PinoyBix Communication: Series of MCQ a. Reflected waves c.

Losses in the conducting walls of the guide

Part 1. Transmission Fundamentals b. Captured waves d. Radiation loss
1. What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is c. Incident waves 22. A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of
considered the dominant characteristic of a cable or circuit that d. Standing waves a transmission line.
emanates from its physical structure? 12. Micron is equal to _______ meter. a. Hybrid
a. Conductance a. 10-10 b. Stub
b. Resistance b. 10-9 c. Directional coupler
c. Reactance c. 10-6 d. Balun
d. Impedance d. 10-3 23. What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line
2. When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, it means that the 13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to _______. spaced 1 cm apart with the length of 50 cm?
load _____ all the power. a. 10-3 micron a. 10 ohms
a. reflects b. 10-10 m b. 15 ohms
b. absorbs c. 10-6 micron c. 18 ohms
c. attenuates d. 10-6 m d. 23 ohms
d. radiates 14. Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio 24. What is the average power rating of RG-58 C/u?
3. impedance matching ratio of a coax balun. frequencies? a. 25 W
a. 1:4 a. Because of the size of the waveguide b. 50 W
b. 4:1 b. Due to severe attenuation c. 75 W
c. 2:1 c. Due to too much radiation d. 200 W
d. 3:2 d. All of these 25. A coaxial cable used for high temperatures.
4. Which stands for dB relative level? 15. ________ is the transmission and reception of information. a. RG-58C
a. dBrn a. Modulation b. RG-11A
b. dBa b. Communications c. RG-213
c. dBr c. Radiation d. RG-211
d. dBx d. Emission 26. If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain
5. Standard test tone used for audio measurement. 16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power ration of of 100 each, how many such amplifiers do you need to cascade to
a. 800 Hz output to input is 0.01? give an overall gain of 60dB?
b. 300 Hz a. 20 a. 2
c. 100 Hz b. -20 b. 3
d. 1000 Hz c. 40 c. 4
6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this means d. -40 d. 5
a. that no power is applied 17. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with 27. You are measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test
b. that the load is purely resistive respect to point level, the meter reads -73 dBm, convert the reading into
c. that the load is a pure reactance a. Negative terminal dBrnCO.
d. that the load is opened b. Reference a. 12
7. _______ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward travelling c. Ground b. 16
voltage. d. Positive terminal c. 18
a. SWR 18. The standing wave ratio is equal to _______ if the load is d. 21
b. VSWR properly matched with the transmission line. 28. The velocity factor for a transmission line
c. Reflection coefficient a. Infinity a. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
d. ISWR b. 0 b. increases the velocity along the transmission line
8. Transmission line must be matched to the load to ______. c. -1 c. is governed by the skin effect
a. transfer maximum voltage to the load d. 1 d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
b. transfer maximum power to the load 19. ________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line 29. Impedance inversion can be obtained by
c. reduce the load current compared to unbalanced line. a. a short-circuited stub
d. transfer maximum current to the load a. Low attenuation b. an open-circuited stub
9. Which indicate the relative energy loss in a capacitor? b. Easy installation c. a quarter-wave line
a. Quality factor c. Low radiation loss d. a half-wave line
b. Reactive factor d. Tensile strength 30. Transmission lines when connected to antennas have
c. Dissipation factor 20. _______ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any a. capacitive load
d. Power factor processing system. b. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic
10. What is the standard test tone? a. Fourier series impedance of the line
a. 0 dB b. Spectral analysis c. resistive load whose resistance is less than the characteristic
b. 0 dBW c. Frequency analysis impedance of the line
c. 0 dBm d. Bandwidth analysis d. resistive load at the resonant frequency
d. 0 dBrn 21. What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide? 31. One of the following is not a bounded media.
11. The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely a. The air dielectric filling the guide a. Coaxial line
transmitted. b. The coating of silver inside b. Two-wire line
c. Waveguide d. termination b. Cell splitting
d. Ocean 41. What are the basic elements of communications system? c. TDM
32. The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line a. Source, transmission channel, transmitter d. FDM
when its length is infinite. b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel 51. If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05,
a. Input impedance c. Information, transmission channel, receiver what does it mean?
b. Open circuit impedance d. Sender and receiver a. Completed calls of 5%
c. Characteristic impedance 42. ________ is the transmission of printed material over b. Lost calls of 5%
d. Short circuit impedance telephone lines. c. Lost calls of 95%
33. The following are considered primary line constants except a. Internet d. Lost calls of 105%
a. conductance b. Data communication 52. ________ is the Out-of-Band signaling between Toll Central
b. resistance c. Telegraphy Offices (Bell System Standard).
c. capacitance d. Facsimile a. 3, 825 Hz
d. complex propagation constant 43. ________ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of b. 3, 700 Hz
34. The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in two frequencies of 350 Hz and 440 Hz used in telephone sets. c. 2, 600 Hz
transmission lines range from about a. DC tone d. 800 Hz
a. 1.2 to 2.8 b. Ringing tone 53. In a telephone system, the customer’s telephone directory
b. 2.8 to 3.5 c. Dial tone numbering is from 000 to 999, what is the capacity of a telephone
c. 3.5 to 5.2 d. Call waiting tone system numbering from 000 to 999?
d. 1.0 to 1.2 44. ________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 20-25 decibel a. 100 lines
35. Typically, the velocity factor (VF) of the materials used in gain that are placed about 75 km apart used to compensate for b. 1000 lines
transmission lines range from losses along the telephone line. c. 10, 000 lines
a. 0.6 to 0.9 a. VF repeaters d. 100, 000 lines
b. 0.1 to 0.5 b. Loading coils 54. If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has?
c. 1.0 to 0.9 c. Loop extenders a. Purely reactive
d. 0.6 to 0.8 d. Echo suppressors b. Purely resistive
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic 45. ________ is a component in the telephone set that has the c. Purely capacitive
impedance value is primary function of interfacing the handset to the local loop. d. Purely inductive
a. 85 ohms a. Resistor 55. Not more than _______ digits make up an international
b. 85 ohms b. Capacitor telephone number as recommended by CCITT REC. E. 161.
c. 90 ohms c. Varistor a. 8
d. 88 ohms d. Induction coil b. 10
37. When a quarter-wave section transmission line is terminated by 46. Pulse dialing has ________ rate. c. 11
a short circuit and is connected to an RF source at the other end, its a. 20 pulses/min d. 12
input impedance is b. 10 pulses/min 56. One (1) Erlang is equal to _______.
a. inductive c. 10 pulses/sec a. 360 CCS
b. capacitive d. 80 pulses/sec b. 36 CCS
c. resistive 47. ________ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices. c. 3.6 CCS
d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit a. 2-wire circuit d. 100 CCS
38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is b. Trunk line 57. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the
connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u cable to an antenna that has an c. Leased line normal flat rate in that area.
input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the reflection coefficient. d. Private line a. WATS
a. 0.71 48. The central switching office coordinating element for all cell b. OTLP
b. 0.77 sites that has cellular processor and a cellular switch. It interfaces c. TIP
c. 0.97 with telephone company zone offices, control call processing and d. DTWX
d. 0.76 handle billing activities. 58. The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth.
39. A quarter wave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line a. MTSO a. 300-3400 Hz
in order to match the line to a load of 1000 ohms. The transformer b. Cell site b. 1200 Hz
has a characteristic impedance of 316.23 ohms. The distance c. PTSN c. 200-3200 Hz
between centers is 4 inches. What is the percentage reduction in d. Trunk line d. 300-3000 Hz
the diameter of the line? 49. ________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions 59. Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone
a. 85% for cellular site. set terminates in a jack and the switch is supervised by an operator.
b. 83% a. Switching system a. Crossbar switching
c. 86% b. Base station b. Manual switching
d. 90% c. Operation and support system c. Electronic switching
40. The concept used to make one Smith chart universal is called d. Mobile station d. Step-by-step switching
a. ionization 50. A technology used to increase the capacity of a mobile phone 60. Every time when the telephone is idle, the handset is in the
b. normalization system. _______ state.
c. rationalization a. Frequency re-use a. On-hook
b. Off-hook d. 300-2700 Hz c. SWR
c. Busy 71. The first Strowger step-by-step switch was used in _______. d. Coefficient of reflection
d. Spare a. 1875 81. One method of determining antenna impedance.
61. _______ is a component in the telephone set that has the b. 1890 a. Sub matching
primary function of compensating for the local loop length. c. 1897 b. Trial and error
a. Resistor d. 1913 c. Smith chart
b. Varistor 72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase d. Quarter-wave matching
c. Capacitor shift is 15 degrees? 82. ________ is a single conductor running from the transmitter to
d. Induction coil a. 52 μsec the antenna.
62. What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone b. 1.25 μsec a. Single-wire line
handset? c. 83.33 μsec b. Microstrip
a. Carbon d. 26 μsec c. Twin-lead
b. Electromagnetic 73. What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss d. Coaxial line
c. Ceramic plan, a variable loss plans and a fixed loss plan? 83. Coaxial cable impedance is typically _______.
d. Capacitor a. G. 133 a. 150 to 300 ohms
63. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN ha an ideal passband of b. G. 141 b. 50 to 75 ohms
a. 0 to 4 Hz c. G. 132 c. 30 to 45 ohms
b. 0 to 4 MHz d. G. 122 d. 300 to 600 ohms
c. 0 to 4 kHz 74. What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km 84. Waveguide becomes compulsory above what frequencies?
d. 0 to 4 GHz loop with a dc loop resistance of 100 ohms/km? a. Above 3 GHz
64. ________ is the minimum-quality circuit available using the a. 0.838 mm b. Above 10 kHz
PTN. b. 0.465 mm c. At 300 MHz
a. Basic voice grade (VG) c. 1.626 mm d. Above 10 GHz
b. Basic voice channel (VC) d. 2.159 mm 85. Nominal voice channel bandwidth is _______.
c. Basic voice band (VB) 75. What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast a. 20 to 30 kHz
d. Basic telephone channel moving mobiles and low-usage areas? b. 0 to 3 kHz
65. Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is called a. Pico cells c. 4 kHz
a. Private-line network b. Micro cells d. 55 kHz above
b. PT network c. Nano cells 86. Echo suppressors are used on all communications system when
c. Dial-up network d. Umbrella cells the round trip propagation time exceeds _______.
d. Trunk network 76. In cellular networks, standard base station antennas are placed a. 50 ms
66. What is the advantage of sidetone? by _______. b. 30 ms
a. Transmission efficiency is increased a. adaptive array c. 100 ms
b. Speaker increases his voice resulting in a strengthened signal b. flat plate antenna d. 1 ms
c. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network c. dipole array 87. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is to be
d. Assure the customer that the telephone is working d. focused antenna connected to an antenna having an input impedance of 150 ohms.
67. ________ is a special service circuit connecting two private 77. What is the basis of the first generation wireless local loop? What is the impedance of a quarter-wave matching line?
branch exchanges (PBX). a. Digital cellular technology a. 212 ohms
a. Phantom line b. Analogue cellular technology b. 250 ohms
b. Tie trunk c. PSTN c. 200 ohms
c. Tandem trunk d. AMPS technology d. 150 ohms
d. Private line 78. When the calling party hears a “busy” tone on his telephone, 88. Quarter-wavelength line is used as _______.
68. The published rates, regulation, and descriptions governing the the call is considered a. impedance transformer
provision of communications service for public use. a. lost b. lecher line
a. Toll rate b. disconnected c. transmission line
b. Tariff c. completed d. harmonic suppressor
c. Bulk billing d. incomplete 89. The transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic
d. Detailed billing 79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited stubs waves only in higher modes is usually called
69. What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid? because the latter are a. coaxial cable
a. 1 dB a. more difficult to make and connect b. waveguide
b. 2 dB b. made of a transmission line with a different characteristic c. power lines
c. 3 dB impedance d. twisted wire of telephone line
d. 6 dB c. liable to radiate 90. Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used in waveguide?
70. Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying d. incapable of giving a full range of reactances a. To increase the distributed capacitance
the frequency range of _______. 80. What is the ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident b. To keep the waveguide dry
a. 300-400 Hz voltage? c. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of the guide
b. 300-3400 Hz a. VSWR d. To raise the guide’s wave impedance
c. 300-3000 Hz b. ISWR
91. The apparent speed of propagation along a waveguide based on c. 7.0 cm b. only at the beginning of the cable and only at the end of the
the distance between wavefronts along the walls of the guide is d. 0.4375 cm cable
called 100. A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated c. only at the end of the cable
a. group velocity along a guide whose inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is d. at the middle of the cable
b. phase velocity the value of the guide wavelength? 108. A feature of an infinite transmission line is that
c. normal velocity a. 3.12 cm a. its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line’s surge
d. abnormal velocity b. 3.89 cm impedance
92. How do you couple in and out of a waveguide? c. 3.57 cm b. its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light
a. Wrap a coil of wire around one end of the waveguide d. 6.30 cm c. no RF current will be drawn from the generator
b. Insertion of an E-probe into the waveguide 101. The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is d. the impedance varies at different positions on the line
c. Insertion of an H-loop into the waveguide excited in the dominant mode is limited to 109. When the surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the
d. Both B and C a. the difference between the frequency for which the reflection line will
93. A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE10 angle is 90o and the frequency for which angle is zero a. transfer maximum current to the load
mode. The associated flux lines are established b. the difference between the frequency for which the free-space b. transfer maximum voltage to the load
a. transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide wavelength is equal to the cutoff value and the frequency for c. transfer maximum power to the load
b. transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide which the free-space wavelength is equal to the guide wavelength d. have a VSWR equal to zero
c. in the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation c. the difference between the frequency at which the cutoff 110. A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not
d. in the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation wavelength is twice the narrow dimension equal to the surge impedance. If the value of the reflection
94. For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance d. none of these coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
between two instantaneous consecutive positions of maximum 102. If a rectangular waveguide is to be excited in the dominant a. 2
field intensity (in a direction parallel to the walls of the waveguide) mode, the E-probe should be inserted b. 3
is referred to as half of the a. at the sealed end c. 4
a. free-space wavelength b. at a distance of one quarter –wavelength from the sealed end d. 15
b. cutoff wavelength in the wide dimension c. at a distance of one-half wavelength from the sealed end 111. Ratio of the mismatch between the antenna and the
c. guide wavelength d. at a distance of three-quarters of a wavelength from the sealed transmitter power.
d. group wavelength end a. Standing wave pattern
95. The guide wavelength, in a rectangular waveguide is 103. A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is b. Reflection coefficient
a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the cutoff frequency shorted out at the far end. What is the input impedance to the line c. SWR
b. equal to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency generator? d. Index of refraction
c. less than the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency a. A low value of resistance 112. Emission designation for a facsimile.
d. greater than the free-space wavelength at the same signal b. A high value of resistance a. H3E and A4E
frequency c. A capacitive resistance which is equal in the value to the line’s b. R3E and A4E
96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave power can only be surge impedance c. F4E and J3E
transmitted in free rectangular guide provided d. An inductive resistance which is equal to the value to the line’s d. F3C and A3E
a. the wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in surge impedance 113. Commonly used telephone wire.
free space 104. If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason a. AWG #19
b. the narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength could be b. AWG #18
in free space a. an impedance mismatch between the line and the load c. AWG #30
c. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide b. that the line is non-resonant d. AWG #33
wavelength c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the load 114. What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one
d. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in d. that the load is matched to the line cycle?
free space 105. If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end a. Frequency
97. If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is a. there is minimum current at the shorted end b. Hop
increased and the dominant mode is employed b. the line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the c. Wavelength
a. the free space wavelength is increased generator d. Crest
b. the phase velocity increased c. the line behaves as a series-tuned circuit in relation to the 115. The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to
c. the guide wavelength is increased generator the _______.
d. the group velocity, Vg, is increased d. there is a minimum voltage at the shorted end a. square of the dielectric constant
98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a rectangular waveguide and the 106. A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which b. square root of the dielectric constant
reflection angle is 20o, what is the value of the guide wavelength? represents a 50 ohm resistive load. To shorten the line, the length c. dielectric current
a. 6.10 cm must be d. square root of refractive index
b. 5.32 cm a. any convenient value 116. ________ is a hollow structure that has no center conductor
c. 4.78 cm b. an odd multiple of three quarters of a wavelength but allows waves to propagate down its length.
d. 5.00 cm c. an odd multiple of half a wavelength a. Waveguide
99. The inner dimensions of a rectangular wavelength are 1.75 cm d. an even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength b. Hybrid
by 3.5 cm. The cutoff wavelength for the dominant mode is 107. The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded c. Pipe
a. 1.75 cm a. at the beginning and at the end of the cable d. Directional coupler
b. 3.5 cm
117. To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, _______ is 127. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not d. 1.5
used. depend upon its 137. One meter is one wavelength at a frequency of
a. hybrid circuit a. length a. 150 MHz
b. balun b. conductor diameter b. 164 MHz
c. directional coupler c. conductor spacing c. 300 MHz
d. quarter-wave transformer matching circuit d. dielectric material d. 328 MHz
118. What length for which the input power has been halved for a 128. One of the following is not a common transmission line 138. At very high frequencies, transmission lines act as
transmission line with an attenuation of 6 dB/km? impedance. a. Tuned circuits
a. 1.5 km a. 50 ohms b. Antennas
b. 0.5 km b. 75 ohms c. Insulators
c. 63 km c. 120 ohms d. Resistors
d. 2 km d. 300 ohms 139. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts
119. Ina waveguide, _______ is a specific configuration of electric 129. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the like a/an
and magnetic fields that allows a wave to propagate. relationship between the characteristic impedance of the line a. Capacitor
a. set-up Zoand the load impedance ZL should be b. Inductor
b. coupler a. Zo = ZL c. Series resonant circuit
c. channel b. Zo > ZL d. Parallel resonant circuit
d. mode c. Zo < ZL 140. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like
120. A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. d. Zo = 0 a/an
What is the dominant mode cut-off frequency? 130. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line a. Capacitor
a. 2 GHz impedance cannot be corrected for by b. Inductor
b. 3 GHz a. using LC matcging network c. Series resonant circuit
c. 2.5 GHz b. adjusting antenna length d. Parallel resonant circuit
d. 3.5 GHZ c. using a balun 141. A medium least susceptible to noise?
121. ________ are transmission lines which can convey d. adjusting the length of transmission line a. Shielded pair
electromagnetic waves only in higher order modes? 131. ________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along b. Twisted pair
a. Coaxial cables a transmission line not terminated in its characteristic impedance. c. Fiber-optic
b. Twisted pairs of telephone wire a. An electric field d. Coaxial
c. Power cables b. Radio waves 142. A medium most widely used in LANs?
d. Waveguides c. Standing waves a. Parallel-wire line
122. The amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols is also d. A magnetic field b. Twisted pair
called 132. Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line? c. Fiber-optic cable
a. bandwidth a. 0 d. Coaxial
b. loss b. 1 143. The most commonly used transmission line in television
c. entropy c. 2 system.
d. quantum d. Infinity a. Parallel-wire line
123. The twists in twisted wire pairs 133. A 50ohm coax is connected to a 73-ohm antenna. What is the b. Coaxial cable
a. reduced electromagnetic interference SWR? c. Waveguide
b. occur at a 30-degree angle a. 0.685 d. Open-wire ceramic supports
c. eliminate loading b. 1 144. The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several
d. were removed due to cost c. 1.46 factors. Which is not one of those factors?
124. An example of a bounded medium is d. 2.92 a. Diameter
a. coaxial cable 134. What is the most desirable reflection coefficient? b. Length of the wire
b. waveguide a. 0 c. Dielectric material
c. fiber-optic cable b. 0.5 d. Separation between conductors
d. all of the above c. 1 145. DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the
125. Loading means the addition of d. Infinity purpose of
a. resistor 135. What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage a. passing DC while blocking AC
b. capacitor reflected on a transmission line? b. passing AC voltage but prevent DC
c. bullet a. Velocity factor c. preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier
d. inductance b. Standing-wave ratio d. preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a
126. What is the most commonly used transmission line for high c. Reflection coefficient balun or band splitter
frequency application? d. Line efficiency 146. _______ is a type of interference caused by off-air TV
a. Two-wire balance line 136. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, channels 2 and 4, plus a satellite dish operating on channel 3.
b. Single wire while the maximum is 390 V, the SWR is a. Adjacent channel interference
c. Three-wire line a. 0.67 b. Ghost
d. Coaxial b. 1.0 c. Co-channel interference
c. 1.2 d. Crosstalk
147. Dithering (in TVRO communication) is a process of b. Transmission channel c. dBp
a. Reducing the effect of noise on the TVRO video signal c. Non-metallic medium d. dNp
b. Centering the video fine tuning on TVRO channels d. Bounded medium 166. the input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited
c. Moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise angle 158. If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180 ohm transmission line at its resonant frequency is
d. Moving the actuator exactly onto the desired satellite beam load to a transmission line with and impedance of 300 ohms, what a. 0 ohms
148. A network that has an input of 75dB and an output of 35dB. should be the characteristic impedance of the matching b. Infinite or an open circuit
The loss of the network is ransformer? Assume that the matching transformer is to be c. Ohm
a. -40db connected directly to the load. d. 70 ohms
b. 40db a. 180 ohms 167. The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of
c. 40dBm b. 232 ohms the voltage in the line is called
d. -4dBm c. 300 ohms a. SWR
149. Important useful quantities describing waveforms. d. 480 ohms b. ISWR
a. Time and frequency 159. A transmitter of 100W RF power output, 100% modulated is c. VSWR
b. Voltage and current operating on a frequency of 169MHz. The antenna transmission d. Coefficient of reflection
c. Frequency and voltage line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cable 150ft long. The coaxial 168. An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected
d. Power and frequency inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162in. determine the outside to a dipole antenna through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a
150. Halving the power means diameter of the outer conductor if the outer conductor has a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the length of the dipole
a. 6-dB gain thickness of 0.05 in(assume K=1). a. 20 meters
b. 3-dB loss a. 1.0 in b. 7.5 meters
c. 3-dB gain b. 0.9 in c. 15 meters
d. 6-dB loss c. 0.7 in d. 25 meters
151. One Neper (Np) is how many decibels? d. 0.5 in 169. From the preceding problem, compute also the length of the
a. 8.866 160. In the preceding problem , calculate the line current. quarterwave stub.
b. 8.686 a. 1.7A a. 15 meters
c. 8.688 b. 1.3A b. 7.5 meters
d. 8.868 c. 1.5A c. 20 meters
152. A signal is amplified 100 times in power. The dB gain is d. 1.0A d. 25 meters
a. 20 dB 161. Determine also the total attenuation of the line in the 170. To find the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable,
b. 119 dB preceding problem. measurements are made with (a) the far end open circuited and (b)
c. 15 dB a. 2.0dB far end short circuited, the corresponding readings being a)
d. 25 dB b. 1.5 dB Ro=3ohms and Xc=55 ohms, capacitive b) RS = 10 ohms and XL
153. Which of the following is used to measure SWR? c. 2.5 dB = 90 ohms, inductive. What is the characteristic impedance Zo of
a. Spectrum analyzer d. 1.0 dB the line?
b. Reflectometer 162. What is the maximum subscriber loop length, in ft, of a a. 75.7 – j2.0 ohms
c. Oscilloscope telephone system if the signaling resistance is 1800ohms using a b. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms
d. Multimeter telephone cable pair of gauge #26 with loop resistance of 83.5 c. 87.5 – j5 ohms
154. 214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in ohms per 100ft. Assume the telephone set resistance is equal to d. 70.7 – j1.97 ohms
has a characteristic impedance of 200 ohms. 171. A TV antenna receives a signal measured at 200mV and is
a. 52 ohms a. 15,161.7 feet immediately amplified by a preamplifier with a 15dB gain. This
b. 75 ohms b. 19,161 feet amplified signal then passes through a coaxial cable with 3dB loss,
c. 600 ohms c. 15,300 feet what is the resulting input to the TV set, in dBmV?
d. 300 ohms d. 20,000 feet a. 1.98
155. What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line 163. If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation b. 13.98
which is to act a s a quarterwave matching transformer between a to a maximum of 6dB, what is the maximum allowable subscriber c. -1.98
175 ohms transmission line and 600 ohms load? loop length, in feet, using the same gauge #26 telephone wire? d. -13.98
a. 300.04 ohms Assume a 2.7dB loss per mile. 172. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not
b. 324.04 ohms a. 20,000 ft depend upon its___________.
c. 310.04 ohms b. 13,900 ft a. Conductor spacing
d. 320.04 ohms c. 15,280 ft b. Conductor diameter
156. What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50dB antenna connected to a d. 11,733 ft c. Length
transmitter with an output of 10kW through a transmission line 164. The input is 0.1W and the network gain is 13dB, the output is d. Conductor radius
with loss of 5dB? a. 2.0 W 173. What does a power difference of -3dB mean?
a. 85 dBW b. 2.5 W a. A loss of one third of the power
b. 955 dBW c. 1.5 W b. A loss of one half of the power
c. 90 dBW d. 1.8 W c. A loss of three watts of power
d. 80 dBW 165. Known as one-tenth of a neper. d. No significant change
157. A coaxial cable is a good example of a/an a. dB 174. Which of the following is an advantage of the balance
a. Unbounded medium b. dBm transmission line?
a. Easy installation c. 20 dB d. Decrease the impedance
b. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses d. 100 dB 193. The higher the gauge number if a conductor
c. Low attenuation 184. A type of transmission line employed where balanced a. The bigger the diameter
d. None of these properties are required. b. The higher the resistance or the smaller the diameter
175. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave transmission a. Balun c. The higher the resistance
because b. Parallel-wire line d. None of the above
a. They are bulky at lower frequencies c. Coaxial line 194. A short length transmission line used to reduce/eliminate
b. Losses are heavy at lower frequencies d. Quarterwave line standing waves in the main transmission line.
c. They depend on straight line propagation 185. What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line a. Stub
d. No generators are powerful enough to excite them which has a capacitance of 40nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5mH/ft b. Balun
176. The input is 1W and the network loss is 27dB, the output is a. 111.8 ohms c. λ/4 transformer
a. 1 mW b. 110.8 ohms d. slot
b. 3 mW c. 112.8 ohms 195. ratio of reflected power to incident power?
c. 2 mW d. 109.8 ohms a. Incidence
d. 4 mW 186. The input power to a loss-free cable is 5W. If the reflected b. Reflectance
177. A combiner has two inputs +30dBm and +30dBm, what is the power is 7dB down on the incident power, the output power to the c. Reflection index
resultant output? load is d. None of these
a. +36 dBm a. 4 W 196. A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms lad
b. +30 dBm b. 5 W antenna to a ling of 52 ohms impedance, the characteristic
c. +60 dBm c. 6 W impedance of the matching transformer is
d. +33 dBm d. 7 W a. 200 ohms
178. The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms current value is 187. To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along b. 150 ohms
called a transmission line should be equal to c. 176 ohms
a. SWR a. 1 d. 300 ohms
b. VSWR b. 10 197. What is the capacitance of 55 miles #44 copper wire spaced
c. ISWR c. 50 18 inches? From wire tables, #44 wire has a radius to 0.10215 in.
d. Coefficient of reflection d. 2 a. 0.476 uF
179. If the ratio of the maximum current to minimum current in a 188. A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6mm has a 50 ohms b. 0.476 nF
transmission line is 2:1 then the ratio of the maximum voltage to characteristic impedance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation c. 0.476 pF
minimum voltage is is 1.60., calculate the inner diameter. d. 0.476 fF
a. 4:1 a. 2.09 cm 198. A two-transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG
b. 1:2 b. 2.09 in (81mils). The distance between wire centers is 10 inches. What is
c. 1:4 c. 2.09 mm the characteristic impedance of the line?
d. 2:1 d. 2.09 mm a. 650 ohms
180. Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be 189. If an amplifier has equal input and out impedance, what b. 300 ohms
constructed out of a number 12 wire (81 mils). Find the attenuation voltage ratio does the gain of 50dB represent? c. 600 ohms
of the line at 0.6GHz per 100feet length a. 316.2 d. 660 ohms
a. 0.05 dB b. 325.2 199. In the preceding problem, what is the attenuation in dB per
b. 0.55 dB c. 320.1 100ft of the line for a frequency of 4 MHz?
c. 0.44 dB d. 315.0 a. 0.05
d. 0.35 dB 190. What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a b. 0.03
181. In the preceding problem, determine the spacing between capacitance of 50 pF/ft and a characteristic impedance of 60 ohms? c. 0.04
wires from center to center. a. 0.167uH/ft d. 0.06
a. 6 in b. 0.178 uH/ft 200. What is the SWR when a transmission line is terminated in a
b. 4 in c. 0.19 uH/ft short circuit?
c. 5 in d. 0.18 uH/ft a. Zero
d. 3 in 191. The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the b. One
182. A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of total energy received by the surface. c. Infinite
100nF/m and a series inductance of 4mH/m. What is the a. Reflection coefficient d. indeterminate
characteristic impedance? b. Absorption coefficient 201. If the 10% of the microwave power is reflected at the
a. 500 ohms c. Linear coefficient mismatch, find the return loss.
b. 400ohms d. Thermal coefficient a. 0.1 dB
c. 300 ohms 192. When the diameter of the conductors of a wire transmission b. 10 dBm
d. 200 ohms line is held constant, the effect of decreasing the distance between c. -10 dB
183. A ten times power change in transmission system is the conductors is d. -10 dBm
equivalent to a. Increase the surge impedance 202. If the return loss is 20 dB, find the present reflected power.
a. 10 dBm b. Increase the radiation resistance a. 1%
b. 1 dB c. Decrease the SWR b. 10%
c. 5% a. 12 dBm a. Polyethylene
d. 20% b. 11 dBm b. Polyethylene foam
203. Convert “ten times bigger” to the equivalent numerical dB c. 10 dBm c. Teflon
a. 20 dB d. 8 dBm d. None of these
b. 15 dB 212. Given incident power of 0.4 mW and insertion loss of 3 dB, 222. Characteristic impedance are sometimes called _______.
c. 5 dB find the transmitted power. a. Ohmic resistance
d. 10 dB a. 0.2 mW b. Surge impedance
204. Convert “one-half as large” to equivalent numerical dB b. 0.3 mW c. Wave impedance
a. 3 dB c. 0.4 mW d. None of these
b. -3 dB d. 0.5 mW 223. A transmission line is connected to a mismatched load.
c. 2 dB 213. The reflected voltage and reflected current along the Calculate the VSWR in dB if the reflection coefficient is 0.25
d. -2 dB transmission line are always: a. 2.6 dB
205. Special semiconductor diode use for electronically adjustable a. 180o out of phase b. 1.67 dB
attenuation b. In phase c. 4.3 dB
a. Ideal diode c. Same value d. 3.6 dB
b. PIN diode d. 90o in phase 224. Is a power tool for the RF design
c. Zener diode 214. If the direction of the reflection coefficient is 90o, the nature a. Calculator
d. Tunel diode of the lien is, b. Graphical solution
206. A 50 ohm line is probed and found to have a SWR of 2.6, a. Resistive c. Smith chart
what are the two possible quarter wave transformers sizes that may b. Purely inductive d. None of these
be used to match the load to the line of the transformer are c. Purely capacitive 225. When will the system encounter a tremendous increase of
properly positioned. d. None of these interference.
a. 22 ohm, 82 ohm 215. What are the three types of microwave transmission line? a. When return loss is 0 dB
b. 31 ohm, 80.5 ohm a. Coaxial cable, open wire line, waveguide b. When the incident power is higher than the reflected
c. 26.2 ohm, 12.71 ohm b. Coaxial cable, stripline, waveguide c. When the transmission line used is coaxial cable
d. 12.32 ohm, 26.7 ohm c. Open-wire line, waveguide, coaxial line d. None of these
207. A balanced load of 900 ohm pure resistance is fed through a d. None of these 226. In a two-stage amplifier, amplifier 1 has a noise figure of 3
balanced 600 ohm transmission line which is 90 electrical degree 216. If the incident power is -27 dBm and insertion loss of 20 dB, dB and a gain of 20 dB. The second amplifier has a noise figure of
long. The balanced 600 ohm transmission line is in turn fed from a find for the transmitted power. 6 dB. Find the total noise figure.
50 ohm coaxial line by means of a half-wave balancing section. a. 12 dBm a. 3.1 dB
What is the standing wave ratio on the 600 ohm line? b. 7 dBm b. 4.2 dB
a. 1.0 c. 2 dBm c. 2.6 dB
b. 2.5 d. 0 dBm d. 2.27 dB
c. 1.5 217. Energy applied to a transmission line may become dissipated 227. If the return loss is 13 dB, find the equivalent SWR.
d. 2.0 before reaching the load. a. 1.6
208. Given cascaded circuit; first stage is a filter circuit with a. Radiation b. 3.2
insertion loss of 3 dB, followed by an amplifier with a gain of 10 b. Conductor heating c. 1.56
dB and followed by cable having an insertion loss of 1 dB. If the c. Dielectric heating d. 2.6
input power of the filter circuit is 1 mW, find the total insertion d. All of the above 228. Which of the following will you choose in order to minimize
loss. 218. The velocity of light is very nearly 3 x 108 m/s in a vacuum mismatch?
a. 6 dBm and ___ in all other media. a. SWR = 1.4
b. 5 dBm a. Higher b. T1 = 0.81
c. 7 dBm b. Slower c. Return loss = 20 dB
d. 2 dBm c. Same d. None of these
209. For a short circuited line or open circuited line, the standing d. All of these 229. If the equipment has input power of 33 dBm, what is the gain
wave ratio value is always _____. 219. At a point exactly a quarter-wavelength from the load, the of the resulting output power is 10 dBm.
a. Unity current is ______. a. -26 dBm
b. Infinity a. 180 degrees in of phase b. -23 dBm
c. Zero b. 180 degrees out of phase c. -33 dBm
d. Cannot be determined c. Permanently zero d. 33 dBm
210. If the voltage reading at a particular section of a transmission d. None of these 230. A stripline transmission line is built on a 4 mm thick printed
line is maximum, the current reading should be: 220. Is a piece of transmission line which is normally short- wiring board that has a relative dielectric constant of 5.5. Calculate
a. Maximum circuited at the far end. the characteristics impedance of the width of the strip is 2 mm.
b. Minimum a. Terminator a. 256 ohms
c. Average b. Stub b. 321 ohms
d. Zero c. Quarter wave transformer c. 126 ohms
211. If five signals entered to an X-device at 3 dBm each, find the d. None of these d. 425.35 ohms
output power in dBm. 221. For high frequencies, the best dielectric may be_______.
231. A 50 ohms transmission line is connected to a 30 ohm d. Return loss 250. The R, L, G, and C in the transmission line are
resistive load. Calculate reflection coefficient. 241. A component that samples the microwave signal traveling in called________.
a. 0.35 one direction down a transmission line a. Passive elements
b. 0.25 a. Isolator b. Active elements
c. 0.10 b. Directional coupler c. Line primary constant
d. 0.15 c. Combiner d. Reactances
232. The term _________ implies a sine wave of constant d. attenuator 251. What is the characteristic impedance of a single wire with
amplitude, phase and frequency. 242. A transmission line having air dielectric is operated at a diameter d = 0.25 mm placed at the center between parallel planes
a. Steady state frequency of 110 MHz. What is the phase shift constant of the line separated by 1 mm apart? The wire is held by a material with a
b. State of constant is degrees per inch? velocity factor of 0.75?
c. State of calamity a. 2.56 a. 75 ohms
d. Constant sine wave b. 3.35 b. 120 ohms
233. Is defined as the ratio of the reflected signal to the incident c. 4.6 c. 100 ohms
signal. d. 1.25 d. 300 ohms
a. VSWR 243. Consider the three networks in series, the first is an attenuator 252. There is an improper impedance match between a 30 W
b. SWR with a 12 dB loss, the second network is an amplifier with 35 dB transmitter and the antenna and 5 W is reflected. How much power
c. Reflection coefficient gain, and the third has an insertion loss of 10 dB. The input of the is actually transmitted?
d. None of these first network is 4 mW; what is the output of the third network in a. 35 W
234. It is a measure of one way loss of power in a transmission line watts? b. 25 W
due to reflection from the load. a. 0.798 W c. 30 W
a. Return loss b. 0.00798 W d. 20 W
b. Transmission loss c. 0.0798 W 253. What is the actual length in feet of a one quarter-wavelength
c. Propagation loss d. 798 W of a coax with a velocity factor of 0.69 at 40 MHz?
d. None of these 244. Is a power level related to 1 mW. a. 6.15
235. If the velocity factor is equal to 0.66, the speed of light will a. dB b. 4.244
be_____. b. dBm c. 5.904
a. Increase c. dBM d. 16.974
b. Decrease d. dBW 254. A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is
c. Same 245. A transmission unit used in a number of Northern European shorted out at the far end. What is the input impedance to the line
d. None of these countries as an alternative to the decibel is ________. at the generator?
236. In 1939, _________ published a graphical device for solving a. Attenuation a. A low value of resistance
transmission line design. b. Loss b. A high value of resistance
a. Phillip A. Smith c. Neper c. A capacitive reactance which is equal in value to the line’s surge
b. Phillip R. Smith d. dB loss impedance
c. Phillip H. Smith 246. Adding two +30 dBm will produce how much dBm at the d. A value of resistance equal to the characteristic impedance of
d. Phillip S. Smith output. the line
237. In order to make the smith chart universal, the impedances a. 60 dBm 255. A coaxial cable has a capacitance of 90pF/m and a
along the pure resistance line are _________. b. 15 dBm characteristic impedance of 75 ohms. Find the inductance of a 2m
a. Normal c. 23 dBm length.
b. Normalized d. 33 dBm a. 1.013 uH
c. Open circuit 247. Determines how the voltage or current decreases with b. 450 nH
d. Short circuit distance c. 506.25 nH
238. Calculate the gain off an amplifier with an input power 10 kW a. Phase-shift coefficient d. 225 nH
and an output power of 200 kW. b. Attenuation coefficient 256. If the SWR on a transmission line has high value, the reason
a. 15 dB c. Propagation coefficient could be
b. 13 dB d. Numerical coefficient a. An impedance mismatch between the line and the load
c. 20 dB 248. Determines the phase angle of the voltage or current variation b. That the line is nonresonant
d. 10 dB with distance c. A reflection coefficient of zero at the load
239. A perfect termination for a transmission line. a. Phase-shift coefficient d. A high degree of attenuation between the load and the position
a. Receiving end b. Attenuation coefficient where the SWR is measured
b. Load c. Propagation coefficient 257. Calculate the velocity factor of a coaxial cable used as a
c. Antenna d. Numerical coefficient transmission line with the characteristic impedance of 50 ohms;
d. Terminal end 249. Determines variation of voltage or current with distance along capacitance is 40 pF/m and an inductance equal to 50 microH/m.
240. It can be measured, and includes losses due to reflection and transmission line a. 0.7450
absorption inside the component a. Phase-shift coefficient b. 0.7504
a. Fading b. Attenuation coefficient c. 0.0745
b. Attenuation c. Propagation coefficient d. 0.0475
c. Insertion loss d. Numerical coefficient 258. If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end
a. There is minimum current at the shorted end b. Bakelite 277. An optical domain reflectometer display shows a
b. The line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the c. Paper discontinuity 1.4 microsecond s from the start. If the line has a
generator d. Mica velocity factor of 0.92, how far is the fault from the reflecto meter?
c. The line behaves as a series tuned circuit in relation to the 268. Neglecting line losses, the RMS voltage along an RF a. 168 m
generator transmission line having no standing waves b. 193.2 m
d. There is a maximum voltage at the shorted end a. Is equal to the impedance c. 210 m
259. What is the velocity factor for a cable with a Teflon dielectric b. Is one-half of the surge impedance d. 386 m
(relative permittivity = 2.1)? c. Is the product of the surge impedance and the lien current 278. A high SWR creates losses in a transmission line. A high
a. 0.69 d. Varies sinusoidally along the line standing wave ratio might be caused by
b. 0.476 269. What length of standard RG-8/U coaxial cable would be a. Improper turns ratio between primary and secondary in the plate
c. 2.1 required to obtain a 30 degree-phase shift at 250 MHz? tank transformer
d. 1.449 a. 0.792 m b. Screen grid current flow
260. A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which b. 0.99 m c. An antenna electrically too long for its frequency
represents a 50-ohm resistive load. To shorten the line, the length c. 0.066 m d. An impedance mismatch
must be d. 0.124 m 279. A properly connected transmission line
a. Any convenient value 270. Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to a. Is grounded at the transmitter end
b. An odd-multiple of three-quarters of a wavelength a. Improve the skin-effect of microwaves b. Is cut to a harmonic of the carrier frequency
c. An even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength b. Reduce arcing in the line c. Is cut to an even harmonic of the carrier frequency
d. An odd multiple of an eight of a wavelength c. Reduce the standing wave ratio of the line d. Has a standing wave ratio as near as 1:1 as possible
261. A feature of an infinite transmission line is that d. Prevent moisture from entering the line 280. If a ¾ wavelength transmission is shorted at one end, the
a. Its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line’s surge 271. Referred to the fundamental frequency, a shorted stub line impedance at the open will be
impedance attached to the transmission line to absorb even harmonics could a. Zero
b. Its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light have a wavelength of b. Infinite
c. The impedance varies at different positions on the line a. 1.41 wavelength c. Decreased
d. The input impedance is equivalent to a short circuit b. ½ wavelength d. Increased
262. The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded c. ¼ wavelength 281. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not
a. At the beginning and at the end of the cable d. 1/6 wavelength depend upon its
b. Only at the beginning of the cable 272. Nitrogen gas in concentric RF transmission lines is used to a. Length
c. Only at the end of the cable a. Keep moisture out b. Conductor diameter
d. The outer conductor must never be grounded b. Prevent oxidation c. Conductor spacing
263. What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of c. Act as insulator d. None of the above
0.25 cm and spaced 2.5 cm apart using an insulator with a d. Both A and B 282. Which of the following is not a common transmission line
dielectric constant of 2.56? 273. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, impedance?
a. 100 ohms what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a a. 50 ohms
b. 160.5 ohms 200 foot-transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter? b. 75 ohms
c. 88.93 ohms a. 70 watts c. 120 ohms
d. 25.8 ohms b. 50 watts d. 300 ohms
264. An attenuator has a loss of 26 dB. If a power of 3 W is c. 25 watts 283. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected
applied to the attenuator, find the output power. d. 6 watts on a transmission line is known as the
a. 1.65 watts 274. Two adjacent minima on a slotted line are 20 cm apart. Find a. Velocity factor
b. 7.54 milliwatts the wavelength assuming a velocity factor of 95 %. b. Standing wave ratio
c. 1194 watts a. 38 m c. Reflection coefficient
d. 5.459 watts b. 43.7 m d. Line efficiency
265. When surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line c. 46 cm 284. A series tuned circuit operating at a frequency of 1 GHz is to
will d. 40 cm be constructed from a shorted section of Teflon-dielectric coaxial
a. Transfer maximum current to the load 275. What would be the approximate series impedance of a cable. What length should be used? ( relative dielectric = 2.1)
b. Transfer maximum voltage to the load quarter-wave matching line used to match a 600 ohm-feed to 70 a. 0.325m
c. Transfer maximum power to the load ohm-antenna? b. 0.10 m
d. Have a VSWR equal to zero a. 205 ohms c. 0.217 m
266. A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not b. 210 ohms d. 0.143 m
equal to the surge impedance. If the value of the reflection c. 25.88 ohms 285. A 75 ohm line is terminated in a 30 ohm resistance. Find the
coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is d. 102.5 ohms SWR.
a. 2 276. Which of the following represents the best SWR? a. 0.6
b. 3 a. 1:1 b. 0.429
c. 1.5 b. 1:2 c. 2.5
d. 5 c. 1:15 d. 0.4
267. The best insulation at UHF is d. 2:1
a. Black rubber
286. A generator sends 50 mW down a 50 ohm line. The generator b. 0.25 – j1 ohms C. Reverse
is matched to the line but the load is not. If the coefficient of c. 0.94 – j24 ohms D. Perpendicular
reflection is 0.6, how much power is reflected? d. 1 + 0.25 ohms 308. Calculate the capacitance per meter of a 50-ohm load cable
a. 18 mW 296. A pattern of voltage and current variations along a that has an inductance of 55 nH/m.
b. 20 mW transmission line not terminated in its characteristic impedance is A. 13 pF
c. 30 mW called B. 18 pF
d. 32 mW a. Electric field C. 20 pF
287. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as b. Radio waves D. 22 pF
a. Tuned circuits c. Standing waves 309. The desirable SWR on a transmission line is
b. Antennas d. Magnetic field A. 0
c. Insulators 297. A 75-j50 ohms is connected to a coaxial transmission line of B. 1
d. Resistors ZO = 75 ohms, at 10 GHz. The best method of matching consists C. 2
288. Transmission line shielding is grounded in connecting D. Infinity
a. At the input only a. A short-circuited stub at the load 310. A kind of wave where the direction is displacement is
b. At both the input and output b. An inductance at the load perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
c. At the output only c. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load A. Transverse
d. If the antenna is a Marconi design d. A short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load B. Longitudinal
289. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts 298. Calculate the impedance seen 301. Category of media with C. Reverse
like a(an) some form of conductor that provides a conduit in which D. Perpendicular
a. Series resonant circuit electromagnetic signals are contained. 311. A short-circuited half-wavelength line acts like a
b. Parallel resonant circuit A. Guided A. Parallel resonant circuit
c. Capacitor B. Balanced B. Series Resonant Circuit
d. Inductor C. Unguided C. Oscillator
290. A transmitter is required to deliver 100 W to an antenna D. Unbalanced D. LC circuit
through 5 m of coaxial cable with a loss of 3 dB / 100 m. What 302. The conductive connections between elements which carry 312. Electromagnetic waves that travel along a transmission line
must be the output power of the transmitter, assuming the line is signals. from the source to the load.
matched? A. Transmission Lines A. Reverse waves
a. 136 W B. Antenna B. Transverse waves
b. 153 W C. Frequency allocations C. Incident waves
c. 151 W D. Load D. Longitudinal waves
d. 116.815 W 303. Calculate the characteristic impedance for a line that exhibits 313. Electromagnetic waves that travel from the load back toward
291. A generator sends 50 mW down a 50 ohm line. The generator an inductance of 4 nH/m and 1.5 pF/m the source.
is matched to the line but the load is not. If the coefficient of A. 36.6 ohms A. Incident waves
reflection is 0.25, how much power is dissipated in the load? B. 51.6 ohms B. Transverse waves
a. 46.9 mW C. 22 ohms C. Forward waves
b. 37.5 mW D. 24.5 ohms D. Reflected waves
c. 3.125 mW 304. Category of media which are wireless 314. Sound travels approximately
d. 12.5 mW A. Guided A. 2200 feet per second
292. Determine the Q of an antenna if it has a bandwidth of 0.06 B. Balanced B. 1100 feet per second
MHz and is cut to a frequency of 30 MHz. C. Unguided C. 550 feet per second
a. 50 D. Unbalanced D. 600 feet per second
b. 100 305. It is a medium or any physical facility used to propagate 315. Determine the surge impedance for a parallel wire, air
c. 150 electromagnetic signals between two locations in a dielectric with a ratio of the spacing between conductors and the
d. 250 communications system. diameter of 3.
293. The main disadvantage of the two-hole directional coupler is A. Transmission medium A. 250 ohms
a. Low directional coupling B. Channel allocation B. 210 ohms
b. Poor directivity C. Frequency allocation C. 180 ohms
c. High SWR D. Any of these D. 215 ohms
d. Narrow bandwidth 306. It is a metallic conductor system used to transfer electrical 316. The rate at which the periodic wave repeats
294. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like energy from one point to another using electrical current flow. A. Wavelength
a(an) A. Transmitter B. Amplitude
a. Capacitor B. Multiplexers C. Period
b. Inductor C. Receiver D. Frequency
c. Series resonant circuit D. Transmission line 317. The distance of one cycle occurring in space
d. Parallel resonant circuit 307. A kind of wave where the displacement is in the direction of A. Wavelength
295. A load impedance of 100+j25 ohms is normalized on a 100 propagation. B. Amplitudes
ohm-line. The normalized value is A. Transverse C. Period
a. 2 + j0.5 ohms B. Longitudinal D. Frequency
318. Classification of transmission line where both conductors spacers between the conductors are replaced with a continuous 337. An antenna is being fed by a properly terminated two-wire
carry current; one conductor carries the signal, the other conductor solid dielectric that ensures uniform spacing along the entire cable transmission line. The current in the line at the input end is 3 A.
is the return path A. Twisted pair The surge impedance of the line is 500 ohms. How much power is
A. Differential transmission lines B. Open-wire lines being supplied to the line?
B. Unbalanced lines C. Coaxial cables A. 3.1 kW
C. Coaxial cables D. Twin lead B. 2.5 kW
D. Balun 328. What is the range of size of wires of a twisted pair? C. 1.6 kW
319. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like A. AWG 16 to AWG 26 D. 4.5 kW
A. Capacitor B. AWG 14 to AWG 25 338. Level or Category of UTP cable which was developed for
B. Inductor C. AWG 10 to AWG 20 IEEE 802.5 token ring local area networks operating at a
C. Series resonant circuit D. AWG 12 to AWG 28 transmission rates of 4Mbps
D. Parallel resonant circuit 329. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line, A. Level 1 or Cat 1
320. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line, air polyethylene dielectric with the ratio of the diameter of the outer B. Level 3 or Cat 3
dielectric with a ratio of the diameter of the outer and inner and the inner conductor of 2.5? C. Level 2 or Cat 2
conductor equal to 1.5? A. 43.5 ohms D. Cat 4
A. 24.3 ohms B. 23.4 ohms 339. If the period of one complete cycle of a radio wave is
B. 25.6 ohms C. 36.2 ohms 0.000001 s, what is the wavelength?
C. 13.2 ohms D. 29.8 ohms A. 300 m
D. 18 ohms 330. In AWG, the higher the wire gauge ______ B. 200 m
321. Currents that flow in opposite direction in a balanced wire A. The higher the diameter and the lower the resistance C. 100 m
pair is called B. The smaller the diameter and the higher the resistance D. 400 m
A. Longitudinal currents C. The smaller the diameter and the higher the conductance 340. If the two towers of a 950-kHz antenna are separated by 120
B. Reverse circuit currents D. The larger the diameter and the higher the resistance electrical degrees, what is the tower separation in feet?
C. Transverse circuit currents 331. Type of twisted pair wire cable that consists of two copper A. 231 ft.
D. Metallic circuit currents wires where each wire is separately encapsulated in PVC B. 235 ft.
322. Currents that flow in same direction in a balanced wire pair is insulation. C. 176 ft.
called A. Shielded twisted pair D. 345 ft.
A. Longitudinal currents B. Twin lead 341. Category of UTP used for virtually any voice or data
B. Reverse circuit currents C. Unshielded twisted pair transmission rate up to 16 Mbps, has a minimum of 3 turns per
C. Transverse circuit currents D. Open wire frame inch.
D. In-phase currents 332. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts A. Category 5e
323. A circuit device used to connect a balanced transmission line like B. Category 4
to an unbalanced load A. Series resonant circuit C. Category 5
A. Slotted lines B. Parallel resonant circuit D. Category 3
B. Stub C. Capacitor 342. The mismatch between the antenna and transmission line
C. Balun D. Inductor impedances cannot be corrected for by
D. Quarterwave lines 333. The minimum number of twist for UTP is A. Using an LC matching network
324. The most common type of balun used in relatively high A. Two twist per foot B. Adjusting antenna length
frequency B. Two twist per meter C. Using a balun
A. Narrowband C. Three twist per foot D. Adjusting the length of transmission line
B. Choke D. Three twist per meter 343. Category of UTP that was designed for data transmission
C. Sleeve 334. A delay line using RG-8A/U cable is to exhibit a 5-ns delay. rates up to 20 Mbps
D. All of these Calculate the required length of the cable. A. Category 5e
325. A pattern of voltage and current variations along the A. 4.57 ft. B. Category 4
transmission line not terminated in its characteristic impedance is B. 1.23 ft. C. Category 5
called C. 6.2 ft. D. Category 3
A. An electric fluid D. 3.4 ft. 344. Variation of CAT5 cables that are intended for data
B. Radio waves 335. An open-circuited quarter-wavelength line acts like a transmission rates up to 250 Mbps
C. Standing waves A. Parallel resonant circuit A. Category 5e
D. A magnetic field B. Series resonant circuit B. Category 2
326. A type of parallel-conductor transmission lines consists of C. Oscillator C. Category 6
simply of two parallel wires, closely-spaced and separated by air. D. LC circuit D. Category 3
A. Twisted pair 336. Level for category of UTP cable which is suitable only for 345. A type of twisted-pair wherein its wires and dielectric are
B. Open-wire lines voice grade telephone signals and very low-speed data applications enclosed in a conductive metal sleeve called a foil.
C. Coaxial cables A. Level 1 or Cat 1 A. STP
D. Twin pair B. Level 3 or Cat 3 B. Twin lead
327. A type of parallel-conductor transmission lines which is C. Level 2 or Cat 2 C. UTP
essentially the same as open-wire transmission line except that the D. Cat 4 D. Unshielded Twin lead
346. It is the name given to the area between the ceiling and the A. 0.685 nH/m, and a relative dielectric constant of 2.3, determine the
roof in a single-story building or between the ceiling and the floor B. 1 velocity of propagation.
of the next higher level in a multistory building. C. 1.46 A. 1.07 x 10^8 m/s
A. Attic D. 2.92 B. 2.3 x 10^7 m/s
B. Rooftop 356. Defined as the impedance seen looking at an infinitely long C. 3.28 x 10^8 m/s
C. Plenum line or the impedance seen looking into a finite length of the line D. 2.07 x 10^8 m/s
D. Ceiling that is terminated in a purely resistive load with the resistance 365. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial cable with distributed
347. It consists of center conductor surrounded by dielectric equal to the characteristic impedance of the line. capacitance of 96.6 pF/m, a distributed inductance of 241.56
material, then a concentric shielding, and an environmental A. Input impedance nH/m, and a relative dielectric constant of 2.3, determine the
protection outer jacket. B. Surge impedance velocity factor
A. Twisted pair C. Output impedance A. 1.2
B. Coaxial cable D. Circuit impedance B. 0.66
C. Twin lead 357. Determine the characteristic impedance for an air dielectric C. 0.7
D. Open wire two-wire parallel transmission line with a D/r ratio of 12.22 D. 0.5
348. In a transmission line, it refers to the woven stranded mesh or A. 150 ohms 366. If the length of an open-circuited stub is greater than quarter-
braid that surround some types of coaxial cables B. 120 ohms wavelength but less than half-wavelength, the stub behaves as
A. Grounding C. 75 ohms A. Inductor
B. Shielding D. 300 ohms B. Capacitor
C. Degaussing 358. Determine the characteristic impedance for an RG-59A C. Resistor
D. Any of these coaxial cable with the following specifications: d = 0.025 inches, D. Complex
349. A coaxial cable with one layer of foil insulation and one layer D = 0.15 inches, and dielectric constant of 2.23 367. Delay line is a function of what two parameters?
of braided shielding. A. 120 ohms A. Resistance and capacitance
A. Backup shielding B. 72 ohms B. Resistance and susceptance
B. Temporary shielding C. 150 ohms C. Inductance and resistance
C. Dual shielding D. 75 ohms D. Inductance and capacitance
D. Interference shielding 359. Determine the characteristic impedance for an RG-59A 368. How is the time delay calculated in a coaxial cables with a
350. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as coaxial cable with the following specifications: L=0.118 uH/ft and dielectric constant of 0.66?
A. Tuned circuits C = 21 pF/ft A. 0.56 sec
B. Antennas A. 150 ohms B. 0.67 sec
C. Insulators B. 72 ohms C. 0.45 sec
D. Resistors C. 75 ohms D. 1.2 sec
351. A coaxial cable with two layers of foil insulation and two D. 100 ohms 369. Three feet is one wavelength at a frequency of
layers of braided shielding. 360. It is used to express the attenuation or signal loss and the A. 100 MHz
A. Quad shielding phase shift per unit length of the transmission line. B. 164 MHz
B. Double shielding A. Propagation coefficient C. 300 MHz
C. Triple shielding B. Propagation constant D. 328 MHz
D. Shielding C. Propagation factor 370. When current flows through a conductor, the loss introduced
352. A type of coaxial cable that has a tubular outer conductor D. Any of these as a function of resistance and current is called _______.
surrounds the center conductor coaxially and the insulating 361. For matched condition, what is the relationship of load and A. Inductance loss
material is air. characteristic impedance? B. Conductor loss
A. Rigid air coaxial cable A. Greater than C. Voltage loss
B. Gas-filled coaxial cable B. Less than D. Skin effect
C. Solid coaxial cable C. Equal 371. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the
D. Flexible cable D. Impossible to say relationship between the characteristic impedance of the line Zo
353. If the length of an open-circuited stub is less than quarter- 362. It is defined simply as the ratio of the actual velocity of and the load impedance ZL should be
wavelength but greater than 0, the stub behaves as propagation of an electromagnetic wave through a given medium A. Zo = ZL
A. Inductor to the velocity of propagation through a vacuum or free space. B. Zo > ZL
B. Capacitor A. Velocity factor C. Zo < ZL
C. Resistor B. Velocity propagation D. Zo = 0
D. Complex C. Index of refraction 372. The ratio of the AC resistance and the DC resistance.
354. Type of coaxial cable where the outer conductor is braided, D. Phase delay A. Impedance ratio
flexible, and coaxial to the center conductor. 363. It is simply the permittivity of the material B. Susceptance ratio
A. Gas-filled coaxial cable A. Permittivity C. Resistance ratio
B. Rigid air coaxial cable B. Insulation constant D. Conductance ratio
C. Solid flexible coaxial cable C. Dielectric constant 373. The difference in potential between two conductors of a
D. Flexible cable D. Resistivity metallic transmission line causes ______.
355. A 50-ohm coax is connected to a 73-ohm antenna. The SWR 364. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial cable with distributed A. Conductor loss
is capacitance of 96.6 pF/m, a distributed inductance of 241.56 B. Dielectric heating
C. Radiation loss D. Any of these A. Use stub matching
D. Corona 383. It is a vector quantity that represents the ratio of reflected B. Use a slotted line
374. If the length of a short-circuited stub is greater than quarter- voltage to incident voltage or the reflected current and the incident C. Used a Q-section
wavelength but less than half-wavelength, the stub behaves as current D. Use an open circuited lines
A. Inductor A. Reflection coefficient 393. A technique that can be used to locate an impairment in
B. Capacitor B. Reactive load diagram metallic cable.
C. Resistor C. Standing wave ratio A. TDR
D. Complex D. Traveling waves B. Wattmeter
375. If the separation between the conductors in a metallic 384. With a mismatched line, two electromagnetic waves traveling C. Voltmeter
transmission line is an appreciable fraction of a wavelength, the in opposite direction, present on the line on the same time. D. SWR meter
electrostatic and electromagnetic fields that surround the conductor A. Standing wave ratio 394. A pulse is transmitted down a cable that has a velocity of
cause the line to act as if it were an antenna and transfer energy to B. Reflection coefficient propagation of 0.8c. The reflected signal is received 1us later. How
any nearby material. This energy radiated is called ______. C. Standing waves far down the cable is the impairment?
A. Radiation loss D. Traveling waves A. 240 m
B. Power loss 385. The two traveling waves sets up an interference pattern called B. 15 m
C. Coupling loss _______. C. 60 m
D. Corona A. Standing wave ratio D. 120 m
376. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, B. Reflection coefficient 395. Using TDR, a transmission line impairment is located 3000m
while the maximum is 390 V. The SWR is C. Standing waves from the source. For a velocity propagation of 0.9 c, determine the
A. 0.67 D. Traveling waves time elapsed from the beginning of the pulse to the reception of the
B. 1.0 386. It is defined as the ratio of the maximum voltage to the echo
C. 1.2 minimum voltage or the maximum current to the minimum current A. 11.11 us
D. 1.5 of a standing wave in a transmission line. B. 10.12 us
377. It occurs whenever a connection is made to or from a A. Standing wave ratio C. 22.22 us
transmission line or when two sections of transmission line are B. Normalized impedance D. 21.14 us
connected together. C. Reflection coefficient 396. A flat conductor separated from a ground plane by an
A. Power loss D. Any of these insulating dielectric material.
B. Coupling loss 387. For a transmission line with an incident voltage of 5V and a A. Stripline
C. Radiation loss reflected voltage of 3V, determine the reflection coefficient. B. Waveguide
D. Resistance loss A. 0.4 C. Microstrip
378. Which of the following is not a common transmission line B. 0.6 D. Coaxial cable
impedance? C. 0.5 397. A flat conductor sandwich between two ground planes.
A. 50 ohms D. 0.7 A. Stripline
B. 75 ohms 388. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected B. Waveguide
C. 120 ohms on a transmission line is known as the C. Microstrip
D. 300 ohms A. Velocity factor D. Coaxial cable
379. It is a luminous discharge that occurs between the two B. Standing wave ratio 398. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line
conductors of a transmission line when the difference in potential C. Reflection coefficient is infinity; the line is terminated in
between them exceeds the breakdown voltage of a dielectric D. Line efficiency A. A short circuit
insulator. 389. There is an impedance inversion in every ______. B. A complex impedance
A. Resistance loss A. Half wavelength C. An open circuit
B. Corona B. Quarter wavelength D. A pure reactance
C. Radiation loss C. Full wavelength 399. The most commonly used transmission line is a
D. Power loss D. Three-eights of a wavelength A. Two-wire balance line
380. Voltage that propagates down the load. 390. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not B. Singe wire
A. Reflected voltage depend upon its C. Three-wire line
B. Standing wave ratio A. Length D. Coax
C. Incident voltage B. Conductor diameter 400. A short-circuited half-wavelength line acts like a
D. Reflection voltage C. Conductor spacing A. Parallel resonant circuit
381. Voltage that propagates from the load towards the source. D. None of these B. Series resonant circuit
A. Reflected voltage 391. ______ are used to match transmission lines to purely C. Oscillator
B. Standing wave ratio resistive loads whose resistance is not equal to the characteristic D. LC circuit
C. Reflection coefficient impedance of the line. looking into a 75 ohm line 1 m long terminated in a load
D. Incident voltage A. Stub impedance of 100 ohms, if the line has a velocity factor 0f 0.8 and
382. A transmission line with no reflected power. B. Slotted lines operates at a frequency of 30 MHz.
A. Flat C. Quarter-wavelength transformer a. 72 – j21 ohms
B. Resistive D. Short circuited lines b. 75 – j25 ohms
C. Non resonant line 392. To match a transmission line with a reactive load _______. c. 40 – j30 ohms
d. 50 – j25 ohms D. Quarter-wave transformer D. 4
299. The velocity factor of a transmission line 409. A short-circuited quarter-wavelength line acts like a 419. Which of the following is NOT a color code for Category 5
a. Depends on the dielectric of the material used A. Parallel resonant circuit UTP?
b. Increases the velocity along the transmission line B. Series resonant circuit A. Blue/white stripe and blue
c. Is governed by the skin effect C. Oscillator B. Orange/white stripe and orange
d. Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air D. LC circuit C. Red/white stripe and red
300. A transmitter supplies 50 W to a load through a line with an 410. If the length of a short-circuited stub is less than a quarter- D. Brown/white stripe and brown
SWR of 4:1. Find the power absorbed by the load. wavelength but greater than 0, the stub behaves as 420. Shielded-screen twisted-pair cable or SSTP is also known as
a. 32 W A. Inductor ________.
b. 5.6 W B. Capacitor A. Cat 5e
c. 44.4 W C. Resistor B. Cat 7
d. 18 W D. Complex C. Cat 6
411. The depth of penetration of current density resulting from D. Cat 8
401. A (75 – j50)-ohm is connected to a coaxial transmission line skin effect 421. An open-circuited transmission line quarter wavelength long
of Zo = 75 ohms, at 10 GHz. The best method of matching consists A. Skin depth is equivalent to
of connecting B. Wire depth A. Parallel resonant circuit
A. A short-circuited stub at the load C. Line depth B. Series resonant circuit
B. An inductive at the load D. Medium depth C. Inductive
C. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load 412. Transmission line must be matched to the load to D. Capacitive
D. A short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load A. Transfer maximum voltage to the load 422. A short-circuited transmission line more than quarter-
402. The velocity factor of a transmission line B. Transfer maximum current to the load wavelength long but shorter than half wavelength is equivalent to
A. Depends on the dielectric constant of the material used C. Reduce the load current _______.
B. Increases in velocity along the transmission line D. Transfer maximum power to the load A. Series resonant circuit
C. Is governed by the skin effect 413. Referred to the dielectric constant of a transmission line B. Inductive
D. Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air. material C. Capacitive
403. Impedance inversion may be obtained with A. Inductance and capacitance D. Parallel resonant circuit
A. A short-circuited stub B. Velocity factor 423. A short-circuited transmission line less than quarter-
B. An open-circuited stub C. Characteristic impedance wavelength long.
C. A quarter-wave line D. Propagation velocity A. Inductive
D. A half-wave line 414. A transmission line containing of two conductors that have B. Capacitive
404. The most desirable reflection coefficient is equal resistance per unit length C. Parallel resonant circuit
A. 0 A. Unbalanced line D. Series resonant circuit
B. 0.5 B. Open-wire line 424. The quarter-wavelength transformer line acts as a transformer
C. 1 C. Balanced line with a 1:1 turns ratio when the load resistance is with what
D. Infinity D. Coaxial cable relationship with the characteristic impedance of the quarter-
405. Short circuited stubs are preferred to open-circuited stub 415. Which of the following determines the characteristics of a wavelength transformer?
because the latter are transmission line? A. Equal
A. More difficult to make and connect A. Inductance B. Less than
B. Made of a transmission line with different characteristic B. Capacitance C. Greater than
impedance C. Physical dimension D. None of these
C. Liable to radiate D. Length 425. The characteristic impedance of a microstrip is equal to _____
D. Incapable of giving a full range of reactance 416. Category of UTP that was designed for data transmission ohms.
406. For transmission-line load matching over a range of rates up to 20 Mbps A. 50 to 200
frequencies, it is best to use a A. Category 5e B. 25 to 50
A. Balun B. Category 4 C. 100 to 200
B. Broadband directional coupler C. Category 5 D. 50 to 75
C. Double stub D. Category 3 426. The quarter-wavelength transformer line acts as a step down
D. Single stub of adjustable position 417. Level 2 or category 2 UTP cables comply with IBM’s transformer when the load resistance is with what relationship with
407. The main disadvantage of the two-hole directional coupler is _______ specification. the characteristic impedance of the quarter-wavelength
A. Low directional coupling A. Type 1 transformer?
B. Poor directivity B. Type 3 A. Equal
C. High SWR C. Type 2 B. Less than
D. Narrow bandwidth D. Type 4 C. Greater than
408. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line, it is best to use 418. Level 3 or Category 3 UTP cables should have at least ____ D. None of these
a twist per inch. 427. The typical value of the velocity factor of an open-wire
A. Slotted line A. 1 transmission line is
B. Balun B. 2 A. 0.8
C. Directional coupler C. 3 B. 0.7
C. 0.6 b. 10 b. Decimonic operation
D. 0.9 c. 2 c. Electromagnetic reverberation
428. If a transmission line is not terminated in its characteristic d. 1 d. Asynchronous operation
impedance, _______ will develop along the line. 438. When ZL ≠ Zo, the power sent down the line toward the load 447. A coax line has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per 100 ft. the
A. Traveling waves is called the attenuation for 2.75 ft. is _____ dB.
B. Standing waves a. The incident power a. 2.4
C. Surge impedance b. The reflected power b. 4.8
D. Infinite impedance c. The power dissipation c. 3.3
429. If a load and a line have mismatched impedances, power not d. The carrier power d. 6.6
absorbed by the load will be _____. 439. For transmission line load matching over a range of 448. When a quarter wave stub is used to match a 600 ohm antenna
A. Absorbed frequencies, it is best to use a to a line of 52 ohms, the impedance of the matching stub must be
B. Rejected a. Balun ____ ohms.
C. Reflected b. Broadband directional coupler a. 176
D. Removed c. Double stub b. 200
430. Two wire line is usually operated in the: d. Single adjustable stub c. 150
a. Balanced mode 440. A short section of a transmission line, open or shorted that is d. 300
b. Unbalanced mode used to match the impedance of the line to that of an antenna or 449. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is
c. High frequency transmitter. determined by
d. None of these a. Slotted line a. Its length
431. When the load impedance doesn’t not match the line b. Stub b. Its height above ground
impedance, part of the energy in the incident wave is ________ at c. Wavetrap c. Its physical construction
the load. d. Lecher wire d. The operating frequency
a. Forwarded 441. The property of a material that determines how much 450. When the diameter of two conductors of a two-wire
b. Reflected electrostatic energy can be stored per unit volume when voltage is transmission line is held constant, the effect of decreasing the
c. Same applied distance between the conductors is to
d. None of these a. Permeability a. Decrease the impedance
432. In practice, the transmission lines are almost connected to b. Magnetic effect b. Increase the surge impedance
antennas that have a _____. c. Capacitance c. Increase the radiation resistance
a. Resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic d. Permittivity d. Decrease SWR
impedance of the line 442. The value of the total opposition of the transmission media to 451. Considering a coaxial transmission line, maximum voltage on
b. Resistive load whose resistance is less than the characteristic the flow of electromagnetic field energy is called the line divided by the minimum voltage equals the
impedance of the line a. Characteristic impedance a. Characteristic impedance
c. Resistive load at the resonant frequency b. Velocity factor b. ISWR
d. Capacitive load c. Standing waves c. VSWR
433. When the transmission line is matched to the load, it d. Reflected waves d. Inductive reactance
a. Transfers maximum current to the load 443. When mismatch is great, this power actually cause damage to 452. In a transmission line, if the SWR or maximum current to a
b. Transfers maximum voltage to the load the transmitter or the line itself. minimum current ratio of 2:1, the ratio of the maximum voltage to
c. Transfers maximum power to the load a. The incident power the minimum voltage is
d. Reduces the load current b. The reflected power a. 1:4
434. Conventional transmission media include c. The power dissipation b. 4:1
a. Twisted cable pair d. The carrier power c. 1:2
b. Waveguide 444. What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 d. 2:1
c. Fiber optic cable ohm flexile coaxial cable such as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59? 453. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with
d. All of these a. 270 respect to
435. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, it is best to use b. 0.10 a. Negative terminal
a _____ c. 0.66 b. Input
a. Slotted line d. 0.30 c. Ground
b. Directional coupler 445. The measure of the superiority of a material over a vacuum as d. Positive terminal
c. Balun a path for magnetic lines of force is 454. The load is properly matched with the transmission line if the
d. All of these a. Permittivity standing wave ratio is equal to
436. Impedance inversion may be obtained with b. Permeability a. 50
a. An open circuited stub c. Conductivity b. 10
b. A short circuited stub d. Resistivity c. 5
c. A quarterwave line 446. The number of standing waves on the wire is equal to the d. 1
d. A half-wave line length of the wire divided by a half wavelength. The principle 455. The radiation resistance of a quarterwave antenna is
437. To be properly matched, the ratio of maximum to minimum which allows antennas to operate at different frequencies which are a. 49 ohms
voltage along a transmission line should be equal to integral multiples of the fundamental frequency is called_______. b. 288 ohms
a. 50 a. Harmonic operation c. 72 ohms
d. 144 ohms d. Power transfer between source and load is maximum b. 3
456. A radio transmission line of 500 ohms impedance is to be 466. A transmission line with characteristic impedance (Zo) of 300 c. 2
connected to an antenna having an impedance of 200 ohms. What ohms is terminated in a resistance load (RI). If by measurement, d. 0.5
is the impedance of a quarter wave matching line? the minimum and maximum voltage through the load are 12 and 476. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance to be
a. 300 20 micro volts, respectively, what is the SWR? connected to an antenna having an input impedance of 150 ohms.
b. 316 a. 1.67 The impedance if a quarter wave matching line is ___ ohms
c. 316.5 b. 0.6 a. 212
d. 361 c. 6.7 b. 450
457. The VSWR for a line terminated in its Zo is d. 3.67 c. 600
a. 0 467. A measure of the mismatched between line and load d. 150
b. 1 impedance is called as 477. The ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage on
c. 1.5 a. Reflection coefficient the transmission line is termed as
d. Infinity b. Standing wave ratio a. Reflection coefficient
458. Which of the following is used to measure SWR? c. Loss b. Standing wave ratio
a. Multimeter d. Standing waves c. Loss
b. Reflectometer 468. Transmission lines when connected to antenna have d. Standing waves
c. Spectrum analyzer a. Capacitive load 478. Indicate the three types of transmission line energy losses
d. Oscilloscope b. Resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristic a. Radiation, I2R and dielectric Heating
459. A 75 – j50 ohm load is connected to a coaxial transmission impedance b. Conductor heating, dielectric heating and radiation resistance
line of Zo = 75 ohms at 10 GHz. The best method of matching c. Resistive load at the resonant frequency c. I2R, RL and temperature
consists in connecting d. Resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic d. Dielectric separation insulation breakdown and radiation
a. A short circuited stub at the load impedance of the line 479. Termination means
b. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load 469. At matched condition, SWR is equal to a. Load connected to the output end of a transmission line
c. An inductance at the load a. Zero b. Result of disconnecting a line from a transmitter
d. A short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load b. One c. Looking back impedance of a line with no load
460. For a two-wire line, Zo is higher when c. 100 d. Result of cutting both ends of a conductor
a. The wire size is small with respect to the spacing of the d. Infinite 480. When transmission line uses ground return, it is called a/n
conductors 470. An HF transmission line has a characteristic impedance of _____ line.
b. The spacing is varied in accordance with the frequency 600 ohms and is terminated by an antenna. The SWR along the a. Ungrounded
c. The D:d ratio is smaller line when the antenna impedance is 500 ohms is b. Unbalanced
d. The wire is large with respect to the spacing of the conductors a. 1.2:1 c. Grounded
461. A resultant wave due to the combination of incident and b. 1:2.1 d. Balanced
reflected wave c. 2:1 481. Permeability is the measure of superiority of a material over a
a. Electromagnetic wave d. 1:2 vacuum as a path of magnetic lines of force. The permeability of
b. Sine wave 471. A characteristic of an infinite transmission line is that free space is equal to _____ henry/meter
c. Standing wave a. The impedance in equals impedance out a. 1.257 x 10-6
d. Current b. It carries waves at the velocity of light b. 1.527 x 10-6
462. For transmission line load matching over a range of c. It can be connected to mismatched loads c. 7.251 x 10-6
frequencies, it is best to use a d. The impedance varies with the length of the line d. 5.217×10-6
a. Balun 472. A quarter wave transmission line shorted at the end: 482. The most commonly used transmission line is a
b. Broadband directional coupler a. Has the characteristics of parallel tuned circuit a. Two-wire balanced line
c. Double stub b. Has the characteristics of a series tuned circuit b. Single line
d. Single stub c. Has a minimum current at the end c. Three-wire line
463. If the load impedance matches the characteristic impedance of d. Reflects a low impedance to the supply d. Coax
the line, there are _____ standing waves. 473. The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is usually 483. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not
a. More grounded at the: depend upon its
b. Less a. Input and output a. Length
c. No b. Output only b. Conductor diameter
d. Ten(10) c. Input only c. Conductor spacing
464. VSWR stands for d. Point of infinite resistance d. Thickness of armor
a. Voltage sending wave ratio 474. A certain feedline has a high SWR. It can be caused by: 484. What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of
b. Voltage receiving wave ratio a. An impedance mismatched 0.25cm and spaced 2.5 cm apart using an insulator with a dielectric
c. Very small wave radiation b. Use of non-resonant line constant of 2.56?
d. Voltage standing wave ratio c. Matching the load to the line a. 100 ohms
465. Reflections on a transmission line can occur when d. Excessive transmitter output b. 65 ohms
a. Impedance of the source and load are matched 475. If the input impedance of an antenna is 300 ohms and it is fed c. 75 ohms
b. Impedance of the source and the load are mismatched with a 600 ohm balanced transmission line, the SWR on the line is d. 50 ohms
c. Resonance conditions are obtained a. 4
485. It is required to match a 73-ohm antenna to a 600 ohm c. 2
polyethylene coaxial feeder line, with a velocity factor of 0.66 by d. Infinity
means of a quarter wave matching a transformer. At a frequency of 494. In transmission lines, the most desirable reflection coefficient
150 MHz, the impedance of the matching section is____ ohms. is
a. 209.28 a. Zero
b. 310.5 b. 0.5
c. 150.28 c. 1
d. 450.82 d. Infinity
486. If the terminating impedance is exactly equal to the 495. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as
characteristic impedance of the transmission line, the return loss _____.
is____ a. Tuned circuits
a. Zero b. Antennas
b. Infinity c. Insulators
c. One d. Resistors
d. Negative 496. What is the reflection coefficient of a 100 ohm characteristic
487. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the impedance line and a 300 ohm load?
impedance measured at the ____ when its length is infinite. a. 0.25
a. Shorted end of the line b. 0.3
b. Midsection c. 0.5
c. Input d. 0.75
d. Output 497. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 volts,
488. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is 70 while the maximum is 390 volts. The SWR is
ohms and has a load of 35 ohms. The SWR and reflection a. 0.67
coefficient are _____ and _____ respectively b. 1.0
a. 2 and 0.333 c. 1.2
b. 1 and 0.666 d. 1.5
c. 2 and 0.666 498. A single conductor running from the transmitter to the
d. 1 and 0.333 antenna
489. It is required to match a 200 ohm load to a 300 ohm a. RG-8/U
transmission line to reduce the SWR and attain resonance. A b. Single line wire
quarter wave transformer used, directly connected to the load has a c. Twin-lead
Zo of ____ ohms. d. Microstrip
a. 245 499. What characteristic impedance is needed to match a 50-ohm
b. 425 line to a 300 ohm-load?
c. 524 a. 221 ohms
d. 254 b. 122 ohms Part 2 Acoustic
490. What quarter wave transformer will match a 100 ohm-line to c. 212 ohms An instrument designed to measure a frequency-weighted value of
an antenna whose value is 175 ohms? d. 112 ohms the sound pressure level.
a. 150 ohms 500. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line a. Sound-level meter
b. 137.5 ohms is infinity; the line is terminated in b. Transducer
c. 132.29 ohms a. Short circuit c. Sound pressure meter
d. 16.58 ohms b. A complex impedance d. Sound analyzer
491. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line c. An open circuit 2. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level
impedance cannot be corrected by d. A pure reactance a. Noy
a. Using an LC network b. Sone
b. Adjusting antenna length c. dB
c. Using a balun d. phone
d. Adjusting the length of the transmission line 3. An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band osund
492. A pattern of voltage and current variation along a pressure level to the center frequency of the octave bands
transmission line not terminated in its characteristic impedance is a. C-message weighting curves
called b. Psophometric weighting curves
a. An electric field c. Noise rating curves
b. Radio waves d. F1A weighting curves
c. Standing waves 4. The frequency of free vibration
d. Magnetic field a. Resonant frequency
493. The most desirable value of SWR on a transmission line is b. Natural frequency
a. 0 c. Center frequency
b. 1 d. Normal frequency
5. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, d. Ribbon-type b. Dynamic
via common walls, floors or ceilings. 14. Bass response is c. Crystal
a. Flanking transmission a. Maximum high frequency response d. Condenser
b. Refraction b. Emphasizing the high audio frequency 25. The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector
c. Reflection c. Bypassing high audio frequencies draws 5 A at 10 V. How much power in watts is this light
d. Reverberation d. Bypassing low audio frequencies consuming?
6. A measure of threshold hearing, expressed in decibels relative to 15. Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing a. 10 watts
a specifoed standard of normal hearing. a. 1 Hz b. 20 watts
a. Hearing loss b. 10 Hz c. 40 watts
b. Sensation level c. 100 Hz d. 50 watts
c. Hearing level d. 1000 Hz 26. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a
d. Sound pressure level 16. ___________ is early reflection of sound. wavelength of 1 foot, 1.5 inches?
7. A certain machine with a slightly out-of-balance motor rotating a. Echo a. 500 Hz
at 1800/min is fixed on a perfectly elastic mount with a static b. Reverberation b. 1000 Hz
compression of 2.50 mm. Calculate the resonant frequency of c. Pure sound c. 1500 Hz
mount. d. Intelligible sound d. 2000 Hz
a. 10 Hz 17. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. 27. The wire must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms
b. 20 Hz a. Dolby loudspeaker must safely carry what rms current?
c. 30 Hz b. dBa a. 2 A
d. 40 Hz c. dBx b. 4 A
8. Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120 d. dBk c. 5 A
mm thick, 4m by 2min area with longitudinal wave velocity of 18. What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the d. 6 A
2350 m/s. (Assume that it is supported at its edges.) propagation direction per unit time? 28. A church has an internal volume of 90.05 ft3 (2550 m3). When
a. 10 Hz a. Loudness it contains customary sabine sof absorption (186 metric sabines),
b. 20 Hz b. Coherence what will be its reverberation time in seconds.
c. 30 Hz c. Sound pressure a. 2.0
d. 40 Hz d. Sound intensity b. 2.2
9. Velocity of sound in air. 19. ________ is the unit of loudness level of a sound. c. 2.5
a. 300 m/s a. Sone d. 3.0
b. 330 m/s b. Decibel 29. If the RMs sound pressure is 5lb/ft2, what is the sound presure
c. 1130 m/s c. Mel level?
d. 344 m/s d. Phon a. 7.6 dB
10. What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick 20. ____________ is the average rate of transmission of sound b. 108 dB
brick wall? Assume a longitudinal wave velocity in brick of 2350 energy in a given direction through a cross-section area of 1 sqm at c. 88 dB
m/s and that the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. right angles to the direction. d. 10 dB
a. 114.5 Hz a. Sound pressure 30. Speed that is faster than speed of sound.
b. 214.5 Hz b. Loudness a. Ultrasonic
c. 314.5 Hz c. Sound intensity b. Supersonic
d. 414.5 Hz d. Pressure variation c. Subsonic
11. The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height 21. What is the unit of pitch? d. Transonic
of 1km is 160 dB (re10-12W). Find the maximum sound pressure a. Sone 31. Sound waves travel faster in water at a ______ speed.
level on the ground directly below the flight path assuming that the b. Phon a. 12.4 miles/sec
aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions. c. Decibel b. 5000 ft/sec
a. 59.1 dB d. Mel c. 186,000 ft/sec
b. 69.1 dB 22. A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another d. 3141 ft/sec
c. 79.1 dB sound intensity. 32. What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a
d. 89.1 dB a. Phon distance of 7.5 m is 87 dB assuming that it radiates sound
12. Speaker is a device that b. Decibel unifomly?
a. Converts sound waves into current and voltage c. Pascal a. 0.15 W
b. Converts current variations into sound waves d. Watts b. 0.21 W
c. Converts elctrical energy to mechanical energy 23. Sound wave has two main characteristics which are c. 0.24 W
d. Converts elctrical energy to electromagnetic energy a. Highness and loudness d. 0.18 W
13. Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the b. Tone and loudness 33. Crest-to-crest distance along the direction to wave travel.
electrical resistance of carbon granules varies as the pressure on c. Pitch and loudness a. Compression
the granules vary? d. Rarefraction and compression b. Wavelength
a. Dynamic 24. Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic c. Period
b. Crystal induction that generates an output signal voltage? d. Sound wave
c. Carbon a. Carbon 34. Sound intensity level is _________.
a. 10 log I/Iref b. Diaphragm 55. The loudness of a sound depends upon the energy of motion
b. 10 log P/Pref c. Hypex imparted to ________ molecules of the medium transmitting the
c. 20 log I/Iref d. Spider sound.
d. 30 log P/Pref 45. One hundred twenty µbars of pressure variation is equal to a. Transmitting
35. Sound pressure level is _________. a. 120 dB SPL b. Running
a. 20 log P/ Pref b. 57.78 dB SPL c. Moving
b. 30 log P/ Pref c. 115.56 dB SPL d. Vibrating
c. 10 log P/ Pref d. 41.58 dB SPL 56. _________ is affected by the distance between the listener and
d. 20 log I/Iref 46. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast the source of the sound and its intensity varies inversely with the
36. The most important specification of loudspeakers and studio is 0.84 sec. Find the absorption effect of the materials used square of its distance.
microphones. in metric sabines. a. Volume
a. Frequency response a. 35.3 b. Bass
b. Field strength b. 10.96 c. Treble
c. Power density c. 379.8 d. Loudness
d. Gain d. 109.6 57. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound
37. Lowest fequency produced by a musical instrument. 47. What is the microphone characteristic that results in a boost in is doubled, the intensity is reduced to
a. Midrange bass frequencies for close microphone spacing? a. ½
b. Harmonic a. Field effect b. 1/3
c. Reflection b. P.A. effect c. 2/3
d. Refraction c. Proximity effect d. 1/4
38. Tendency of a sound energy to spread. d. Reverberation 58. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound
a. Diffraction 48. What is the audio frequency range? is decreased to ½ tye original amount, the intensity of the sound
b. Rarefraction a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz would be
c. Reflection b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz a. 2 times as great
d. Refraction c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz b. 3 times as great
39. When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz c. 4 times as great
_________. 49. What is the bass frequency range? d. 5 times as great
a. Reflection a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz 59. At a sensation level of 40 dB, 1000 Hz tone is
b. Diffraction b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz a. 1000 mels
c. Rarefraction c. 40 kHz to 160 kHz b. 500 mels
d. Refraction d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz c. 2000 mels
40. Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB. 50. High frequency range of audio signals. d. 100 mels
a. Echo time a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz 60. If the sound waves are converted to electrical waves by a
b. Delay time b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz microphone, what is the frequency of the electric current?
c. Reverberation time c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz a. 3 – 30 MHz
d. Transient time d. 20000 Hz to 30 kHz b. 25 – 8000 Hz
41. The intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with 51. What is the dB SPL of a voice paging in an office? c. 4 – 40 Hz
__________. a. 90 d. 30 – 3000 Hz
a. Frequency b. 65 61. For a music lover concert “A” is 440 Hz. If a musical note one
b. Noise c. 55-60 octave higher were played, it would be _______ that frequency.
c. Amplitude d. 80-85 a. One – half
d. Tone 52. What is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contemporary b. One-fourth
42. Sound that vibrates too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 music? c. Double
kHz). a. 80-95 d. Triple
a. Subsonic b. 85-90 62. In a 220 Hz, if a note was played one octave lower, it would be
b. Transonic c. 95-100 ______.
c. Ultrasonic d. 100-105 a. 22 Hz
d. Stereo 53. What is the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only? b. 27.5 Hz
43. Which microphone will be damaged if exposed to high a. 90 c. 440 Hz
temperature above 52°C? b. 80-85 d. 110 Hz
a. Dynamic c. 85-90 63. Much of music is generally referred to in
b. Crystal d. 90-95 a. Harmonics
c. Ribbon 54. Intensity can also be called as b. Good hearing
d. Capacitor a. Volume c. Fidelity
44. A thin springy sheet of bakelite or metal that permits the voice b. Loudness d. Octaves
coil in a dynamic loudspeaker to move back and forth salong the c. Sharpness 64. _________ is an undesired change in wave form as the signal
core of its magnet. d. Strength passes through a device.
a. Vibrator a. Noise
b. Vibration d. 341.8 m/s c. Sound stress
c. Distortion 75. Calculate the velocity of sound in ft./sec. if the temperature is d. Sound intensity
d. Harmonics 1490C? 85. One octave above 600 Hz is
65. Distortion enhances intelligibly when an ________ is added. a. 1530.03 ft/sec a. 601 Hz
a. Equalizer b. 1320 ft/sec b. 800 Hz
b. Igniter c. 1357.03 ft/sec c. 1400 Hz
c. Exciter d. 1920.345 ft/sec d. 1200 Hz
d. Emulsifier 76. The wavelength of a sound of 20 kHz frequency is 86. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB
66. A class of signal processors. a. 16.5 m at 10 m away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt?
a. Amplifiers b. 16.5 cm a. 0.63
b. Equalizers c. 16.5 mm b. 1.26
c. Microprocessors d. 16.5 um c. 0.315
d. Exciters 77. The radio of frequencies is termed d. 0.56 x 10-6
67. Half construction and internal finishes affect the final sound a. Octave 87. The unit of loudness level
quality ________. b. Interval a. Sone
a. poorly c. Harmonics b. dB
b. mildly d. Masking c. Mel
c. significantly 78. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the d. Phon
d. badly pressure is doubled? 88. Consist of a rapid succession of noticeable echoes.
68. Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall can dramatically alter its a. 2 dB a. Rarefaction
frequency response in two distinct ways namely; b. 3 dB b. Refraction
a. Gump and dump c. 6 dB c. Reflection
b. Hump and notch d. 4 dB d. Flutter echo
c. Fade and gone 79. A term which is subjected but dependent mainly on frequency 89. Laid the foundations of acoustic theory of buildings.
d. Bad and worst and also affected by intensity, a. Charles H. Townes
69. The acoustics of most auditoria are very ________ when the a. Timbre b. W.C Sabine
room is full compared to the empty condition. b. Quality c. A. Javin
a. Different c. Frequency d. Stephen and Bate
b. Similar d. Pitch 90. An aural sensation by pressure variations in the air which are
c. Good 80. An effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can always produced by some source of vibrations.
d. Bad reduce or even stop the nerve voltage generated by a weaker a. Music
70. A _________ converts acoustical energy. sound. b. Sound
a. Electro-acoustic a. Piezoelectric effect c. Disturbance
b. Microphone transducer b. Skin effect d. Speech
c. Microphone c. Lasing 91. Considered to be the threshold of hearing.
d. Electric Microphone d. Masking a. 10-12 W/cm2
71. All microphone have two basic components namely, - 81. For computation of ideal reverberation time, which formula is b. 10-16 W/m2
___________. applicable? c. 10-13 W/m2
a. Wired and body a. Sabine d. 10-12 W/m2
b. Ceramic and crystal b. Stephen and Bate 92. The average absorption for a person is
c. Diaphragm and generating element c. Norris-Eyring a. 5.7 units
d. Coil and magnet d. Notch b. 4.7 units
72. The kinds of generating elements are __________. 82. The __________ of the sound is a subjective effect which is a c. 6.7 units
a. Expense and fidelity function of the ear and brain. d. 3.7 units
b. Complexity and ruggedness a. Pitch 93. The number of vibration or pressure fluctuations per seconds.
c. Longevity b. Frequency a. Frequency
d. All of these c. Timbre b. Timbre
73. When the average absorption is greater than 0.2, __________ d. Loudness c. Quality
formula is used to compute the actual reverberation time. 83. Define as the time taken from the intensity of sound energy in d. Pitch
a. Sabine the room to drop to one millionth of its initial value. 94. Defined as the average rate of transmission of sound energy in
b. Stephen and Bate a. Reverberation time a given direction through a cross-sectional area of 1 m2 at right
c. Norris-Eyring b. Transit time angles to the direction.
d. Notch c. Decaying time a. Sound pressure
74. At room temperature, what is the velocity of sound in d. Response time b. Loudness
meters/seconds? 84. __________ is the sound energy per unit area at right angles of c. Sound intensity
a. 348.03 cm/s the propagation direction, per unit time. d. Pressure variation
b. 980 cm/s a. Loudness 95. What is the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having a
c. 980 m/s b. Coherence RMS pressure of 200 N/m2?
a. 150 dB b. Sound intensity 116. One-hundred twenty microbars of pressure variation is equal
b. 140 dB c. Pressure variation to
c. 170 dB d. Loudness a. 120 dBSPL
d. 160 dB 106. The unit of pitch b. 115.56 dBSPL
96. The minimum sound intensity that can be heard is termed a. Decibel c. 41.58 dBSPL
a. Threshold of feeling b. Phon d. 57.78 dBSPL
b. Threshold of pain c. mel 117. An instrument for recording waveforms of audio frequency
c. Threshold of sensation d. Sone a. Oscilloscope
d. Threshold of hearing 107. a large speaker having a large diameter(15 cm and above) b. Phonoscope
97. What is the intensity of the sound whose RMS pressure is 200 a. coaxial speaker c. Radioscope
N/m2? b. woofer d. Audioscope
a. 96.9 W/m2 c. tweeter 118. In the study of acoustics, the velocity of sound is dependent to
b. 97.9 W/m2 d. triaxial speaker one of the following
c. 95.9 W/m2 108. A method of expressing the amplitude of a complex non- a. Temperature
d. 94.9 W/m2 periodic signal such as speech b. Loudness
98. The unit of pitch. a. Frequency c. Source of sound
a. sone b. Wavelength d. Properties of the medium
b. pitch c. Volume 119. How much bigger in storage capacity has digital video disk
c. dB d. Pitch (DVD) have over the conventional compact disk (CD)?
d. Mel 109. The lowest frequency produced by an instrument a. Around triple
99. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the a. Harmonic b. Around 15 times
intensity is doubled? b. Fundamental c. Around twice
a. 2 dB c. Midrange d. Around 5 times
b. 3 dB d. 0 Hz 120. A sound intensity that could cause painful sensation in a
c. 4 dB 110. Sound intensity is given as human ear
d. 6 dB a. df/dp a. Threshold of sense
100. The velocity of sound is considered to be constant at b. dE/dP b. Threshold of pain
________ for the purpose of acoustics. c. dA/dP c. Hearing threshold
a. 300 m/s d. dP/dA d. Sensation intensity
b. 330 mm/s 111. Which of the following is considered the most commonly 121. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity of 90 dB at 10
c. 330 µm/s used measurable components of sound? ft away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt?
d. 330 cm/s a. its temperature a. 12 W
101. What do you call the speed of sound in the study of acoustics? b. particle displacement b. 0.12 W
a. Rhythm c. softness c. 0.012 W
b. Tempo d. source d. 1.2 W
c. Pitch 112. _____ is the transmission of sound from one room to an 122. Noise reduction system for film sound in movie
d. Frequency adjacent room thru common walls, floors, or ceilings. a. Dolby
102. The term that describes the highness or lowness of a sound in a. Reverberation b. dBx
the study of acoustics is called a b. Refraction c. dBa
a. Tempo c. Flanking transmission d. dBk
b. Pitch d. Reflection 123. Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the
c. Volume 113. The midrange frequency range of sound is from electrical resistance of carbon granules varies as the pressure on
d. Bass a. 256 to 2048 Hz the granules vary?
103. The method of measuring absorption coefficient of sound b. 2048 to 4096 Hz a. Dynamic
which considers all angles of incidence is called c. 512 to 2048 Hz b. Crystal
a. Distance method d. 16 to 64 Hz c. Carbon
b. Bounce back to back method 114. Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the d. Ribbon-type
c. Impedance method bass and treble 124. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level
d. Reverberation chamber method a. Frequency a. Noy
104. The tendency of a sound energy to spread b. Intensity b. Sone
a. Rarefaction c. Pitch c. dB
b. Reflection d. SPL d. Mel
c. Refraction 115. Speaker is a device that 125. Required time for and sound to decay to 60 dB
d. Diffraction a. Converts current variations into sound waves a. Echo time
105. _____ is the advantage rate of transmission of sound energy b. None of these b. Delay time
in a given direction through a cross-sectional area of 1 sq m at c. Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy c. Reverberation time
right angles to the direction of propagation. d. Converts sound waves into current and voltage d. Transient time
a. Sound pressure
126. If the distance between the listener and the source of the 136. What us the resonant frequency of a Helmholtz resonator c. Decrease by 6 dB
sound is doubled, the intensity is reduced to whose volume is 2.5 cu m with neck radius of 8 cm? d. Decrease by 3 dB
a. 1/2 a. 13 Hz 147. The frequency limits of audio frequency is
b. 1/3 b. 11 Hz a. 300- 3000 Hz
c. 2/3 c. 15 Hz b. 20 Hz -20 kHz
d. 1/4 d. 14 Hz c. 3 – 3 kHz
127. Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall can dramatically alter 137. 40 phons is equivalent to how many sones? d. 40 -40 kHz
its frequency response in two distinct ways namely a. 0 sone 148. A device that converts sound pressure into electrical energy
a. Gump and dump b. 1 sone a. Microphone
b. Hump and notch c. 0.5 sone b. Headphone
c. Fade and gone d. 16 sones c. Headset
d. Bad and worst 138. 80 phons + 80 phons = d. Speaker
128. An effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can a. 83 phons 149. An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band sound
reduce or even stop the nerve voltage generated by a weaker sound b. 160 phons pressure level to the center frequency of the octave bands
a. Piezoelectric effect c. 90 phons a. C-message weighting curve
b. Doppler effect d. 86 phons b. Psophometric curve
c. Haas effect 139. An early reflection of sound c. Noise rating curve
d. Masking a. Echo d. F1A weighting curves
129. When the average absorption is greater than 0.2, ____ b. Reverberation 150. Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing
formula is used to compute the actual reverberation time. c. Pure sound a. 1 kHz
a. Sabine d. Jitter b. 300-3400 Hz
b. Stephen and bate 140. An instrument designed to measure a frequency weighted c. 100 Hz
c. Norris-Eyring value of the sound pressure level d. 800 Hz
d. Notch a. Sound level meter
130. The minimum sound intensity that can be heard b. Transducer
a. Threshold of feeling c. Sound pressure meter
b. Threshold of pain d. Sound analyzer
c. Threshold of sensation 141. The term used for the deafness of higher frequencies due to
d. Threshold of hearing old age
131. The ____ of a sound is a subjective effect which is a function a. Ear deafness
of the ear and brain. b. Cortial deafness
a. Pitch c. Tinnitus
b. Frequency d. Presbycusis
c. Timbre 142. What is the dBSPL of an auditorium with contemporary
d. Loudness music?
132. A term which is subjective but independent mainly on a. 95-100 dB
frequency and also affected by intensity b. 40-50 dB
a. Pitch c. 50-60 dB
b. Frequency d. 70-80 dB
c. Timbre 143. What principle is used by a carbon type micro phone?
d. Loudness a. Variable capacitance
133. A sound 0f 18 kHz frequency has a wavelength of b. Variable resistance
a. 18.3 mm c. Variable inductance
b. 183mm d. Piezoelectric effect
c. 250 mels 144. Pressure is measured in term of Pascal, microbar or
d. 1.86 mels a. Newtons
134. At a sensation level of 40 dB 1000 Hz tone is b. Newtons per meter
a. 1000 mels c. Newtons per meter squared
b. 10000 mels d. Pascal per meter squared
c. 250 mels 145. How much power can a human voice possible produce
d. 800 mels a. 100 milliwatts
135. What is the velocity of sound in dry air for a temperature b. 1 watt
change of 45 degrees Celsius? c. 10 watts
a. 249.19 m/s d. 1 milliwatt
b. 331.45 m/s 146. What is the increase in sound pressure level if the pressure is
c. 357.73 m/s doubled?
d. 358.77 m/s a. Increase by 6 dB
b. Increase by 3 dB
 D. beater 17. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125 V and the
7. Which one of the following emission transmits the lower unmodulated carrier value is 85 V. What is the modulation index?
sideband and half of the upper sideband? A. 0.47
A. A5C B. 0.68
B. J3E C. 0.32
C. A3J D. 1.47
D. A3H 18. An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of 80 V is modulated
8. An FM receives signal ______. by a 4.5 kHz audio signal having an amplitude of 45 V. The
A. vary in amplitude with modulation modulation factor is
B. vary in frequency with modulation A. 0.56
C. vary in frequency and amplitude with wideband modulation B. 0.65
D. is not immune to noise C. 1.78
9. The process of impressing intelligence on the carrier is called D. 1.25
A. modulation 19. What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a carrier
B. detection swing of 75 kHz when the modulating signal has frequency of 3
C. mixing kHz?
D. impression A. 25
10. ______ is an electronic instrument used to show both the B. 12.5
carrier and the sidebands of a modulated signal in the frequency C. 0.04
domain. D. 0.08
A. spectrum analyzer 20. In a FM system, if modulation index is doubled by having the
B. oscilloscope modulating frequency, what will be the effect on the maximum
C. digital counter deviation?
D. frequency counter A. No effect
11. What part of the carrier is varied by the intelligence during B. Maximum deviation doubles
modulation in an AM system? C. Decreases by ½
Modulation A. phase D. Increases by ¼
1. ______ is the maximum sideband suppression value using filter B. frequency 21. Which of the following is considered as an indirect method of
system. C. amplitude generating FM?
A. 50 dB D. both a and c A. Reactance modulator
B. 60 dB 12. The difference between the RF carrier and the modulating B. Balanced modulator
C. 40 dB signal frequencies is called the C. Varactor diode modulator
D. 30 dB A. USB D. Armstrong system
2. _______ determines the number of sideband components in FM. B. LSB 22. To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must use a circuit
A. carrier frequency C. Sideband known as
B. modulation frequency D. Carrier frequency A. filter modulator
C. modulation index 13. What stage in a radio transmitter isolates the oscillator from the B. ring modulator
D. deviation ratio load? C. balanced modulator
3. One of the following transmits only one sideband. A. Oscillator D. reactance modulator
A. H3E B. Buffer 23. Which is the first radio receiver?
B. R3E C. Separator A. TRF receiver
C. A3E D. Mixer B. Superheterodyne receiver
D. B8E 14. The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in FM system is C. Crystal radio receiver
4. What produces the sidebands on FM? A. modulating frequency D. Heterodyne receiver
A. signal amplitude B. center frequency 24. An interfering signal with a frequency equal to the received
B. carrier harmonics C. carrier frequency signal plus twice the IF is called
C. baseband frequency D. deviation frequency A. image frequency
D. broadband frequency 15. The ratio of maximum deviation to the maximum modulating B. center frequency
5. Which test instrument displays the carrier and the sidebands frequency is called C. rest frequency
amplitude with frequency to frequency? A. carrier swing D. interference frequency
A. oscilloscope B. deviation ratio 25. Double sideband full carrier emission type
B. spectrum analyzer C. modulation factor A. A3J
C. frequency analyzer D. modulation index B. H3E
D. amplitude analyzer 16. A carrier signal has C. R3A
6. Mixer is also known as a ________. A. constant amplitude D. A3E
A. modulator B. a frequency of 20 kHz and above 26. Single sideband reduced carrier emission type
B. suppressor C. a varying amplitude A. H3E
C. converter D. the information content B. R3E
C. J3E D. B3E B. Modulator
D. B8E 38. AM transmission power increases with ________. C. Power amplifier
27. A single sideband suppressed carrier emission type. A. Frequency D. Antenna coupler
A. H3e B. Source 49. What aspect of the carrier is changed by modulation?
B. R3E C. Load A. Frequency
C. J3E D. Modulation B. Phase
D. B8E 39. _______ locks the FM receiver to a stronger signal. C. Amplitude
28. Independent sideband emission type A. Hall effect D. Depends on the type of modulation
A. H3E B. Capture effect 50. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical
B. R3E C. Image frequency program will
C. J3E D. Homing A. Be complex
D. B8E 40. What is the highest percentage of modulation for AM? B. Contain fundamental frequencies
29. Vestigial sideband emission type A. 50 % C. Contain harmonic frequencies
A. C3F B. 75 % D. All of the above
B. J3E C. 100 % 51. What will be the result of the gain level being too high for
C. R3E D. 80 % signals entering the modulator?
D. B8E 41. In FM, the Carson’s Rule states that the bandwidth is equal to A. Receiver noise
30. Single sideband full carrier emission type. twice the sum of the modulating frequency and ______. B. Excessive volume of receiver output
A. R3E A. Carrier signal C. Oscillator disturbances
B. H3E B. Modulating signal D. Distortion and splatter
C. J3E C. Frequency deviation 52. Amplitude modulation causes the amount of transmitter power
D. B8E D. Image frequency to
31. Phase modulation emission type. 42. What is the carrier swing of an FM transmitter when modified A. Increase
A. F3E by 75%? B. Decrease
B. F3C A. 53.2 kHz C. Remain the same
C. F3F B. 48 kHz D. Double
D. G3E C. 56.25 kHz 53. When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total power increases
32. Which one is not an advantage of SSB over AM? D. 112.5 kHz by what percentage over that of the carrier alone?
A. Power saving 43. The modulation system inherently more resistant to noise A. 25 %
B. Requires half the bandwidth A. Single sideband suppressed carrier B. 50 %
C. Wider area of reception B. Frequency modulation C. 75 %
D. Better fidelity C. Pulse-position modulation D. 100 %
33. The advantage of a high level modulated AM transmitter is D. Amplitude shift keying 54. When the amplitude of the modulating voltage is increased for
A. Less audio power required 44. Subcarriers that are arranged so that the channels occupying AM, the antenna current will
B. Better fidelity adjacent frequency bands with some frequency space between A. Increase
C. Higher value of operating power them is known as B. Decrease
D. Less distortion A. Guard bands C. Remain constant
34. The advantage of a low-level modulated AM transmitter is B. AM bands D. Decrease exponentially
A. Less audio power required C. Band gap 55. An increase in transmitter power from 25W to 30W will cause
B. Better fidelity D. Void band the antenna current to increase from 700mA to
C. Higher value of operating power 45. Modulation of an RF amplifier carrier results in A. 800 mA
D. Less distortion A. Multiple channels B. 750 mA
35. _____ is the bad effect caused by overmodulation in AM B. Smaller antennas C. 767 mA
transmission. C. Directional propagation D. 840 mA
A. Increase in noise D. All of the above 56. A second modulating tone having the same amplitude but a
B. Deviation in the operating frequency 46. A process which occurs in the transmitter different frequency is added to the first at the input to the
C. Interface to other radio services A. Mixing modulator. The modulation index will be increased by a factor of
D. Decrease in the output power B. Modulation A. sq. root of 3
36. Which characteristic of a radio receiver refers to its ability to C. Heterodyning B. sq. root of 2
reject an unwanted signal? D. Demodulation C. 2
A. Sensitivity 47. A process which occurs in the receiver D. 3
B. Selectivity A. Beating 57. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2500Hz tone. One
C. Fidelity B. Modulation frequency component of the modulated signal is
D. Quality C. Mixing A. 1200 Hz
37. What type of emission is frequency modulation? D. Demodulation B. 5000 Hz
A. F3E 48. One part of the transmitter that protects the crystal oscillator C. 1002.5 kHz
B. G3E from “pulling”. D. 2500 Hz
C. A3E A. Buffer amplifier
58. A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated by two tones of 68. A louder sound, when generating the modulating waveform for B. It is less sensitive to noise spikes
500 Hz and 700 Hz. Which one is a frequency component of the FM, will cause a greater C. It is less sensitive to interference causing AM
modulated wave? A. Carrier amplitude D. Both B and C
A. 1195 kHz B. Angle amplitude 78. One implementation of a pulse averaging discriminator is
B. 1199.3 kHz C. Distortion at the receiver A. A free-running multivibrator
C. 1199.7 kHz D. Frequency deviation B. A crystal-controlled oscillator
D. 1205 kHz 69. If a positive change in modulation signal level of 200 mW will C. A quartz crystal filter
59. Identify a modulation method, or methods in use for a cause a positive frequency deviation of 10 kHz, what will be the D. A triggered multivibrator
common-emitter configuration frequency deviation for a negative change of 10 mV in the level of 79. A 10% increase in the frequency of a constant-width pulse train
A. Base modulation the modulating signals? should cause what change in its average value?
B. Emitter modulation A. 0 A. –10 %
C. Collector modulation B. -5 kHz B. –1 %
D. Both A and C C. +5 kHz C. +1 %
60. The RF signal injected into a balanced modulator is 10MHz D. +0 kHz D. +10 %
and the modulating frequency is 1 kHz. Which frequency, or 70. A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results in a peak 80. Two different signals can be coherent if they
frequencies, will not appear in the output? frequency deviation of 75 kHz. What is the modulation index? A. Have the same amplitude
A. 9.999 MHz A. 5 B. Are both sine waves of different frequencies
B. 10 MHz B. 15 C. Originate in the same physical equipment simultaneously
C. 10.0001 MHz C. 75 D. Have the same frequency
D. Both A and B D. 3 81. A quadrature detector requires that
61. Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be suppressed by 71. A 15 kHz sine wave frequency modulates an 88 MHz carrier. A. Four gates bee provided
one or more of the following methods. A sideband frequency will be found at B. The inputs are coherent
A. Phasing method A. 87.970 MHz C. The inputs are incoherent
B. Filter method B. 87.985 MHz D. The inputs are identical
C. Decoder method C. 88.015 MHz 82. In a phase-locked loop, the VCO is the abbreviation for
D. Both A and B D. All of these A. Variable coherent output
62. Envelope detection is concerned with the process of 72. A device whose capacitance is deliberately made to be a B. VHF communication oscillator
A. Mixing function of the applied voltage C. Voltage-controlled oscillator
B. Heterodyning A. Varactor diode D. Vien-count oscillator (neutralized)
C. Modulation B. UJT 83. Identify an advantage, or advantages of a properly designed
D. Rectification C. SAW FM system.
63. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in D. Variable capacitor A. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise (lightning)
A. Distortion 73. A reactance modulator is one method of obtaining B. Reduced bandwidth required
B. Phase reversal A. Indirect FM C. No noise of any kind
C. Reduced sensitivity B. Direct FM D. The noise figure is inversely proportional to the modulation
D. Amplitude damage C. Demodulation index
64. Product detection requires the process of D. Low frequency filtering 84. The output of a balanced modulator
A. Rectification 74. A device, now available in IC form, is useful for direct FM and A. LSB and USB
B. Heterodyning as one element in the phse-locked loop. B. LSB
C. Decoding A. AFC C. USB
D. Phase shifting B. AGC D. Carrier
65. A sine wave which is coherent with carrier has identical C. VCO 85. If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1,
A. Amplitude D. LPF the transmitted power is
B. Frequency 75. _____ is a frequency change process, whereby the phase A. Unchanged
C. Phase angle deviation and frequency deviation are multiplied by some fixed B. Halved
D. Both B and C constant. C. Doubled
66. Frequency modulation and phase modulation are collectively A. Translation D. Increased by 50%
referred to as B. Multiplication 86. Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation?
A. Stereo C. Division A. Audio signal
B. Angle modulation D. Addition B. Video signal
C. High fidelity modulation 76. A circuit that has the function of demodulating the frequency- C. RF carrier
D. FCC modulation modulated signal. D. Binary coded pulses
67. In FM, the change in carrier frequency is proportional to what A. AFC 87. If the unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude is doubled in
attribute of the modulating signal? B. Envelope detector an AM signal, the perfect modulation is ________.
A. Angle C. Decoder A. 20
B. Frequency D. Foster-Seeley discriminator B. 50
C. Amplitude 77. The ratio detector is superior to the slope detector because C. 100
D. Tone A. It is less sensitive to phase modulation D. 200
88. Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in the equivalent 98. _____ is the circuit used to detect frequency modulated signal. D. The oscillator is crystal-controlled
suppresses the ___________ A. Discriminator 108. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes,
A. Carrier B. Modulator this is known as
B. Upper sideband C. Modem A. Frequency multiplication
C. Lower sideband D. Detector B. Sideband movement
D. Baseband signal 99. _____ is an information signal that is sent directly without C. Baseband reorientation
89. The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed, the modulating any carrier. D. Frequency translation
percentage power saving is __. A. C-band 109. A device which is capable of causing frequency translation
A. 100 % B. Q-band A. High-Q tank circuit
B. 50 % C. Baseband B. Balanced modulator
C. 83 % D. Broadband C. Low-Q tank circuit
D. 66.66 % 100. Both frequency and phase modulation utilize ______ D. IF strip
90. If the modulation index if an AM wave is doubled, the antenna modulation. 110. If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum is
current is also doubled, the AM system being used is A. Digital increased by the same fixed amount, this known as
A. H3E B. Phase A. Modulation
B. J3E C. Amplitude B. Frequency translation
C. C3F D. Angle C. Up conversion
D. A3E 101. It is the width of frequencies within the spectrum occupied by D. Both B and C
91. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in a signal and used by the signal for conveying information. 111. A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency doubler.
total power by _______. A. Band If the input signal frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit in the output
A. 100 % B. Bandwidth will be tuned to
B. 50 % C. Electronic spectrum A. 7.7 MHz
C. 75 % D. Frequency band B. 15.4 MHz
D. 25 % 102. Which transmit only one sideband? C. 30.8 MHz
92. A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _______. A. H3E D. 61.6 MHz
A. 2 components B. C3F 112. A sine wave of 293 MHz is phase-modulated to achieve a
B. 3 components C. A3E maximum phase deviation of 0.2 radian. After passing through a
C. 4 components D. B8E frequency tripler, the maximum phase deviation will be
D. 2n + 1 components 103. ______ is kind of modulation in which the modulated wave is A. 0.2 radian
93. A carrier signal has ________. always present. B. 0.3 radian
A. Constant peak amplitude A. Carrier modulation C. 0.4 radian
B. Frequency range of 20 – 20,000 Hz B. Continuous modulation D. 0.6 radian
C. A varying amplitude C. Log-periodic modulation 113. Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must be
D. The information D. Square-wave modulation A. Active
94. The modulating system is _________ if the modulating 104. A type of modulation in which no signal is present between B. Passive
frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the pulses. C. Linear
modulating voltage remains constant. A. Pulse modulation D. Nonlinear
A. Amplitude modulation B. FSK 114. A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency doubling.
B. Phase modulation C. QAM A. Push-push
C. Frequency modulation D. PAM B. Push-pull
D. Pulse modulation 105. What describes the amount of amplitude change present in an C. Pull-push
95. What is the modulation index of an FM signal if its modulating AM waveform? D. Pull-pull
frequency is doubled? A. Percent modulation 115. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a
A. No effect B. Modulation constant A. AM demodulator
B. Twice the original index C. Envelope of modulation B. Frequency synthesizer
C. Four times the original index D. Coefficient of modulation C. AGC circuit
D. One-half the original index 106. _______ is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when D. FM demodulator
96. An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100% modulation. How the positive and negative alternations in the AM modulated signals 116. Frequency division by 12 will require how many flip-flops in
much power required for the carrier? are not equal. the counter?
A. 1000 W A. Envelope distortion A. 3
B. 666.6 W B. Spurious emission B. 4
C. 333.3 W C. Carrier shift C. 6
D. 866.6 W D. Johnson noise D. 12
97. Standard way of designating AM 107. What is the advantage of phase modulation over direct FM 117. Identify an electronic device, not specifically designed for the
A. A3E frequency modulation? purpose, which can be used as a phase detector.
B. B3E A. Multipliers can be used A. Wien bridge
C. AHE B. The deviation is smaller B. Colpitts oscillator
D. C3F C. Simplicity and practicality C. Balanced modulator
D. Butterworth filter A. R–F amplifier 138. The core of an IF transformer usually contains
118. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a single B. Mixer A. Teflon
crystal. What words describe this synthesizer? C. Local oscillator B. Computer nylon
A. Crystal modulated D. IF amplifier C. Powdered iron
B. Inexact 129. Which major element of a superheterodyne receiver must be D. Laminated steel
C. Indirect nonlinear? 139. Shape factor is a measure of
D. Deficient A. R-F amplifier A. Bandwidth
119. A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is B. Mixer B. Skirt steepness
A. Keyed transmitter C. Local oscillator C. Coupling coefficient
B. Power amplification D. IF amplifier D. Critical coupling
C. Frequency generation 130. The change of the modulated carrier frequency from the 140. _______ is the function which tends to maintain the sound
D. All of these original RF to the IF of the superheterodyne receiver is known as volume level of a voice receiver nearly constant for a large signal
120. The term “pulling” refers to A. Frequency multiplication strength range.
A. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading B. Frequency allocation A. Squelch
B. One half-cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier C. Frequency substitution B. Muting
C. Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna connection D. Frequency translation C. AGC
D. Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the 131. The key to achieving receiver sensitivity is the reduction of D. AFC
transmitter is keyed. A. Image response 141. The function which tends to silence the receiver in the
121. When frequency modulation is achieved by initial phase B. Mixer harmonic products absence of transmitted carrier.
modulation, this is called C. Spurious frequency response A. Squelch
A. Angular modulation D. Internal noise B. Muting
B. Direct FM 132. Which of the following receiver design objectives is not C. AGC
C. Indirect FM impossible? D. AFC
D. Indirect synthesis A. Elimination of galactic noise 142. What device is incorporated in a communications receiver to
122. A disadvantage of direct FM is the need for B. Elimination of atmospheric noise reduce impulse noise?
A. AGC C. Elimination of man-made noise A. Front-end processor
B. AFC D. Reduction of receiver internal noise B. Squelch circuit
C. A frequency synthesizer 133. In comparing the S/N ratio for the input to the receiver with C. AGC
D. Phase modulation the S/N ratio for the output, the latter is D. Noise blanker
123. Direct FM can be achieved by A. Smaller 143. What type of signal in which a receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz
A. A reactance tube modulator B. The same in the I-F circuitry is optimum?
B. A varactor diode C. Greater A. FM voice
C. And AGC circuit D. Infinite B. Double-sideband AM voice
D. Both A and B 134. The characteristic of a receiver that specifies the self- C. FSK data
124. A receiver in which all RF amplifier stages require manual generated noise. D. SBB voice
tuning to the desired RF is called A. Noise immunity 144. If the input to a detector stage is an amplitude-modulated
A. Superheterodyne B. Noise factor (A3E) IF signal then the output from the stage is
B. Autodyne C. Noise figure A. A lower frequency carrier
C. TRF D. Noise margin B. The audio voice information
D. AFC 135. An FM receiver with an I-F of 10.7 MHz is tuned to 98.7 C. A Morse-code signal
125. Why is it often necessary to precede the demodulator by MHz. What is the numerical value of the image frequency? D. The upper or lower set of sidebands
amplifier stages in a receiver? A. 77.3 MHz 145. In a capacitive type, reactance-tube modulator connected
A. To improve fidelity B. 88.0 MHz across an oscillator tuned circuit, a more negative voltage on the
B. To reduce receiver noise C. 109.4 MHz grid of the reactance tube will cause
C. To eliminate image response D. 120.1 MHz A. An increase of the oscillator frequency
D. Weak antenna signals 136. A source of RF interference exists at 109.9 MHz. For which B. An decrease of oscillator frequency
126. A serious disadvantage of the TRF receiver. frequency in the FM broadcast band will this be the image C. An increase of the reactance-tube capacitance
A. Bandwidth variations over the tuning range frequency? D. An increase of the reactance tube ac plate current
B. The weight and cost A. 21.4 MHz 146. The limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications
C. The requirements for a closely regulated power supply B. 88.5 MHz receiver is
D. The requirements for a half-wave antenna C. 99.2 MHz A. The noise floor of the receiver
127. Identify which is not a part of a superheterodyne receiver. D. 110.7 MHz B. Power supply output ripple
A. Local oscillator 137. The ratio of the superheterodyne receiver response at the C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion
B. Modulator desired carrier frequency to that at the image frequency is called D. The input impedance to the detector
C. IF amplifier A. The sensitivity 147. When a communications receiver is tuned to a strong signal,
D. Demodulator B. The selectivity the AGC bias is measured and found to be zero. The fault cannot
128. Which major element will not be found in every C. The image frequency be caused by a/an
superheterodyne receiver? D. The image rejection ratio A. Defective IF stage
B. Defective local oscillator 157. Occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth B. Audio gain adjusted too low
C. Defective RF stage is used in the IF stage of a receiver C. Squelch gain adjusted too high
D. Open circuit in the AGC’s filter capacitor A. Filter ringing D. Squelch gain adjusted too low
148. The term used to refer to the condition where the signals from B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage 168. In a phase-modulated signal (indirect FM), the frequency
a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being C. Output-offset overshoot deviation is directly proportional to the
received D. Cross-modulation distortion A. Carrier amplitude only
A. Cross-modulation interference 158. What stage mainly determines a communication receiver’s B. Amplitude of the modulating tone and frequency of the carrier
B. Intermodulation interference sensitivity? C. Carrier frequency only
C. Receiver quieting A. IF amplifier D. Modulating signal amplitude only
D. Capture effect B. Mixer stage 169. An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in a superheterodyne
149. The limiter stage of an FM receiver C. Detector stage receiver. One advantage of including this RF stage is
A. Behaves as a low-pass filter D. RF amplifier A. Better selectivity
B. Limits the amplitude of the IF signal to the required level 159. What is the main advantage of FM over AM? B. Better rejection ratio
C. Behaves as a high-pass filter A. Better signal-to-noise-ratio C. Greater sensitivity
D. Behaves as a bandstop filter B. Narrower bandwidth D. Improved signal-to-noise-ratio
150. Motorboating (low-frequency oscillations) in an amplifier can C. Greater propagation range 170. Two factors that determine the sensitivity of a receiver.
be stopped by D. Total freedom from adjacent-channel interference A. Dynamic range and third-order intercept
A. Grounding the screen grid 160. An amplitude modulation created in an amplifier before the B. Cost and availability
B. Connecting a capacitor between the B+ and lead ground final RF stage. C. Bandwidth and noise figure
C. By passing the screen grid resistor with a 0.1 µF capacitor A. Low-level modulation D. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
D. Grounding the plate B. High-level modulation 171. What is an undesirable effect of using too-wide a filter
151. An effect in which, the modulation of an unwanted signal is C. Direct modulation bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
transferred to the desired carrier. D. Indirect modulation A. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
A. Crossmodulation 161. Receiver desensitizing can be reduced by B. Output-offset overshoot
B. Intermodulation A. Increasing the transmitter audio gain C. Thermal-noise distortion
C. Modulation mixing B. Decreasing the receiver squelch gain D. Filter ringing
D. Image-channel interference C. Increasing the receiver bandwidth 172. A system containing a limiter stage, a discriminator, and a de-
152. Leads should be kept as short as possible in radio circuit so D. Ensuring good RF shielding between the transmitter emphasis circuit?
that 162. In a narrow-band FM system, the deviation ratio is commonly A. Direct FM transmitter
A. Skin effect is reduced one and the highest audio frequency is generally limited to B. Indirect FM transmitter
B. There is less hysteresis effect A. 300 Hz C. Single sideband AM receiver
C. There is less dielectric loss B. 10,000 Hz D. FM receiver
D. Stray coupling is minimized C. 3,000 Hz 173. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
153. The number of voice transmissions that can be packed into a D. 7,500 Hz A. Prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal
given frequency band for amplitude-compandored single-sideband 163. A type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated B. Limits the amount of frequency deviation in the IF signal
systems over conventional FM-phone systems. transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal C. Limits the overall bandwidth of the IF stages
A. 2 A. A3F D. Corrects any deviation in carrier frequency
B. 18 B. F3F 174. High selectivity occurs when the degree of coupling between
C. 16 C. A3C a receiver’s RF stages is
D. 4 D. F3C A. Tight
154. Neutralization of an RF amplifier stage can be necessary in 164. Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the B. Loose
order to signal to noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band receiver? C. Critical
A. Increase the amplifier’s gain A. In the detector D. Adjusted for maximum power transfer
B. Prevent the generation of spurious oscillations B. In the atmosphere 175. A carrier is phase modulated by a test tone. If the amplitude
C. Reduce the amplifier’s gain C. In the ionosphere and the frequency of the tone are both doubled, the amount of the
D. Reduce the level of the output harmonics D. In the receiver front end deviation is
155. The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in 165. Cross-modulation in a receiver can be reduced by A. Doubled
the presence of strong signals outside the band of interest is A. Installing a filter at the receiver B. Unchanged
indicated by what parameter? B. Using a filter at the receiver C. Halved
A. Blocking dynamic range C. Increasing the receiver’s RF gain while decreasing the AF D. Multiplied by four
B. Noise figure D. Adjusting the pass-band tuning 176. The degree of selectivity desirable in the IF circuitry of a
C. Signal-to-noise ratio 166. What is the emission designation for FM telephony? single-sideband receiver.
D. Audio output A. F3E A. 1 kHz
156. Stages that are common to both AM and FM receivers B. G3E B. 2.4 kHz
A. Tuner, local oscillator, detector, AF amplifier C. J3E C. 4.2 kHz
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF amplifier D. H3E D. 4.8 kHz
C. Local oscillator, RF amplifier, frequency discriminator, detector 167. What is the cause of receiver desensitizing? 177. The component most apt to break down in the radio circuit is
D. Tuner, IF amplifier, detector, AF amp A. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency the
A. Crystal B. Lower A. High modulating frequencies
B. Resistor C. The same B. Low modulating frequencies
C. Transformer D. 10 kHz above C. All modulating frequencies
D. Diode 188. Features of a transmitter’s buffer stage include D. Frequencies carrier
178. The base in an RF amplifier is grounded in order to A. High stage 199. The result of cross-modulation is that
A. Avoid the requirement of neutralizing the stage B. Harmonic generation A. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired
B. Raise the input impedance C. Improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator signal
C. Lower the output impedance D. Low input impedance B. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
D. Obtain maximum power output 189. Type of emission produced when an amplitude modulated C. Of receiver quieting
179. The AM detector performs two basic functions in the receiver. transmitter is modulated by a television signal D. Of inverting sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
A. Rectifies and filters A. F3F 200. Which of the following contains de-emphasis circuit?
B. Amplifiers and filters B. A3C A. FM transmitter
C. Buffer and amplifier C. F3C B. FM receiver
D. Buffer and detector D. A3F C. VHF transmitter
180. A varactor diode can be used in a/an 190. A network is D. VHF receiver
A. Direct FM modulator circuit A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four 201. What is emission F3F?
B. AFC circuit in a direct FM transmitter capacitors A. AM
C. Phase-modulator circuit B. A power incidence network B. Facsimile
D. All of these C. An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground C. Television
181. Receiver interference is not reduced by including a/an D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors D. RTTY
A. Crystal filter 191. How is G3E FM-phone signals produced? 202. What type of emission is produced when a frequency
B. Insulating enclosures around the receiver A. A network consisting modulator on the audio amplifier modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal?
C. Wave trap B. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier A. F3C
D. RF stage C. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator B. A3C
182. What is the emission C3F? D. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator C. F3F
A. RTTY 192. A way of eliminating auto interference to radio reception D. A3F
B. SSB A. Installing resistive spark plugs 203. Two AM transmitting antennas are close together. As a result
C. Television B. Installing capacitive spark plugs the two modulated signals are mixed in the final RF stage of both
D. Modulated CW C. Installing resistors in series with the spark plugs transmitters. What is the resultant effect on other station?
183. What is the approximate dc input power to a class AB RF D. Installing two copper-braid ground strips A. Harmonic interference
power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when 193. The carrier in an AM transmitter is the B. Intermodulation interference
the PEP output is 500 W? A. Transmitter’s output signal when the modulation is present C. Spurious interference
A. Approximately 1000 W B. Transmitter’s output signal when the modulation is zero D. Crossmodulation interference
B. Approximately 800 W C. Output signal from the crystal oscillator 204. The term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused
C. Approximately 250 W D. RMS value of the AM signal by the signal of a nearby station transmitter in the same frequency
D. Approximately 600 W 194. What stage feeds the discriminator of an FM receiver? band?
184. Which of the following stages in an FM receiver is A. Local oscillator A. Quieting
responsible for drastically reducing the effect of static noise during B. Mixer stage B. Cross-modulation interference
the reception of a signal C. Final IF amplifier, which also acts as a limiter stage C. Squelch gain rollback
A. De-emphasis circuit D. Buffer D. Desensitizing
B. Mixer stage 195. In an FM receiver, the stage that has the IF signal is input and 205. What is the bandwidth occupied by the carrier, both sidebands
C. Squelch circuit the audio signal output. and harmonics?
D. Limiter stage A. Limiter A. Authorized bandwidth
185. The letters “SSSC” stands for B. Audio amplifier B. Bandwidth of emission and occupied bandwidth
A. Single sideband, single carrier C. IF amplifier C. Operating bandwidth
B. Suppressed sideband, single channel D. Discriminator D. All of these
C. Suppressed sideband, single carrier 196. What is capture effect? 206. A class-C RF amplifier is collector amplitude modulated and
D. Single sideband, suppressed carrier A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver its average dc level collector current does not change. This means
186. For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP-to-average B. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal A. A normal condition
power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone C. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver B. Excessive drive to the base
signal? D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal C. Insufficient drive to the base
A. Approximately 1.0 to 1 197. A double-sideband phone signal can be generated by D. Insufficient audio modulation
B. Approximately 25 to 1 A. Feeding a phase-modulated signal into a low-pass filter 207. What determines the percentage modulation of an FM
C. Approximately 100 to 1 B. Modulating the plate voltage of a class-C amplifier transmitter?
D. Approximately 2.5 to 1 C. Using a balanced modulator followed by a filter A. Amplitude of the carrier
187. In most mixers, the oscillator frequency is ______ than the D. Detuning a Hartley oscillator B. Modulating frequency
carrier frequency of the input signal. 198. Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters to improve the C. Carrier frequency
A. Higher signal-to-noise ratio of D. Amplitude of the modulating signal
208. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the C. FM B. Balanced modulator
A. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating frequency D. Double-sideband AM C. Mixer
B. Operating frequency of the assigned frequency 218. If the envelope of modulation is constant in amplitude this D. Crystal set
C. Frequency swing to the modulating frequency means 228. What circuit generates the upper and lower sidebands and
D. Highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency A. Zero beat suppresses the carrier?
209. The main purpose of the beat frequency oscillator (BFO) is to B. Under-modulation A. Amplitude modulator
generate C. Zero-modulation B. Diode detector
A. A 1 kHz not for Morse reception D. Over-modulation C. Class C amplifier
B. Aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals 219. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM with a D. Balanced modulator
C. An output, whose frequency differs from the IF by 1 kHz modulation factor of 12.5 and a modulating frequency of 10 kHz? 229. _________ is a widely used balanced modulator.
D. A signal, whose frequency is the same as intermediate A. 20 kHz A. Diode bridge circuit
frequency B. 270 kHz B. Full-wave bridge rectifier
210. Normally, a linear class BRF power amplifier operates with a C. 250 kHz C. Lattice modulator
bias approximately equal to D. 45 kHz D. Balanced bridge modulator
A. Twice cut-off 220. Amplitude modulation is the same as 230. In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like
B. Ten times cut-off value A. Linear mixing A. Variable resistors
C. 50% of cut-off value B. Analog multiplication B. Switches
D. Projected cut-off C. Signal summation C. Rectifiers
211. The purpose why an RF amplifier is operated under linear D. Multiplexing D. Variable capacitors
class-B conditions (as opposed to class-C) is to 221. The negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a/an 231. The output of a balanced modulator is
A. Generate only even harmonics _______ on a diode modulator. A. AM
B. Generate only odd harmonics A. B. FM
C. Increase the efficiency B. Transformer C. SSB
D. Amplify of an AM signal C. Capacitor D. DSB
212. The term used to refer to the condition where the signal from D. Inductor 232. The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced
a very strong station are superimposed on other signal being 222. One of the following can produce AM. modulator is a
received. A. Having the carrier vary a resistance A. Differential amplifier
A. Cross-modulation interference B. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance B. Rectifier
B. Intermodulation distortion C. Varying the carrier frequency C. Bridge
C. Receiver quieting D. Varying the gain of an amplifier D. Constant current source
D. Capture effect 223. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the 233. The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses
213. _________ is the amplitude of the maximum negative modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator network is A. LC networks
excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope. the principle of B. Mechanical resonators
A. Peak-to-peak voltage A. Rectification C. Crystals
B. Inverse peak positive voltage B. Amplification D. RC networks and op amps
C. RMS voltage C. Variable resistance 234. In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is
D. Peak negative voltage D. Absorption canceled out due to
214. The type of emission that suffer most from selective fading. 224. Which component is used to produce AM at very high A. Phase shifting
A. CW and SSB frequencies? B. Sharp selectivity
B. SSB and TV A. Varactor diode C. Carrier suppression
C. FM and double sideband AM B. Thermistor D. Phase inversion
D. SSTV and CW C. Cavity resonator 235. A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is call
215. In an FM-phone signal, ________ is the ratio between the D. PIN diode a/an
actual frequency deviation to the maximum frequency deviation. 225. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V. What is A. Transponder
A. FM compressibility the peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating signal for 100 B. Product detector
B. Modulating index percent modulation? C. Converter
C. Percentage of modulation A. 24 V D. Remodulator
D. Quieting index B. 48 V 236. Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a
216. _______ is used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM- C. 96 V A. Summer
phone signal by another FM-phone signal. D. 120 V B. Multiplier
A. Capture effect 226. What circuit recovers the original modulating information C. Divider
B. Desensitization from an AM signal? D. Mixer
C. Cross-modulation interference A. Modulator 237. Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as
D. Frequency discrimination B. Demodulator A. Rectification
217. A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum C. Mixer B. AM
for what type of signals? D. Crystal set C. Linear summing
A. SSB voice 227. What is the most commonly used amplitude demodulator? D. Filtering
B. Facsimile A. Envelope detector
238. Which of the following is not a major advantage of FM over 249. Which of the following is the most widely used amplitude 258. _________ is a continuous frequency capable of being
AM? modulator modulated or impressed with a second information carrying signal.
A. Greater efficiency A. Diode detector a. Carrier frequency
B. Noise immunity B. PLL circuit b. Center frequency
C. Capture effect C. VCO c. IF frequency
D. Lower complexity and cost D. All of these d. RF frequency
239. The primary disadvantage of FM is its 250. Which of the following is the most widely used balanced 259. The varactor diode used in FM may be represented by the
A. Higher cost and complexity modulator approximate equivalent circuit of the _____ in series with a
B. Excessive use of spectrum space A. Full-wave bridge circuit ________.
C. Noise susceptibility B. Balanced bridge modulator a. Diode, capacitor
D. Lower efficiency C. Lattice modulator b. Diode, resistor
240. Noise is primarily D. None of these c. Capacitor, resistor
A. High-frequency spikes 251. A method that applied the modulated wave to the vertical d. Any of these
B. Lowe-frequency variations deflection circuit of the oscilloscope and the modulating signal to 260. The name varactor comes from variable _________.
C. Random level shifts the horizontal deflection circuit. a. Resistor
D. Random frequency variations a. Trapezoidal method b. Capacitor
241. The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is the b. Circular method c. Diode
A. Modulator c. Square method d. reactor
B. Demodulator d. Any method 261. 75 microseconds pre-emphasis time is used in __________.
C. Limiter 252. The heart of all methods of single-sideband modulation and a. FM
D. Low-pass filter demodulation b. AM
242. The AM signals generated at a low level may only be a. Modulator c. TV
amplified by what type of amplifier? b. Balanced modulator d. None of these
A. Class A c. Modulation 262. Recovers the modulating voltage from the frequency
B. Class B d. demodulation modulation by utilizing the phase angle shift between primary and
C. Class C 253. If the frequency and phase are parameters of carrier angle, secondary voltages of tuned oscillators.
D. All of the above which is a function of time, the general term ___________-cover a. Direct method
243. SSB means both. b. Indirect method
A. Single sideband with suppressed carrier a. Amplitude modulation c. Foster-Seeley discriminator
B. Single sideband with carrier b. Frequency modulation d. Slope detector
C. Double sideband with no carrier c. Phase modulation 263. Is used in FM receivers to “lock onto” the received signal and
D. Single sideband with reduced carrier d. Angle modulation stabilized receptions.
244. A circuit used to select the desired output from a mixer 254. In FM radio communication system, narrow-band (NBFM) is a. Automatic Gain Control
A. Transformer used rather than wideband (WBFM), because it, b. Automatic Frequency Control
B. Resonant circuit a. Improves signal to noise ration c. Muscle Control
C. Filter b. Reduces interchannel interference d. Automatic Frequency Gain Control
D. Phase-shift circuit c. Provides maximum coverage for a given amount of power 264. Are amplifier circuits that are used to eliminate amplitude
245. What is the output of a balanced modulator? d. All of the above modulation and amplitude-modulated noise from received FM
A. AM 255. Radio transmitter basically consists of two principal parts, one Signals before detection.
B. DSB reproducing a carrier frequency and one for __________. a. Demodulators
C. SSB a. IF Frequency b. Diode detector
D. ISB b. RF Frequency c. Amplitude limiters
246. The acronym SSSC refer to c. Modulating Frequency d. None of these
A. Suppressed sideband, single carrier d. Power 265. If the total sideband power is 12.5% of the total radiated
B. Suppressed sideband, suppressed carrier 256. Is a measure of its ability to maintain as nearly a fixed power, find the modulation index.
C. Single sideband, suppressed carrier frequency as possible over as long as time interval as possible. a. 50 percent
D. Single sideband, single carrier a. Receiver Noise Factor b. 53.4 percent
247. Which process occurs in the receiver? b. Selectivity c. 26.2 percent
A. Demodulation c. Sensitivity d. 32.3 percent
B. Reception d. Frequency stability 266. Carriers are spaced at 20 kHz, beginning at 100 kHz. Each
C. Modulation 257. Is the effect of two-transmitter when they are in close carrier is modulated by a signal with a 5 kHz bandwidth. Is there
D. Recreation proximity. This results into the sum and difference frequencies of interference from the sideband?
248. What is usually used to demodulate SSB or CW signal? two carriers. a. Yes
A. PLL a. Intermodulation effect b. No
B. BFO b. Intermodulation interference c. Maybe
C. Ratio detector c. Intermodulation product d. Secret
D. All of these d. intermodulation 267. For an unmodulated carrier of 150 V and a modulated peak
value of 230 V. What is the modulation index
a. 0.35 b. 5 d. 100%
b. 0.533 c. 0 286. If the increase power is 180 watts at 1 kW unmodulated
c. 0.652 d. 3 output power the modulation index is _________.
d. 0.42 277. This form of modulation is also known as independent a. 75%
268. New frequencies outside the regular AM spectrum are called sideband emission. b. 60%
___________. a. A3E c. 50%
a. Distortion b. R3E d. 25%
b. Interference c. H3E 287. In AM, if the unmodulated power carrier is 10 kW, and the
c. Splatter d. B8E total power is 15 kW, what is the upper sideband power at 100%
d. Harmonic 278. An attenuated carrier is reinserted into the SSB signal to modulation index?
269. A DSB-SC has a total power of 350 watts with 100% facilitate receiver tuning and demodulation. a. 25 kW
modulation suppresses 50% of the carrier, and the suppressed a. A3E b. 2 kW
carrier power goes to the sidebands. How much power is in the b. R3E c. 2.5 kW
sidebands? c. H3E d. 4 kW
a. 116.67 W d. B8E 288. If the input resistance of the base station of AM broadcast
b. 233.33 W 279. Standard AM used for broadcasting produced 20 kW carrier power, at what modulation index should
c. 175 W a. A3E the antenna rise at 108.63 A?
d. 350 W b. R3E a. 20%
270. A DSB-SC system must suppress the carrier by 30 dB from c. H3E b. 50%
its original value of 30 W. What value must the carrier be reduced? d. B8E c. 60%
a. 30000 W 280. Single sideband, suppressed carrier in which the carrier is d. 80%
b. 0.03 W suppressed by at least 45 dB in the transmitter. 289. ________ used a phase detector to compare the phase and
c. 300 W a. A3E frequency of the received signal to the VCO output.
d. 0.003 W b. R3E a. PIL
271. ___________, which further amplifies the signal and has the c. H3E b. PAL
bandwidth and passband shaping appropriate for the received d. B8E c. PLL
signal. 281. The shift in the carrier frequency from the resting point d. PLI
a. RF stage compared to the amplitude of the modulating signal is called 290. A filter with a roll-off of 6 dB/kHz is used as a slope detector.
b. Mixer and local oscillator stage _______. The input signal varies with +3 kHz deviation from center carrier
c. IF stage a. Index frequency. How many dB down is the output at full deviation?
d. AF stage b. Deviation ratio a. 9 dB
272. In FM, a bandwidth estimate 98 percent level of Bessel c. Carrier frequency b. -18 dB
functions d. Deviation frequency c. 18 dB
a. Approximate bandwidth 282. In FM, the amplitude of the modulated frequency wave d. -9 dB
b. Narrow-band Bandwidth remains ___________ at all times. 291. A receiver limiter requires a 20 mV signal for quieting
c. Carson’s rule a. Varying operation. The voltage gain between the RF input and the limiter is
d. Wideband bandwidth b. Dependent 57.7 dB, what is the input at the antenna terminal assuming equal
273. The complete series of stages for reproducing the FM signal c. Constant resistance?
with the desired carrier and deviation is the _______. d. variable a. 75.6 mV
a. Modulator 283. An AM has a maximum span of 30 V, what is the required b. 26.67 uV
b. Exciter minimum span to attain 100% modulation? c. 52.3 uV
c. IF stage a. 30 V d. 49.6 uV
d. RF stage b. 20 V 292. A 1-MHz carrier is modulated with a resulting 100 Hz
274. Is the ability of FM system to provide low-noise, high fidelity c. 0 V deviation. It undergoes x36 multiplication, followed by mixing
music background/broadcast.. d. None of these with a 34.5 MHz signal and re-multiplication by 72. What is the
a. Monophonic 284. DZMM having a carrier frequency of 630 kHz is modulated final carrier and deviations?
b. Stereophonic by 2.6 kHz audio signal having an amplitude of 37.5 V. What is a. 5076 MHz, ± 2592 MHz
c. Stereonic the amplitude voltage of 630 kHz carrier frequency at 0.35 b. 2592 MHz, ± 259.2 kHz
d. SCA modulation index? c. 2592MHz, ± 5076 MHz
275. It make use of the shape of IF filter frequency response roll- a. 57.6 V d. 259.2 MHz, ± 108 kHz
off versus frequency. b. 107.14 V 293. For standard commercial broadcast FM, the deviation ratio is
a. Foster Seeley c. 206.5 V ________.
b. Slope detector d. 86.2 V a. 15
c. Diode detector 285. If the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power, what is the b. 75
d. Quadrature detector modulation index? c. 5
276. In AM, modulation index is a number lying between ____ and a. 50% d. 10
1. b. 75% 294. A system has 150 kHz of bandwidth available for 10 kHz
a. 2 c. 90% modulation signal. What is the approximate deviation to be used?
a. 35 kHz c. C 313. One of the following is a communications filter generally
b. 65 kHz d. N used in the transceiver of a single sideband generator.
c. 25 kHz 304. In an AM wave, useful power is carried by a. Lowpass filter
d. 15 kHz a. None of these b. Crystal filter
295. An FM has a deviation of 100 kHz and a modulating b. Sidebands c. Bandpass filter
frequency of 15 kHz, what happen to m if the deviation triples? c. Both the sidebands and the carrier d. Mechanical filter
a. 6.66 d. Carrier 314. What is the modulation index for an AM signal having Vmax
b. 2.22 305. Determine the modulation index of an standard FM broadcast and Vmin of 2.6 and 0.29, respectively?
c. 4.12 having a hypothetical maximum carrier frequency deviation of ±12 a. 0.799
d. 0.20 kHz and a maximum modulating frequency pf 4kHz. b. 0.111
296. A receiver for a signal at 100 MHz uses a 10.7 MHz IF and a. 9 c. 0.894
low tracking. What is the image frequency? b. 6 d. 0.639
a. 89.3 MHz c. 3 315. What is the bandwidth of an AM signal modulated by a 15-
b. 78.6 MHz d. 4 kHz intelligence signal?
c. 52.5 MHz 306. The process by which the intelligence signals normally at a. 7.5 kHz
d. 35.2 MHz lower frequency are removed from the transmission frequency b. 15 kHz
297. What is the change in resonant frequency of the actual after it is received in the receiver station. c. 30 kHz
varactor capacitance value differs by -5% (0.05) of the nominal a. Detection d. 60 kHz
value? b. Demodulation 316. If a transmitter supplies 10 kW to the antenna when it is
a. 2.06 c. Amplification unmodulated, determine the total radiated power when it is
b. 3.02 d. Modulation modulated at 30%
c. 1.03 307. What is meant by the term modulation? a. 10.45 watts
d. 5.06 a. The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio is b. 10750 watts
298. An oscillator resonate at 1 MHz with a nominal 100 pF reached c. 11.5 kilowatts
capacitor and 0.25 mH inductor, what s the resonant frequency of b. Carrier rejection through phase nulling d. 10450 watts
the actual capacitor value is +20% of the nominal value? c. A linear amplification mode 317. Which of the following waveform characteristics determines
a. 1.006 MHz d. A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a the wavelength of a sine wave?
b. 0.9188 MHz carrier a. Phase
c. 3.625 MHz 308. What is a balanced modulator? b. Amplitude
d. 2.00123 MHz a. An FM modulator that produces balance deviation c. Period
299. “Front end” is also called _________. b. A modulator that produces a DSBSC signal d. Phase angle
a. IF stage c. A modulator that produces a SSBSC signal 318. In the F3E signal, what is the term for the ratio between the
b. AF stage d. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating
c. RF stage 309. What is a reactance modulator? frequency?
d. None of these a. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to a. FM compressibility
300. Undesired signal on the other side of the local oscillator produce FM signals b. Quieting index
output will have the same difference frequency and pass into the IF b. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to c. Modulation index
amplifier. produce AM signals d. Percentage of modulation
a. Carrier frequency c. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to 319. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?
b. Sum frequency produce FM signals a. HF
c. Difference frequency d. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to b. UHF
d. Image frequency produce AM signals c. MF
301. One of the following refers to an output of a balanced 310. How can an SSB phone signal be generated? d. VHF
modulator a. By dividing product detector with a DSB signal 320. The letter-designation B8E is a form of modulation also
a. SSB b. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer known as
b. ISB c. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer a. Pilot carrier system
c. AM d. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter b. Independent sideband emission
d. DSB 311. How can a DSB phone signal be generated? c. Lincompex
302. Which of the following components is used to produce AM at a. By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter d. Vestigial sideband transmission
very high frequencies? b. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter 321. What are the two general categories of methods for generating
a. Cavity resonator c. By detuning a Hartley oscillator emission F3E?
b. PIN diode d. By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier a. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with
c. Varactor 312. First symbol in the designation of radio signals emission reactance modulator on the oscillator
d. Thermistor which refers to use of an unmodulated carrier. b. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a
303. A third symbol emission which represent data transmission a. J balanced modulator on the oscillator
including telemetry, and telecommand b. N c. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a
a. B c. H balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
b. D d. A
d. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a a. Direct 341. Which among the following is capable of generating
reactance modulator on the final amplifier b. All of these frequency conversion?
322. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in c. Indirect a. Balanced modulator
total power by ____. d. Insertion b. Low-Q LC Circuit
a. 25% 332. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the c. Transmitter
b. 75% a. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating frequency d. Circulator
c. 100% b. Operating frequency of the assigned frequency 342. The most commonly used AM demodulator
d. 50% c. Frequency swing to the modulating frequency a. Envelope detector
323. How does the SSB transmitter output power normally d. Highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency b. PLL
expressed? 333. An AM transmitter is modulated by two sine waves at 1.5 c. Mixer
a. Average power kHz and 2.5 kHz with modulations of 20 percent and 80 percent d. Balanced modulator
b. In terms of peak envelope power respectively. Calculate the effective modulation index. 343. Which is a disadvantage of direct FM generation?
c. In terms of peak-to-peak power a. 0.7776 a. The need for an AFC circuit
d. Peak power b. 0.6 b. The need for an AGC circuit
324. Determine from the following the common use of DSB in c. 0.8246 c. Two balanced modulators are used
broadcast and telecommunications d. 1.0 d. The use of Class A amplifier which is very inefficient
a. Satellite communication 334. A DSBSC system must suppress the carrier by 50 dB for its 344. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a/an
b. FM/TV stereo original value of 10 W. To what value must the carrier be reduced? a. AM demodulator
c. Two-way communications a. 1 milliwatt b. Frequency synthesizer
d. Telephone systems b. 10 microwatts c. AGC circuit
325. What is the source of sidebands in frequency modulation? c. 0.10 milliwatts d. FM demodulator
a. Oscillator d. 0.01 microwatts 345. A particular synthesizer which contains only a single crystal
b. Baseband frequency 335. Which circuit in the AM transmitter does the frequency is
c. Mixer translation? a. Direct
d. Carrier harmonics a. Synthesizer b. Crystal-modulated
326. What is the source of sidebands in frequency modulated b. Modulator c. Indirect
voice? c. Mixer d. Exact
a. A3F d. Booster 346. Type of emission most affected by selective fading
b. A3J 336. A phase modulator has Kp= 2 rad/V. What RMS voltage of a a. FM and DSB AM
c. F3E sine wave would cause a peak phase deviation of 30 degrees? b. SSB and TV
d. J3E a. 0.158 V c. CCTV and CW
327. The third symbol in the designation of radio emission under b. 0.185 V d. CW and SSB
the ITU refers to c. 0.518 V 347. Which major element will not be found in every
a. Type of modulation of the main carrier d. 0.815 V superheterodyne receiver?
b. Nature of signals 337. In a phase-locked loop, VCO stands for a. RF amplifier
c. Type of information to be transmitted a. Variable capacitor oscillator b. IF amplifier
d. Nature of multiplexing b. Varactor-capacitor oscillator c. LO
328. An AM transmission of 3 kW is 100% modulated. If it is c. Voltage-controlled oscillator d. Mixer
transmitted as an SSB signal, what would be the total power d. VHF control oscillator 348. A system uses a deviation of 100 kHz and a modulating
transmitted? 338. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in frequency of 15 kHz. What is the approximate bandwidth?
a. 500 W a. Distortion a. 115 kHz
b. 1000 W b. Diagonal clipping b. 230 kHz
c. 1500 W c. Phase reversal c. 170 kHz
d. 2000 W d. Amplitude damage d. 340 kHz
329. This circuit has the function of demodulating the frequency- 339. An AM transmitter supplies a 10 kW of carrier power to a 50 349. A quadrature detector requires that
modulated signal. It is a ohm load. It operates at a carrier frequency of 1.2 MHz and is 85% a. The inputs are coherent
a. Automatic gain control modulated by a 3 MHz sine wave. Calculate the RMS voltage of b. Four gates are provided
b. Automatic frequency control the signal. c. The inputs are in phase
c. Envelope detector a. 825 W d. The inputs are similar
d. Foster-Seeley discriminator b. 262. 61 V 350. What is the power in one sideband of an AM signal whose
330. Calculate the power in one sideband of an AM signal whose c. 1166.7 V carrier power is 300 W, with 80 percent modulation?
carrier power is 50 watts. The unmodulated current is 2 A while d. 825 V a. 396 W
the modulated current is 2.4 A. 340. What will be the total sideband power of the AM transmitting b. Zero
a. 22 W station whose carrier power is 1200W and a modulation of 95%? c. 48 W
b. 33 W a. 270.75 W d. 96 W
c. 11 W b. 900 watts 351. Determine the resonant frequency of a series combination of a
d. 44 W c. 1.8 kW 0.001 microfarad capacitor and a 2 – milihenry inductor.
331. The method of generating FM used by broadcasting station is d. 542 W a. 112.5 kHz
b. 35.59 kHz b. Colpitts 371. A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency doubler.
c. 1125.4 MHz c. Hartley If the input signal frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit in the output
d. 3.26 MHz d. Negative feedback will be tuned to
352. Which of the following is not a typical part of every radio 362. Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a a. 7.7 MHz
transmitter? VFO? b. 15.4 MHz
a. Carrier oscillator a. The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance c. 30.8 MHz
b. Driver amplifier b. It can be used with or without crystal lock-in d. 61.6 MHz
c. Mixer c. It is stable 372. Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must be
d. Final power amplifier d. It has high output power a. Active
353. What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a 363. How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined? b. Passive
parallel RLC circuit at resonance? a. Efficiency = (RF power out / dc power in) x 100% c. Linear
a. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance b. Efficiency = (RF power in / RF power out) x 100% d. Nonlinear
b. Approximately equal to XL c. Efficiency = (RF power in / dc power in) x 100% 373. A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency coupling is
c. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance d. Efficiency = (dc power in / RF power in) x 100% known as
d. Approximately equal to XC 364. For reasonably efficient operation of a transistor amplifier, a. Push-push
354. What are the three major oscillator circuits often used in radio what should be the load resistance be with 12 volts at the collector b. Push-pull
equipment? and a 5 watts power output? c. Pull-push
a. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback a. 100.3 ohms d. Pull-pull
b. Colpitts, Hartley, and Taft b. 14.4 ohms 374. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a
c. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce c. 10.3 ohms a. AM demodulation
d. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce d. 144 ohms b. Frequency synthesizer
355. How is a positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley 365. What order of Q is required by a tank circuit sufficient to c. FM demodulator
oscillator? reduce harmonics to an acceptable level? d. AGC circuit
a. Through a neutralizing capacitor a. Approximately 120 375. Indirect frequency synthesizers will include
b. Through a capacitive divider b. Approximately 12 a. phase-locked loop
c. Through a link coupling c. Approximately 1200 b. voltage-controlled oscillators
d. Through a tapped coil d. Approximately 1.2 c. multiple bank crystals
356. How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts 366. What is the flywheel effect? d. both A and B
oscillator? a. The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the 376. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a single
a. Through a tapped coil transmitter is turned off crystal. What words describe this synthesizer?
b. Trough link coupling b. The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit a. Crystal modulated
c. Through a capacitive divider c. The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified AC b. Inexact
d. Through a neutralizing capacitor d. The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several c. Indirect
357. How is a positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce hops through the ionosphere d. Deficient
oscillator? 367. How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power 377. A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is
a. Through a tapped coil amplifier? a. Keyed transmitter
b. Trough link coupling a. By tuning for maximum SWR b. Power amplification
c. Through a capacitive divider b. By tuning for maximum power output c. Frequency generation
d. Through a neutralizing capacitor c. By neutralization d. All of the above
358. Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in radio d. By tuning the output 378. The term “pulling” refers to
equipment utilizes a quartz crystal? 368. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes, a. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
a. Negative feedback this is known as b. One-half cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier
b. Hartley a. Frequency multiplication c. Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna connection
c. Colpitts b. Sideband movement d. Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the
d. Pierce c. Baseband orientation transmitter is keyed
359. What is the piezoelectric effect? d. Frequency translation 379. An AM broadcast transmitter in the multi-kilowatt operating
a. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage 369. A device which is capable of causing frequency translation range will have what form of final amplifier?
b. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a a. High-Q tank circuit a. Solid-state devices
magnetic field b. Balanced modulator b. Vacuum tubes
c. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light c. Low-Q tank circuit c. Travelling wave tubes
d. Reversed conduction states when pn-junction is exposed to light d. IF strip d. Both a and b
360. What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator? 370. If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum is 380. In a broadcast station, the AGC is referred to as
a. It is easy to neutralize increased by the same fixed amount, this is known as a. Automatic gain control limiter
b. It doesn’t require an LC tank circuit a. Up conversion b. Compression amplifier
c. It can be tuned over a wide range b. Demodulation c. Loudness controller
d. It has high output power c. Frequency translation d. All of the above
361. Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO? d. Both a and c 381. Class C amplifiers are not used in which type of transmitter?
a. Pierce a. AM
b. SSB d. 101.92 kHz d. 56. 25 W
c. CW 392. A varactor has a maximum capacitance of 80pF and is used in 400. An AM transmitter is required to produce 20 W of carrier
d. FM a tuned circuit with a 100 microhenry inductor. Find the tuning power when operating from a 25 V supply. What is the required
382. A circuit that isolates the carrier oscillator from load changes voltage necessary for the circuit to resonate at twice its resonant load impedance as seen from the collector?
is called a frequency with no tuning voltage applied. a. 15.625 ohms
a. Final amplifier a. 5 V b. 22.5 ohms
b. Driver amplifier b. 2.5 V c. 11.25 ohms
c. Linear amplifier c. 7.5 V d. 31.25 ohms
d. Buffer amplifier d. 4.25 V 401. What is receiver desensitizing?
383. Bias for class c amplifier produced by an input RC network is 393. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running a. A burst of noise when the squelch is set to low
known as frequency of 14 MHz. As the frequency of the reference input is b. A burst of noise when the squelch is set to high
a. Signal bias gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 12 MHz and comes c. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on
b. Self-bias out of lock again at 18 MHz. Calculate the capture range. a nearby frequency
c. Fixed external bias a. 4 MHz d. A reduction in receiver sensitivity is turned down
d. Threshold bias b. 2 MHz 402. What is the term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain
384. Collector current in a class C amplifier is c. 12 MHz caused by the signals of a nearby station transmitting in the same
a. Sine wave d. 8 MHz frequency band?
b. Half-sine wave 394. If the frequency fed to the pre-amplifier of a basic transmitter a. Desensitizing
c. Pulse with multipliers is composed of a pair of triplers and a doubler is b. Quieting
d. Square wave 198 MHz, what frequency should the oscillator operate? c. Cross-modulation interference
385. Neutralizing is the process of a. 11 MHz d. Squelch gain roll back
a. Cancelling the effect of internal device capacitance b. 33 MHz 403. What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver
b. Bypassing undesired alternating current c. 22 MHz sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel
c. Reducing gain d. 66 MHz signals?
d. Eliminating harmonics 395. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free running a. Intermodulation distortion
386. In an AM transmitter, a clipper circuit eliminates frequency of 14 MHz. As the frequency of the reference input is b. Quieting
a. Harmonics gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 12 MHZ and comes c. Desensitizing
b. Splatter out of lock again at 18 MHz. Calculate the lock range. d. Overloading
c. Over-deviation a. 4 MHz 404. How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?
d. Excessive gain b. 2 MHz a. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver
387. The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually c. 12 MHz b. Increase the transmitter audio gain
operates class d. 8 MHz c. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
a. A 396. A crystal oscillator is accurate within 0.0005%. How far off d. Increase the receiver bandwidth
b. B frequency could its output be at 37 MHz? 405. What is cross-modulation interference?
c. C a. 135 Hz a. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation
d. D b. 150 Hz types
388. A transistor RF power amplifier can be tuned for c. 185 Hz b. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp
a. Minimum IC in the next stage d. 224 Hz c. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
b. Zero signal in the next stage 397. A transmitter has a carrier power output of 10 W at an d. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the
c. Minimum IC in the same stage efficiency of 80%. How much power must be supplied by the desired signal
d. Maximum IC in the same stage modulating amplifier for 100% modulation? 406. What is the term used to refer to the condition where the
389. The purpose of a balanced modulator circuit is to eliminate a. 6.25 W signals from a very strong station are super imposed on the other
the b. 7.14 W signals being received?
a. Carrier c. 12.5 W a. Intermodulation distortion
b. Upper sideband d. 14.3 W b. Cross-modulation interference
c. Lower sideband 398. A transmitter operates from a 16 V supply, with a collector c. Receiver quieting
d. Baseband signal current of 2 A. The modulation transformer has a turns ratio of 4:1. d. Capture effect
390. A frequency multiplier circuit What is the load impedance seen by the audio amplifier? 407. How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced?
a. Operates class A a. 96 ohms a. By installing a filter at the receiver
b. Is tuned to a harmonic of the input signal b. 128 ohms b. By using a better antenna
c. Needs parasitic oscillations c. 6 ohms c. By increasing the receiver’s RF gain while decreasing the AF
d. Is usually pulse modulated d. 8 ohms gain
391. An IF transformer of a radio receiver operates at 456 kHz. 399. A collector-modulated class C amplifier has a carrier output d. By adjusting the passband tuning
The primary circuit has a Q of 50 and the secondary has a Q of 40. power of 150 W and an efficiency of 80%. Calculate the transistor 408. What is the result of cross-modulation?
Find the bandwidth using the optimum coupling factor. power dissipation with 100% modulation. a. Decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
a. 10.192 kHz a. 93. 75 W b. Receiver quieting
b. 15.288 kHz b. 120 W c. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired
c. 152.88 kHz c. 64 W signal
d. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier d. A beat frequency is generated d. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at
409. What is the capture effect? 419. How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a frequencies close to the desired one
a. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver receiver? 428. The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in
b. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver a. As much as possible short of self oscillation the presence of strong signals outside the band of interest is
c. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal b. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise indicated by what parameter?
d. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal generated in the first mixer a. Noise figure
410. What is a product detector? c. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first b. Blocking dynamic range
a. A detector that provides local oscillator for input to the mixer mixer stage c. Signal-to-noise ratio
b. A detector that amplifies and narrows the bandpass frequencies d. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage d. Audio output
c. A detector that uses mixing process with a locally generated 420. Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have 429. What type problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a
carrier sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated communications receiver?
d. A detector used to detect cross-modulation products in the first mixer stage? a. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from
411. What is the term used to refer to the reception blockage of one a. To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being strong adjacent signals
FM-phone signal? generated b. Oscillator instability requiring frequent returning, and loss of
a. Desensitization b. To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal ability to recover the opposite sideband should it be transmitted
b. Cross-modulation interference c. To prevent generation of spurious mixer products c. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio
c. Capture effect d. To prevent bleed-trough of the local oscillator power to operate the speaker
d. Frequency discrimination 421. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver? d. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the
412. What is the process of detection? a. To provide most of the receiver gain strongest signal received signals
a. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier b. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC 430. What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable
to make an S-meter operational c. To improve the receiver’s noise figure receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal?
b. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal d. To develop the AGC voltage a. Intermodulation distortion
c. The modulation of a carrier 422. What is an IF amplifier stage? b. Noise floor
d. The mixing of noise with the received signal a. A fixed-tuned passband amplifier c. Noise figure
413. What is the principle of detection in a diode detector? b. A receiver demodulator d. Dynamic range
a. Rectification and filtering of RF c. A receiver filter 431. What occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter
b. Breakdown of the Zener voltage d. A buffer oscillator bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver?
c. Mixing with the noise in the transition region of the diode 423. What factors should be considered when selecting an a. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
d. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency intermediate frequency? b. Output-offset overshoot
414. How are FM phone signals detected? a. A cross-modulation distortion and interference c. Cross-modulation distortion
a. By a balanced modulator b. Interference to other services d. Filter ringing
b. By a frequency discriminator c. Image rejection and selectivity 432. How can selectivity be achieved in the front and circuitry of a
c. By a product detector d. Noise figure and distortion communications receiver?
d. By a phase splitter 424. What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in a a. By using an audio filter
415. What is the mixing process? receiver? b. By using a pre-selector
a. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase a. A noise figure performance c. By using an additional RF amplifier stage
comparison b. Tune out cross-modulation distortion d. By using an additional IF amplifier stage
b. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase c. Dynamic response 433. How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section
differentiation d. Selectivity compare with the bandwidth of a received signal?
c. Distortion caused by aural propagation 425. What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a. Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the received
d. The combination of the two signals to produce sum and a receiver? signal bandwidth
difference frequencies a. Dynamic response b. Filter bandwidth should be approximately half the received
416. What is a frequency discriminator? b. Gain signal bandwidth
a. A circuit for detecting FM signals c. Noise figure performance c. Filter bandwidth should be approximately two times the received
b. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals d. Bypass undesired signals signal bandwidth
c. An automatic band switching circuit 426. Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise d. Filter bandwidth should be approximately four times the
d. An FM generator figure? received signal bandwidth
417. What are the principal frequencies which appear at the output a. The audio stage 434. How can receiver selectivity be achieved in the IF circuitry of
of a mixer circuit? b. The IF stage a communications receiver?
a. Two and four times the original frequency c. The RF stage a. Incorporate a means of varying the supply voltage to the local
b. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies d. The local oscillator oscillator circuitry
c. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies 427. What is meant by the term noise figure in a communications b. Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar transistor
d. 1.414 and 0.707 times the frequency receiver? followed by a capacitor of the proper value
418. What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal a. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna c. Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to the
energy reaches the mixer circuit? b. The relative strength of a strength of a received signal 3 kHz audio stage only
a. Spurious mixer products are generated removed from the carrier frequency d. Incorporate a high-Q filter
b. Mixer blanking occurs c. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding 435. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 microvolts and a blocking
c. Automatic limiting occurs stages of a receiver dynamic range of 60 dB. What is the strongest signal that can be
present along with a 0.6 microvolt signal without blocking taking a. The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest a. demodulation
place frequency to which the receiver can be tuned b. damping
a. 600 millivolts b. The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver c. amplification
b. 600 microvolts referenced to one milliwatt d. oscillation
c. 300 millivolts c. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the 454. It is the process of changing the amplitude of a relative high
d. 300 mircovolts largest tolerable signal without causing audible distortion products frequency carrier signal in proportion with the instantaneous value
436. An AM receiver is tuned to broadcast station at 600 kHz. d. The difference between the lowest frequency signal detectable of the modulating signal.
Calculate the image rejection in dB assuming that the input filter without moving the tuning knob a. frequency modulation
consists of one tuned circuit with a Q of 40? 445. Where is the noise which primarily determines the signal-to- b. digital modulation
a. 19.28 dB noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band receiver generated? c. phase modulation
b. 39.65 dB a. In the receiver front end d. analog modulation
c. 38.57 dB b. Man-made noise 455. Most of the power in an AM signal is in the
d. 19.83 dB c. In the atmosphere a. carrier
437. A receiver has two uncoupled tuned circuits before the mixer, d. In the ionosphere b. upper sideband
each with a Q of 75. The signal frequency is 100.1 MHz. The IF is 446. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for demodulation. This c. lower sideband
10.7 Mhz. The local oscillator uses high-side injection. Calculate enables it satisfactorily to receive d. modulating signal
the image rejection ratio. a. Single-sideband, suppressed carrier (J3E) 456. Amplitude modulation is the same as
a. 23.69 dB b. Single-sideband, reduced carrier (R3E) a. linear mixing
b. 58.66 dB c. ISB(B8E) b. analog multiplexing
c. 29.33 dB d. Single-sideband, full carrier (H3E) c. signal summation
d. 11.84 dB 447. Three-point tracking is achieved with d. multiplexing
438. What oscillator frequency is needed to heterodyne 626 kHz a. Variable selectivity 457. The shape of the amplitude-modulated wave is called ______.
up to 3.58 MHz? b. The padder capacitor a. sidebands
a. 2.954 MHz c. Double spotting b. modulating signal
b. 4.832 MHz d. Double conversion c. envelope
c. 4.210 MHz 448. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will therefore also have d. carrier signal
d. 2.328 MHz poor 458. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the AM wave is
439. What is the undesirable effect of using too wide a filter a. Blocking supplied by
bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? b. Double-spotting a. tuned circuit
a. Output-offset overshoot c. Diversity reception b. transformer
b. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage d. Sensitivity c. capacitor
c. Thermal noise distortion 449. If a FET is used as the first AF amplifier in a transistor d. inductor
d. Filter ringing receiver, this will have the effect of 459. It is a term used to describe the amount of amplitude change
440. What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a a. Gain variation over the frequency coverage range present in an AM waveform.
communications receiver? b. Insufficient gain and selectivity a. coefficient of modulation
a. the noise floor of the receiver c. Inadequate selectivity at high frequencies b. modulation index
b. the power supply output ripple d. Instability c. depth of modulation
c. the two-tone intermodulation distorting 450. The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver d. any of these
d. the input impedance to the detector a. Is created within the receiver itself 460. When the modulation index in an AM wave is greater than
441. What parameter must be selected when designing an audio b. Is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection one it will cause _______.
filter using an op-amp? c. Is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits a. buck-shot
a. Bandwidth characteristics d. Is independent of the frequency to which receiver is tuned b. splatter
b. Desired current gain 451. The process of impressing a low frequency information c. overmodulation
c. Temperature coefficient signals onto a high-frequency carrier signal is called _____. d. any of these
d. Output-offset overshoot a. demodulation 461. The ideal value of modulation index in AM.
442. What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver? b. oscillation a. 1
a. Dynamic range and third-order intercept c. modulation b. 0
b. Cost and availability d. amplification c. 100
c. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range 452. A silicon varactor diode exhibits a capacitance of 200pF at d. infinity
d. Bandwidth and noise figure zero bias. If it is in parallel with a 60-pF capacitor and a 200-uH 462. When the amplitude of the information in an AM modulator is
443. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented inductor, calculate the range of resonant frequency as the diode equal to zero, what is the value of the modulation index?
in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit? varies through a reverse bias of 3 to 15V. a. 1
a. Restrict both gain and Q a. 679 kHz to 2.13 MHz b. 0
b. Restrict gain, but increase Q b. 966 kHz to 1.15 MHz c. 100
c. Restrict Q but increase gain c. 355 kHz to 3.12 MHz d. infinity
d. Increase both gain and Q d. 143 kHz to 4.53 MHz 463. Amplitude modulation can be produced by
444. What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications 453. A process where the received signal is transformed into its a. having the carrier vary a resistance
receiver? original form. b. having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
c. varying the carrier frequency d. preamplifier 481. The information sources modulate the same carrier after it has
d. varying the gain of the amplifier 472. A circuit that has a low-gain, high-input impedance linear been separated into two carrier signals are at 90 degrees out of
464. When the modulation index is equal to zero, the total amplifier which is used to isolate the oscillator from the high- phase with each other.
transmitted power is equal to ________. power amplifiers. a. QPSK
a. one of the sidebands a. power amplifier b. QUAM
b. carrier b. bandpass filter c. PSK
c. double sidebands c. signal driver d. FSK
d. an AM wave d. buffer amplifier 482. Demodulating quadrature AM signal requires a carrier
465. When the modulation takes place prior to the output element 473. With high-level transmitters, which of the following is not a recovery circuit to reproduce the original carrier frequency and
of the final stage of the transmitter, prior to the collector of the primary function of the modulator circuit? phase and two balanced modulators to actually demodulate the
output transistor in a transistorized transmitter, this is called a. it provides the capacity necessary for modulation to occur signals. This is called ________.
______. b. it serves as a final amplifier a. asynchronous detection
a. high-level modulation c. it serves as a frequency up-converter b. quadrature demodulation
b. low-level modulation d. it serves as a mixer c. synchronous detection
c. zero-modulation 474. It is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when positive d. quadrature detection
d. constant modulation and negative alternations in the AM modulated signal are not 483. Quadrature amplitude modulation is also known as ________.
466. A circuit that monitors the received signal level and sends a equal. a. phase division multiplexing
signal back to the RF and IF amplifiers to adjust their gain a. phase shift b. phase division modulation
automatically. b. carrier shift c. phase amplitude multiplexing
a. automatic phase control c. amplitude variations d. phase angle modulation
b. automatic gain control d. frequency shift 484. Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or
c. automatic frequency control 475. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with power amplitude is known as
d. automatic volume control modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4, the total modulation index a. high-level modulation
467. When the modulation takes place in the final element of the a. is 1 b. low-level modulation
final stage where the carrier signal is at its maximum amplitude, it b. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are known c. collector modulation
is called _____. c. is 0.5 d. minimum modulation
a. constant modulation d. is 0.7 485. It is the first stage of the receiver and is therefore often called
b. zero-modulation 476. The component used to produce AM AT very high the receiver front end.
c. low-level modulation frequencies is a a. mixer
d. high-level modulation a. varactor b. RF section
468. If a superheterodyne receiver is tuned to a desired signal at b. thermistor c. local oscillator
1000kHz and its conversion (local) oscillator is operating at c. cavity resonator d. IF stage
1300kHz, what would be the frequency of an incoming signal that d. PIN diode 486. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find a
would possibly cause image reception? 477. It is also known as upward modulation a. class C audio amplifier
a. 1600 kHz a. carrier shift b. tuned modulator
b. 2300 kHz b. amplitude variations c. class B RF amplifier
c. 1250 kHz c. frequency shift d. class A RF output amplifier
d. 3420 kHz d. phase shift 487. The section of the receiver than down-converts the received
469. When modulation requires a much higher amplitude 478. Also known as downward modulation RF frequencies to intermediate frequencies.
modulating signal to achieve a reasonable percent modulation, this a. carrier shift a. RF section
is called b. amplitude variations b. local oscillator
a. high-level modulation c. frequency shift c. power amplifier
b. low-level modulation d. phase shift d. mixer
c. zero-modulation 479. It is a form of amplitude modulation where signals from two 488. The circuit that demodulates the AM wave and converts it to
d. constant modulation separate information sources modulate the same carrier frequency the original information signal.
470. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the at the same time without interfering with each other. a. power amplifier
modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator work on a. QPSK b. local oscillator
principle of b. QUAM c. detector
a. rectification c. PSK d. IF section
b. resonance d. FSK 489. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V. The
c. variable resistance 480. A receiver has a dynamic range of 81 dB. It has 0.55nW peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating signal for 100 percent
d. absorption sensitivity. Determine the maximum allowable input signal. modulation is
471. A circuit which function is to raise the amplitude of the a. 59 mW a. 24 V
source signal to a usable level while producing minimum nonlinear b. 69 mW b. 48 V
distortion adding as little thermal noise as possible. c. 79 mW c. 96 V
a. power amplifier d. 88 mW d. 120 V
b. non-linear amplifier 490. What signals might feed into an FM broadcast station audio
c. buffer amplifier control console?
a. microphones 500. A SSB signal generated around a 200-kHz carrier. Before
b. turntables filtering, the upper and lower sidebands are separated by 200 Hz.
c. remote lines Calculate the filter Q required to obtain 40-dB suppression.
d. any of these a. 1500
491. The noise reduction ratio achieved by reducing the bandwidth b. 1900
is called c. 2500
a. dynamic range d. 2000
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
492. It is the minimum RF signal level that can be detected at the
input to the receiver and still produce a usable demodulated
information signal.
a. selectivity
b. sensitivity
c. Q-factor
d. bandwidth
493. For ideal AM, which of the following is true
a. m = 0
b. m = 1
c. m < 1
d. m > 1
494. Why are limiters used in FM receivers?
a. provide better noise performance
b. clip noise peaks
c. prevent overdrive of discriminators
d. any of these
495. Why are limiters used in FM transmitters?
a. clip noise peaks
b. prevent overdrive of discriminators
c. prevent overdeviation
d. any of these
496. It is defined as the difference in decibels between the
minimum input level necessary to discern the signal and the input
level that will overdrive the receiver and produce distortion.
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
497. It is the input power range over which the receiver is useful.
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
498. It is defined as the output power when the RF amplifier
response is 1-dB less than the ideal linear gain response.
a. 1-dB compression point
b. 1-dB threshold point
c. 1-dB shoot-off point
d. 1-dB pinch-off point
499. It is the measure of the ability of a communications system to
produce, at the output of the receiver, an exact replica of the
original source information.
a. sensitivity
b. threshold
c. selectivity
d. fidelity