencing the
surface only and not in the atmosphere.

as
ecological succession.
2. Urban heat island is observed during both
Which of the statements given above are summer and winter.
correct? 3. The temperature difference between the
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 urban heat island and its surroundings is
usually larger at day than during the night.
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
Cl
Which of the statements given above are
89. Consider the following statements about correct?
competition, in ecology. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
1. Interspecific competition is a form of (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) Only 2 & 3
competition in which individuals of same
species compete for the same resource in 93. Consider the following statements about the Gir
an ecosystem. national park:
's

2. Cramble competition occurs when a 1. Gir forest was declared as protected area
resource is inadequate for the needs of all. in 1900 by the Nawab of Junagarh princely
3. Apparent competition occurs when two or state.
more species in a habitat affect shared 2. Pure Asiatic Lion are also found across
natural enemies in a higher trophic level. northern Africa, south west Asia and
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northern Greece.
Which of the statements given above are 3. Kuno Wildlife Sanctuary in M.P. was
correct? selected as the reintroduction site for
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 critically endangered Asiatic lion.
4. Gir lions come from a very narrow genetic
By

(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above


base thus making them vulnerable.
90. Consider the following about the Blue Carbon:
Which of the statements given above are
1. The blue carbon denotes the carbon released correct?
by living organisms in oceans stored in the (a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 2, 3 & 4
form of biomass and sediments.
(c) Only 1, 3 & 4 (d) All of the above
2. When mangroves, seagrasses die they
release their stores of carbon and become 94. The objectives of social forestry scheme are:
new sources of climate change causing 1. Afforestation in lands outside forest areas.
carbon emissions. 2. Democratization and decentralization of
forest resource.
Which of the above statements are correct?
3. Increasing the yield of non-timber forest
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 products like fruit, firewood, fodder, etc
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 only.

16 IAS TEST SERIES 2014


Which of the statements given above are outstanding universal value from the point
correct? of view of science or conservation;
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
Which of the statements given above are
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
95. The People's Biodiversity Register contains
Comprehensive information on the traditional (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

s
knowledge on local biological resources. 98. Consider the following statements related to
Consider the following statements related to its human impact on the flow of carbon cycle:
functions:

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1. Carbon monoxide forms from the heat and
1. To promote knowledge-based sustainable pressures found in a car engine which
management of agriculture, livestock, fish, releases huge amount of carbon.
forests and public health so as to enhance 2. Deforestation of timber and farms decreases
the quality of life of the community removal of carbon dioxide from the
members. atmosphere by photosynthesis.
2. To promote biodiversity- friendly 3. The burning of trees also produces carbon-

as
development in the emerging process of di-oxide stored in it.
decentralized management of natural
resources. Which of the statements given above are
correct?
3. To promote Ayurveda and Unani medicine
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
among local communities.
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
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Which of the statements given above are
99. Consider the following statements related to
correct?
river dolphins:
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 1. The presence of river dolphin represents
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above the purity of the holy Ganges as it can only
survive in pure and fresh water.
96. Consider the following statements related to 2. The Ganges river dolphin has been
National Mission for Enhanced Energy recognized by the government of India as
's

Efficiency (NMEEE) approved by Prime its National Aquatic Animal.


Minister's Council on Climate Change include: 3. 'My Ganga, My Dolphin' is a collaborative
1. It allowed industries to retain Energy effort of IUCN - India and the forest
Savings Certificates, called ESCerts that can department of Bihar.
be traded easily all over the world.
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Which of the statements given above are


2. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is
correct?
the implementing agency for the mission.
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
Which of the statements given above are (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above
correct?
By

100. Consider the following statements related to the


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Great Pacific garbage patch?
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is a
collection of marine debris in the North
97. For the purposes of the World Heritage Pacific Ocean.
Convention, the "natural heritage" has been
2. It lies in a high-pressure area between the
defined as: U.S. states of Alaska and California.
1. Natural features consisting of physical and 3. A similar garbage patch exists in the Indian
biological formations or groups of such Ocean.
formations, which are of outstanding
universal value from the aesthetic or Which of the statements given above are
scientific point of view. correct?
2. Geological and physiographical formations (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 1
should constitute the habitat of threatened (c) Only 2 & 3 (d) All of the above
species of animals and plants of 
IAS TEST SERIES 2014 17
s
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as
Cl
's
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By

18 IAS TEST SERIES 2014

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