Prelims 2018 Ans and Exp PDF

ANSWER KEY FOR GS PRELIMS PAPER 1 HELD ON 3rd June, 2018
Ques. Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2. India‘s then largest bank, "Imperial Bank of India‖ was renamed ―State Bank of India‖
3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
a) 4-1-2-3
b) 3-2-1-4
c) 4-2-1-3
d) 3-1-2-4
Ans: (b)
Exp:
The correct chronology is as follows:
Air India was nationalized - 1953.
Imperial Bank of India renamed as State Bank of India - 1955.
The first democratically elected communist government in state of India – 1957.
Goa became a part of independent India - 1961.
Ques. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of
the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.
b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Article 21 guarantees the Right to life and personal liberty under the Constitution.
Ques. Consider the following:

1) Areca nut
2) Barley
3) Coffee
4) Finger millet
5) Groundnut
6) Sesamum
7) Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of
the above?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Ans: (b)
Exp:
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The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs announces MSP for 26 crops, CCEA does not announce
MSP for arecanut and coffee.
Ques. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Nagaland
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary (also known as Pakke tiger Reserve) is in the foothills of Eastern Himalayas
in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
Ques. With reference to India‘s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1) PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed
mainly to launch communication satellites.
2) Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the first same position in the sky,
as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3) GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors;
and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 only
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Statement 2 is wrong because it is GSLV that appears to remain permanently fixed in the same position
in the sky.
Statement 3 is also wrong because GSLV Mk III is a three-stage launch vehicle with the first stage
using solid fuel, the second stage liquid fuel and the third stage cryogenic technology with the use of
liquid hydrogen and oxygen.
Ques. With reference to the governance of the public sector banking in India, considering the following
statements:
1) Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last
decade.
2) To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of
India has been affected.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Capital infusion in public sector banks has steadily increased in the last decade. For example capital
infusion in FY 2012-2013 was 12500 crores, in FY 2014-15 was 6990 crores while in FY 2016-17 was
25000 crores.
Ques. Consider the following items:

1) Cereal grains hulled
2) Chicken eggs cooked
3) Fish processed and canned
4) Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Only cereal grains hulled is taxed at 0%. Fish processed and canned and newspaper containing
advertising material are taxed at 5%.
Ques. Consider of the following statements:

1) The definition of ―Critical Wildlife Habitat‖ is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2) For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3) Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat
Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups is any part of India.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Exp: The Critical Wildlife Habitats have been envisaged in Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. This act defines the Critical Wildlife Habitats
(CWH) as the ―areas of national parks and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly
established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective criteria, that such areas are required
to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation…‖.
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is implementing the ―Scheme of Development of Particularly Vulnerable
Tribal Groups(PVTGs)‖ which aims at planning their socio-economic development in a comprehensive
manner while retaining the culture and heritage of the community by adopting habitat development
approach and intervening in all spheres of their social and economic life, so that a visible impact is
made in improvement of the quality of life of PVTGs.
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Baiga tribals become India's first community to get habitat rights. ... The tribe numbers only 150,000
people spread over forested areas of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. For several decades, the
Baigas were discriminated against and often evicted from forest areas by government agencies.
Ques. Consider the following:

1) Birds
2) Dust blowing
3) Rain
4) Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Exp:
Plant diseases can be spread by all the above agents.
Ques. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1) ―The National Programme for Organic Production‖ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and
directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2) ―The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority‖ (APEDA) functions
as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3) Sikkim has become India‘s first fully organic State.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: NPOP is operated under guidelines of Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
APEDA functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. In January 2016, Sikkim became
India‘s first ―100 per cent organic‖ state.
Ques. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct ?
a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition,
remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency
Fund of India.
c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the
Government of India.
Ans: (c)
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Exp:
Under Article 110, a Money Bill is not concerned with the appropriation of money out of the
Contingency Fund of India.
Ques. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements :
1) The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2) The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya
Sabha.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Under Article 55(2)(a), the value of the vote of an MLA is based on the population of that State and the
number of elected MLAs in that State.
The value of votes of MPs from the LS and the RS is the same.
NOTE:
The other interpretation is that if the values of the votes of all the MPs of Lok Sabha is more than the
values of the votes of all the MPs of Rajya Sabha. However, the language of statement 2, does not
support the above interpretation. In such a case statement 2 should read: "The (total) value(s) of the
votes(s) of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value(s) of the vote(s) of MPs of Rajya Sabha."
Therefore we feel statement 2 is wrong and the answer is (a) only and not (c).
Ques. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‗Additional Protocol‘ with the
‗International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)‘?
a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
d) The country automatically becomes the member of NSG.
Ans: (a)
Exp:
The Additional Protocol is not a stand-alone agreement, but rather a protocol to a safeguards
agreement that provides additional tools for verification. In particular, it significantly increases the
IAEA‘s ability to verify the peaceful use of all nuclear material in States with comprehensive safeguards
agreements. With the signing of additional protocol with IAEA the civilian nuclear reactor come under
IAEA safeguards.
Ques. Consider the following countries:

1) Australia
2) Canada
3) China
5
4) India
5) Japan
6) USA
Which of the above are among the ‗free- trade partners‘ of ASEAN?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Ans: (c)
Exp: ASEAN free trade partners are India, China, Australia, New Zealand, Japan and South Korea.
Ques. With reference to the ‗Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA)‘, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1) GACSA is an outcome of the climate summit held in Paris in 2015.
2) Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3) India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: GACSA was launched in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit, and is a
voluntary alliance of partners addressing the challenges facing food security and agriculture under a
changing climate. The GACSA Facilitation Unit is hosted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of
the UN (FAO).
Ques. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of ―Digital India‖ Plan of the Government of India ?
1) Formation of India‘s own internet companies like China did.
2) Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data
to build their last data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
3) Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places
and major tourist centres.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Exp: Digital India aims to provide the much needed thrust to the nine pillars of growth areas, namely
Broadband Highways, Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity, Public Internet Access Programme, e-
Governance: Reforming Government through Technology, e-Kranti - Electronic Delivery of Services,
Information for All, Electronics Manufacturing, IT for Jobs and Early Harvest Programmes.
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Ques. Consider the following pairs:

Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1) Aleppo — Syria
2) Kirkuk — Yemen
3) Mosul – Palestine
4) Mazar-i-Sharif — Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Exp: Kirkuk and Mosul are wrongly matched as these cities are in Iraq.
Ques. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary power were
given to the
a) Federal Legislature
b) Governor General
c) Provincial Legislature
d) Provincial Governors
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Residuary power was given to Governor General under the Government of India Act, 1935.
Ques. Consider the following statements:

1) The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member
of the Assembly.
2) Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
Ans: (a)
Exp:
When a Legislative Assembly is dissolved, all the MLAs of the House lose their membership of the
House, but the Speaker continues in his office till the next Assembly is constituted.
Ques. Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?
a) If there are more laws, there is less Liberty.
b) If there are no laws there is no liberty.
c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by people.
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d) If laws are changed too often liberty is in danger.
Ans: (b)
Exp:
The most appropriate answer is that, if there are no laws there can be no guaranteed liberties.

1. No criminal proceeding shall be instituted against the Governor of a state in any court during his
terms of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his terms
of office.
Which of the statement given above is /are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Article 361(1) - The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to
any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or
purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
Article 158(4) - The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his
term of office.
Ques. The well known painting ―Bani Thani― belongs to the:

a) Bundi School.
b) Jaipur School.
c) Kangra School.
d) Kishangarh School.
Ans: (d)
Exp:
Bani Thani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihal Chand from the Marwar school of
Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful. The painting's subject, Bani Thani, was a
singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of king Sawant Singh (1748–1764). She has been compared
to the Mona Lisa.
Ques. What is ―Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)‖, sometimes seen in the news?
a) An Israeli Radar System.
b) India‘s indigenous anti-missile programme.
c) An American anti-missile system.
d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea.
Ans: (c)
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Exp:
Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an
American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short-, medium-, and
intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or re-entry) by intercepting with a
hit-to-kill approach.
Ques. With reference to culture history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtnas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venketshwara.
Which of the statement is given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Exp:
1. Tyagaraja was an ardent devotee of lord Rama. In his praise and honour he wrote numerous kritis.
2. Tyagaraja composed many new janya ragas as well as melakarta raga. He is said to have invented
66 new ragas in his time.
3. Taḷḷapāka Annamācārya (or Annamayya was born in May 1408 and died in April 1503. He was a
15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called
sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu.
4. Tyagaraja was born on 4 May 1767 and died on 6 January 1847
Ques. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the ―Rule of Law‖?
1. Limitation of powers.
2. Equality before law.
3. People‘s responsibility to the Government.
4. Liberty and civil rights.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Under the Doctrine of Limited Government the powers of the government are limited by various factors
such as Fundamental Rights, Rule of Law, Federalism, Separation of Powers, Judicial Review, etc.
People are not responsible to the government, but it is the government that is responsible to the
representatives of the people elected to the legislature.
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Ques. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1) Charter Act of 1813
2) General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3) Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Exp:
If we go by strict interpretation of introduction of 'English Education' in India, then none of the three
statements given in the question are directly related to it. All three precede the introduction of English
Education in India. None of the above would have been the best option but since it is not we can
assume all the statements as correct.
Ques. Which of the following is an artificial lake?

a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in
Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was
instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the
British and early missionaries from USA.
Ques. With the reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following
statements :
1) It is flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2) It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and Digital
Literacy.
3) It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill
Qualification Framework.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Exp:
1. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill
Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
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2. The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up
industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood.
3. The Short Term Training imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TCs) is expected to benefit
candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed. Apart from
providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also
impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital education.
Ques. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to ―Swarajya Sabha‖?
a) All India Home Rule League
b) Hindu Mahasabha
c) South Indian Liberal Federation
d) The Servants of India Society
Ans: (a)
Exp:
October 1920 - All-India Home Rule League was reconstituted as "Swarajya Sabha".
Ques. Which among the following events happened earliest?

a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj
b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath
d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj in 1975
Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan in 1860
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhya wrote Anandmath in 1882
Satyendra Nath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the ICS examination in 1863
Ques. Which of the following is/are the possible consequences of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1) Decreased salinity in the water.
2) Pollution of groundwater
3) Lowering of the water table.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Sand is vital for sustenance of rivers. The sand mining has several impacts on the river environment.
Sand mining disturbs and completely remove the habitat from the mined zones. It leads to changes in
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its channel form, physical habitats and food webs – the river‘s ecosystem. It also increases the velocity
of flow in river which destroy flow-regime eventually erodes the river banks.
• Channel widening causes shallowing of the streambed, producing braided flow or subsurface inter-
gravel flow in riffle areas, hindering movement of fishes between pools.
• Riverbed becomes dry due to exposure to solar radiation decrease the surface and groundwater.
• Depletion of sand in the streambed causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the
enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It leads to saline-water intrusion.
• Removal of vegetation and destruction of the soil profile destroys habitat above and below the ground
and faunal population decrease.
Ques. With reference to agriculture soils consider the following statements:

1) A high content of organic matter drastically reduces its water boiling capacity.
2) Soil does not play role in the sulphur cycle.
3) Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Statement 1 is wrong because it increases water holding capacity. Higher content of organic matter in
soil will result into more humus and increase in its water holding capacity.
Statement 2 is right because water plays a role in Sulphur cycle. Sulphur, like nitrogen and carbon, is
an essential part of all living matter because sulphur containing amino acids are always present in
almost all kinds of proteins. Plants can absorb directly the sulphur containing amino acids, but these
amino acids fulfil only a small proportion or requirements for sulphur. To fulfil rest of the requirements of
plants, sulphur passes through a cycle of transformation mediated by microorganisms. It accumulates
in the soil mainly as a constituent of organic compounds and has to be converted to sulphates to
become readily available to the plants.
Irrigation cause organic matter to leach and making land saline. Over-irrigation can lead to salinity in
soils, because of over-use of ground-water and/or rise of water-table.
Ques. The Partnership for Action Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries
transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio De Janeiro.
c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi.
Ans: (b)
Exp:
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call
at Rio+20 in 2012 in Rio de Janeiro to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more
inclusive growth trajectories.
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The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) seeks to put sustainability at the heart of
economic policymaking. The Partnership supports nations and regions in reframing economic policies
and practices around sustainability to foster economic growth, create income and jobs, reduce poverty
and inequality, and strengthen the ecological foundations of their economies. PAGE is a direct
response to the Rio+20 Declaration, The Future We Want, which called upon the United Nations
System and the international community to provide assistance to interested countries in developing,
adopting and implementing green economy policies and strategies.
Ques. ―3D Printing‖ has applications in which of the following?

1) Preparation of confectionery items
2) Manufacture of bionic cars
3) Automotive industry
4) Reconstructive surgeries
5) Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below;
a) 1,3 and 4 only
b) 2,3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
Ans: (d)
Exp:
3D printing has application in all the given options.
Ques. Consider the following statements;

1) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2) Barren Island lies about 140 kms east of Great Nicobar.
3) The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statement given below is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Barren Island is an island located in the Andaman Sea, dominated by Barren Volcano, the only
confirmed active volcano in South Asia, and the only active volcano along a chain of volcanoes from
Sumatra to Myanmar. Along with the rest of the Andaman Islands, it is a part of the Indian Union
Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Barren Island is located north of Great Nicobar
Barren Island volcano in 2017, again started spewing lava and ash, according to a team of scientists
from the Goa-based National Institute of Oceanography (NIO)
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Ques. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
b) It tends to reduce the widely biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
d) None of the above.
Ans: (b)
Exp:
For decades, tree lovers and environmentalists across the country have been campaigning against
Prosopis Juliflora. Also called Vilayati kikar, Prosopis juliflora, allows no other species to thrive and
destroys biodiversity. It is considered a noxious invader in Ethiopia, Hawaii, Sri Lanka, Jamaica, Kenya,
the Middle East, India, Nigeria, Sudan, Somalia, Senegal and Southern Africa. It is also a major weed
in the southwestern United States. It is hard and expensive to remove as the plant can regenerate from
the roots. It also takes over pastoral grasslands and uses scarce water. Livestock which consume
excessive amounts of seed pods are poisoned due to neurotoxic alkaloids. It causes land erosion due
to the loss of the grasslands that are habitats for native plants and animals. The Delhi government
recently gave its nod to clearing the Central Ridge of the non-native tree in the hope that the area‘s
original flora — which are called the lungs of the city — as well as fauna can be restored.

1) Most of the world‘s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2) More than one-third of the world‘s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and
Philippines.
3) Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Exp:
Coral Reefs are most commonly found at shallow depths in tropical waters, but deep water and cold
water corals also exist on smaller scales in other areas.
With Reefs like Great Barrier Reef, Australia, Indonesia and Philippines have more than one-third of the
world‘s coral reefs.
Coral reef have more diversity than tropical rainforest. Occupying less than one percent of the ocean
floor, coral reefs are home to more than twenty-five percent of marine life now.
Ques. ―Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now‖ is an initiative launched by

a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
b) The UNEP Secretariat
c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
d) The World Meteorological Organization.
Ans: (c)
Exp:
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Climate Neutral Now is an initiative launched by the UN Climate Change in 2015, aiming at
encouraging and supporting all levels of society to take climate action to achieve a climate neutral world
by mid-century as enshrined in the Paris Agreement. The initiative therefore invites companies,
organizations, governments and citizens to work towards climate neutrality by reducing their climate
footprint. Infinite Solutions, a leading consultancy company based in India, has become the first Indian
company to have signed the pledge to join the Climate Neutral Now initiative, led by the UNFCCC
secretariat. Momentum for Change recognizes innovative and transformative solutions that address
both climate change and wider economic, social and environmental challenges.
Ques. With the reference to educational institutions during rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Institution Founder
1. Sanskrit College at Banaras William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa Warren Hastings
3. Fort William College Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given below is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Sanskrit College at Benaras was the first college in Benaras. Established in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan,
it was a landmark college in India from where several notable teachers emerged. In 1958 it merged with
Sampurnanand Sanskrit University.
Calcutta Madras, was founded by the Governor General Warren Hastings, in October 1780
Fort William College (also called the College of Fort William) was an academy and learning centre of
Oriental studies established by Lord Richard Wellesley, then Governor-General of British India. The law
to establish its foundation was passed on 4 May 1800.

Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Catalonia Spain
2. Crimea Hungary
3. Mindanao Philippines
4. Oromia Nigeria
Which of the pairs given below above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Ans: (c)
Exp:
The Catalonia region, in north-eastern Spain, is known for Pyrenees Mountains. There have been
growing calls for Catalonian independence.
15
Crimea is a peninsula on the northern end of the Black Sea in Eastern Europe. With the collapse of the
Soviet Union, Ukraine was formed as an independent state in 1991 and most of the peninsula was
reorganized as the Autonomous Republic of Crimea, while the city of Sevastopol retained its special
status within Ukraine.
Oromia is one of the nine ethnically based regional states of Ethiopia
Ques. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the
following statements:
1) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2) Geosynchronous covers entire India and about 5500 sq. Km beyond its border.
3) India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Exp:
There are currently seven IRNSS satellites (1A to 1G) in orbit. A, B, F, G are placed in a
geosynchronous orbit, which means they seem to be at a fixed location above the Earth and they orbit
along with the Earth. The remaining three, C, D, E, are located in geostationary orbit-they seem to be at
a fixed location above the Earth along the equator and orbit along with the Earth. It provides location
tracking within 20 meters of actual positions, especially in 1,500 km area around the country‘s borders.
The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has successfully launched India‘s 7th navigation
satellite IRNSS 1G of the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite in 2016 completing the NAVIC system.
Ques. Consider the following phenomenon:

1) Light is affected by gravity.
2) The universe is constantly expanding.
3) Matter wraps its surrounding space - time.
Which of the above is/are prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein‘s General Theory Of Relativity, often
discussed in media ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Exp:
In 1905, Albert Einstein determined that the laws of physics are the same for all non-accelerating
observers, and that the speed of light in a vacuum was independent of the motion of all observers. This
was the theory of special relativity. It introduced a new framework for all of physics and proposed new
concepts of space and time.
General relativity has a number of physical consequences:
16
1. General relativity predicts that the path of light will follow the curvature of space time as it passes
near a star. This effect was initially confirmed by observing the light of stars or distant quasars being
deflected as it passes the Sun.
2. Based on Einstein's general theory of relativity, Hubble analysed how galaxies recede from the Milky
Way. He found that distant galaxies move away faster than those that are relatively nearby. Hubble‘s
observations showed that the universe was indeed expanding. This model of the cosmos later became
known as the big bang.
3. As he worked out the equations for his general theory of relativity, Einstein realized that massive
objects caused a distortion in space-time.
Ques. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM Mustard) developed in India, consider
the following statements:
1) GM Mustard has the genes of the soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to
a wide variety of pests.
2) GM Mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3) GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Exp: DMH-11 is a Genetically Modified (GM) mustard hybrid. Hybrids are normally obtained by
crossing 2 genetically diverse plants from the same species. Scientists at the Centre for Genetic
Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP) in Delhi University showed that this by crossing Indian mustard
cultivars with juncea lines of East European origin like 'Early Heera' and 'Donskaja'. The combination of
the 2 divergent gene pools enhanced the crossing options; the resultant F1 progeny were found to
exhibit significant heterosis. In essence, it uses a system of genes from soil bacterium that makes
mustard — generally a self-pollinating plant — better suited to hybridisation than current methods. It is
tolerant to herbicide not pesticide.

Term sometimes
seen in news Context/Topic
1) Belle II – Artificial Intelligence
experiment
2) Blockchain – Digital/
Technology Cryptocurrency
3) CRISPR – Cas9 – Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
17
Exp: The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B
mesons. Using CRISPR system, scientists can remove, add or alter specific DNA sequences in the
genome of higher organisms. It has two components, a single-guide RNA (sgRNA) that contains a
sequence that can bind to DNA, and Cas9 enzyme which acts as a molecular scissor that can cut
specific sequence.
Ques. Which of the following statements best describes ―carbon fertilization‖ ?

a) Increased Plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
b) Increased temperature of the earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere.
c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
d) Adaptation of living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Ans: (a)
Exp: Anthropogenic emissions add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. Forests worldwide are
using it to grow faster, reducing the amount of CO2 that stays in the atmosphere. This effect is
called carbon fertilization.
The carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases
the rate of photosynthesis in plants. One related trend may be what has been termed "Arctic greening".
Scientists have been finding, that as northern portions of the planet warm up even as total atmospheric
carbon dioxide increases, there‘s been an increase in plant growth in these regions. Researchers report
that the CO2 levels expected in the second half of this century will likely reduce the levels of zinc, iron,
and protein in wheat, rice, peas, and soybeans.
Ques. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the
alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom
shows the day‘s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take
some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and
places and order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the
door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office,
your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late
for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies
to the above scenario?
a) Border Gateway Protocol
b) Internet Of Things
c) Internet Protocol
d) Visual Private Network
Ans: (b)
Exp: The internet of things (IoT) is a computing concept that describes the idea of everyday physical
objects being connected to the internet and being able to identify themselves to other devices as it is
described in question.
18
Ques. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :
1) India is largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units
2) The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Exp:
China is largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
Solar power tariffs are determined through auctions conducted by Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Ques. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle
of the 18th century were
a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
b) sugar, salt, zinc and Lead
c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium.
Ans: (d)
Exp: By the late 17th century Bengal had begun to emerge as an important source of supplies that the
East India Company could purchase for sale in Europe. Goods purchased from Bengal included cotton
cloth, opium, saltpeter, sugar and silk.
Ques. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha ?
a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
c) Joining of peasant unrest to India‘s National Movement
d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops.
Ans: (c)
Exp: The centenary of Mahatma Gandhi‘s first Satyagraha in India was marked in April 2017. It was
undertaken in the erstwhile undivided Champaran district in northern Bihar. He went there in April, 1917
on learning about the abuses suffered by the cultivators of the district, forced into growing indigo by
British planters/estate owners. ‗The Champaran tenant‘, informs Gandhi, ‗was bound by law to plant
three out of every twenty parts of his land with indigo for his landlord‘. This system was called Tinkathia.
Champaran Satyagrah was organised against this system only. Through this movement peasants
unrest became a part of India's National Movement.
Ques. Who among the following were the founders of the ―Hind Mazdoor Sabha‖ established in 1948?
a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C George
b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N Roy
c) C.P Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
19
d) Ashok Mehta, T.S Ramanujan and G.G Mehta
Ans: (d)
Exp: The HMS was founded in Howrah in West Bengal on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward
Bloc followers and independent unionists. Its founders included Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok
Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S.
Mathur, G.G. Mehta.
Ques. With reference to the religious practices in India, the ―Sthanakvasi‖ sect belongs to:
a) Buddhism
b) Jainism
c) Vaishnavism
d) Shaivism
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Sthanakvasi is a sect of Svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD.
Ques. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1) White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2) Red Sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza in Lucknow.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Exp:
The Buland Darwaza is made of red and buff sandstone, decorated by white and black marble. Thus,
statement 1 is correct. Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza were built by Asaf-ud-daula in 18th century
during the days of economic strain. They have therefore, austere architecture and used no marble in
their construction. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Ques. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about Diamonds and
diamond mines in India?
a) Francois Bernier
b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
c) Jean de Thevenot
d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Ans: (b)
Exp:
He was a French jeweler and gem merchant. He was a great authority on diamonds and diamond
mines in India in the 17th century.
20
Ques. With reference to Indian History, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to
save the world?
a) Avalokiteshvara
b) Lokesvara
c) Maitreya
d) Padmapani
Ans: (c)
Exp:
In the world of Buddhist eschatology, Maitreya literally means the future Buddha. Maitreya Buddha is
considered as the 5th Buddha that is believed to appear in this Kalpa or era. Thus, Maitreya Buddha is
considered as the Future Buddha that is yet to appear in this age. In various Buddhist sutras such as
Amitabha Sutra, as well as Lotus Sutra, Maitreya Buddha is believed to be called as Ajita.
Ques. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance
introduced by Lord Wellesley?
a) To maintain a large standing army at others expense
b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
c) To secure a fixed income for the company
d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian states
Ans: (c)
Exp:
The Subsidiary Alliances system was introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1798. The British, under the
subsidiary alliance system, agreed to protect the Indian rulers against external threats and internal
disorder but, in return, the Indian rulers who accepted the Subsidiary Alliance system were to agree to
the stationing of British contingent for whose maintenance they would pay a subsidy to the British.
Napolean Bonaparte was advancing towards East, hence, subsidiary alliance would defend against
Napoleonic danger.
There is no mention of a fixed income for the economy. Hence, option C is the most appropriate.
Ques. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases.
b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.
c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bill of exchange, etc.
d) The metallic money in circulation in a country.
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Every currency note bears on its face a promise from the Governor of RBI that if someone produces the
note to RBI, or any other commercial bank, RBI will be responsible for giving the person purchasing
power equal to the value printed on the note. The same is also true of coins. They are also called legal
tenders as they cannot be refused by any citizen of the country for settlement of any kind of transaction.
Thus, option B is the most appropriate option.
21
Ques. If a commodity is provided free to the public by Government, then

a) the opportunity cost is zero.
b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax paying public.
d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
Ans: (d)
Exp:
The Government has to sacrifice its own resources to provision it to the people. Since all resources
need not be tax based, the answer option d is the correct one.
Ques. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic
development, if
a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
c) Poverty and unemployment increases.
d) Imports grow faster than exports.
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive. This means that development
cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing conditions. Development
occurs when positive growth takes place. Yet, positive growth does not always lead to development.
This happens when poverty and unemployment increases.

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables
1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. Increasing the knowledge, skills level and capacities of the people of the country.
3. Accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. Accumulation of intangible wealth.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Human capital, intangible collective resources possessed by individuals and groups within a given
population. These resources include all the knowledge, talents, skills, abilities, experience, intelligence,
training, judgment, and wisdom possessed individually and collectively, the cumulative total of which
represents a form of wealth available to nations and organizations to accomplish their goals. Thus,
statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. Statements 2 and 4 are correct.
Detailed explanation available at http://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/keec105.pdf
22
Ques. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in
output due to
a) Weak administrative machinery
b) Illiteracy
c) High population density
d) High capital-output ratio
Ans: (d)
Exp:
Capital output ratio (COR) is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. A higher COR
value is not preferred because it indicates that the entity's production is inefficient. For example,
suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the economic growth
corresponding to this level of investment is 8%. Capital output ratio is 32/8 or 4. In other words, to
produce one unit of output, 4 unit of capital is needed.
Thus, in case of high capital-output ratio, despite high savings, capital formation may not result in
significant increase in output. Option D is the most appropriate answer.
Ques. After the Santhal rising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial
Government?
1. The territories called ‗Santhal Paraganas‘ were created.
2. It become illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a Non Santhal.
Select the correct answer using a code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Exp:
The area of concentration of the Santhals was called Daman-i-Koh. It extended from Bhagalpur in Bihar
to Orissa in the south. By the 1850s, the Santhals felt that the time had come to rebel against
zamindars, moneylenders and the colonial state, in order to create an ideal world for themselves where
they would rule. It was after the Santhal Revolt (1855-56) that the Santhal Pargana was created,
carving out 5,500 square miles from the districts of Bhagalpur and Birbhum.
Ques. Economically, one of the result of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the
a) Increase in the exports of Indian handicrafts.
b) Growth in the number of Indian owned factories.
c) Commercialization of Indian agriculture.
d) Rapid increase in urban population.
Ans: (c)
Exp:
A major economic impact of the British policies in India was the introduction of a large number of
commercial crops such as tea, coffee, indigo, opium, cotton, jute, sugarcane and oilseed.
23
Exports of handicrafts suffered during British rule. Thus, option A is incorrect. Further, there is no
conclusive evidence of growth in number of Indian owned factories OR rapid increase in the urban
population.
Thus, option C is the most appropriate answer.
Ques. If President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in
respect of a particular State, then
a) The assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the
Parliament.
c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.
d) The President can make laws relating to that state.
Ans: (b)
Exp:
When the President's Rule is imposed in a State the Council of Ministers is necessarily dismissed and
according to the Supreme Court judgement in the S.R. Bommai vs. UoI 1994 case, the State Assembly
shall not be dissolved, till at least the Parliament approves the President's Rule. Under Article 356 (b),
the President may declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by or under the
authority of the Parliament. The suspension of the Fundamental Rights arises only when National
Emergency is imposed.

Craft Heritage Of
1. Puthukkuli Shawls – Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery – Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani Saris – Karnataka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Puthukkuli shawls are made by Todas of Nilgiri hills in Tamil Nadu. Locally called Pugur, meaning
flower, the fine and intricate Toda embroidery is done by tribal men and women on shawls. Thus, this
option is correct.
Sujani (also known as Sujini) is a form of embroidery originating from the Bhusura village of Bihar.
Thus, option 2 is incorrect.
Uppada Jamdani Sari is a silk sari style woven in Uppada of East Godavari district in the Indian state of
Andhra Pradesh. Thus, option 3 is incorrect.
Option A is the most appropriate answer.
24
Ques. In which of the following area can GPS technology be used?

1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Exp:
Statement 1: GPS is widely used in mobile phone operations.
Statement 2: Global financial systems increasingly need precise timing systems to schedule and
prioritise local and international money transfers, settlements and trades and to provide an audit trail for
financial transactions. For example, the time signal provided by the atomic clocks on board the GPS
satellites is used by financial institutions worldwide for providing date and time stamps for Electronic
Funds Transfers.
Statement 3: There are reports of GPS spoofing attacks on power grids.
Thus, all three options are correct. Option D is the most appropriate answer.

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State
Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the
State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offers are issued at a discount from the par value.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Statement 1: RBI manages securities of both Central and State governments. Thus, this statement is
incorrect.
Statement 2: Treasury bills are issues by Central government. Recently Jharkhand had also issued T
bills. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
Statement 3: Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. Rather, they are issued at a
discount (at a reduced amount) and redeemed (given back money) at the face value at maturity. Thus,
this statement is correct.
Thus, option B is the most appropriate answer.

1. The Earth‘s magnetic fields has reserved every few hundred thousand years.
25
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 millions years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no
carbon dioxide.
3. When living organism originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Statement 1: Reversal of Earth‘s magnetic field is called Geomagnetic reversal. It occurs every few
million years. It is a change in a planet's magnetic field such that the positions of magnetic north and
magnetic south are interchanged, while geographic north and geographic south remain the same.
Thus, this statement is correct.
Statement 2: Early atmosphere has an abundance of hydrogen sulphide and Carbon dioxide. There
were smaller proportions of water vapour, ammonia and methane. The present composition got
finalized very late – around 600 million years ago (Cambrian Period). Vulcanism and the very evolution
of life played important roles in changing the atmospheric composition. Thus, this statement is
incorrect.
Statement 3: Respiration and microbial action by living organisms modified the early atmosphere. Thus,
this option is correct.
Option C is the most appropriate.
Ques. The terms ―WannaCry, Petya and Eternal Blue‖ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are
related to
a) Exoplanets
b) Cryptocurrency
c) Cyber attacks
d) Mini Satellites
Ans: (c)
Exp:
WannaCry is a ransomware worm that spread rapidly across a number of computer networks in May of
2017.
Petya is a family of encrypting ransomware that was first discovered in 2016.
Eternal Blue is the name given to a software vulnerability in Microsoft's Windows operating system.
Thus, all three are related to cyber security. Hence, option C is the most appropriate.
Ques. With references to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of ―Conservation
Agriculture‖ assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices.
2. Adopting minimum tillage.
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops.
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface.
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations.
26
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 2, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Conservation Agriculture is a farming system that promotes maintenance of a permanent soil cover,
minimum soil disturbance (i.e. no tillage), and diversification of plant species. It enhances biodiversity
and natural biological processes above and below the ground surface, which contribute to increased
water and nutrient use efficiency and to improved and sustained crop production.
It does not include avoiding cultivation of plantation crops. Hence, option 3 is incorrect. Thus, options A,
B and D are ruled out. Option C is the most appropriate.
Ques. The term ―sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction‖ is often mentioned in the news in the context of
discussion of
a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large scale commercial farming with
indiscriminate use of chemicals in many part of the world that may result in the loss of good native
ecosystems.
b) Fears of possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened
65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many part of the world and promoting their
cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants
and the loss of food biodiversity.
d) Mankind‘s overexploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats,
destruction of ecosystems, pollutions and world climate change.
Ans: (d)
Exp:
The Holocene extinction, otherwise referred to as the Sixth extinction or Anthropocene extinction, is the
ongoing extinction event of species during the present Holocene epoch, mainly as a result of human
activity. Previous extinctions were often linked to asteroids or volcanoes. Scientists analysed both
common and rare species and found billions of regional or local populations have been lost. They
blame human overpopulation and overconsumption for the crisis and warn that it threatens the survival
of human civilisation, with just a short window of time in which to act. Thus, options A, B and C are
incorrect. Option D is the most appropriate.

1) Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that the banks have to maintain in the form of their own
funds to offset any loss that bank incur if the account holder fail to repay any dues.
2) CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the following Statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
27
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank‘s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and
current liabilities. It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from
taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.
Capital Adequacy Ratio = (Tier I + Tier II + Tier III (Capital funds)) /Risk weighted assets.
Own fund – Broadly speaking, in bank funding and capital management, 'own funds' means the bank's
own capital. Own funds are a very stable source of funding, because there is either no contractual
obligation to repay them, or only a limited obligation. The Capital Requirements Regulation defines a
bank's own funds as the sum of its Tier 1 capital and Tier 2 capital.
Thus, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
Option A is the most appropriate answer option.
Ques. The identity platform ‗Aadhar‘ provides open ―Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)‖. What
does it imply?
1) It is integrated into an electronic device.
2) Online authentication using iris is possible.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Aadhaar authentication provides several ways in which an Aadhaar holder can authenticate themselves
using the system. At a high level, authentication can be using Demographics data and/or Biometric
(FP/Iris/Face) data, and/or OTP. Face authentication is currently not supported. It is proposed to start
from July, 2018.
The API can be integrated into any electronic device. Also, iris authentication is possible. Thus, both
statements 1 and 2 are correct. Option C is the most appropriate.
Ques. Very recently, in which of the following countries having lakhs of people either suffered from
severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ ethnic conflicts?
a) Angola and Zambia
b) Morocco and Tunisia
c) Venezuela and Colombia
d) Yemen and South Sudan
Ans: (d)
Exp:
Yemen and South Sudan are the countries where recently lakhs of people suffered and died due to
famine / war.
28
Ques. Regarding Wood‘s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true:
1) Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2) Establishment of universities was recommended.
3) English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct. The Wood‘s Despatch recommended the sanction of a grant-in-aid system in
the Indian educational system.
Statement 2 is correct. Universities on the model of the London University be established in big cities
such as Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Vernacular language was preferred at primary levels.
Ques. With the reference to Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees
scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules , sub-rules, by-laws,
etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the
Executive within the scope of such delegation?
a) Committee on Government Assurances
b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
c) Rules Committee
d) Business Advisory Committee
Ans: (b)
Exp:
The functions of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation are to scrutinise and report to the House
whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or
delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised within such delegation.

1) As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a
person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State
council of Teacher education.
2) As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher
Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3) In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
29
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is National Council of Teacher Education that has laid down minimum
qualification.
Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect

Tradition State
1. Chapchar Kut Festival – Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad – Manipur
3. Thang-Ta Dance – Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Thang-ta dance tradition is from Manipur and not Sikkim. Other two options are correctly matched.
Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of
heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty British Empire in 1891. The Chapchar Kut is a
festival of Mizoram, India. It is celebrated during March after completion of their most arduous task of
Jhum operation.

1) The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2)The Food Safety and Standard Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of
Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced Prevention of Food Adulteration
Act, 1954.
Statement 2 is incorrect: FSSAI is not under Director General of Health Services. It is an independent
authority under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
30
Ques. The term ―two state solution‖ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
a) China
b) Israel
c) Iraq
d) Yemen
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Two state solution was in context of Israel.
Ques. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the
following statements:
1) The families coming under the category of ‗below poverty line (BPL)‘ only are eligible to receive
subsidised food grains.
2) The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for
the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3) Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‗take-home ration‘ of 1600 calories per day
during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: There are other inclusion factors under NFSA.
Statement 3 is incorrect: 600 calories of ‗take home ration‘ is permitted for Pregnant and lactating
mother.
Ques. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in
order to comply with the obligations to
a) ILO
b) IMF
c) UNCTAD
d) WTO
Ans: (d)
Exp: GI Act 1999 was to comply with TRIPS of WTO

1) In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2) Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3) Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
a) 1 and 2
31
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: State governments can auction Non-coal mines.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Both Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh have gold mines.
Statement 3 is correct: Bhilwara in Rajasthan has an iron ore mine.
Ques. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1) BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with the UPI- enabled bank account.
2) While a chip pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of
authentication.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: BHIM app allows for transfer of money with UPI enabled account.
Statement 2 is incorrect: BHIM app has three factors of authentication.
Ques. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
a) Bengaluru
b) Hyderabad
c) Nagpur
d) Pune
Ans: (a)
Exp:
The longitude of Delhi is 77 degrees E and Bengaluru lies closest to Delhi in terms of longitude.
Hyderabad and Nagpur are further on the east.
Ques. International Labour Organisation‘s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
a) Child Labour
b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
c) Regulation of food prices and food security
d) Gender parity of the workplace
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Both the conventions are in context of Child Labour.
32
Conventions of International Labour Organization (ILO) Conventions 138 regarding admission of age to
employment and Convention 182 regarding worst forms of Child Labour.

1) In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2) In the first Lok Sabha, a ―Leader of the opposition‖ was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3) In the first Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum 75 members, its leaders cannot be
recognised as the Leaders of the Opposition.
Which of the statement given below is/ are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: CPI was the party in opposition, led by Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange. The
Indian National Congress (INC) won a landslide victory, winning 364 of the 489 seats and 45% of the
total votes polled. This was over four times as many votes as the second-largest party, CPI.
Statement 2 is correct. It was in 1969 that for the first time Leader of Opposition was recognised. It was
Ram Subhag Singh.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The post received statutory recognition through the Salary and Allowances of
Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 which defines the term "Leader of the Opposition" as
that member of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha who, for the time being, is the Leader of that House
of the Party in Opposition to the Government having the greatest numerical strength and recognised, as
such, by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. A party needs to have 54
members. (at least 10%)
Ques. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1) Hard and waxy leaves
2) Tiny leaves
3) Thorns instead of leaves
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Exp:
All are correct. These are all desert adaptation of plants.
Plants that have evolved mechanisms to combat drought are known as xerophytes. They are perennial
shrubs whose root systems below ground are much more extensive than their visible parts or that have
evolved tiny leaves with a waxy coating to combat transpiration. And instead of doing away with leaves
entirely, the leaves are modified into spines/thorns that minimise the surface area and so reduce water
loss by transpiration. They also protect from animal that might eat them.
33
Ques. As per the NSSO 70th Round ―Situation Assessment Survey of Technical Households‖ consider
the following statements:
1) Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2) Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percentage belongs to OBCs.
3) In Kerala, a little over 60 percent agricultural households reported to have maximum income from
sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the statement given below is/ are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among
its rural households.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Out of total agricultural households a little over 45% belong to OBCs.
Ques. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB)?
1) the NGT has been established by an Act and CPCB has been created by an executive order of the
government.
2) the NGT provides environmental justice and helps reducing the burden of litigation in the High Courts
whereas the CPCB promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells , aims to improve the quality of air in
the country.
Which of the statement given below is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Exp:
The National green tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for
effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation.
The Central Pollution and Control Board is a statutory organisation under the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change. It was established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1974. It is also entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1981.

1) The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India
2) The validity of law placed in Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can
be made on it.
Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
34
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Exp:
To ensure that agrarian reform legislation did not run into heavy weather, the legislature amended the
Constitution in the year 1951 which inserted Ninth Schedule. Initially the rationale for ninth schedule
was to protect legislation dealing with property rights. However, it was expanded to all laws in general.
After the Supreme Court's decision in I R Coelho vs. State of Tamil Nadu 2007 case, the Acts that had
been placed under the Ninth Schedule after 24th April 1973, are subject to judicial review before a
Court of law.
Ques. Which of the following best describes the term ―Merchant Discount Rate‖ sometimes seen in
news?
a) The incentive by a Bank given to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards for financial
transactions for purchasing goods and services.
b) The amount paid by bank to their customers when they pay by debit cards for financial transactions
for purchasing goods and services.
c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank‘s
debit card.
d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their
customers through PoS (point of sale) machines and debit cards.
Ans: (c)
Exp:
The merchant discount rate is the rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services on debit
and credit card transactions.
Ques. Which is /are the consequence / consequences of becoming a member of the ‗Nuclear Supplier
Group‘?
1) It will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies.
2) It automatically becomes a member of ―The Treaty of non-proliferation of nuclear weapons (NPT)‖
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Countries becoming the member of the NSG will have access to latest nuclear
technologies.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Becoming a member of NSG doesn‘t automatically make a country member of
NPT.
35
Ques. With reference to India‘s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement
services offered by non resident entities , which of the following statement is/are correct?
1) It is introduced as a part of Income Tax Act.
2) Non Resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home
country under the ―Double Taxation Avoidance commission‖
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Equalization tax was introduced as part of Finance Act 2016. Taking a cue
from OECD‘s BEPS Action Plan 1, India proposed an ‗equalisation levy‘ on 12 digital services. The
Government has put a 6% equalization levy on the income accrued to a foreign E-commerce company
which is not a resident of India. This would affect Google, Amazon, Facebook etc. It is also called as
‗Google tax‘. Since, it was not a part of the Income Tax Act, equalisation levy was independent of
taxability of the income embedded in the said services.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Tax credit can’t be claimed.
Ques. Consider the following Statements:

1) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Review Committee Report has recommended a
debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) Government by 2023, comprising 40% for the
Central government and 20% for the State Government.
2) The Central government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to 49% of GDP of the
State Governments.
3) As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for the State to take Central government‘s consent
for raising any loans if the former owes any liabilities to the latter.
Which of the given statement is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The combined debt-to-GDP ratio of the centre and states should be brought
down to 60 per cent by 2023 (comprising of 40 per cent for the Centre and 20% for States) as against
the existing 49.4 per cent, and 21 per cent respectively.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the Union government, which has larger domestic liabilities of 49.23% of GDP
as compared to that of the States (21% of GDP)
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 293, A State may not without the consent of the Government of
India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by
the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has
been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government
36

1) The quality of imported edible oil is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five
years.
2) The Government does not impose any custom duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: The Quantity of imported edible has been in the range of 11 – 15 mt ,
while domestic production have been in the range of 5-8 mt.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Government imposes customs duty on imported oil. It was recently hiked.
Ques. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for
sometime; and was elected to the Central Assembly. He was:
a) Aurobindo Ghosh
b) Bipin Chandra Pal
c) Lala Lajpat Rai
d) Motilal Nehru
Ans: (c)
Exp:
Lala Lajpat Rai regularly contributed to several major Hindi, Punjabi, English and Urdu newspapers and
magazines. He also authored many books - ―Unhappy India‖, ―Young India: An Interpretation‖, ―History
of Arya Samaj‖, ―England‘s Debt to India‖ and a series of popular biographies on Mazzini, Garibaldi and
Swami Dayanand. Also, Lala Lajpat Rai went the USA after the Swadeshi movement petered out.
Ques. Consider the following Statements:

1) Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2) Once issued, Aadhaar card cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Aadhaar card is only an identity proof. It does not serves as proof for
citizenship or domicile.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UIDAI can deactivate Aadhaar number.
37
Ques. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/ dried up in the recent past due to human
activities?
1) Aral Sea
2) Black Sea
3) Lake Baikal
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)
Exp:
Aral Sea: Over the past 40 years, around 60,000 sq km of water, in places 40m deep, has evaporated
into thin air.
The Aral Sea, in Central Asia, used to be the fourth largest lake in the world, after the Caspian Sea,
and Lakes Superior and Victoria. Now barely 10% of it is left.
NOTE:
The question says ' shrunk immensely/ dried up'. A quick google search reveals that Lake Baikal is also
affected. It depends on UPSC what it thinks as 'immensely'. Ambiguity will get resolved only when
UPSC releases its answer key.
Ques. ―Rule of the law Index― is released by which of the following?

a) Amnesty International
b) International Court of Justice
c) The Office of UN Commissioner of Human Rights
d) World Justice Project
Ans: (d)
Exp:
World Justice Project measures adherence to Rule of Law in 113 countries including India based on
eight factors that include Fundamental rights, absence of corruption, regulatory enforcement, civil
justice, criminal justice, etc.
Ques. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
a) Indian Bank‘s Association
b) National Securities Depository Ltd.
c) National Payments Corporation of India
d) Reserve Bank of India
Ans: (c)
Exp:
National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in
India. It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in
Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and
facilitating convenience banking. It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
38

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ANSWER KEY FOR GS PRELIMS PAPER 1 HELD ON 3rd June, 2018

Ques. Consider the following events:

Ques. Consider the following:

Ques. Consider the following items:

Ques. Consider of the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following:

Ques. Consider the following countries:

Ques. Consider the following pairs:

Ques. Consider the following statements:

d) If laws are changed too often liberty is in danger.

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. The well known painting ―Bani Thani― belongs to the:

Ques. Which of the following is an artificial lake?

Ques. Which among the following events happened earliest?

Ques. With reference to agriculture soils consider the following statements:

Ques. ―3D Printing‖ has applications in which of the following?

Ques. Consider the following statements;

Ques. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. ―Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now‖ is an initiative launched by

Ques. Consider the following pairs:

Ques. Consider the following phenomenon:

Ques. Consider the following pairs:

Ques. Which of the following statements best describes ―carbon fertilization‖ ?

d) Ashok Mehta, T.S Ramanujan and G.G Mehta

Ques. If a commodity is provided free to the public by Government, then

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following pairs:

Ques. In which of the following area can GPS technology be used?

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following pairs:

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following Statements:

Ques. Consider the following statements:

Ques. Consider the following Statements:

Ques. ―Rule of the law Index― is released by which of the following?

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