Insight IAS Prelims 2019 Test 28 Solutions

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Total Marks : 200
Mock Test 28 (Prelims Revision Test 4)
1 Which of the following contributed to the strength of the Magadha Mahajanpada?

1. Rajagriha, which was a fortified settlement, remained as the permanent capital of Magadha.
2. Iron mines were easily accessible providing the raw material to tool industries.
3. Elephants, found in nearby forests, added to the potential of the Magadhan army.
4. Ganga and its tributaries provided a means of cheap and convenient transportation.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Statement 1: Initially, Rajagaha (the Prakrit name for present day Rajgir in Bihar) was the capital of
Magadha.
Later, in the fourth century BCE, the capital was shifted to Pataliputra, present-day Patna,
commanding routes of communication along the Ganga.
S2 to 4: Between the sixth and the fourth centuries BCE, Magadha (in present-day Bihar) became
the most powerful mahajanapada. Modern historians explain this development in a variety of ways:
Magadha was a region where agriculture was especially productive.
Besides, iron mines (in present-day Jharkhand) were accessible and provided resources for tools
and weapons. Elephants, an important component of the army, were found in forests in the region.
Also, the Ganga and its tributaries provided a means of cheap and convenient communication.
However, early Buddhist and Jaina writers who wrote about Magadha attributed its power to the
policies of individuals: ruthlessly ambitious kings of whom Bimbisara, Ajatasattu and Mahapadma
Nanda are the best known, and their ministers, who helped implement their policies.
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Q Source: Pg 31: Ch 2: 12 NCERT: Themes in Indian History
2 Phosphorus plays a central role in aquatic ecosystems and water quality. This is because
1. Phosphorus cycle is largely atmospheric and easily dissolves in water from air.
2. Phosphorus is responsible for excessive growth of rooted and free-floating microscopic plants in
water bodies.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
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Total Marks : 200
Correct Answer : B
Statement 1: If you understand the phosphorous cycle, you can easily mark statement 1 as
incorrect.
Its cycle is mainly terrestrial. The main storage for phosphorus is in the earth's crust. On land
phosphorus is usually found in the form of phosphates.
It occurs in large amounts as a mineral in phosphate rocks and enters the cycle from erosion
and mining activities.
By the process of weathering and erosion phosphates enter rivers and streams that transport
them to the ocean.
In the ocean once the phosphorus accumulates on continental shelves in the form of insoluble
deposits
After millions of years, the crustal plates rise from the sea floor and expose the phosphates on
land.
After more time, weathering will release them from rock and the cycle's geochemical phase
begins again.
Statement 2: Being an important nutrient, phosphorous promotes eutrophication in lakes. Along

with nitrogen related compounds it leads to undesirable situations like algal bloom.
Q Source: Shankar IAS
3 With reference to the food and related habits of the Harappan culture, consider the following
statements.
1. They consumed both millets and whole grain cereals.
2. There is no evidence of consumption of marine products by the Harappans.
3. Cattle, sheep and pig were domesticated.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Harappan cultures (early, mature and late) shared certain common elements including subsistence
strategies.
The Harappans ate a wide range of plant and animal products, including fish. Archaeologists have
been able to reconstruct dietary practices from finds of charred grains and seeds. These are studied
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by archaeo-botanists, who are specialists in ancient plant remains.
Grains found at Harappan sites include wheat, barley, lentil, chickpea and sesame. Millets are found
from sites in Gujarat. Finds of rice are relatively rare.
Animal bones found at Harappan sites include those of cattle, sheep, goat, buffalo and pig.
Studies done by archaeo-zoologists or zooarchaeologists indicate that these animals were

domesticated.
Bones of wild species such as boar, deer and gharial are also found. We do not know whether the
Harappans hunted these animals themselves or obtained meat from other hunting communities.
Bones of fish and fowl are also found.
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4 Consider the following about Bharat QR code.

1. The code can be used to store information.
2. It enables person to make payments to retailers without using the retailer’s identification number.
3. It eliminates the need of using card swiping machines making digital payments more secure.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
It works as common interface for the MasterCard/Visa/RuPay platforms and also facilitate
acceptance of Aadhaar-enabled payments and Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
Statement 1: QR code (Quick Response code) is a two-dimensional (matrix) machine-readable bar

code made up of black and white square. This code can be read by the camera of a smartphone.
It is used for storing URLs or other information that link directly to text, emails websites
phone numbers.
It encodes same amount of data in one-tenth the space of a traditional bar code. It carries
information both horizontally and vertically.
Statement 2 and 3: Using, BharatQR code merchants will be required to only display one QR code
instead of multiple ones. Users can make payment by scanning the code. So, merchant ID is not
required.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=158613
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5 The postulate of Dark Matter was put forward to account for

1. Large gravitational forces that the visible mass of the Universe cannot explain
2. Recorded electromagnetic radiation in excess of what the solar system exhibits

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
The galaxies and clusters of galaxies are observed to be rotating at extreme velocities that the
gravity generated by their observable matter alone cannot explain.
At such speeds they should have been torn apart long ago. It is believed that something that
cannot be seen directly with light (electromagnetic radiation, in general) — and hence the
name — is providing that extra mass, generating the extra gravity, needed to hold them
together.
Dark matter dominates the matter in the universe, outweighing all the visible matter by nearly
six times, but its existence can be inferred only from the gravitational effect it seems to have
on visible matter.
Though existence of DM is now accepted, and it is all around us with varying densities, its
nature has remained a mystery and various candidate DM particles have been proposed.
Q Source: Based on past year papers of UPSC
6 The share of Government (Sovereign) Debt is reflected in which of these accounts with reference to
external transactions?
A. Capital Account
B. Current Account
C. Non-tax revenue account
D. External Commercial Borrowings Account
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Capital Account and Current account are two primary components of balance of
payments. Balance of Payment (BoP) of a country is the Systematic record of all economic
transactions between the residents of a foreign country.
All transactions that create or release debt is considered in the capital account. So, A is correct.
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So, where the current account reflects a nation's net income, the capital account reflects net
change in ownership of national assets.
Q Source: Basics: International Economics
7 Consider the following about Maize crop production in India.

1. Maize is grown in India in both kharif and rabi seasons.
2. It is the only crop for which no cross hybrids have been introduced for field trials or commercial
production.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Statement 1: The maize is cultivated throughout the year in all states of the country. Maize can be
grown in all seasons viz; Kharif (monsoon), post monsoon, Rabi (winter) and spring.
The predominant maize growing states that contribute more than 80 % of the total maize
production are Andhra Pradesh (20.9 %), Karnataka (16.5 %), Rajasthan (9.9 %) etc.
Maize can be grown successfully in variety of soils ranging from loamy sand to clay loam.
However, soils with good organic matter content having high water holding capacity with
neutral pH are considered good for higher productivity.
Statement 2: Globally, maize is known as queen of cereals because it has the highest genetic yield
potential among the cereals. As per a government document, “With the increasing trends of maize
production, the projected demand of maize by the end of XIth five year plan (2011-12) will be
achieved through improved maize production technologies focused on ‘Single Cross Hybrids’.” This
means statement 2 is clearly incorrect.
You can refer to this link for more information

http://farmer.gov.in/(S(2225rkhyjpn5zeviigrhwoec))/imagedefault/pestanddiseasescrops/normalmaiz
eproductiontechnologies.pdf
Q Source: Page 47: 12th NCERT: India, People and Economy
8 Which of the following regions, as a part of the Harappan civilization, is associated with the
Ganeshwar-Jodhpura culture?
A. Khetri area
B. Chottanagpur belt
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C. Malwa Plateau in Madhya Pradesh

D. Rajmahal Hills
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Located in northeast Rajasthan, the Ganeshwar-Jodhpura complex was an early centre of
agriculture and copper metallurgy in the subcontinent. More than eighty sites of this culture have
been identified in the Sikar, Jaipur and Jhunjhunu districts, with the largest concentration being in
Sikar.
It is possible that the inhabitants of Khetri (GJs) region supplied copper to the Harappans.
Among the earliest chalcolithic cultures in India, the Ahar or Banas culture was discovered in
the Mewar region of southeast Rajasthan.
Nearly one hundred sites of the culture have been located along its principal axis, i.e., the
valleys of river Banas and its tributaries and subtributaries in Banswara, Udaipur etc. The
technology at Ahar was based mainly on copper and very few microblades and microliths have
been discovered.
You can read more here
http://www.academia.edu/1813929/Indices_of_Interaction_Comparisons_between_the_Ahar-Ba
nas_and_Ganeshwar_Jodhpura_Cultural_Complex
Q Source: Additional Research: Pg 12: Ch 1: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History
9 Species that are endemic to India include

1. Lion Tailed Macaques
2. Nilgiri Tahr
3. Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros
Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Endemic species are those that are found in a specific ecological niche, and not
anywhere else. This is because these species have evolved and are adapted to living in these
conditions. For e.g. Bicolored frog is endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
Some other endemic species are Nilgiri Wood Pigeon, Malabar Parakeet, Malabar Grey Hornbill,
Brown Palm Civet, namdapha flying squirrel, Bengal Fox etc. A Google search will list all such
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species on the top bar itself.
Q Source: Test syllabus: Species – Southern India (and Eastern India)
10 Sufi Silsilas became a major tradition in Medieval India. The term silsila implies
A. A family of guest houses for spiritual debates

B. A spiritual genealogy linking the master to the disciples
C. A method of chanting leading to communion with God
D. A distinct way of Sufi poetry that later developed as a mature Classical style
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Institutionally, the sufis began to organise communities around the hospice or khanqah
(Persian) controlled by a teaching master known as shaikh (in Arabic), pir or murshid (in Persian).
Sufi silsilas began to crystallise in different parts of the Islamic world around the twelfth century.
The word silsila literally means a chain, signifying a continuous link between master and disciple,
stretching as an unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet.
Q Source: Page 153: Themes in Indian History – II: 12th NCERT
11 With reference to the Mahajanpadas around the sixth century BCE, consider the following
statements.
1. Early Buddhist and Jaina texts mention sixteen states known as mahajanapadas.
2. All the mahajanapadas were ruled by kings.
3. Avanti and Kashi were two of these Mahajanpadas.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Background and Justification: The sixth century BCE is often regarded as a major turning point
in early Indian history. It is an era associated with early states, cities, the growing use of iron, the
development of coinage, etc.
It also witnessed the growth of diverse systems of thought, including Buddhism and Jainism. Early
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Buddhist and Jaina texts mention, amongst other things, sixteen states known as mahajanapadas.
Although the lists vary, some names such as Vajji, Magadha, Koshala, Kuru, Panchala, Gandhara
and Avanti occur frequently. Clearly, these were amongst the most important mahajanapadas.
While most mahajanapadas were ruled by kings, some, known as ganas or sanghas, were
oligarchies, where power was shared by a number of men, often collectively called rajas. Both
Mahavira and the Buddha belonged to such ganas.
In some instances, as in the case of the Vajji sangha, the rajas probably controlled resources such as
land collectively. Although their histories are often difficult to reconstruct due to the lack of
sources, some of these states lasted for nearly a thousand years.
Each mahajanapada had a capital city, which was often fortified. Maintaining these fortified cities
as well as providing for incipient armies and bureaucracies required resources.
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12 Consider the following about ‘Priority Sector Lending Certificates’ (PSLC) scheme of the Reserve
Bank of India.
1. Any registered lender who has made loans to eligible categories would get ‘Priority Sector Lending
Certificates’ (PSLC) for the amount of these loans.
2. No loss would be borne by the certificate “buyer” in case the loan turns into a bad asset.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
The idea of issuing priority sector lending certificates first appeared in the Report of the Dr. Raghu
Ram Rajan led Committee on Financial Sector Reforms – A Hundred Small Steps.
The Committee proposed the PSLC scheme to allow a more efficient implementation of the priority
sector lending mandate (with similar schemes extending to possible financial service mandates
also).
Statement 1: Any registered lender (including microfinance institutions, cooperative banks, banking
correspondents, etc.) who has made loans to eligible categories would get ‘Priority Sector Lending
Certificates’ (PSLC) for the amount of these loans. A market would then be opened up for these
certificates, where deficient banks can buy certificates to compensate for their shortfall in lending.
Importantly, the loans would still be on the books of the original lender, and the deficient bank
would only be buying a right to undershoot its priority sector-lending requirement by the amount of
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the certificate.
Statement 2: If the loans default, for example, no loss would be borne by the certificate buyer. The
merit of this scheme is that it would allow the most efficient lender to provide access to the poor,
while finding a way for banks to fulfil their norms at lower cost.
Essentially the PSLC will be a market-driven interest subsidy to those who make priority sector
loans. It is an innovative instrument designed in a market friendly way for achieving a socialistic /
welfare goal.
Q Source: https://rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=10339&Mode=0
13 What is the role of plankton in the marine ecosystem?

1. Establishing the foundation of food web of marine ecosystem
2. Absorbing atmospheric carbon dioxide into the ocean

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Statement 1: Phytoplanktons are the foundation of the aquatic food web, the primary producers
Zoo plankton feed on phytoplankton and play a vital role in food web of the food chain, nutrient
recycling, and in transfer of organic matter from primary producers to secondary consumers like
fishes.
Statement 2: Their role in the carbon cycle is quite different from that of trees and other land
plants, which actually absorb CO2 and serve as a storehouse, or "sink", of carbon.
Instead, ocean life absorbs CO2 during photosynthesis and, while most of the gas escapes within
about a year, some of it is transported down into the deep ocean via dead plants, body parts, faeces,
and other sinking materials.
The CO2 is then released into the water as the materials decay, and most of it becomes absorbed in
the sea-water by combining chemically with water molecules (H2O).
14 What is common between the places: Rummindei, Sanchi, Sarnath and Sahasram?
A. They are located at the same latitude.
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B. They were the capitals of the Mahajanpadas.

C. They are some of the earliest cities, even before the Indus valley civilization was discovered.
D. They contain Ashokan pillar inscriptions.
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Check out the map below (option 1 is incorrect):
Asoka was the first ruler who inscribed his messages to his subjects and officials on stone surfaces –
natural rocks as well as polished pillars.
He used the inscriptions to proclaim what he understood to be dhamma. This included respect
towards elders, generosity towards Brahmanas and those who renounced worldly life, treating
slaves and servants kindly, and respect for religions and traditions other than one’s own.
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15 The largest consumer of ground water in India is
A. Irrigation sector
B. Textiles sector
C. Household sector
D. Commercial Reverse Osmosis (RO) plants
Correct Answer : A
Learning: In general, the irrigation sector remains the main consumer of ground water (nearly
90% of total annual ground water draft for all uses).
India is the largest user of groundwater in the world. It uses an estimated 230 cubic kilometers of
groundwater per year - over a quarter of the global total.
More than 60% of irrigated agriculture and 85% of drinking water supplies are dependent on
groundwater.
As per the World Bank, if current trends continue, in 20 years about 60% of all India’s aquifers will
be in a critical condition.
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Q Source: Chapter 6: 12 NCERT: India, People and Economy
16 The term ‘gahapati’ was often used in Pali texts to designate
A. Large landholders
B. Priests
C. Landless labourers
D. Court debaters
Correct Answer : A
Learning: In Ancient India, there was a growing differentiation amongst people engaged in
agriculture – stories, especially within the Buddhist tradition, refer to landless agricultural
labourers, small peasants, as well as large landholders.
The term gahapati was often used in Pali texts to designate the second and third categories. The
large landholders, as well as the village headman (whose position was often hereditary), emerged as
powerful figures, and often exercised control over other cultivators.
Early Tamil literature (the Sangam texts) also mentions different categories of people living in the
villages – large landowners or vellalar, ploughmen or uzhavar and slaves or adimai. It is likely that
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these differences were based on differential access to land, labour and some of the new
technologies.
In such a situation, questions of control over land must have become crucial, as these were often
discussed in legal texts.
Q Source: Pg 40: Ch 2: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History
17 The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) was significant for which of the following
reasons?
1. Election of M.K. Gandhi as INC President
2. Proclamation of commitment to Purna Swaraj

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Statement 1: Gandhiji served as INC President only in 1924 in Belgaum, and generally rescued
himself from formal political responsibilities. It was Pandit Nehru who was elected in the Lahore
session. His election signified the passing of the baton of leadership INC to the younger generation.
Statement 2: “Purna Swaraj”, or complete independence declaration was proclaimed for the first
time. Now the pace of politics picked up once more. On 26 January 1930, “Independence Day” was
observed, with the national flag being hoisted in different venues.
Q Source: Page 355: Themes in Indian History – III: 12th NCERT
18 Sea-weeds can be used for which of the following purposes?

1. Production of agar-agar
2. Extraction of Iodine
3. Generation of commercially important methane

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
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Learning: They are macroscopic algae, which mean they have no differentiation of true tissues
such as roots, stems and leaves.
They grow in, shallow coastal waters wherever sizable sub-strata is available.
Seaweeds are important as food for humans, feed for animals, and fertilizer for plants.
Seaweeds are used as a drug for goiter treatment, intestinal and stomach disorders.
Products like agar-agar and alginates, iodine which are of commercial value, are extracted
from seaweeds.
By the biodegradation of seaweeds methane like economically important gases can be
produced in large quantities.
They are potential indicators of pollution in coastal ecosystem, particularly heavy metal
pollution due to their ability to bind and accumulate metals strongly.
Rotting seaweed is a potent source of hydrogen sulfide, a highly toxic gas
19 Which of the following countries are members of the European Organisation for Nuclear Research
(CERN)?
1. India
2. Pakistan
3. Russia
4. United Kingdom

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 4 only
D. None of the above
Correct Answer : C
India recently joined CERN as associate member (not full member).
CERN has 22 member states (including UK), four associate member states (including India and
Pakistan) and three International Organisations have observer status. Russia has observer status.
India had ‘observer’ status till September 2016, when the CERN Council adopted a resolution
upgrading its position.
Member states have special duties and privileges. They make a contribution to the capital and
operating costs of CERN’s programmes, and are represented in the council, responsible for all
important decisions about the organization and its activities.
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Learning: CERN as an organisation is world’s largest nuclear and particle physics laboratory. It is
situated in North West suburbs of Geneva on France-Swiss Border. It was established in 1954.
CERN operates the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) which is the world’s largest and most powerful
particle accelerator. It is associated with the discovery of the Higgs Boson which is popularly known
as the God particle.
Q Source:
http://www.livemint.com/Science/xRZDQSCQ71qOUd8gxxOpbI/India-becomes-associate-member-of-
CERN.html
20 With reference to certain works of Medieval period, consider the following statements.
1. Al-Biruni’s Kitab-ul-Hind deals with a varieties of subjects, inter alia, philosophy, alchemy, social
life, laws and metrology.
2. Ibn Battuta’s book of travels, called Rihla, written in Arabic, is a source of information about the
social and cultural life in the Indian subcontinent of the Medieval period.
3. Which of these is/are crucial in the transition of an economy to ‘green economy’?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Statement 1: Al-Biruni’s Kitab-ul-Hind, written in Arabic, is simple and lucid. It is a voluminous text,
divided into 80 chapters on subjects such as religion and philosophy, festivals, astronomy, alchemy,
manners and customs, social life, weights and measures, iconography, laws and metrology.
Generally (though not always), Al-Biruni adopted a distinctive structure in each chapter, beginning
with a question, following this up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding
with a comparison with other cultures. Some present-day scholars have argued that this almost
geometric structure, remarkable for its precision and predictability, owed much to his mathematical
orientation.
Al-Biruni, who wrote in Arabic, probably intended his work for peoples living along the frontiers of
the subcontinent. He was familiar with translations and adaptations of Sanskrit, Pali and Prakrit
texts into Arabic – these ranged from fables to works on astronomy and medicine.
However, he was also critical about the ways in which these texts were written, and clearly wanted
to improve on them.
Statement 2: Ibn Battuta’s book of travels, called Rihla, written in Arabic, provides extremely rich
and interesting details about the social and cultural life in the subcontinent in the fourteenth
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century.
Unlike most other members of his class, Ibn Battuta considered experience gained through travels
to be a more important source of knowledge than books. He just loved travelling, and went to far-off
places, exploring new worlds and peoples. Before he set off for India in 1332-33, he had made
pilgrimage trips to Mecca, and had already travelled extensively in Syria, Iraq, Persia, Yemen,
Oman and a few trading ports on the coast of East Africa.
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Q Source: Ch 5: 12 NCERT: Themes in Indian History – 1
21 Which of these is/are crucial in the transition of an economy to ‘green economy’?

1. Conservation of biodiversity
2. Reducing carbon emissions and pollution
3. Promoting consumption with sole focus on economic growth

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
A Green Economy focuses on the ways to overcome the deeply rooted causes of unsustainable
economic development.
A Green Economy is one whose growth in income and employment is driven by public and private
investments that reduce carbon emissions and pollution, enhance energy and resource efficiency,
and prevent the loss of biodiversity and ecosystems.
Three priorities in transition of economy to green economy are
decarbonizing the economy;

committing the environmental community to justice and equity; and
conserving the biosphere.
Q Source: Basics: Sustainable growth
22 Arrange the following major textual traditions in chronological order.

1. Manusmriti in Sanskrit
2. Natyashashtra of Bharata
3. Ashtadhyayi of Panini
4. Works on Astronomy and Mathematics by Aryabhata and Varahamihira
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A. 1234
B. 3124
C. 2143
D. 4132
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Please refer to the chart below:
Q Source: Ch 3: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History – 1
23 Consider the following about National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).

1. It is a statutory body.
2. It provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society.
3. It appoints judges of Gram Nyalayas in consultation with the District Judge.
4. It also organises Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
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B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A
Statement 1: It has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Statement 2: Its aim is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen
by reasons of economic or other disabilities. NALSA also identifies specific categories of
marginalised and excluded groups and formulates various schemes for implementation of legal
service programmes.
It provides services of free legal aid in civil and criminal matters for the poor and marginalised
people who cannot afford the services of a lawyer in any court or tribunal.
Statement 3: The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who has the same power;
enjoys same salary and benefits of a Judicial Magistrate of First Class. Such Nyayadhikari are to be
appointed by the State Government in consultation with the respective High Court.
Statement 4: It also organises Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. It works in close
coordination with various State Legal Services Authorities, District Legal Services Authorities and
other agencies.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/Khehar-made-NALSA-executive-chairman/article
16655399.ece
24 Consider the following about Ibn Battuta’s account of India.

1. The highways were safe and immune from robbery and other crimes.
2. Coconut fibre found in India was so strong that it was used for making ropes which pulled ships.
3. Indian textiles such as fine muslins were in great demand in Asian markets.
4. Horses and human runners were often used to dispatch goods required at short notice.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : D
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Statement 1: Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan traveler. When travelling in India, he was attacked by
bands of robbers several times. In fact he preferred travelling in a caravan along with companions,
but this did not deter highway robbers. While travelling from Multan to Delhi, his caravan was
attacked and many of his fellow travellers lost their lives.
Statement 2: His account of India says that “Coconut trees looked like date palms. It resembles a
man’s head. Inside of it looks like a brain. Its fibre looks like human hair. Its fibre used for making
rope which is used for pulling ships.”
Statement 3: He also noted that the subcontinent was well integrated with inter-Asian networks of
trade and commerce, with Indian manufactures being in great demand in both West Asia and
Southeast Asia, fetching huge profits for artisans and merchants. Indian textiles, particularly cotton
cloth, fine muslins, silks, brocade and satin, were in great demand.
Statement 4: Further, almost all trade routes were well supplied with inns and guest houses. Ibn
Battuta was also amazed by the efficiency of the postal system(by horse and human runners) which
allowed merchants to not only send information and remit credit across long distances, but also to
dispatch goods required at short notice.
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Q Source: Pg 129: Themes in Indian History – II: 12 NCERT
25 The USTTAD scheme of the Government of India has a bearing on

1. Development of minorities
2. Development of traditional crafts
3. Promotion of Indian arts internationally

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Statement 1 and 2: USTTAD stands for Upgrading the Skills & Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts
for Development. It was launched by the Union Ministry of Minority Affairs.
The scheme aims at preserving and promoting the rich heritage of the traditional arts & crafts
of the Minority communities.
In the light of globalisation & competitive market, these crafts have gradually lost their
employability. It also envisages at boosting the skill of craftsmen, weavers and artisans who
are already engaged in the traditional ancestral work.
18
Total Marks : 200
Statement 3: The Hunar Haat exhibition was recently organised by the National Minorities
Development & Finance Corporation (NMDFC) under “USTTAD” scheme.
It seeks to provide an excellent platform to artisans belonging to Minority communities from across
nation to display their art and skills before domestic and international visitors.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=153619
26 The Ahom kings followed a peculiar practice where people were obliged to render military service in
exchange for land. The practice was popular in the present day state of
A. Meghalaya
B. Nagaland
C. Sikkim
D. Assam
Correct Answer : D
Tribes in the North-east had their chieftains. Many tribal chiefs had become zamindars, some even
became kings. For this they required to build up an army.
They recruited people from their lineage groups or demanded that their fraternity provide military
service. Tribes in the Sind region had armies comprising 6,000 cavalry and 7,000 infantry.
These people who exchanged military service for land were known as paiks in the Ahom dynasty.
The capture of wild elephants was declared a royal monopoly by the Ahom kings. This was because
war was a common occurrence between tribal kingdoms in the north-east.
Q Source: Pg 210: Themes in Indian History – II: 12th NCERT
27 Article 370 gives a special status to the polity of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) in the Indian state. A bill
for the amendment of the Constitution of the J&K
A. Must be introduced in the Parliament and agreed to by both the Parliament and State
Legislature of J&K
B. Can be introduced in the state assembly and must be passed by it for such amendment to be
effective
C. Must be referred to the Governor of J&K who should refer it to the President and pass the bill
after taking the Council of Ministers into confidence
D. Cannot be introduced in either the Parliament or state assembly without an amendment in
Article 370 of the constitution.
Correct Answer : B
19
Total Marks : 200
Learning: It can be amended by a bill passed in each house of the state legislature by a majority of
two-thirds of the total membership of that house.
Such a bill must be introduced in the assembly only.

However, no bill of constitutional amendment can be moved in either House if it seeks to
change the relationship of the state with the Union of India.
It vests the executive powers of the state in the governor appointed by the president for a
term of five years.
But, the Governor does not enjoy legislative powers apart from those enjoyed by other
governors of Indian states. This means OPTION C is wrong.
The Constitution of J&K was adopted in 1957.
Q Source: Revision: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
28 Which of the following authority has the mandate of bulk procurement in Minor Forest Produce
(MFP) and surplus Agricultural Produce (SAP) from Tribals in India?
A. Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED)

B. Food Corporation of India (FCI)
C. State-level Tribal Cooperatives Societies and Federations
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Under its revised mandate TRIFED has stopped bulk procurement in Minor Forest
Produce (MFP) and surplus Agricultural Produce (SAP) from Tribals.
This procurement is now done by the State-level Tribal Cooperatives Societies/Federations.
TRIFED now functions as a ‘market developer’ for tribal products and as ‘service provider’ to its
member federations.
TRIFED is now engaged in the marketing development of tribal products (natural and organic
products, handicrafts, ratification etc.) through its own shops (TRIBES India) and shops selling its
products on consignment basis.
Q Source: MSP and procurement related issues
29 Consider the following about rural institutions in Medieval India.

1. The village panchayats represented only the most dominant caste in the village.
2. The village headman was to be compulsorily nominated by the Subedar who headed the Parganas.
3. The panchayat could derive its funds from contributions made by community residents to a common
financial pool.
20
Total Marks : 200

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Statement 1: The village panchayat was an assembly of elders. In mixed-caste villages, the
panchayat was usually a heterogeneous body. The panchayat represented various castes and
communities in the village so it is called an oligarchy.
In addition to the village panchayat each sub-caste or jati in the village had its own jati
panchayat.
These panchayats wielded considerable power in rural society.
In Rajasthan jati panchayats arbitrated civil disputes between members of different castes.
Statement 2: The panchayat was headed by a headman known as muqaddam or mandal. Some
sources suggest that the headman was chosen through the consensus of the village elders, and that
this choice had to be ratified by the zamindar. Headmen held office as long as they enjoyed the
confidence of the village elders.
Statement 3: The chief function of the headman was to supervise the preparation of village
accounts, assisted by the accountant or patwari of the panchayat.
The panchayat derived its funds from contributions made by individuals to a common financial pool.
th
Q Source: Page 201: Themes in Indian History – II: 12 NCERT
30 Some sources of the seventeenth century refer to two terms – khud-kashta and pahi-kashta. They
refer to
1. Types of absentee landlordism in rural parganas
2. Land grants given by the Amin to notable individuals

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
orrect Answer : D
21
Total Marks : 200
These terms were used for two kinds of peasants.
The khud-kashta were residents of the village in which they held their lands.
The pahi-kashta were non-resident cultivators who belonged to some other village, but cultivated
lands elsewhere on a contractual basis.
People became pahi-kashta either out of choice or out of compulsion. When terms of revenue in a
distant village were more favourable peasants moved to other villages. Sometimes they were forced
by economic distress after a famine.
31 Inter-tidal zones support large mangrove population because
A. It is abundant in nutrients.
B. It is a fresh water zone
C. It is not touched by either high or low tides.
D. It is a sediment free zone.
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Option C: The intertidal zone, also known as the foreshore and seashore and sometimes
referred to as the littoral zone, is the area that is above water at low tide and under water at high
tide. So, C is incorrect.
Option B: Water is available regularly with the tides but varies from fresh with rain to highly saline
and dry salt with drying between tidal inundations. So, B is incorrect.
It is very rich in nutrients and hence supports the growth of Mangroves the best.
32 The first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), often called the father of
Indian archaeology, he had a pioneering role in the archaeology of the Harappan civilization. He was
A. Max Muller
B. James Prinsep
C. Alexander Cunningham
D. Robert Wheeler
Correct Answer : C
22
Total Marks : 200
Learning: As early as 1875, Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General of the

Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), often called the father of Indian archaeology, noted that the
amount of brick taken from the ancient site was enough to lay bricks for “about 100 miles” of the
railway line between Lahore and Multan.
When Cunningham, the first Director-General of the ASI, began archaeological excavations in the
mid-nineteenth century, archaeologists preferred to use the written word (texts and inscriptions) as
a guide to investigations.
In fact, Cunningham’s main interest was in the archaeology of the Early Historic (c. sixth century
BCE-fourth century CE) and later periods. He used the accounts left by Chinese Buddhist pilgrims
who had visited the subcontinent between the fourth and seventh centuries CE to locate early
settlements. Cunningham also collected, documented and translated inscriptions found during his
surveys. When he excavated sites he tended to recover artefacts that he thought had cultural value.
Subsequently, seals were discovered at Harappa by archaeologists such as Daya Ram Sahni in the
early decades of the twentieth century, in layers that were definitely much older than Early Historic
levels. It was then that their significance began to be realised.
Another archaeologist, Rakhal Das Banerji found similar seals at Mohenjodaro, leading to the
conjecture that these sites were part of a single archaeological culture. Based on these finds, in
1924, John Marshall, Director -General of the ASI, announced the discovery of a new civilisation in
the Indus valley to the world. As S.N. Roy noted in The Story of Indian Archaeology, “Marshall left
India three thousand years older than he had found her.”
This was because similar, till-then-unidentified seals were found at excavations at Mesopotamian
sites. It was then that the world knew not only of a new civilisation, but also of one
contemporaneous with Mesopotamia.
33 Consider the following with reference to Parliamentary control over the Budget.
1. Departmental Standing committees have the responsibility to draft and create the annual budget.
2. Estimates Committee can impose cuts on the budget if the government cannot justify expenditure
on a particular head.
3. No money from the Consolidated Fund of India can be withdrawn without the consent of the
Parliament.

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Correct Answer : A
23
Total Marks : 200
Statement 1: It is done by Department of Economic Affairs.
Statement 2: Estimates Committee only examines the economic efficiency and rationale behind
government expenditures that too after the budget has been enacted. It has no right to suggest
cuts.
Statement 3: A bill needs to be passed by the government for any such withdrawal.
Q Source: Revision: Practice questions: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
34 Shiqdar officials in Mughal India were mainly responsible for
A. Regulating water storage and availability in the provinces

B. Maintaining law and order
C. Implementing fatwas issued by the emperor
D. Supervising work of people welfare departments
Correct Answer : B
Learning: This is an account of important officers appointed in Mughal India.
Appointment of two officers with specific responsibilities and jurisdiction was only to avoid concen-
tration of authority in one single individual and also to see that one acts as a check over the other.
Sarkars were further subdivided as paraganas.

In each paragana a Shiqdar, an Amin, a Fotehdar, a Munsif, a Hindi writer and a Persian
writer were appointed besides the Patwari, Chaudari and the Muqaddam who acted as the
intermediaries between the government and the people.
The duty of the Shiqdar was to maintain law and order, to collect the revenue and also decide
the legal matters.
35 Which of these seasons provides the most favorable conditions for the lake water to churns and
redistribute water and oxygen throughout that are vital for the growth of organisms such as
phytoplankton?
A. Extremely hot summers

B. Cold winters
C. Autumn and Spring Seasons
D. The churning of nutrients is not dependent on seasons.
Correct Answer : C
24
Total Marks : 200
Justification & Learning: In summer and winter, water across layers of lake hardly mixes. So,
either the upper layer or deep water is cold or warm. Hence, there is little churning of oxygen and
nutrients due to this large temperature difference. So, A and B are wrong.
But, due to similar water temperatures at both surface and under water in autumn and spring,
water tends to mix. This mixing facilitates better nutrient availability in all layers increasing
productivity of lakes.
36 What was\were the fundamental difference(s) in the philosophies of Lokayatas and Ajivikas?
1. Ajivikas believed in fatalism, whereas Lokayatas did not.
2. Ajivikas noted that there are no Universal laws, whereas Lokayatas believed certain fundamental
laws existed.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Statement 1: Fatalists or Ajivikas were those who believe that everything is predetermined.
Materialists or Lokayatas were those who believe that everything is not predetermined.
Statement 2: Fatalists argue that the wise and the fool cannot come out of karma. It can neither be
lessened nor increased. So fool and wise alike will take their course and make an end of sorrow.
This is because the Universe operates on certain fundamental laws, and the human being is no
exception to those laws.
Materialists say that a human being is made up of the four elements. When he dies the earthy in
him returns to the earth, the fluid to water, the heat to fire, the windy to air, and his senses pass
into space. The talk of gifts is a doctrine of fools, an empty lie. Fools and wise alike are cut off and
perish. They do not survive after death.
Q Source: Page 87: Themes in Indian History – I
37 What do you understand by Bioleaching?
A. It is an in situ remediation technology that uses microorganisms to biodegrade organic

constituents in the groundwater system
25
Total Marks : 200
B. It is the extraction of metals from their ores through the use of living organisms instead of
using harmful chemical substances.
C. It is the decomposition of organic matter into compost by aerobic bacteria and fungi so that it
can be used as a fertilizer.
D. It is the modification of the environment to stimulate existing bacteria capable of
bioremediation.
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Bioremediation is the use of microbes to clean up contaminated soil and groundwater.
There are several technologies related to Bioremediation. We are listing them below.
Bioventing - an in situ remediation technology that uses microorganisms to biodegrade

organic constituents in the groundwater system.
Bioleaching - extraction of metals from their ores through the use of living organisms instead
of using harmful chemical substances such as cyanide etc.,
Land farming - ex-situ waste treatment process that is performed in the upper soil zone or in
bio-treatment cells. Contaminated soils, sediments, or sludges are transported to the Land
farming site, incorporated into the soil surface and periodically turned over (tilled) to aerate
the mixture
Composting - Aerobic bacteria and fungi decompose the organic matter into compost used as
fertilizer.
Bio-augmentation - the addition of archaea or bacterial cultures required to speed up the rate
of degradation of a contaminant.
Bio-stimulation - modification of the environment to stimulate existing bacteria capable of

bioremediation.
These are useful in many industries that now rely heavily on synthetic chemicals and end up
polluting the environment heavily.
38 Early Sangam texts mention different categories of people. Consider the following matches of these
categories with their social status.
26
Total Marks : 200
1. Uzhavar : Zamindars
2. Vellalar : Local banker
3. Adimai : Slaves

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Correct Answer : B
There was a growing differentiation amongst people engaged in agriculture were based on
differential access to land, labour and some of the new technologies.
Early Sangam texts mention different categories of people engaged in agriculture were based
on differential access to land, labour and some of the new technologies.
In south India people who were divided into three groups– large landowners or vellalar,
ploughmen or uzhavar and slaves or adimai.
In the country side of Northern India people were divided into three groups - landless
agricultural labourers, small peasants, as well as large landholders.
The term gahapati was often used in Pali texts to designate the second and third categories.
39 Global Youth Development Index (YDI) is published by
A. Commonwealth Secretariat
B. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
C. Carnegie Melon Institute
D. International Bureau of Education (IBE)
Correct Answer : A
Justification & Learning: India has been ranked 133rd out of 183 countries in the 2016 Global
Youth Development Index (YDI) compiled by the Commonwealth Secretariat.
The Global Youth Development Index report measures countries’ prospects for young people
in employment, education, health, civic and political spheres.
Top countries in 2016 YDI are Germany (1), Denmark (2), Australia (3).
India’s neighbours: Sri Lanka (31), Bhutan (69) and Nepal (77).
India accounts for nearly 20% of the global youth population, with nearly 345 million young
27
Total Marks : 200
people between the ages of 15 and 30 living in the country.

India’s overall rank in 2016 YDU is relatively low, but it has registered an 11% improvement
in scores over last five years (from 2010 and 2015).
The report highlights need for greater investment to reap so-called demographic dividend.
Youth development levels in India lag particularly in the domains of education, health and
employment.
Q Source: Some important indexes
40 Consider the following statements.

1. Mauryas used punch-marked coins made of silver and copper.
2. The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks.
3. Yaudheyas of Punjab and Haryana were renowned for issuing copper coins.
4. Both Kushanas and Guptas issued gold coins.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Justification & Learning: Exchanges were facilitated by the introduction of coinage. Punch-
marked coins made of silver and copper (c. sixth century BCE onwards) were amongst the earliest
to be minted and used by many dynasties including the Mauryas.
The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks, who
established control over the north-western part of the subcontinent c. second century BCE.
The first gold coins were issued in the first century CE by the Kushanas (some sources dispute
this fact). These were virtually identical in weight with those issued by Roman emperors and
the Parthian rulers of Iran.
Coins were also issued by tribal republics of Punjab and Haryana called the Yaudheyas.
Archaeologists have unearthed several thousand copper coins issued by the Yaudheyas.
Some of the most spectacular gold coins were issued by the Gupta rulers. The earliest coins
issued by Guptas were remarkable for their purity. These coins facilitated long-distance
transactions from which kings also benefited.
41 These are some of the joint military exercises India holds with several countries. Consider the
matches of exercises with the partner nations.
1. Indradhanush : India-UK
2. Varuna : India-Sri Lanka
28
Total Marks : 200
3. Exercise Malabar : India-USA

4. Surya Kiran : India-Nepal

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : C
These are frequently in news. Here is a useful compilation.
Indian Navy Joint Exercises
Varuna naval exercise : France and India.
SLINEX-Sri Lanka India
INDRA - India and Russia
Exercise Malabar - United States and India.
Simbex - Indian Navy with Republic of Singapore Navy
IBSAMAR with the Brazil and South African navies.
KONKAN - A bilateral Naval Exercise between Indian Navy and Royal Navy of Britain
Indian Army Joint Exercises
Mithra Shakti exercise- India and Sri Lanka.
Hand-in-Hand -India-China joint military training exercise
Exercise Shakti - India and France armies
29
Total Marks : 200
Exercise Nomadic Elephant- Indian Army exercises with the Mongolian Army.
Exercise Yuddh Abhyas is a series of joint exercises between the Indian and United States
Armies since 2005.
Surya Kiran - India Nepal joint military exercise
LAMITYE- India and Seychelles
Prabal Dostyk - India Kazhakhstan Joint exercise
Q Source: Frequently in news: For example see,

www.pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=118561
http://www.ndtv.com/india-news/indo-nepal-joint-military-exercise-kicks-off-1587086
42 The Union Cabinet gives its in-principle approval for strategic sale of many public sector
undertakings (PSUs). What do you understand by “strategic sale”?
A. Transfer of management and significant ownership from government to the private sector
B. Transfer of key state-of-the-art technologies from government to private sector
C. Transfer of administrative staff only to the private sector
D. Transfer of all shares of PSUs to retail investors
Correct Answer : A
Learning: In Strategic disinvestment the management control and a significant proportion of a

PSU’s share goes to a private sector strategic partner.
Thus, strategic disinvestment of a PSU is different from the ordinary disinvestment in which
management of PSU is retained with Government.
According to the Department of Disinvestment, in the strategic disinvestment of a PSU, the

transaction has two elements: (i) Transfer of a block of shares to a Strategic Partner and (ii)
Transfer of management control to the Strategic Partner.
Q Source: PIB –Cabinet decisions
43 If you visit the Parliament of India, you would NOT find it working in ordinary circumstances in which
of the following months?
30
Total Marks : 200
A. February
B. June
C. September
D. December
Correct Answer : B
Justification: There are usually three sessions in a year, viz,
the Budget Session (February to May);

the Monsoon Session (July to September); and
the Winter Session (November to December).
The president from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet. But, the maximum gap
between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. The Parliament must meet at
least twice a year.
44 Consider the following about the Biotech-KISAN Scheme.

1. Fellowships are given to women farmers for training and education in farm practice.
2. Government will undertake an ambitious project of genome sequencing of registered indigenous
cattle breeds of India.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Statement 1: Its purpose is to connect farmers, scientist and science institution across country.
Under it, fellowship will be given to women farmers for training and education in farm practice.
Scientists will spend time on farms and link communication tools to soil, water seed and market.
The main aim of the scheme is to understand individual problems of the small holding farmers and
provide ready solutions.
Statement 2: This is a part of another scheme that was launched simultaneously – Cattle Genomics.
31
Total Marks : 200
The Cattle Genomics Scheme aims at boosting selective breeding of the native livestock more
accurately to ensure high-yielding, disease-resistant, resilient livestock.
Q Source: Important schemes

1. Most fungi are autotrophs.
2. Fungi gain their biomass from oxidizing organic materials.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Fungi and such other oxidize biomass and thus called decomposers and are not primary producers.
So, S1 is incorrect.
However, fungi in other forms, when forming symbiotic relation with algae can become primary
producers.
For e.g. lichens located in tundra climates are an exceptional example of a primary producer that,
by mutualistic symbiosis, combine photosynthesis by algae (or additionally nitrogen fixation by
cyanobacteria) with the protection of a decomposer fungus.
46 Which of these authorities appointed the last Governor General of free India?
A. Prime Minister of the Interim government

B. Constituent Assembly
C. British Crown
D. Predecessor Viceroy
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Even though India was a free country after 1947, it was still a British dominion, and
became a republic only after the enactment of the constitution.
32
Total Marks : 200
Till this point, the British government (even though not sovereign in India) played an important role
in managing Indian affairs.
C.Rajagopalachari was appointed as the last Governor General of free India by the British crown.
47 Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites can be used for which of these applications?
1. Monitor shoreline changes
2. Monitor ocean circulation and current systems
3. Telecommunications and tele-networking
4. Chart wildlife habitats

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Remote sensing is the science of obtaining information about objects or areas from a
distance, typically from aircraft or satellites.
Remote sensors collect data by detecting the energy that is reflected from Earth. These
sensors can be on satellites or mounted on aircraft.
All these are placed in polar Sun-synchronous orbit. Varieties of instruments have been flown
onboard these satellites to provide necessary data in a diversified spatial, spectral and
temporal resolutions to cater to different user requirements in the country and for global
usage.
Remote sensing has a wide range of applications in many different fields:
Coastal applications: Monitor shoreline changes, track sediment transport, and map coastal
features. Data can be used for coastal mapping and erosion prevention.
Ocean applications: Monitor ocean circulation and current systems, measure ocean
temperature and wave heights, and track sea ice. Data can be used to better understand the
oceans and how to best manage ocean resources.
Hazard assessment: Track hurricanes, earthquakes, erosion, and flooding. Data can be used
to assess the impacts of a natural disaster and create preparedness strategies to be used
before and after a hazardous event.
Natural resource management: Monitor land use, map wetlands, and chart wildlife habitats.
Data can be used to minimize the damage that urban growth has on the environment and help
decide how to best protect natural resources.
33
Total Marks : 200
th
Q Source: AR: Page 123: 12 NCERT: India, People and Economy
48 Which of these social schemes/programmes has a bearing on tribal welfare?

1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
2. Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana
3. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
4. Stand Up India Scheme

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
We have covered some of these schemes in our previous tests, so a detailed explanation of each may
not be required.
Statement 1: MGNREGA provides the right to work to every adult living in rural areas. This applies
to tribals as well; hence the bearing on tribal welfare.
Statement 2: It is the revised version of NRLM (Aajevika) yojana that aims to reduce rural poverty
by empowering Self-Help groups (SHG).
Statement 3: PMGSY has connected many tribal hamlets, previously unconnected by an all-weather
road.
Statement 4: Stand up India schemes specially targets SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
Q Source: Major schemes covered in previous tests
49 The South-Western Plateau Region is known for the deposits of which of the following minerals?
1. Ferrous metals
2. Bauxite
3. Coal
4. Kyanite

A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
34
Total Marks : 200
Correct Answer : D
Learning: This belt extends over Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.
This belt is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite.
India is the largest producer of kyanite in the world. The USA, the UK and Japan depend heavily on
imports from India. Jharkhand, Maharashtra and Karnataka produce practically the whole of kyanite
of India.
Kyanite in the form of mullite is widely used in the manufacture of glass, burner tips, spark
plugs, heating elements and high voltage electrical insulations and in the ceramic industry.
The belt also contains high grade iron ore, manganese and limestone. This belt packs in coal
deposits except Neyveli lignite.
This belt does not have as diversified mineral deposits as the north-eastern belt.
Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, bauxite clay. Goa has iron ore deposits.
th
Q Source: Page 73: 12 NCERT: India, People and Economy
50 Histories of the Gupta rulers have sometimes been reconstructed from Prashastis, which are
A. Compositions of praise of kings in particular

B. Religious textual traditions of the Gupta empire
C. Administrative records of the empire
D. Rock inscriptions maintained by the kings
Correct Answer : A
Background and Learning: For the ancient Indian kings, one means of claiming high status was
to identify with a variety of deities. This strategy is best exemplified by the Kushanas (c. first
century BCE-first century CE), who ruled over a vast kingdom extending from Central Asia to
northwest India. Their history has been reconstructed from inscriptions and textual traditions. The
notions of kingship they wished to project are perhaps best evidenced in their coins and sculpture.
Colossal statues of Kushana rulers have been found installed in a shrine at Mat near Mathura (Uttar
Pradesh). Similar statues have been found in a shrine in Afghanistan as well.
Some historians feel this indicates that the Kushanas considered themselves godlike. Many Kushana
rulers also adopted the title devaputra, or “son of god”, possibly inspired by Chinese rulers who
35
Total Marks : 200
called themselves sons of heaven.
By the fourth century there is evidence of larger states, including the Gupta Empire. Many of these
depended on samantas, men who maintained themselves through local resources including control
over land. They offered homage and provided military support to rulers. Powerful samantas could
become kings: conversely, weak rulers might find themselves being reduced to positions of
subordination.
Histories of the Gupta rulers have been reconstructed from literature, coins and inscriptions,
including prashastis, composed in praise of kings in particular, and patrons in general, by poets.
While historians often attempt to draw factual information from such compositions, those who
composed and read them often treasured them as works of poetry rather than as accounts that were
literally true. The Prayaga Prashasti (also known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription) composed in
Sanskrit by Harishena, the court poet of Samudragupta, arguably the most powerful of the Gupta
rulers (c. fourth century CE), is a case in point.
th
51 Consider the following statements about coastal lagoons and their characteristics.
1. Coastal lagoons generally form near flat or gently sloping landscapes near shores.
2. Coastal lagoons may be formed in areas with small tidal range.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: A lagoon is a shallow body of water protected from a larger body of water (usually
the ocean) by sandbars, barrier islands, or coral reefs. Lagoons are often called estuaries, sounds,
bays, or even lakes.
Statement 1: Lagoons sheltered by sandbars or barrier islands are called coastal lagoons. Coastal
lagoons form along coastal plains—flat or gently sloping landscapes. They form in areas with small
tidal ranges. Coastal lagoons are created as a shallow basin near the shore gradually erodes, and
the ocean seeps in between the sandbars or barrier islands.
The size and depth of coastal lagoons often depend on sea level. When the sea level is low, coastal
lagoons are swampy wetlands. When the sea level is high, they can look like coastal lakes or bays.
Q Source: AR: Page 63: 12th NCERT: India, People and Economy
52 With reference to the Harappan civilization, consider the following statements.
36
Total Marks : 200
1. Harappan seals were made either from metal or clay and always contain animal motifs.
2. Drainage systems were only found in three of the largest Harappan cities.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer : D
Justification: S1: The figure shown below is considered one of most distinctive artefact of the
Harappan or Indus valley civilisation.
Made of a stone called steatite, seals like this one often contain animal motifs and signs from a
script that remains undeciphered. Yet we know a great deal about the lives of the people who lived
in the region from what they left behind – their houses, pots, ornaments, tools and seals – in other
words, from archaeological evidence.
S2: Drainage systems were not unique to the larger cities, but were found in smaller settlements as
well. At Lothal for example, while houses were built of mud bricks, drains were made of burnt
bricks.
About the drains, Ernest Mackay noted: “It is certainly the most complete ancient system as yet
discovered.” Every house was connected to the street drains.
The main channels were made of bricks set in mortar and were covered with loose bricks that could
be removed for cleaning. In some cases, limestone was used for the covers.
th
Q Source: Pg 1 and 3: Ch 1: 12 NCERT: Themes in Indian History
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Total Marks : 200
53 Agricultural lands are generally left as fallow lands. This is done because
A. Soil gets time to recoup its natural fertility.

B. Organic matter in soil exceeds the desired levels.
C. Fallow lands are converted to wastelands to construct embankments.
D. These lands are left to be used for social forestry.
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Fallow is the stage of crop rotation in which the land is deliberately not used to raise a
crop.
Ground may be fallowed as part of a larger crop rotation plan or as a method to conserve moisture
as in the summer fallow technique used in dryland farming.
The practice of leaving fields fallow dates back to ancient times when farmers realized that using
soil over and over again depleted its nutrients.
If the duration of fallow is substantially reduced owing to multiple cropping, the soil does not get
enough time to recuperate and allow natural fertilization like nitrogen fixation. If fallow is
increased, it will help in nutrient replenishment.
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Q Source: Improvisation: Page 58: 12 NCERT: India, People and Economy
54 The unemployment that results due to seasonal decline in aggregate demand is generally termed as
A. Frictional unemployment
B. Natural rate of unemployment
C. Cyclical unemployment
D. Structural unemployment
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Frictional unemployment is the unemployment which exists in any economy due to
people being in the process of moving from one job to another.
Structural unemployment is a form of unemployment caused by a mismatch between the skills that
workers in the economy can offer, and the skills demanded of workers by employers (also known as
the skills gap).
Natural rate of unemployment is the sum of Frictional and structural unemployment.
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Total Marks : 200
Cyclical unemployment is a factor of overall unemployment that relates to the cyclical trends in
growth and production that occur within the business cycle. When business cycles are at their peak,
cyclical unemployment will be low because total economic output is being maximized.
Q Source: Basics: Inflation and Unemployment
55 In the context of Modern History of India, the Azamgarh Proclamation is generally associated with
A. Sepoy Mutiny 1857

B. Swadeshi Movement
C. Rowlatt Satyagraha
D. Champaran Movement
Correct Answer : A
Learning: This proclamation was published in the Delhi Gazette in the midst of the “Great Mutiny”
of 1857.
The author was most probably Firoz Shah, a grandson of the Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah
Zafar, whose restoration to full power was a main aim of the rebels.
It expressed complete disillusionment with the British Rule and express the fear that British
missionaries were, with government connivance, attempting to Christianize India came to a
head among the British East India Company’s sepoy troops.
It is one of the most significant sources of information about the objective of the rebels.
Q Source: Based on past year UPSC papers
56 Consider the following about the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR).
1. It was founded before India’s independence.
2. It aims to promote cultural exchange with other countries and peoples.
3. It funds research in premier cultural institutions of India.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
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Total Marks : 200
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: It was founded in 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, independent
India’s first Education Minister.
Statement 2: Its objectives are to actively participate in the formulation and implementation of
policies and programmes pertaining to India’s external cultural relations; to foster and strengthen
cultural relations and mutual understanding between India and other countries; to promote cultural
exchanges with other countries and people; and to develop relations with nations.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=136740
http://www.mea.gov.in/indian-council-for-cultural-relations.htm
57 Gandhi opposed separate electorates because he believed

1. It would mean perpetual bondage of the harijans.
2. It would lead to social disharmony and lack of unity.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Separate Electorates mean the community to which the electorate
belongs would choose their own leaders via an election in which the candidates of only their
community would be allowed to contest and only their community members would vote.
This would mean that the elections for choosing the leaders of that particular community would be
held separately and would not come under general elections.
He believed this system will institutionally cement the untouchable status of harijans forever.
Statement 2: Gandhi, who was in jail in Poona, declared, “I am certain that the question of separate
electorates for the Untouchables is the modern manufacture of satanic government. I will resist it
with my life.” He was opposed to separate electorates and saw three Indias: Hindus, Muslims, and
Untouchables.
th
40
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1. Methyl mercury can accumulate in edible fish tissue and pose danger to humans.
2. Cadmium can enter the drinking water supply through corrosion of galvanized pipe and pollute it.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Methyl mercury and related short chain alkyl, mercurial compounds are
most dangerous to humans, as they accumulate in edible fish tissue.
Although acid deposition may not increase the production of methyl mercury, it may increase the
partitioning of methyl mercury into the water column.
The use of lime has helped in reducing the mercury levels in fish.
Statement 2: It can enter the drinking water supply through corrosion of galvanized pipe or from
the copper-zinc through corrosion of galvanized piper or from the copper-zinc solder used in the
distribution systems.
A decrease in water pH from 6.5 to 4.5 can result in a fivefold increase in cadmium and could cause
renal tubular damage.
59 The term ‘Exoplanet’ often seen in news is used for
A. A planet that does not orbit the Sun and instead orbits a different star
B. A dwarf planet that is a part of our solar system
C. A large asteroid that supports near life conditions
D. A brown stellar remnant that orbits our solar system
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Scientists have discovered a new ‘super Earth’ type exoplanet named as GJ 536b orbiting
a very bright star near to our Sun.
The planet has a very short orbital period (nearly 9 days only) which would come handy in
conducting future studies of biological activity.
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Total Marks : 200
An Exoplanet is a planet that does not orbit the Sun and instead orbits a different star, stellar
remnant, or brown dwarf. It is also termed as extrasolar planet.
Super-earths are those extrasolar planets which are larger than the Earth. However they have mass
substantially below the solar system’s giant planets namely Neptune and Uranus.
Q Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2016/11/161116102103.htm
60 With reference to ancient India, masattuvan were
A. Shamanic healers
B. Traditional weavers
C. Pepper cultivators
D. Rich merchants
Correct Answer : D
Background and Learning: From the sixth century BCE, land and river routes criss-crossed the
subcontinent and extended in various directions – overland into Central Asia and beyond, and
overseas, from ports that dotted the coastline – extending across the Arabian Sea to East and North
Africa and West Asia, and through the Bay of Bengal to Southeast Asia and China.
Rulers often attempted to control these routes, possibly by offering protection for a price. Those
who traversed these routes included peddlers who probably travelled on foot and merchants who
travelled with caravans of bullock carts and pack-animals. Also, there were seafarers, whose
ventures were risky but highly profitable.
Successful merchants, designated as masattuvan in Tamil and setthis and satthavahas in Prakrit,
could become enormously rich. A wide range of goods were carried from one place to another – salt,
grain, cloth, metal ores and finished products, stone, timber, medicinal plants, to name a few.
Spices, especially pepper, were in high demand in the Roman Empire, as were textiles and
medicinal plants, and these were all transported across the Arabian Sea to the Mediterranean.
61 BSE-GREENEX measures
A. Total market value of carbon-intensive products in the economy

B. Performance of the companies in terms of Carbon Emissions
C. Trade balance in green products
D. Movement in sovereign debt of green economies
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Correct Answer : B
Learning: Bombay Stock Exchange had launched this index.
Greenex has 20 companies from the broader BSE 100 index that meet energy efficiency norms,
allowing investors to derive benefit from the related cost savings.
The top-ranking companies from each sector like power, steel, cement have made it to the new
index called BSE-GREENEX
The BSE-GREENEX Index is a veritable first step in creating a credible market based response
mechanism in India, whereby both businesses and investors can rely upon purely quantitative and
objective performance based signals, to assess "carbon performance”.
Q Source: Stock market indices

1. Expansion of foreign trade in the Mughal Empire often involved the use of silver bullions as
payment.
2. Silver coins were discontinued in British India in view of growing deficit of the precious metal.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Voyages of discovery and the opening up of the New World (America)
resulted in a massive expansion of India’s trade with Europe.
An expanding trade brought in huge amounts of silver bullion into India to pay for goods
procured from India. This was good for India because it did not have natural resources of
silver.
As a result, the period between the 16th and 17th centuries was also marked by a remarkable
stability in the availability of metal currency, particularly the silver rupya in India. This
facilitated an unprecedented expansion of minting and circulating of silver coins.
Statement 2: Copper, Gold and Silver coinages were issued during the British rule.
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Total Marks : 200
There are many rare coins of this period which interests the coin collectors. The 1939 Rupee is the
most expensive rupee, as after 1939 all silver coins effectively became less pure, due to the
shortage of silver during the world war.
Q Source: Additional Research: Ch 8: Themes in Indian History – II: 12th NCERT
63 The ‘three language formula’ in India is related to which of the following?
A. Conservation of endangered tribal languages in Sixth Schedule areas only

B. Diplomatic code for encrypted communication with foreign observers and visitors
C. Education language policy of the government
D. Translation of ancient scriptures for preservation in traditional knolwdge digital library
Correct Answer : C
Learning: The three-language formula for language learning was formulated in 1968 by the
Ministry of Education of the Government of India in consultation with the states.
It provides for the study of "Hindi, English and modern Indian language (preferably one of the
southern languages) in the Hindi speaking states and Hindi, English and the Regional
language in the non-Hindi speaking States".
The formula was formulated in response to demands from non-Hindi speaking states of the
South, such as Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and mainly Tamil Nadu.
However, Tamil Nadu Government opposed the three language formula and continued to
teach only two languages, that is, English and Tamil in the educational institutions of the
state.
Q Source: Chapter on National Integration: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
64 Consider the following with reference to the forest Society and tribes in the Mughal Period.
1. Forest tribes often supplied elephants to the state as a tribute.
2. Forests provided gum lac which was a major export item overseas from India.
3. The state banned private commercial agriculture in forest regions to preserve their pristine ecology.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Total Marks : 200
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: For the state, the forest was a place of rebels and troublemakers. Babur
says that jungles provided a good defence “behind which the people of the pargana become
stubbornly rebellious and pay no taxes”.
The state required elephants for the army. Elephants were captured from forest and sold. So the
peshkash (tribute) levied from forest people often included a supply of elephants.
Statement 2 and 3: The spread of commercial agriculture was an important external factor that
impinged on the lives of tribals. So, 3 is wrong.
Forest products –like honey, beeswax and gum lac – were in great demand. Some, such as gum lac,
became major items of overseas export from India in the seventeenth century.
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Q Source: Pg 208: Themes in Indian History – II: 12 NCERT
65 Which one of the following statements correctly differentiates between ‘Exit Poll’ and ‘Opinion Poll’?
1. ‘Exit Polls’ are used by the ECI to prevent impersonation and forgery in the electoral process,
whereas opinion polls are used before the elections to gauge popular mood.
2. The final result of elections is derived from ‘Exit Polls’, whereas ‘opinion polls’ do not carry any
administrative value apart from acting as a conduit of general public opinion.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: An election exit poll is a poll of voters taken immediately after they
have exited the polling stations. Unlike an opinion poll, which asks for whom the voter plans to vote,
or some similar formulation, an exit poll asks for whom the voter actually voted.
Statement 2: However, every voter may not reveal his correct preferences. So, result is based only
on counting of votes in the ballot box or via the EVM.
Opinion polls are usually designed to represent the opinions of a population by conducting a series
of questions and then extrapolating generalities in ratio or within confidence intervals.
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66 ‘Brown tides’ in ocean occur due to

1. Algal blooms caused by phytoplankton
2. Increased human forage on ocean surface waters
3. Upwelling of seagrass to the top layers

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Brown tides are part of growing world-wide incidences of harmful algal
blooms (HAB) which are caused by a proliferation of single-celled marine plants called
phytoplankton.
Statement 2: Brown tide is a natural phenomenon with no or little known linkage to human activity.
Moreover, Brown tide is fortunately not toxic to fish, so it does not cause fish kills like red tide does.
Statement 3: It is not caused by seagrass. Instead, brown tides for long periods of time and in dense
enough concentrations can harm seagrasses by blocking out the sunlight they need to survive.
67 How does the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decide what inflation rates it will target in a
particular financial year?
A. It is based entirely on domestic and global economic developments.

B. The rate is fixed within a flexible band by government under an agreement with RBI.
C. It is calculated solely based on the money supply in the economy.
D. The inflation rate is linked with the interest rate on the lowest yielding bond in the country.
Correct Answer : B
Learning: The Government amended the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 during the present
financial year.
The amended Act provides for inflation target to be set by the Government, in consultation with the
Reserve Bank, once in every five years and further provides for a statutory basis for the constitution
of an empowered Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).
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As per the revised monetary policy framework, the Government has fixed the inflation target of 4
per cent with tolerance level of +/- 2 per cent for the period beginning from 2016 to 2021.
Q Source: Basics: Monetary Policy
68 Consider the following terms in the context of Medieval India and their correct matches.
1. Jajmani system: Art of craft production
2. Mallahzadas: Cattle traders
3. Milkiyat: Private Land of Zamindars
Select the correct matches using the codes below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Zamindars in Bengal who remunerated blacksmiths, carpenters, even

goldsmiths for their work by paying them “a small daily allowance and diet money”. This later came
to be described as the jajmani system, though the term was not in vogue in the sixteenth and
seventeenth centuries.
Statement 2: Despite the abundance of cultivable land, certain caste groups were assigned menial
tasks and thus relegated to poverty.
In Muslim communities menials like the halalkhoran, those who cut meat were housed outside the
boundaries of the village; similarly the mallahzadas, boatmen in Bihar were comparable to slaves.
Statement 3: The zamindars held extensive personal lands termed milkiyat, meaning property.
Milkiyat lands were cultivated for the private use of zamindars, often with the help of hired labour.
The zamindars could sell or donate these lands at will.
Zamindars also derived their power from the state that they could often collect revenue on behalf of
the state.
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Q Source: Ch 8: Themes in Indian History – II: 12 NCERT
69 Open burning of coal can expose you to

1. Arsenic
2. Cadmium
3. Sulfur dioxide
4. Nitrogen oxides
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Total Marks : 200

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Burning coal is also a leading cause of smog, acid rain (SOx and NOx), and toxic air
pollution.
Coal plants are responsible for more than half of the U.S. human-caused emissions of mercury.
Other harmful pollutants emitted annually from an uncontrolled coal plant include lead, cadmium,
other toxic heavy metals, carbon monoxide, arsenic, volatile organic compounds (VOC) etc.
Inhalation exposure to beryllium primarily occurs in the workplaces where it is mined, processed, or
converted into alloys and chemicals, or from the burning of coal or fuel oil and in tobacco smoke.
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Q Source: Page 136: 12 NCERT: India, People and Economy
70 In the Eighteenth Century a number of astronomical structures were built by Jai Singh II in west-
central India. These are today known by the common name of
A. Yantra Vedhshala
B. Samarqand Observatory
C. Grahadhyaya
D. Jantar Mantar
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Between 1727 and 1734 Jai Singh II built five observatories, all similar, in five different
parts of west-central India. All were known by the name Jantar Mantar. They are located at Delhi,
Jaipur, Ujjain, Mathura and Varanasi.
He was given the task of revising the calendar and astronomical tablesby Mughal emperor
Muhammad Shah.
While the purpose of the Jantar Mantars was astronomy and astrology (Jyotish), they are also
a major tourist attraction and a significant monument of the history of astronomy.
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Total Marks : 200
The primary purpose of the observatory was to compile astronomical tables, and to predict the
times and movements of the sun, moon and planets.
Q Source: Ch 8: Themes in Indian History – II: 12th NCERT
71 Consider the following matches.

1. Appendix I CITES Agreement: Prohibited trade in species that are in danger of extinction
2. Schedule I Wild Life Act, India: Lists all Endemic Species of India
3. Annexure A Kyoto Protocol: Parties who do not have binding obligation to reduce their GHG
emissions

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Appendix I: It lists species that are in danger of extinction. It prohibits
commercial trade of these plants and animals except in extraordinary situations for scientific or
educational reasons. Appendix II species: They are those that are not threatened with extinction but
that might suffer a serious decline in number if trade is not restricted.
Statement 2: Schedule I contains the list of endangered species providing them protection against
poaching.
Statement 3: Annex I Parties Kyoto Protocol are those who have agreed to reduce their GHG
emissions below their individual base year levels or at their base year levels. Non-Annex I Parties
who are not obligated by caps or Annex I
Annex B parties with binding targets in later periods.
72 The sixth century BCE is regarded as a major turning point in early Indian history. It is associated
with which of the following?
1. Use of silver for the first time
2. Development of coinage
3. Practice of “gana” oligarchies in mahajanpadas

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
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C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Silver was being used since Harappan times. So, 1 is wrong. It is
an era associated with early states, cities, the growing use of iron, the development of coinage, etc.
Statement 3: It also witnessed the growth of diverse systems of thought, including Buddhism and
Jainism. Early Buddhist and Jaina texts mention, amongst other things, sixteen states known as
mahajanapadas.
While most mahajanapadas were ruled by kings, some, known as ganas or sanghas, were
oligarchies, where power was shared by a number of men, often collectively called rajas. Both
Mahavira and the Buddha belonged to such ganas.
In some instances, as in the case of the Vajji sangha, the rajas probably controlled resources such as
land collectively.
73 Special provisions for marginalized classes in the constitution are related to

#00000
1. Reservation in Legislatures and local bodies
2. Educational Grants
3. Appointment of Commissions to investigate their socio-economic condition

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: These special provisions are contained in Part XVI of the Constitution from Articles
330 to 342. They are also related to Special Representation in Legislatures; Reservation in Services
and Posts; Educational Grants and Appointment of National Commissions (e.g. NCST).
Statement 2: Such grants are provided for e.g. under A275 for the purpose of promoting the welfare
of Scheduled Tribes in that State or raising the level of administration of the Scheduled Areas
therein to that of the administration of the rest of the areas of that State.
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Total Marks : 200
Q Source: Chapter on Special Provisions: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
74 Which of these is the most productive ecosystem in terms of primary productivity per unit area?
A. Algal Bed and Coral reefs

B. Cultivated Land
C. Temperate Forests
D. Savannah
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Gross primary production (GPP) is the amount of chemical energy as biomass that
primary producers create in a given length of time.
Some fraction of this fixed energy is used by primary producers for cellular respiration and
maintenance of existing tissues (i.e., "growth respiration" and "maintenance respiration").
The remaining fixed energy (i.e., mass of photosynthate) is referred to as net primary production
(NPP).
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Total Marks : 200
In the oceans, light and nutrients are important controlling factors for productivity. Light
penetrates only into the uppermost level of the oceans, so photosynthesis occurs in surface and
near-surface waters.
However, among aquatic ecosystems, algal beds and coral reefs have the highest net primary
production, while the lowest rates occur in the open due to a lack of nutrients in the illuminated
surface layers.
75 The ‘Mature’ Harappan culture is dated to
A. Circa 1900 and 1000 BCE

B. Circa 2600 and 1900 BCE
C. Circa 5000 and 4000 BCE
D. Circa 6000 and 5500 BCE
Correct Answer : B
Learning: The Indus valley civilisation is also called the Harappan culture.
Named after Harappa, the first site where this unique culture was discovered, the civilisation is
dated between c. 2600 and 1900 BCE. There were earlier and later cultures, often called Early
Harappan and Late Harappan, in the same area. The Harappan civilisation is sometimes called the
Mature Harappan culture to distinguish it from these cultures.
Archaeologists use the term “culture” for a group of objects, distinctive in style, that are usually
52
Total Marks : 200
found together within a specific geographical area and period of time. In the case of the Harappan
culture, these distinctive objects include seals, beads, weights, stone blades and even baked bricks.
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76 Some time back China was granted “Market Economy Status” by the World Trade Organization
(WTO). What are the implications of this development?
1. India is now bound under WTO rules to negotiate and sign a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with
China.
2. It curbs India’s ability to impose anti-dumping duties on ‘unfairly priced’ Chinese imports.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Concept: Under WTO norms, once a country gets MES status, exports from it are to be accepted at
the production costs and selling price as the benchmark. Prior to this status, country is considered
as a Non Market Economy (NME).
Market Economy Status will mean lesser chances of anti-dumping duties being imposed or lesser
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Total Marks : 200
anti-dumping duties even if they are imposed. This is because a market economy does not exploit
the monopoly of the state to unreasonably lower the prices of goods to make them competitive
abroad.
Justification: Statement 1: There is no such compulsion. WTO operates on multilateral basis. No

nation is forced to sign FTAs or treaties with other nations. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: The WTO-member countries had decided to deem China as a 'market economy' in anti-
dumping cases from December 2016.
As per the 2001 agreement (before this one), to calculate the 'normal value' of exported goods
while adjudicating anti-dumping cases, the WTO member nations could ignore the selling
price and production costs in China.
India is not inclined to automatically grant the coveted ‘Market Economy Status’ (MES) to
China under World Trade Organisation (WTO) norms in December 2016.
The main reason India is reluctant to grant MES to China is that it will severely curb India’s
ability to impose anti-dumping duties on “unfairly priced” Chinese imports.
Q Source: An important current affairs:

http://www.thehindu.com/business/india-is-noncommittal-on-market-economy-tag-for-china/article93
57908.ece?textsize=small&test=2
77 Consider the following matches of important officials in the Mughal Empire and their responsibilities.
1. Fotedar : Treasurer
2. Diwan-i-Rasalat : Army Commander
3. Karkuns : Engineering structures
4. Diwan-i-Insha : Minister for Communications

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1 and 3: The treasurer was Fotehdar and the entire amount collected was
kept in his custody. He also maintained account of the income and expenditure of the paragana.
Besies Fotedar, Karkuns handled matters related to accounts of the Paraganas.
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Total Marks : 200
Statement 2 and 4: The central government of Sher Shah Suri consisted of several departments.
The king was assisted by four important ministers:
Diwan –i- Wizarat – (Wazir) – in charge of Revenue and Finance.
Diwan-i-Ariz – in charge of Army.
Diwan-i-Rasalat- Foreign Minister.
Diwan-i-Insha- Minister for Communications.
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Q Source: AR: Page 214: Themes in Indian History – II: 12 NCERT
78 The easternmost Harappan site amongst the following is
A. Rakhigarhi
B. Sutkagendor
C. Dholavira
D. Ganweriwala
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Please refer to the map below:
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Total Marks : 200
th
79 A substantial increase in atmospheric aerosols is likely to

1. Affect rainfall patterns
2. Cut down the destruction of stratospheric ozone significantly
3. Increase global warming by large proportions

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 2: Aerosols also can act as sites for chemical reactions to take place such
as those that lead to the destruction of stratospheric ozone.
During winter in the Polar Regions, aerosols grow to form polar stratospheric clouds. The
large surface areas of these cloud particles provide sites for chemical reactions to take place.
These reactions lead to the formation of large amounts of reactive chlorine and, ultimately, to
the destruction of ozone in the stratosphere.
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Total Marks : 200
Statement 1 and 3: Aerosols interact both directly and indirectly with the Earth's radiation budget
and climate. As a direct effect, the aerosols scatter sunlight directly back into space. This cools
down the planet, so 3 is wrong.
As an indirect effect, aerosols in the lower atmosphere can modify the size of cloud particles,
changing how the clouds reflect and absorb sunlight, thereby affecting the Earth's energy budget.
80 Which of the following Indian birds are globally critically endangered?
A. Spoon-billed Sandpiper, White-bellied Heron and Red-headed Vulture

B. Narcondam hornbill, Common Myna and Bengal Florican
C. Siberian crane, Broadbills and Woodshrikes
D. Andaman teal, Mallard and Spot-billed duck
Correct Answer : A
Learning: You can find the list here

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/15-indian-bird-species-among-globally-endangered/article5
928171.ece
Try to have a brief idea about every species, especially those that have unique habitats or
characteristics, for e.g. Great Indian Bustard, White-bellied Heron.
Option B and C: Mallard, Woodshrikes and Common Myna are species of Least Concern as per
IUCN.
Q Source: Test syllabus: Species – Southern India
81 Consider the following statements with reference to developments in Medieval India.

1. A personal astronomical observatory was built by Humayun on the banks of Yamuna River.
2. Metal cylinder rockets were often used in wars waged by some of the Mughal rulers.
3. Techniques related to making of shampoo and related alkali based soaps were introduced in Mughal
India from Europe.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
57
Total Marks : 200
Justification: Statement 1: Humayun was absorbed in astrology and astronomy.
Gyarah Sidi are the remains of the astrological observatory of the Mughal Emperor Humayun.
The ruins are situated at a stone’s throw from Babur’s Mehtab Bagh, in a field on the banks of the
Yamuna River in Agra.
Statement 2: Other Technological developments too occurred during Mughal Empire.
Fathullah Shirazi (1582), a Persian polymath and mechanical engineer who worked for Akbar,
developed a volley gun.
Akbar was the first to initiate and use metal cylinder rockets known as bans particularly
against War elephants, during the Battle of Sanbal.
Later, the Mysorean rockets were upgraded versions of Mughal rockets used during the Siege
of Jinji by the progeny of the Nawab of Arcot.
Statement 3: Sake Dean Mahomed had learned much of Mughal alchemy and understood the
techniques used to produce various alkali and soaps to produce shampoo when he was in India. He
introduced South Asian cuisine and shampoo baths to Europe, where he offered therapeutic
massage.
Sake Dean Mahomed was appointed as shampooing surgeon to both Kings George IV and William IV
!
Q Source: AR: Chapter 8: Themes in Indian History – II: 12th NCERT
82 What is the ecological and economic importance of estuaries?

1. They provide ideal conditions for Ports due to their complete separation with open sea.
2. They filter out sediments and pollutants from rivers and streams before they flow into the oceans.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
58
Total Marks : 200
Justification: Statement 1: An estuary is a partially enclosed coastal body of brackish water with
one or more rivers or streams flowing into it, and with a free connection to the open sea.
They are an important part of the shipping industry because there are many industrial ports
located in estuaries due its depth of water and connection with open sea. So, 1 is wrong.
Estuaries are often the economic centres of coastal communities. Estuaries provide habitat for
more than 75 percent of the U.S. commercial fish catch, and an even greater percentage of
the recreational fish catch
Statement 2: Estuaries also help to maintain healthy ocean environments. They filter water
providing cleaner habitats for marine life.
Estuaries also provide critical habitat for species that are valued commercially, recreationally, and
culturally. Birds, fish, amphibians, insects, and other wildlife depend on estuaries to live, feed, nest,
and reproduce.
83 The judicial powers and functions of the Governor include which of the following?
1. He is consulted by the president while appointing the judges of the concerned state high court.
2. He can commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law operating in
India.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Justification & Learning: Statement 1: He also makes appointments, postings and promotions of
the district judges in consultation with the state high court.
Moreover, he also appoints persons to the judicial service of the state (other than district judges) in
consultation with the state high court and the State Public Service Commission.
Statement 2: He can grant pardons, remissions etc of punishment or suspend, remit and commute
the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which
the executive power of the state extends. This isn’t applicable to Central laws. So, 2 is wrong.
59
Total Marks : 200
84 Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the
A. President of India
B. Presiding officer of the House
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Chief Election Commissioner
Correct Answer : B
Learning: The decision of Presiding officer is subject to judicial review.
The presiding officer of a House is also empowered to make rules to give effect to the
provisions of the Tenth Schedule.
All such rules must be placed before the House for thirty days. The House may approve or
modify or disapprove them.
Further, he may direct that any willful contravention by any member of such rules may be
dealt with in the same manner as a breach of privilege of the House.
According to the rules made so, the presiding officer can take up a defection case only when
he receives a complaint from a member of the House.
Before taking the final decision, he must give the member (against whom the complaint has
been made) a chance to submit his explanation. He may also refer the matter to the
committee of privileges for inquiry. Hence, defection has no immediate and automatic effect.
Q Source: Chapter on Anti-defection law: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
85 Which of these was/were some of the most important ideas in Jainism?

1. The entire world is fundamentally inanimate despite the contrary illusion.
2. There are no cycles of birth and death as objects come from nothingness and dissolve into
nothingness.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
60
Total Marks : 200
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world is animated:
even stones, rocks and water have life. Non-injury to living beings, especially to humans, animals,
plants and insects, is central to Jaina philosophy.
Statement 2: According to Jaina teachings, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma.
Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved
only by renouncing the world.
86 This officer of the East India Company deciphered Brahmi and Kharosthi, two scripts used in the
earliest inscriptions and coins in Indian subcontinent. He was
A. Ernest Mackay
B. R. Wheelstone
C. James Prinsep
D. Alfred Marshall
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Some of the most momentous developments in Indian epigraphy took place in the 1830s.
This was when James Prinsep, an officer in the mint of the East India Company, deciphered Brahmi
and Kharosthi, two scripts used in the earliest inscriptions and coins.
He found that most of these mentioned a king referred to as Piyadassi – meaning “pleasant to
behold”; there were a few inscriptions which also referred to the king as Asoka, one of the most
famous rulers known from Buddhist texts.
This gave a new direction to investigations into early Indian political history as European and Indian
scholars used inscriptions and texts composed in a variety of languages to reconstruct the lineages
of major dynasties that had ruled the subcontinent. As a result, the broad contours of political
history were in place by the early decades of the twentieth century.
th
87 Consider the following about Alvars and Nayanars.

1. They disapproved of the caste based discrimination in India.
2. They did not produce any written compositions.
3. Women devotees were not allowed within the Sangha.
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Total Marks : 200

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Some historians suggest that the Alvars and Nayanars initiated a
movement of protest against the caste system and the dominance of Brahmanas or at least
attempted to reform the system.
To some extent this is corroborated by the fact that bhaktas hailed from diverse social backgrounds
ranging from Brahmanas to artisans and cultivators and even from castes considered
“untouchable”.
Statement 2 & 3: The compositions of Andal, a woman Alvar, were widely sung. Another woman,
Karaikkal Ammaiyar, a devotee of Shiva, adopted the path of extreme asceticism in order to attain
her goal. So, 3 is wrong.
One of the major anthologies of compositions by the Alvars, the Nalayira Divyaprabandham, was
frequently described as the Tamil Veda, thus claiming that the text was as significant as the four
Vedas in Sanskrit that were cherished by the Brahmanas. So, 2 is also wrong.
th
88 Dhamma mahamattas, in the history of India, were officials who were appointed to administer
A. Civil and Criminal justice

B. Land deeds attached to religious institutions
C. Translation of vedic texts
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Ashoka tried to hold his empire together by propagating dhamma, the principles of
which, as we have seen, were simple and virtually universally applicable.
This, according to him, would ensure the well-being of people in this world and the next.
Special officers, known as the dhamma mahamatta, were appointed to spread the message of
62
Total Marks : 200
dhamma.
Dhamma Policy included included respect towards elders, generosity towards Brahmanas and
those who renounced worldly life, treating slaves and servants kindly, and respect for
religions and traditions other than one’s own.
However, they gradually developed into a type of priesthood of Dhamma with great powers
and soon began to interfere in politics.
89 The amount of incoming Ultraviolet radiation reaching the terrestrial and marine ecosystems is
dependent on which of the following factors?
1. Cloud cover in troposphere
2. Depth of water column in water bodies

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Cloud cover plays a highly influential role in the amount of both UV-A
and UV-B radiation reaching the ground. Each water droplet in a cloud scatters some incoming UV
radiation back into space, so a thick cover of clouds protects organisms and materials from almost
all UV. The larger the percentage of the sky that is covered by clouds, the less UV reaches the
ground.
Also, unlike clouds, aerosols in the troposphere, such as dust and smoke, not only scatter but also
absorb UV-B radiation. Usually the UV reduction by aerosols is only a few percent, but in regions of
heavy smoke or dust, aerosol particles can absorb more than 50 percent of the radiation.
Statement 2: UV-B exposure decreases rapidly at increasing depths in the water column. In other
words, water and the impurities in it strongly absorb and scatter incoming UV-B radiation. Some
substances that are dissolved in water, such as organic carbon from nearby land, will also absorb
UV-B radiation and enhance protection of microorganisms, plants, and animals from UV-B.
90 The Harappans procured materials for craft production from various sites. Match the following sites with the availability of
the material/stone in that site.
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Total Marks : 200
1. Lothal: Carnelian
2. Shortughai: Lapis Lazuli
3. Khetri: Copper
Select the correct matches using the codes below.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The Harappans procured materials for craft production in various ways. For
instance, they established settlements such as Nageshwar and Balakot in areas where shell was
available.
Other such sites were Shortughai, in far-off Afghanistan, near the best source of lapis lazuli, a blue
stone that was apparently very highly valued, and Lothal which was near sources of carnelian (from
Bharuch in Gujarat), steatite (from south Rajasthan and north Gujarat) and metal (from Rajasthan).
Another strategy for procuring raw materials may have been to send expeditions to areas such as
the Khetri region of Rajasthan (for copper) and south India (for gold). These expeditions established
communication with local communities. Occasional finds of Harappan artefacts such as steatite
micro beads in these areas are indications of such contact.
There is evidence in the Khetri area for what archaeologists call the Ganeshwar-Jodhpura culture,
with its distinctive non-Harappan pottery and an unusual wealth of copper objects. It is possible
that the inhabitants of this region supplied copper to the Harappans.
th
91 Kaniyan koothu is a
A. Ritual art form practised during temple festivals in Tamil Nadu

B. Bull sports practiced in Rayalseema region
C. Sculpture arts popular among the Nilgiri tribes
D. Harvest song of the primitive tribes of Kerala
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Kaniyan Koothu is at least 300 years old and can be traced back to 17th century.
64
Total Marks : 200
It is practised only by men. Kaniyan Koothu gets its name from the community that the artists
come from. Kaniyans are a Scheduled Tribe.
Instrument: Magudam, or frame drum is the main instrument. It is made by fixing the new
hide on the frame with a paste made from tamarind seed.
The lead singer is called annavi and he leads this troupe.
It also has an important religious significance, and not only about entertainment.
Kaniyan Koothu tells Puranic stories such as Markandeya and Harischandra Puranam and
tales from Ramayana and Mahabarata, besides local dieties.
There is a passing reference to the art in Mukkoodarpallu (Tamil poem from the Nayak
period).
Q Source: Surprise questions
92 Consider the following about Savanna type climate.

1. It is confined between the tropic lines and temperate regions.
2. It is characterized by year round rainfall and high rainfall.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: It is a transitional type of climate between the equatorial forest and the
trade wind hot deserts.
It is confined within the tropics. The belt includes West African Sudan, and then curves southward
into east Africa and southern Africa north of the tropic of Capricorn.
Statement 2: It is best developed in the Sudan where the dry and wet seasons are most distinct,
hence its name the Sudan climate.
Q Source: Chapter 17: Goh Cheng Leong: Certificate Physical and Human Geography
65
Total Marks : 200
93 Consider the following about External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).

1. It forms part of India’s capital account.
2. It can be used by start-ups operating from India.
3. It can be used to finance only the Equity based capital of companies.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
orrect Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: ECBs are defined as money borrowed from foreign resources including
the following: (i) Commercial bank loans (ii) Buyers’ credit and suppliers’ credit (iii) Credit from
official export credit agencies and commercial borrowings from the private sector window of
Multilateral Financial Institutions such as World Bank, ADB, AFIC, CDC, etc.
Since they form a part of our capital account, they add to India’s external debt.
Statement 2: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has permitted startups to raise external commercial
borrowings (ECBs) of up to $3 million in a financial year for three year tenure The new rules issued
by RBI aims at boosting innovation and promoting job creation in the country.
Statement 3: In case of Foreign Direct Investment, the foreign money is used to finance the Equity
Capital. But in case ECBs, foreign money is used to finance any kind of funding other than Equity.
Under the ECB route, borrowing of startups should be denominated in any freely convertible
currency or in Indian Rupees (INR) or a combination thereof.
Q Source:
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/small-biz/money/rbi-allows-start-ups-to-raise-3-million-through-
ecbs/articleshow/55098181.cms
94 The term “Second generation Reforms” is often heard in India in the context of
A. Economic Restructuring
B. Defence reorganization
C. Border demarcation
D. Decriminalization of politics
Correct Answer : A
66
Total Marks : 200
Learning: Even though it is a generic term, it is frequently used specifically for India’s economic
reforms.
The first generation of reforms in 1991 had pushed India to a high growth trajectory. The reforms
marked an end to the licence raj era, opened up the economy to foreign investments, and
introduced trade liberalisation and tax reforms.
However, the reforms haven’t been sufficient and second generation reforms have been demanded.
They imply a wide opening of sectors and deeper structural reforms of the economy. For e.g. land
reforms (including land acquisition); GST; FDI policy regime; deregulating fuel prices, linking
subsidies to aadhar and bank accounts, increasing disinvestment, improving ease of doing business
(e.g. bankrupcty laws); big mineral allocation, banking sector reforms etc.
Therefore, a holistic reform considering the economy wide picture is called second generation
reforms, which not only liberalizes the economy but makes it more competitive, stable and
sustainable.
Q Source: Basics: LPG reforms

Assertion (A): The political parties that are not recognized by the Election Commission are not
allowed to contest the elections.
Reason (R): The Election Commission has a constitutional mandate and authority to curb
malpractices in the conduct of elections.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The other parties that are not recognized by the ECI are simply declared as
registered-unrecognised parties. So, A is incorrect.
The recognition granted by the Commission to the parties determines their right to certain
privileges like allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-
owned television and radio stations and access to electoral rolls.
A324 of the constitution empowers the ECI to govern the conduct of elections, and ancillary powers
related to it allow ECI to ban certain candidates, countermand elections etc. So, R is correct.
Q Source: Chapters on Elections: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
67
Total Marks : 200
96 The royal title of “Devaputra” and “Hindu Suratrana” are often associated with which of these
ruler/kingdoms respectively?
A. Kushanas and Vijayanagara

B. Magadha and Samudragupta
C. Shakas and Cholas
D. Vakatakas and Cheras
Correct Answer : A
Learning: One means of claiming high status was to identify with a variety of deities. This strategy
is best exemplified by the Kushanas (c. first century BCE-first century CE), who ruled over a vast
kingdom extending from Central Asia to northwest India.
Colossal statues of Kushana rulers have been found installed in a shrine at Mat near Mathura
(Uttar Pradesh). Similar statues have been found in a shrine in Afghanistan as well. Some
historians feel this indicates that the Kushanas considered themselves godlike. Many Kushana
rulers also adopted the title devaputra, or “son of god”, possibly inspired by Chinese rulers
who called themselves sons of heaven.
The Vijayanagara kings claimed to rule on behalf of the god Virupaksha. Rulers also indicated
their close links with the gods by using the title “Hindu Suratrana” this meant Hindu Sultan.
Q Source: AR: Page 36: Themes in Indian History – I
97 Consider the following about the office of ‘whip’.

1. The office has been established by Rules of Business in each House of Parliament.
2. Only the ruling party is allowed to have a whip in each house of Parliament.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: The office of ‘whip’, on the other hand, is mentioned neither in the
Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the
68
Total Marks : 200
conventions of the parliamentary government.
Though the offices of the leader of the House and the leader of the Opposition are not
mentioned in the Constitution of India, they are mentioned in the Rules of the House and
Parliamentary Statute respectively.
Statement 2: Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament.
He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader.
Learning: He is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in
large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a particular issue.
He regulates and monitors their behaviour in the Parliament. The members are supposed to
follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken.
98 The term “Fiscal capacity” often used by the policymakers refers to

1. Openness of an economy
2. Government’s tax and expenditure volumes
3. Private sector savings

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Fiscal capacity is related to capacity of the government to tax and spend. India’s
fiscal capacity can be assessed through tax-GDP and spending-GDP ratios.
There is a strong relationship between a country’s fiscal capacity and the level of economic
development.
Overall tax to GDP ratio, overall expenditure to GDP and human capital expenditure to GDP
are some of the indicators used to assess the overall quality of fiscal capacity.
India’s case: Overall tax to GDP ratio is lower in India than OECD countries as well as its EME
69
Total Marks : 200
peers. India’s spending to GDP ratio is lowest among BRICS.
The government has made limited progress in increasing its taxing and spending capacity.
India’s tax-GDP ratio has increased by about 10 percentage points over the past six decades
from 6 per cent in 1950s to about 17 per cent in FY2013.
However, the progress is appreciable given that India is a young democracy. Other mature
democracies like USA have taken many years for development of good fiscal capacity.
Q Source: Basics: Public Finance
99 What are the sources that add nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere?
1. Bacteria living in soil
2. Reaction of Ultraviolet radiation with ozone
3. Lightning stroke

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Nitrous oxide emissions occur naturally through many sources
associated with the nitrogen cycle, which is the natural circulation of nitrogen among the
atmosphere, plants, animals, and microorganisms that live in soil and water.
Statement 2: Nitrous oxide is actually removed from the atmosphere when it is absorbed by certain
types of bacteria or destroyed by ultraviolet radiation or chemical reactions. So, 2 is wrong.
Statement 3: A natural source of nitrogen oxides occurs from a lightning stroke. The very high
temperature in the vicinity of a lightning bolt causes the gases oxygen and nitrogen in the air to
react to form nitric oxide. The nitric oxide very quickly reacts with more oxygen to form nitrogen
dioxide.
100 In India, Tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forests can be found in
A. Andaman Islands
B. Brahmaputra Valley
70
Total Marks : 200
C. Lower Gangetic Plains

D. All of the above
Correct Answer : D
Learning: These are also known as tropical moist forests and include a variety of forests such as
tropical rainforests, moist deciduous, monsoon or semi-evergreen (mixed) seasonal forests etc.
Broad-leaved forests are also found in the Eastern Himalayas and the Western Ghats, along the
Silent Valley.
You can find the list of regions here

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_tropical_and_subtropical_moist_broadleaf_forests_ecoregions
Q Source: Revision: 11th Geography NCERT
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1 Which of the following contributed to the strength of the Magadha Mahajanpada?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Statement 2: Being an important nutrient, phosphorous promotes eutrophication in lakes. Along

Q Source: Shankar IAS

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

by archaeo-botanists, who are specialists in ancient plant remains.

Studies done by archaeo-zoologists or zooarchaeologists indicate that these animals were

4 Consider the following about Bharat QR code.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Statement 1: QR code (Quick Response code) is a two-dimensional (matrix) machine-readable bar

5 The postulate of Dark Matter was put forward to account for

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: Based on past year papers of UPSC

Q Source: Basics: International Economics

7 Consider the following about Maize crop production in India.

Which of the above is/are correct?

You can refer to this link for more information

Q Source: Page 47: 12th NCERT: India, People and Economy

C. Malwa Plateau in Madhya Pradesh

Q Source: Additional Research: Pg 12: Ch 1: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History

9 Species that are endemic to India include

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

species on the top bar itself.

Q Source: Test syllabus: Species – Southern India (and Eastern India)

A. A family of guest houses for spiritual debates

Q Source: Page 153: Themes in Indian History – II: 12th NCERT

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Which of the above is/are correct?

13 What is the role of plankton in the marine ecosystem?

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: Shankar IAS

A. They are located at the same latitude.

B. They were the capitals of the Mahajanpadas.

Learning: Check out the map below (option 1 is incorrect):

15 The largest consumer of ground water in India is

16 The term ‘gahapati’ was often used in Pali texts to designate

Q Source: Pg 40: Ch 2: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: Page 355: Themes in Indian History – III: 12th NCERT

18 Sea-weeds can be used for which of the following purposes?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Shankar IAS

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

India recently joined CERN as associate member (not full member).

Which of the above is/are correct?

21 Which of these is/are crucial in the transition of an economy to ‘green economy’?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Three priorities in transition of economy to green economy are

decarbonizing the economy;

Q Source: Basics: Sustainable growth

22 Arrange the following major textual traditions in chronological order.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: Please refer to the chart below:

Q Source: Ch 3: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History – 1

23 Consider the following about National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

24 Consider the following about Ibn Battuta’s account of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

25 The USTTAD scheme of the Government of India has a bearing on

Select the correct answer using the codes below.