PRE-INTERNSHIP QUESTIONS e.

Tricyclic antidepressants
1. Routine management of PROM at 32 weeks EXCEPT
a. Tocolytics 6. Major risk factors for stroke,
b. Antibiotics a. Cigarette smoking
c. Glucocorticoids b. Diabetes mellitus
d. Caesarean section c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Hypertension
2. True statements about peritonitis e. All of the above
a. Peritonitis is defined as inflammation of peritonitis
b. Most surgical peritonitis are secondary to bacterial 7. Non traumatic subarachnoid bleed is commonly due
contamination to rupture of
c. Primary peritonitis more common in adults than a. Berry aneurysm
children
b. Mycotic aneurysm
d. TB peritonitis can present with or without ascites
c. A-V malformation
e. Peritonitis can present as intestinal obstruction
d. Arteromatous vessel

3. Evaluations determined at each prenatal visit,

EXCEPT 8. Causes of peripheral neuropathy

a. Weight a. Diabetes

b. Blood Pressure b. Alcohol

c. Urinalysis c. Vitamin deficiencies

d. Hb determination d. Syphillis
e. All of the above

4. NOT a feature of hyperthyroidism

a. Vertiligo 9. NOT TRUE about carrier state in typhoid fever

b. Menorrhagia a. Even with adequate treatment, carrier state may

develop
c. Myedema
b. Gall bladder is the principal organ harboring S.typhi
d. Clubbing
c. All carriers should be subjected to cholecystectomy
e. Diarrhea
d. Chronic carriers should be treated with ciprofloxacin
f. increased sweating

10. Which is TRUE about Plasmodiae

5. Tremor is a feature of all, EXCEPT
a. P. falciparum invades RBCs of all ages
a. Thyrotoxicosis
b. P. vivax and ovale invade reticulocytes
b. Alcohol withdrawal
c. P. malariae invades nomoblasts
c. Congestive heart failure
d. All are true
d. Hypoglycemia
e. None is true
 16. Anti D immunoglobulin not given to patients who
are:
11. Contraceptives allowed after first trimester of septic
abortion, EXCEPT a. Rh –ve and has aborted
a. Oral contraceptives b. Rh –ve + amniocentesis
b. IUCD c. with Rh antibodies and has delivered a baby of
unknown Rh status
c. Condoms
d. Rh negative & has delivered Rh+ve baby
d. Depo-provera

17. FALSE regarding abortion

12. Infection is mediated by which of the following?
a. May result from antiphospholipid syndrome
a. Neutrophils & macrophages
b. It’s management may lead to cervical incompetence
b. Complement activation
c. If recurrence or habitual, may be managed by cervical
c. Immunity mechanism cerclage
d. All of the above d. Diabetes or cardiac disease cannot lead to this

13. Male infertility associated with 18. NOT an investigation for cancer
a. Smoking a. Mammography
b. Mumps infection b. Pap smear
c. Varicocele c. Tripple test
d. All of the above d. Endometrial biopsy

14. Causes of vesicovaginal fistulae, EXCEPT 19. Management of a sexual assault patient, EXCEPT
a. Obstetrical labour a. Swabs should be taken to note presence of
b. Forceps delivery spermatozoa

c. Hysterectomy b. Prophylaxis should be given to Chlamydia, HIV,

gonorrhea, syphilis
d. Preterm delivery
c. In case of a child, ELISA
d. Emergency contraceptives is not important
15. Rh incompatibility
a. Anti D immunoglobulin should be given one week
after delivery 20. Diseases spread by feco-oral route, EXCEPT

b. The baby may require exchange transfusion a. Poliomyelitis

c. Direct Coombs test is used to detect isoimmunisation b. Hepatitis C

of the pregnant women c. Salmonellosis
d. The baby inevitable develops jaundice d. Cholera
21. Causes of spontaneous abortion, EXCEPT 26. Causes of surgical jaundice, EXCEPT
a. Cardiac disease a. Haemolysis
b. Hyperthyroidism b. Parasites
c. Uterine anomalies c. Billiary strictures
d. Subdural haematoma d. Lymphadenopathy
e. Cholelithiasis
22. TRUE about quinolones
a. Inactive against anaerobes 27. 30 yr old female has right iliac fossa pain,
tenderness, fever. The following are ddx, EXCEPT
b. Can be used in Salmonellosis, gonorrhea, urinary &
resp tract infections a. Tubo-ovarian mass
c. Can cause arteritis, urticarial, headache b. Acute pyelonephritis
d. Can be safely given to children c. Crohn’s disease
d. Empyema of the gall bladder
23. Indications for dialysis, EXCEPT e. Splenic vein thrombosis
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Fluid overload uncontrolled 28. Early, life threatening complication of thyroid
operation, EXCEPT
c. Erosive gastritis
a. Tracheomalacia and collapse of larynx
d. Uremic pericarditis
b. Wound hematoma with compression of
trachea
24. 2 day old noted to have conjunctival and retinal c. Hypocalcemia
hemorrhage. Most likely aetiology
d. Thyroid storm
a. Force of birthing process
e. Wound infection
b. Forceps delivery
c. Maternal isoimmune thrombocytopenia
29. 35 yr old female, breastfeeding first born child,
d. Maternal idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura develops an erythematous & inflamed fluctuant area on
breast exam. All the following statements about
diagnosis and management are true, EXCEPT
25. An 11 year old boy presents with a sudden onset of
severe right lower quadrant pain and scrotal tenderness a. The most common organism which would
accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Most likely expect to be cultured is S. aureus
diagnosis which also qualifies as a surgical emergency b. Open surgical drainage is likely indicated
a. Acute prostatitis c. Breast feeding should be absolutely
b. Acute epididymorchitis discontinued

c. Testicular torsion d. Antibiotics are useful in treatment

d. Acute appendicitis e. If the inflammatory process does not

completely respond, a biopsy may be indicated
e. Gastroenteritis
30. Symptoms which deserve investigation and d. Yellow vegetables
appropriate treatment prior to proceeding with inguinal
hernia repair include all, EXCEPT e. 2% low fat cow’s milk

a. Chronic cough
b. Chronic constipation 35. Kwashiorkor, EXCEPT

c. Urinary hesitancy and straining a. Edema

d. History of long standing heavy smoking b. Rash in sun exposed area

e. A specific episode of muscular straining with c. Hypochromotrichia

associated discomfort d. Weak muscles
e. Increased susceptibility to infections
31. The correct order for mechanism of labour
a. Flexion, descent, internal rotation, extension 36. Dysphagia
b. Descent, flexion, extension, internal rotation a. Pain on swalowing
c. Extension, internal rotation, flexion, descent b. Emesis without nausea
d. internal rotation, descent, extension, flexion c. Reflux dyspepsia
d. Difficulty swallowing
(APRIL 2014) e. Drooling due to obstruction
32. Snoring, mouth breathing as a cause of failure to
thrive
37. Hirchsprung Disease
a. Mononucleosis
a. Males affected more than females
b. Cerebral palsy
b. Prematurity commonly associated in this disease
c. Anterior meningocele
c. Total bowel aganglionosis common
d. Obstructive sleep apnea
d. Anal tone is reduced on DRE
e. Streptococcal pharyngitis
e. On radiographic exam …..

33. Vit D deficiency causing Rickets, features are all the

following EXCEPT 38. 3yr old presents with 3 weeks of unilateral malodour
from one nostril. Diagnosis?
a. Bow legs
a. Tertiary syphilis
b. Craniotabes
b. Unilateral choanal atresia
c. Rachitic rosary
c. Chronic rhinovirus infection
d. Low serum phosphate
d. Foreign body
e. High alkaline phosphate level
e. Wegners granulomatosis

34. Best source of iron for a 1 month old

39. 2 yr old presents with stridor, barking cough, mild
a. Iron fortified cereals respiratory distress. Diagnosis
b. Fruits a. Laryngotracheobronchitis
c. Breast milk b. Epiglotittis
 c. Bacterial tracheitis
d. Retropharyngeal abscess 44. Incorrect about Sepsis
e. Peritonsillar abscess a. Tachycardia or tachypnea may be a sign
b. Sepsis is defined as SIRS in the presence of infection
40. Cyanotic heart disease, EXCEPT c. Leucocytosis or leucopenia may be a sign
a. Tetralogy of Fallot d. Sepsis and hypotension is defined as septic shock
b. Ventricular septal defect e. Temperature > 38 or <36 may be a sign
c. Tricuspid atresia
d. Truncus arteriosus 45. 55yr old Female underwent modified radical
mastectomy and developed winged scapula. Cause
e. Total anomalous venous return
a. Patient has suffered a transient ischemic attack
b. Drainage to thoracodorsal nerve during surgery
41. Notching of ribs (radiography)
c. Damage to long thoracic nerve during surgery
a. Coarctation of aorta
d. Damage to serratus anterior muscle during surgery
b. Pulmonary hypertension
e. Dislocated scapula
c. Systemic hypertension
d. Aortic insufficiency
46. 18yr old female, severe AP-6hrs, lower abdomen
e. Cardiac failure tender, muscle guarding, h/o chlamydia, tachycardia but
normal BP 137/78.

42. 6 months, old machinery murmur, wide pulse, a. Acute appendicitis

prominent apical pulse. Diagnosis b. Pelvic inflammatory disease
a. Aortic stenosis c. Acute intestinal obstruction
b. Pulmonary stenosis d. An ectopic pregnancy
c. Ventricular septal defect e. Crohns disease
d. Anomalous coronary artery
e. Patent ductus arteriosus 47. Complications of cholelithiasis, EXCEPT
a. Cholangitis
43. 43 yr old Male presented with a stab wound to the b. Pancreatitis
left chest at left nipple at 5th intercostal space. He
presented with sudden onset of shortness of breath, c. Gall bladder abscess
agitation, chest pain. BP drps from 128/72 to
80/40mmHg. RR ↓, HR ↓. Most appropriate d. Duodenal ulcers
management e. Recurrent cholecystitis
a. Obtain a chest X-ray
b. Intubate the patient 48. Falsely high non-invasive blood pressure
c. Perform a needle decompression of left chest measurements may not be associated with

d. Perform an emergent left anteroateral thoracotomy a. Relatively smaller cuffs

e. Give blood b. Loosely applied cuff

 c. Extremely below the heart
d. Even compression applied on arm
e. Larger cuffs
49. The common test for adequacy of anti-coagulation
during cardiopulmonary bypass is
a. Heparin concentration assay
b. Anti-thrombin III index
c. APTT
d. Activated clotting time
e. Prothrombin time
50. A 25yr old woman arrives in the emergency room
following a bicycle accident. She is dyspneic with RR-
60 bpm. Breath sounds are markedly diminished on the
right side. 1st step in management
a. Take a chest X-ray
b. Draw arterial blood for blood gas
determination
c. Decompress the right pleural space
d. Perform pericardicentesis
e. Administer IV fluids
51. A chest X-ray of this woman before therapy would
reveal
a. Air in the pleural space
b. Shifting of the mediastinum towards right
c. Shifting of trachea towards right
d. Dilation of the intra-thoracic vena cava
e. Hyperinflation of the left lung
52. For peripheral nerve transection, regrowth usually
grows at a rate of
a. 0.1mm/day
b. 1mm/day
c. 5mm/day
d. 1cm/day e. None of the above
53. Emergency reduction of intracranial pressure is most
rapidly accompanied by
a. Saline furosemide infusion
b. urea infusion
c. Mannitol infusion
d. Intravenous dexamethasone
e. Hypoventilation
54. Following trauma to the arm with no evidence of
vascular injury, patient cannot flex his 3 radial digits. He
has injured the
a. Flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitus medius
tendons
b. Radial nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Thenar and digital nerves at the wrist
e. Ulnar nerve
55. An elderly pedestrian sustains traumatic unilateral
fracture of the pelvis through the obturator foramen.
Management:
a. External pelvic fixation
b. Angiographic visualization of the obturator artery
with surgical exploration if the artery is injured or
constricted
c. Direct surgical approach with gradual ambulation as
pain allows
d. short-term bed rest with gradual ambulation as pain
allows
e. Hip spica
56. Regarding electrical burns to an extremity:-
a. Injuries are generally more superficial than those of
thermal burns
b. IV fluid replacement is based on the percentage of
body surface area burnt
c. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not required
d. Evaluation for fracture of other extremities and
visceral injury is indicated
e. Cardiac conduction abnormalities are unlikely
 d. Fracture of patella
57. The fractures or dislocations of the extremities e. Ruptured tendo-achilles
induced by blunt trauma and associated with significant
vascular injuries include:
a. Knee dislocation 62. The following are common causes of obstructive
jaundice except
b. Closed posterior elbow dislocation
a. Choledocholithiasis
c. Mid clavicular fracture
b. Hookworms
d. Supracondylar
c. Cancer of pancreas or CBD
e. Tibial plateau fracture
d. Cancer of common hepatic duct
e. Traumatic bile duct strictures
58. One of the following is not a test of hip pathology
a. Thomas test
63. Screening Lab investigations in a jaundiced patient
b. Straight leg raising test do not include:
c. Ortolanis test a. Transaminase
d. Trendenburg test b. Alkaline phosphatase
e. Balow’s test c. Prothrombin time or INR
59. If the anterior cruciate is torn: d. Serum globulin levels
a. The tibia moves anteriorly when the drawer test is e. Urinary urobilinogen
performed
b. The tibia moves posteriorly when the anterior drawer
test is performed 64. Obstructive jaundice is not associated with:

c. The pivot shift test is negative a. hepatomegaly

d. Flexion is not possible b. palpable gall bladder

e. Murray test is always possible c. renal calculi

d. evidence of advanced malignancy

60. In congenital Talipes equino varus: e. scratch marks

a. The foot is in inversion

b. The foot is swollen and shining 65. One of the following is not a cause of intrahepatic
obstructive jaundice:
c. The navicula is displaced laterally relative to the talus
a. congenital atresia of bile ducts
d. The foot is in eversion
b. intrahepatic metastases
e. The 5th toe touches the skin in eversion of the foot
c. primary biliary cirrhosis
d. carcinoma of ampulla of vater
61. Compartment syndrome is likely to occur:
e. drug jaundice
a. Fracture of humerus
b. Fracture of femur
c. Fracture of tibia
66. The incidence of inguinal hernia in the premature
infant is
a. 6-33%
b. 1-5%
c. higher in girls than boys
d. majority of the hernia are on the left side
e. less than 0% of those obstructed can be reduced

67. When galactorrhea occurs in a high school student, a

diagnostic associated finding would be:
a. Gonadal atrophy
b. bitemporal hemianopia
c. exophthalmos and lid lag
d. episodic hypertension
e. buffalo hump

ANSWERS
1.DDDAC
6.EAECB
11.BCDDB
16.CDCDB
21.DBCAC
26.DEACD
31.BDDCB
36.DADBE
41.AACDC
46.BDDDC
51.ABCBB
56.BAAAA
61.CBDCA
66.BB