Air Wisconsin Oral Questions

Button Trainer + Systems + Regulations (Limitations & QRH not included)

Electrical Panel

What does the DC Service Switch do?

Powers the DC service bus from the APU battery bus

What do you get if the DC Service Switch is powered?

Cockpit dome light, galley dome light, galley water and lavatory systems, beacon and nav lights

Which nav light would not be powered?

The nav light on the tail

What does the battery master do?

Connect the battery bus to both direct busses (APU direct bus and Main Battery Direct bus)

What are the ratings of the batteries?

Main battery is 17 Amps, APU battery is 43 Amps

Which battery do you need to start the APU?

Both - the APU battery starts the APU and the main battery powers the APU ECU

How long can you leave the battery master on by itself?

5 minutes

Why?
The CRT (cathode ray tube) displays will overheat (EICAS, EFIS, AIRINC)

What cools the CRT displays?

3 Fans

How are those fans powered?

AC Power

What are the sources of AC power?

Gen 1, Gen 2, APU Gen, ADG, External AC

What are the sources of DC power?

Two nickel cadmium batteries and DC external power

If all you had was DC power could you start an engine?

You could start the left engine

Why the left engine?

The left engine oil gauge is DC powered and the left engine fuel pump is DC powered
(technically it is AC powered because the DC power goes through an inverter to become AC
power)

Speaking of the avionics cooling fans why do we have 3 fans?

Fan 1 is for ground, Fan 2 is for flight, and Fan 3 is standby

If the ground fan is not working while at the gate would you switch to the air fan or the
standby fan?
The flight fan

Why?
Because the ground fan and the flight fan pull air from filtered ducts, the standby fan is unfiltered
air

What does the DC power button do?

This provides DC power

What does the aircraft check for before receiving DC power?

Polarity and phase

What does the AC power button check for?

115 Volts, 400 Hertz, 3 phase

If the left engine generator is on and the AC external power is plugged in, which power
source will the plane use for AC power?
The left engine generator (onboard power will be used before external power)

What do the AC utility buses power?

The batteries

What is an IDG?
Integrated drive generator

What are the components of an IDG?

The generator and the CSD connected by a pin

What is a CSD?
Constant speed drive
What does the CSD do?
Maintains 12,000 RPM to provide 400 hertz

Why would the fault light come on?

Oil over-temperature or under-pressure (such as if there was an oil leak - pressure would go
down and remaining oil would get hot)

How does the IDG disconnect?

Manually or automatic

When would it disconnect automatically?

Overtorque (3300lbs) or overtemp (179 degrees)

When would you manually disconnect the IDG?

When it is called for in the QRH

If you manually disconnect the IDG can you reconnect it?

No. Maintenance has to reconnect it on the ground.

What does the AC ESS XFER light indicate?

The Essential Bus is not receiving power from AC Bus 1

So if the battery master was on and nothing else would AC Ess XFER light be on?
Yes

When should the APU generator switch be turned off?

Leaving aircraft checklist - that is the only time

When do the gen transfer fail lights come on?

If AC Bus 1 or AC Bus 2 respectively is over or under voltage, over or under frequency, or over
current.

Is it good that the transfer fail light comes on?

Yes because that means no other generators are going to power that bus and potentially fail
themselves.

What is the transfer logic to power AC Bus 1 or 2?

Onside, APU, offside, external

If AC BUS 1 failed, what switchlights would light up?

Diagonal - TIE 1, Gen 1 XFER Fail, and AC Ess XFER (Service bus would power)

If AC BUS 2 failed, what switchlights would light up?

Hockey stick - Tie 1, Tie 2, Gen 2 XFER Fail (Gen 1 would power)

When do you close the Essential Tie?

The only time called for in the QRH is if the DC Essential Bus fails

What bus controls fire detection?

DC Essential Bus

What bus controls fire protection?

DC Emer bus

What are the ratings of the generators?

30kva to 35,000’ and 25kva to 41,000’

What is the rating of the APU?

30kva to 37,000’

What are the ratings of the TRUs?

100 amps

How many trus are there?

5

What does a TRU do?

A Transformer Rectifier Unit transforms AC power to DC

How much electricity is need to start the APU?

22v from both batteries (APU and main)

If multiple electrical fails appear on the EICAS which QRH would you run first?
Always the auto transfer fail because this will be the cause of the other EICAS messages

Why is there a 5 minute limit on Battery Master?

Because CRT fans are AC powered

If the ADG deploys, why pull the ADG handle?

To tie the battery bus to the essential bus

What receives power with ADG handle deployed when on ground?

Captain’s side PFD, MFD, RTU, and thrust reversers

What approaches can you shoot with EMER power?

Only ILS or localizer
How does the APU maintain 12,000 RPM?
Variable Geometry Diffusers (VGDs) but also the LCV controls airflow
Firex Panel

What is the difference between Loop A, B, or both?

This monitors the selected loop

Before running the APU fire test what should you verify?
No APU fire fail message

Should you also make the sure there is no Engine Fire Fail?
Doesn’t matter because the squibs won’t automatically extinguish the engine on the ground

How long must the squib be on test before the APU discharges if APU fire fail is
displayed?
5 seconds

What is the difference between warn and fail?

Fail tests the bottle pressure and continuity of the loops, warn runs the fire test

What do the bottle tests do?

Tests the squib continuity and bottle pressure

What is the difference between the cargo bottle tests and the other bottle tests?
This also checks the 2 smoke detectors (get clarification)

Do you know all the firex panel tests?

Yes
External Lts

Which lights go off above 18,000’?

Logo, wing inspection, recog/taxi

Which lights can only be left on for ten minutes?

Recog taxi lights

Which lights go on when you receive takeoff clearance?

All landing lights

Which lights go on when you receive approach clearance?

Left and Right landing light

Which lights go on when you receive landing clearance?

Nose light

Which light goes on before turning on electricity?

Nav light

Which light goes on before starting an engine?

Beacon

Which light goes starts the FDR and starts you getting paid?
Beacon
Fuel Panel

When would the left or right boost pump light be on?

When at least one pump is armed and detects low pressure (9 psi) both pumps will turn on
[confirm]

When would the left or right boost pump be inop?

Low pressure detected or pump is not operating

Why would gravity xflow light say fail?

The xflow is not in the commanded position

When can you turn on gravity xflow?

Only on the ground

Why select the XFLOW Auto Override in?

To inhibit manul crossflow and arm APU crossflow pump. Up to 300lbs of fuel can backflow with
10 degrees nose up attitude on takeoff

What are the left and right XFLOW valves for?

Manually crossflowing fuel. XFLOW auto-override must be in manual and the low fuel side
selected in

Why would there be a fail on one of these valves?

Valve is not in commanded position or the APU crossflow pump has failed

When does fuel automatically transfer if one tank is low?

At 200lbs imbalance and stops at 50lbs over the other

When fuel transfers, where does it pull fuel from?

Both tanks

When will the center tank automatically transfer to the mains?

94% empty and stop at 97% full

What is the route of fuel from the center tank to the engines?
Center tank to transfer ejectors to mains, mains to scavenge ejectors to collector tanks,
collectors tanks to main ejectors to engine

How much fuel do the collector tanks hold?

10lbs
What heats up the fuel?
Bulk fuel is heated by motive flow, engine fuel is heated by fuel/oil heat exchanger

What is BINGO fuel?

2400lbs + fuel to alternate. When this number is reached; go to alternate

What is the only way to balance fuel on the ground?

Powered crossflow

When fueling what EICAS message do you receive?

Auto crossflow inhibit

What is the minimum fuel temperature for takeoff?

5 degrees

What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature?

-30 degrees

When would fuel gauges turn yellow on EICAS display?

900lbs (450lbs per tank)
Bleed Air

How does 10th stage bleed air ducts fail?

Closed

How do 14th stage bleed air ducts fail?

Open

What is the purpose of the 10th stage isolation valve?

To provide bleed air from a single source (each bleed air source is a backup)

What is the purpose of 10th stage bleed air?

Engine starts, packs, or avionics cooling

What is the purpose of 14th stage bleed air?

Wing and cowl anti-ice and thrust reversers

What is the purpose of 14th stage bleed air isolation valve?

To provide cowl anti ice and well as thrust reverse from a single source

When thrust reverse is on what turns off?

Wing and cowl anti-ice

If the 14th stage anti-ice blowout plug is popped, will the wing and cowl anti ice still
work?
Yes

What needs to be on first - wing or cowl ice?

Do not turn wing anti-ice on without first turning cowl anti ice on (to prevent overpressure)

When would 10th stage bleed air automatically close?

Loss of electricity or loss of bleed air pressure (electronically controlled, pneumatically actuated)

What does duct fail mean?

Bleed air leak

Why must 14th stage valves always be pushed in?

Otherwise thrust reverse will not work

What does a Bleed Misconfig mean?

Not enough pressure for anti-ice (for example when APU is off or when starting APU). Wing
anti-ice will suck 3% of the power from the engines and cowl anti-ice will suck 1%
What to check on EICAS if there is bleed misconfig?
Check which duct is red

What is the max N2 when starting a second engine?

70%

When does the engine starter cutout? When does the APU starter cutout?
55% and 50% respectively
APU Panel

What does the PWR/FUEL button do?

What does the APU start/stop button do?

How to transfer bleeds to the engines in the air?

How to stop the APU in the air?

How to start the APU in the air?

Engine Panel

When do we turn continuous ignition on?

Takeoff with crosswind greater than 15 knots, takeoff or landing on a contaminated runway,
moderate or heavier turbulence, moderate or heavier rain, flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms

When does continuous ignition automatically come on?

At high angles of attack

When to start both ignitions?

First flight of the day between Nov 30 and April 1st

Otherwise you start which ignition when?

Ignition A on odd days and ignition B on even days

What are the limitations on dry motoring and starting?

Dry motoring - 90 seconds on 30 seconds off; 30 seconds on 5 minutes off. Starting - (less than)
60 seconds / 10 seconds; 60 seconds / 10 seconds; greater than 60 seconds / 5 minutes
consecutive
Hydraulic Panel

When do B pumps come on when in auto?

Flaps out of zero

What does Hydraulic system 1 power?

Outboard spoiler, left flight controls

What does Hydraulic system 2 power?

Inboard spoiler, right flight controls

What does Hydraulic system 3 power?

Both flight controls, nose wheel, and nose door

Which hydraulic system controls the outboard brakes?

1b, that is why we taxi in on the right engine

Which hydraulic system controls the inboard brakes?

2b or the left engine

What is the normal operating pressure in the hydraulic system?

3000psi +/- 200

What should not be seen on the Hydraulic EICAS page?

Backflow into the engines
Cabin Pressure Panel

What does the CPAM do?

Cabin pressure acquisition system monitors the cabin pressure, rate of change and Delta P

What alerts does the CPAM provide?

Cabin lo pressure caution at 8,500’; cabin lo pressure warning at 10,000’ (will automatically turn
on the seat belt and no smoking signs; and drop the oxygen masks at 14,000’

What does EMER depress do?

Holds the cabin altitude at the altitude EMER depress is pressed or if above 14,250 maintains
14,250 +/- 750’

What do CPCs do?

These maintain cabin pressurization

How do CPCs do this?

By controlling the outflow valves

How many CPCs are there and how are they switched?
2 switched by pressing the pressurization controller

What else the does Cabin Pressure controller do?

You can also select manual control

What does the fault switchlight indicate?

Both CPCs have failed

If both CPCs fail, how would this be displayed?

Pressurization data would be moved to ED1

Which outflow valve is slaved and mastered?

Left is master in auto, left is slaved in manual; opposite for right
Air Conditioning Panel

Why would the packs show a fault?

Overtemp (85 degrees) or Overpressure (65psi)

When to press RAM AIR?

When called for by the QRH on an unpressurized landing (to cool avionics)

What is the purpose of RAM air?

Pack cooling (precools pack air), avionics and cockpit cooling (via left distribution manifold),
hydraulic heat/air exchanger

What takes the place of RAM air on the ground?

A fan in the APU compartment

What do the hot and cold switches do?

Adjust temperature when in manual mode

What do the manual lights do?

Give you manual control of the climate control

Which pack provides the majority of cockpit air?

The left pack provides 70% air to the cockpit, 30% to the cabin

When do the knobs work?

In automatic mode

What is the limitation on the knobs?

Don’t turn less than the 11:00 position

What is the pack air pressure for a single pack or dual pack?
30 PSI / 41 PSI

What is pack over pressure?

60 PSI
Anti-ice Panel

What is the windshield temperature on high and low?

24 and 41

Which windshield get powered on high and low?

All panes (low at 24) and windshields only (high at 41)

What does Emer Power power do for the windshields?

The captain’s left windshield (for some reason)

What is the wing temp on normal and standby?

49 and 107

What should be ITT rise when wing anti-ice is selected on?

30 ITT

What ITT should not be exceeded with wing anti-ice on?

840 ITT

When probes are on on the ground how are they heated?

½ heat

If probes are turned off in the air what happens?

They remain heated

What is the difference between bleed air leak and wing overheat?
Bleed air leak is detected from a leak in the piccolo tube; wing overheat means the leading edge
is too hot

How are probes heated on the ground or in the air?

If there is AC power the pitot/static probes will receive half power on ground when off (front half
is heated) and full power in air (regardless of switch position). The ice detection probe will only
be heated when it detects icing whether ground or air. TAT probe is not on until airborne.
Misc Questions

What is the difference between mag and DC?

Mag uses flux detector, DG uses AHRS

What is the difference on EICAS between double engine failure and loss of AC power?
No difference

How do flaps actuate?

Cable and pulleys actuate the 2 PCUs for flaps

How do spoilers actuate?

Spoilers are fly by wire - electronically controlled by SECUs

How does the rudder actuate?

3 pcus controlled by cable and pulleys

How do the elevators actuate?

Each elevator is controlled by 3 pcus controlled by cable and pulleys

What is a there is an aileron pcu runaway?

Roll disconnect will disconnect the torque tube and PLT roll or CPLT roll will illuminate on the
pilot’s side. This will give you onside spoileron.

What if there is a rudder PCU runaway?

The other 2 good pcus should overpower it; may require additional rudder force

What if there is elevator pcu runaway?

Pull the pitch disconnect and the pilot with operating elevator should operate it

What actuates the flaps?

2 PDUs on each flap (these are electronically actuated)

What kind of engines do we have?

CF34-3B1s

How much thrust do they produce?

8,729lbs

What about with APR?

9,220 lbs
What is core lock?
When rapid cooling locks the N2 and N1 shaft together

How long is APR active after takeoff?

5 minutes

When is APR activated?

N2 falls to 67.6% and N1 above 79%

What is the difference between MEL, CDL, NEF, and DIL?

Minimum equipment list: things that can be broken; Configuration deviation list: things that can
be missing; Non-essential furnishings: furnishings that can be broken or missing; Deferred items
list: things that can be broken for a long time

When does half bank automatically turn on?

31,600’

When do EMER LTS automatically come on?

Neither the AC essential bus nor the DC essential bus are receiving power

What does RTU inhibit do?

Prevents autotune (2 Navs, 6 DME)

What does inhibit button on top right of RTU do?

Prevents auto-sequencing (FMS will not move to next point); don’t use this

When does the gear horn go off?

2 conditions: Flaps retracted below 185 or flaps extended above 163 w/ thrust idle or less

What are N1 limitations?

N1 2% split at idle and N1 idling at 57% or less and temp is greater than -20 (thrust must be at
idle)

How many lamps are behind each switchlight?

2

What does DIM/BRT do? [upper pedestal]

Dims or brightens the switchlights

How to mute the aurals?

DCU buttons

If you turn on the aurals, how to mute them? [upper pedestal]

Move the switch in the same position used to turn them on

When will terrain proximity aural go off in normal operations?

New airport or runway not in database

When is flap override selected?

Anything not 45 with power to idle flaps aural will sound [get clarification on this question]

Which aileron and elevator does the autopilot control?

Right aileron, left elevator [get clarification on this question]

What is the ground lift dumping logic?

RA less than 5; wheelspeed 16 knots; WOW

What do N1 speed gauges do?

Prevent overspeed and syncs N1

What are the differences between N2 and N1?

N2 controls hydraulically 79% and below, N1 controls electronically 79.1% and above

What if the RTU completely fails?

Putting the ACP on EMER which gives the Pilot COM 1 and the CoPilot Com 2 on their
respective ACP

What is GCS [on radar]?

Ground clutter suppression (so we don’t get a bunch of targets which are just terrain)

What is XFR [on radar]?

This tranfers who controls the radar (the non-controlling pilot must set the same distance on
MFD to also see radar)

What are the ways to disconnect Yaw Damper?

Yaw damper disconnect, gen 2 switches off [and autotune (confirm)]

What is the control logic for the trim?

Pilot - copilot - autopilot - mach trim

What does not work on the observer’s ACP?

Emer/norm and speaker

When pulling the manual gear release, how many detents are there?
4 - one for nose gear, nose door, left main, and right main
What is the glide speed?
190-210

How much fuel is burned with flaps 45? (if there is flap failure at 45)
9,000lbs per hour or 3x times the normal amount

Can you use APU bleeds to re-start an engine in flight?

No because there will be greater than 70% N2 on operative engine so use engine cross bleed

If there is double engine failure, at what altitude can they be relit?

21,000’ (12% N2 between 21,000-15,000’; 9% N2 15,000’ and below)

What is the max engine ITT in a climb, hot start, and normal operations?
840, 850, and 874-900 (for 30 seconds) or 900 and above [confirm]

When can you reset a circuit breaker?

Pic prerogative or QRH commanded

Is a wet runway considered contaminated?

No

When are FMS thrust settings unreliable?

Above 36,000’

What is located on the engine gear box?

FISHOIL - FCU, IDG, Starter (air turbine starter), hydraulics, oil pump

Takeoff Config on CAS

● Ok, 1 man, 2 arms, 2 signs, 2 open, 2 closed

BRASSFA (what takeoff config measures)

● Brakes, rudders, anti-ice, stabs, spoilers, flaps, auto-pilot
Glare Shield

Engine fire push - what is the bonus item that shuts off?
Continuous ignition on that engine

What do the FCC control?

Flight director and autopilot
Regulations and Miscellaneous

What are the reasons for a go around?

Not configured by 1,000’, not stabilized by 500’, not on extended centerline by 200’; more than
½ scale deflection; traffic conflicts; excessive crosswind. Also not at approach speeds by 500’ or
1,000’ above minimums [clarify if these are precision or non-precision]

What is the max crosswind on a CAT II?

15 knots

If they taxi you past the hold short but an aircraft is on final what should you do?
Stop when weather is below 800 and 2

What is the minimum RVR for a CAT II approach with only the touchdown zone
transmissometer reporting?
1600 RVR

What are the minimum number of transmissometers for a 500 RVR takeoff or a 1,000 RVR
takeoff?
2

Where to find the rollouts for a CAT II approach?

Supplemental binder page 34

When to turn on marker beacons for a CAT II approach?

RA NA

What to do at 500 to minimums?

Check the wind direction and say set missed approach altitude for a CDFA

When can you sideslip?

Operational necessity such as gravity crossflow

When to look at supplemental binder?

Cat II approaches, glide slopes greater than 3 degrees, ACM in jumpseat

When to declare minimum fuel?

1,700lbs

When to declare emergency fuel?

1,000lbs
How to check takeoff config ok?
OK, 1 man, 2 arms, 2 signs, 2 opened, 2 closed

What does Takeoff config monitor?

BrassFA: Brakes, rudder, aileron, stab, spoilers, flaps, autopilot

What is planned for a takeoff alternate?

1 hour, 200 NM, 15,000 feet, flaps 20, 1,000lbs of fuel, 6,000’ runway
Walkaround Questions

What is an MLI?
Magnetic level indicator

How many MLIs are there?

5

How many people does it take to measure fuel with an MLI?

2 - one must be in the cockpit to read the pitch and bank on the ground

What is a BUTE door?

This directs airflow over the leading edge of the flaps when the flaps are traveling out of 0

What does the left pitot static port provide information to?
P1, S1, S2 (ADC 1)

What does the right pitot static port provide information to?
P2, S2, S1 (ADC 2)

Where does the standby altimeter and airspeed and the CPAM get information?
P3, S3

What is the max oil burned per hour?

6.4 ounces

How does someone adding water to the galley know when it is full?
When the forward drain mast starts to leak water

What does the T2 probe do?

Measures the temperature into the engine which provides the FCU with information to control
the fuel/air mixture

How many brake accumulators are there?

6 (in complete hydraulic loss we should still have braking)

How to measure brake wear pins?

The parking brake should be off and there should be hydraulic pressure [confirm this]