MACRO VISION ACADEMY, BURHANPUR

DIWALI HOLIDAY ASSIGNMENT 2019-20 CLASS X

ENGLISH
1. Read the following lessons/poetry from the text books: FIRST FLIGHT-
A Letter to God (G.L. Fuentes)
Dust of Snow
Fire and Ice
Nelson Mandela: Long Walk to Freedom (Nelson Mandela)
A Tiger in a Zoo
FOOT PRINTS WITHOUT FEET-
A Triumph of Surgery (James Herriot)
The Thief’s Story (Ruskin Bond)
The Midnight Visitor (Robert Arthur)
A Question of Trust (Victor Canning)
Foot prints without Feet (H.G. Wells)
2. Practice and learn the figures of speech done in the class and given on FTP.
3. Make a PPT (containing at least 6-7 slides) on any of the following lessons:
The Midnight Visitor (Robert Arthur)
A Question of Trust (Victor Canning)
Foot prints without Feet (H.G. Wells)
The PPT will be presented in the class after the holidays and the activity will be marked.
4. Watch English news daily in order to equip yourself with the information and facts to be used as
content in the writing skills.
5. Revise the syllabus done in the class for the Post Mid Term Examination
6. Write the story in 150-200' words with the following hints
Ai was going for an interview.I was waiting for a bus when suddenly I realised that.......
7. You are Prabha/Prabhat of 20 B,mTilak Road,Haryana.You are of of the awaken citizens of your
city?As Diwali is fast approaching you are worried about the pollution in your city. Write a letter
to the district collector to draft an official order for the citizens to minimise the use of firecrackers
and fix the time to burn the crackers to reduce the pollution.
HINDI-B
**vxj eS fQYe cukrk** bl fo’k; ij 250 “kCnks esa vuqPNsn ys[ku dhft,A
HINDI-A
**vxj eS fQYe cukrk** bl fo’k; ij 250 “kCnks esa vuqPNsn ys[ku dhft,A
MATHEMATICS
Topic : Circle
 Trigonometry

1. If A = 300 , verify that

(1) cos 2 A= cos2 A – sin2 A = 2 cos2 A – 1, (2) sin 2A = 2 sin A cos, A
(3) cos 3 A = 4 cos2 A – 3 cos A, (4) sin 3 A = 3 sin A – 4 sin2A, and
2tan A
(5) tan2A 
1  tan2 A
2. If A = 450, verify that
(1) sin 2 A = 2 sin A cos A,
2tan A
(2) cos 2 A= 1 – 2 sin2 A and (3) tan2A 
1  tan2 A
Verify that
3
3. sin2300 + sin2 450 + sin2 60 0  .
2
1
4. tan230o + tan245o + tan2 600 = 4 .
3
5. sin300 cos600 + cos 300 sin 600 = 1.
3 1
6. cos450 cos600 – sin450 sin600  
2 2
4 3 1
7. cot2 300  3sin2 600  2cos ec 2 600  tan2 300  3 .
3 4 3
1
8. cosec2450.sec2300. sin2 900.cos600 = 1
2
1
9. 4cot2 450  sec2 600  sin3 300 
8
 PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY.
1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
I. What is the rate of flow of electric charges called?
(a) Electric potential (b) Electric conductance
(c) Electric current (d) None of these
II. Which of the following is the SI Unit of Electric Current?
(a) ohm (b) Ampere (c) Volt (d) Faraday
III. Which instrument is used for measuring electric potential?
(a) Ammeter (b) Galvanometer (c) Voltmeter (d) Potentiometer
IV. When one unit electric charge moves from one point to another point in an electric circuit, then
the amount of work done in joules is known as?
(a) Electric current (b) electric resistance
(c) electric conductance (d) potential difference
V. The hindrance presented by material of conductor to the smooth passing of electric current is
known as:
(a) Resistance (b) Conductance (c) Inductance (d) None of these
2. What is meant by “electrical resistance” of a conductor? State how resistance of a conductor is
affected when,
I) a low current passes through it for a short duration.
ii) a heavy current passes through it for about 30s.
3. A metal wire has diameter of 0.25 mm. and electrical resistivity of 0.8×10-8 ohm –m .
i) What will be the length of this wire to make a resistance of 5ohm?
ii) How much will the resistance change, if the diameter of the wire is doubled?
4. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9ohm, so that the equivalent
resistance of the combination is 13.5ohm and 6ohm separately?
5. The potential difference between two terminals of an electric iron is 220V and the current flowing
through its element is 5A. Calculate the resistance and wattage of the electric iron.
6. An electrical bulb is rated 40W, 220V. How many bulbs can be connected in parallel with each
other across the two wires of 220V line, if the maximum allowable current is 6A?
7. A small bulb has a resistance of 2Ω when cold. It takes up a current of 0.4 A from a source of 4V
and then starts glowing. Calculate (i) the resistance of the bulb when it is glowing and
(ii) Elaborate on the reason for the difference in resistance?
MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM.
1. Explain why electric power transmitted at high voltages and low currents to distant places?
2. Differentiate between AC and DC. Name any one source of each. Write any two advantages of
alternating current over direct current.
3. When is the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is larges
and smallest.
4. Draw labelled diagram of an electric motor.Explain its principle and working. What is the function
of split rings in an electric motor?
5. When does an electric short circuit occur? Explain the working and use of fuse.
LIGHT.
1. ”A concave mirror of focal length f can form a magnified, erect as well as an inverted image of an
object placed in front of it.” Justify this statement stating the position of object with respect to the
mirror in each case for obtaining these images.
2. An object 1cm high produces a real image 1.5cm high when placed at a distance of 15cm from a
concave mirror. Calculate the position of the image and the magnification.
3. Write two uses of each Concave and Convex mirror.
4. ”The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3.” List four information’s you obtain from
this statement about the mirror/image.
5. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 48cm in front of a mirror by
keeping the flame at a distance of 12cm from its pole.
i) Suggest the type of mirror he should use.
ii) Find the linear magnification of the image produced.
iii) How far is the image from its object?
iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
6. When we place a glass prism in the path of a narrow beam of white light a spectrum is
obtained.
7. What happens when a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to
the first prism? Draw a labeled ray diagram to illustrate it.

8. The power of the lens is -4.0D. What is the nature of this lens?
9. Which type of mirror is used to give erect and enlarged image of an object?
10. Draw the ray diagram and also state the position, the relative size and the nature of image formed
by a concave mirror when the object is placed at the centre of curvature of the mirror.
HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD
1. What eye defect is hypermetropia? Describe with a ray diagram how this defect of vision can be
corrected by using an appropriate lens.
2. A star sometimes appears brighter and some other times fainter. What is this effect called?
State the reason for this effect.
3. A student cannot see a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance of 3 m from him. Name the
defect of vision he is suffering from. How can it be corrected?
Draw ray diagrams for the (i) defect of vision and also (ii) for its correction
4. Why is red color selected for danger signal lights?
5. (a) A person cannot read newspaper placed nearer than 50 cm from his eyes. Name the defect
of vision he is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its two possible
causes. Draw a ray diagram to show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of
appropriate focal length.
(b)We see advertisements for eye donation on television or in newspapers. Write the importance of
such advertisement.

CHEMISTRY
Chapter 1
MCQ
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22 to 27) : Following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as the
‘Assertion’ and the other as ‘Reason’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the
answer to these items using the code given below.
Code :
(1) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A:
(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true.
22. Assertion : In electrolysis of water the volume of hydrogen liberated is twice the volume of oxygen
formed.
Reason : It is because water has hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 1: 2.
23. Assertion : Copper sulphate can be stored in silver container.
Reason : Silver can’t displace copper from copper sulphate as it is less reactive than copper.
24. Assertion : Respiration is exothermic in nature.
Reason : Oxygen inhaled in respiration causes the combustion of carbohydrates accompanied by
release of energy.
25. Assertion : When carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water, a white precipitate is initially
formed.
Reason : White preciptate is of calcium carbonate which is formed during the reaction.
26. Assertion : A reduction occurs when a substance loses oxygen or gain hydrogen atom.
Reason : In a reaction of hydrogen with chlorine hydrogen serve as a reducing agent.
27. Assertion : The balancing of chemical of chemical equations is based on law of conservation of
mass.
Reason : Total mass of reactants is equal to that mass of products.
Correct definition based
28. Chemical equation is
(1) qualitative representation of a chemical reaction in term of symbols and formulae
(2) quantitative representation of a chemical reaction in term of symbols and formulae
(3) qualitative and quantitative representation of a chemical reaction in term of symbols and
formulae
(4) qualitative and quantitative representation of a chemical reaction in words.

29. Rancidity is
(1) unpleasant change in the colour, flavour and odour of food
(2) pleasant change in the flavour, colour and odour of food
(3) unpleasant change in the colour and odour of food
(4) unpleasant change in the flavour of food
30. Homogeneous reactions
(1) are those in which all reactants, products and catalyst are in different physical state
(2) are those in which all reactants and products are in different physical state
(3) are those in which all reactants and products are in same physical state.
(4) are those in which all reactants, products and catalyst are in same physical state
31. Decomposition reactions are
(1) those in which a compound breaks down into simpler compounds
(2) those in which a simple compound combine to form complex compounds
 (3) those in which a compound breaks down into simpler compounds via electricity.
(4) those in which a compound breaks down into simpler compounds via heat

Chapter 2
34. Assertion : Acetic acid is weak acid
Reason : Acetic acid gets partially ionized in aqueous solutions
35. Assertion : Formic acid is present in Ant's sting.
Reason : The portion of body where ant bite is nibbed with dry baking soda.
36. Assertion : Many factories wastes are acidic in nature
Reason : Generally bases are added to all factory wastes before discharging into the water bodies
37. Assertion : Tooth decay starts when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5.
Reason : The strength of an acid or an alkali is measured by a scale called the pH scale.
38. Assertion : In an acidic solution, the indicator phenolphthalein remains colourless.
Reason : Phenolphthalein is an acid base indicator.
39. Assertion : Concentrated sulphuric acid can be diluted by adding water dropwise to acid.
Reason : Concentrated sulphuric acid has a strong affinity for water.
40. Assertion : An aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is basic in nature.
Reason : In aqueous solution, Na2CO3 gives Na+ ions which behave as base.
41. Assertion : A solution of NH3 in water turns blue litmus red.
Reason : In water, ammonia forms NH4OH which dissociates to give NH4+ and OH– ions.
42. Assertion : In summer season, a milk man adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
Reason : Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) present in baking soda neutralises lactic acid
formed in the milk.
43. Assertion : H3PO4 and H2SO4 are strong acids.
Reason : They ionises completely in a aqueous solution to give H+ ions.
Correct definition based
44. Which of the following is correct definition of Indicators?
(1) Indicators are substances used to determine the acidic or basic nature of a particular
substance as they change their physical state in different media
(2) Indicators are substances used to determine the acidic or basic nature of a particular
substance as they change their color in different media.
(3) Indicators are substances used to determine exact pH of particular substance.
(4) Indicators are substances obtained by plants used to determine acidic or basic nature of a
particular substance.
45. Which of the following is correct definition of neutral substances?
(1) The substances which are amphoteric in nature
(2) The substances which are neither acidic nor basic in nature
(3) The substances obtained by neutralisation reaction between acid and base
(4) The substances which are only slightly acidic in nature.
46. Which of the following is correct definition of strong bases?
(1) They give only small number of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water
(2) They give large number of hydrogen ions when dissolved in water
(3) They give large number of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water
(4) They give small number of hydrogen ions whendissolved in water

47. Which of the following is correct definition of Aqua regia?

(1) It is a mixture of three parts hydrochloric acid and one part nitric acid
(2) It is a mixture of three parts nitric acid and one part hydrochloric acid
(3) It is a mixture of three parts sulphuric acid and one part hydrochloric acid
(4) It is a mixture of three parts hydrochloric acid and one part sulphuric acid

Chapter 4
26. Assertion : Sometime, during cooking, the bottom of the vessel becomes black from outside.
Reason : Food is not properly cooked.
27. Assertion : Soaps are formed by saponification reactions.
Reason : In a saponification reaction, an organic acid combines with an alkali like NaOH or KOH.
28. Assertion : Denaturation of ethyl alcohol makes it unfit for drinking purposes.
Reason : Denaturation of ethyl alcohol is carried by methyl alcohol.
29. Assertion : C.N.G. (Compressed natural gas) is mainly methane compressed in the liquefied
form.
Reason : Combustion of methane is exothermic in nature.
30. Assertion : Chemical bonds in organic compounds are of covalent nature.
Reason : A covalent bond is formed by the sharing of electrons in the bonding atoms.
31. Assertion : The large number of carbon compounds exist due to the self-linking property of
carbon known as catenation.
Reason : The strength of the carbon to carbon bonds is very high.
32. Assertion : Acetic acid is a very useful solvent for organic compounds.
Reason : Solubility is governed by the principle that like dissolve like.
33. Assertion : Purely - covalent compounds cannot conduct electricity while purely ionic
compounds can.
Reason : Purely covalent compounds have lower melting and boiling points than purely ionic
compounds.
34. Assertion : Carbon forms the largest number of compounds.
Reason : Carbon shows valency of 4.
35. Assertion : Atmospheric carbon dioxide is concentrated in
its lower layers.
Reason : Carbon dioxide is produced in the process of combusion close to the ground.
36. Covalency is
(1) number of electrons donated by an atom
(2) number of electrons contributed by an atom for sharing
(3) number of electrons contributed by an atom to form ionic bond
(4) total number of electrons shared between two covalently bonded atoms.
37. Homologous series is a
(1) series of compounds in which the same functional group substitutes hydrogen in a carbon
chain.
(2) series of compounds in which different functional groups substitutes hydrogen in a carbon
chain.
(3) series of compounds in which two members differ by – CH2 unit.
(4) series of compounds having similar chemical properties
38. Combustion reactions are
(1) exothermic reactions occurs in presence of air or oxygen.
(2) oxidation reactions carried in presence of air or oxygen.
(3) redox reactions carried in presence of air or oxygen.
(4) photochemical reactions carried in presence of air or oxygen.
39. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
I. This reaction is given by saturated hydrocarbons.
II. This reaction occurs in presence of sunlight.
(1) Oxidation reaction (2) Addition reaction
(3) Substitution reaction (4) Photochemical reaction
40. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
I. Drinks containing ethanol
II. These drinks are major source of income to government
(1) Alcoholic beverages (2) Soft drinks
(3) Carbonated beverages (4) Rectified spirit
41. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
I. They have—SO4– Na+ group.
II. They easily produce lather in hard water.
(1) Soaps (2) Detergents
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
42. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
I. These compounds are less reactive
II. Valencies of all carbon atoms are satiesfied by single bonds.
(1) Alkanes (2) Alkenes
(3) Alkynes (4) Both (1) and (2)
1. 2.

3. 4.

5. 6.

7. 8.

9. 10.

11. 12.

13.
 BIOLOGY
Heredity and Evolution

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [1 Mark]

1. What is a gene?
Answer. Gene is the unit of inheritance. Gene is the part of a chromosome which controls the
appearance of a set of hereditary characteristics.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [2 Marks] -

2. What is meant by analogous organs? Taking a suitable example, explain how they support the
theory of Organic Evolution. [Delhi]
Answer. Analogous organs are those organs which have different basic structural design and
developmental origin but have similar appearance and perform similar functions.
Example:The wings of birds and bats look similar. But in birds feathers all along the arm cover wings
but the wings of bats are skin folds stretched between elongated fingers.
So, birds and bats are not closely related.
3. What is a sex chromosome?
Answer. Sex chromosome is a type of chromosomes in the genome that is involved in the determination
of the sex as well as the development of sexual characteristic in an organism. In human there are
two forms of sex chromosome: the X chromosome andY-chromosomes. A pair of X and Y results
in male while a combination of X and X results in female.
5.(a)”The sex of the children is determined by what they inherit from their father and not their
mother.” Justify.
(b) Give an example where environmental factor like temperature determined the sex of the
offspring.
Answer.(a) "The sex of the children is determined by what they inherit from their father and not their
mother. This statement is completely justified and can be proved as follows: A male has XY
chromosomes and a female has XX chromosomes
1. If a sperm carrying X chromosome from male gets combined with the X chromosome from
female, then the combination will be XX and child will be a baby girl.
2. If a sperm carrying Y chromosome from male gets combined with the X chromosome from
female, then the combination will be XY, and the child will be a baby boy.
(b) An example where environmental factor like temperature determined the sex of the offspring is
in case of reptiles, the temperature at which the fertilized egg is increased before hatching of the
egg helps in determination of the sex of the offspring such as case of a turtle, the high incubation
temperature of the egg proves that the offspring is a female.

6. Define variation in relation to a species. Why is variation beneficial to the species?

Answer. Variation refers to the differences in the characters or traits among the individuals of a species.
Variations are beneficial to the species because:
1 They enable the organisms to adapt themselves in changing environment.
2 Variations form the basis of heredity.
3 They form the raw materials for evolution and development of new species.
7. Describe briefly four ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a
population.
Answer.Traits arise due to variations which occur due to sexual reproduction of inaccuracies during
DNA copying or environmental factors. Now, the individuals with a particular trait may increase
in a population due to the following factors :
(i) Natural selection: Those variations which give survival advantage to an organism are selected
in nature and such traits increase in population.
(ii) Genetic drift: It occurs due to change in gene frequency due to accumulation of particular type
of genes.
(iii) Geographical isolation: It leads to change in gene frequency leading to expression of one type
of traits in a geographically isolated population.
(iv) Migration: It leads to flow of a particular type of gene in a specified population.
8. What are fossils? What do they tell us about the process of evolution?
Answer. The remains of dead plants and animals which were buried under the rocks millions of years
ago are called fossils.
1.There are certain animals which became extinct millions of years ago. Fossils of many of such
animals give important clues about missing links in the evolutionary relationship
2.Fossils tell us about the process of evolution. The fossils of different organisms have some
features similar to one species while some features are similar to the other species. In this way,
they show the link between two species. They tell us that one species evolves from the other.
11. Give one example each of characters that are inherited and the ones that are acquired in
humans. Mention the difference between the inherited and the acquired characters. [Delhi]
Answer. Eye colour or hair colour of a person is an example of inherited character whereas; body weight
is an example of acquired character.
The basic difference between inherited and acquired character is that inherited character is
passed on from parent to offspring and an individual acquires acquired characters during his
lifetime depending upon his lifestyle.
Acquired traits are present on somatic cells whereas inherited traits are present on sex cells.
14. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny?
Answer.n reproduction process ,the gametes of both the parent participate.These gametes are produced
by meiosis ,thus contain half no of chromosomes (n).During fertilisation genetic material of both
the gamete combines as sperm and ova fertilise leading to formation of zygote with half
chromosomes of female and half of male one.
sperm(n) + egg(n) → zygote(2n)

In this way, an equal genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in the progeny.
15. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter? [All India]
Answer. Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey provided evidence regarding origin of life from inanimate
matter. They assembled an atmosphere similar to that existed on early earth. The atmosphere
had molecules like ammonia, methane and hydrogen sulphide, but no oxygen and kept over
water at temperature just below 100°C. Sparks were passed through the mixture of gases. At the
end of a week, 15% carbon from methane had been converted to simple compounds of carbon like
amino acids which make-up protein molecules. So, life arose afresh on earth.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [II] [3 Marks] -Year 2007

4.Define ‘evolution’. Describe Darwin’s theory of evolution. [All India]

Answer. Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which take place in the primitive organisms over
millions of years and new species are produced. Since, the evolution is of the living organisms, so
it is called ‘Organic Evolution’.
Darwin’s theory of Evolution: Charles Robert Darwin gave the theory of evolution in his famous book,
‘The Origin of Species’. The theory of evolution proposed by Darwin is known as ‘The Theory of
Natural Selection’. It is also called ‘Darwinism’.
According to Darwin’s theory of evolution:
There is natural variation within any population and some individuals have more favourable
variations than others.
1 Population remains fairly constant even though all species produce a large number of off springs.
2 This is due to ‘competition’ or struggle for existence between same and different species.
3 The struggle for survival within population eliminates the unfit individuals and those with ‘favourable
variations’ survive and pass on these variations to their progeny to continue. This is called
natural selection.
4 The favourable variations are accumulated over a long time period leading to the origin of a new
species.
10. The human beings who look so different from each other in terms of colour, size and looks are
said to belong to the same species. Why? Justify your answer. [All India(C)]
Answer. Human beings are said to belong to the same species because of the following reasons:
1 DNA studies.
2 Number of chromosome is same,
3 All have a common ancestor.
4 They interbreed among themselves to produce fertile young ones of their own kind.
12. Explain the mechanism of sex determination in humans. [All India]
Or
With the help of a flow chart explain in brief how the sex of a newborn is genetically determined
in human beings. Which of the two parents, the mother or the father, is responsible for
determination of sex of a child? [Foreign]
Answer. Mechanism of Sex Determination in Human Beings:
In human beings, the sex of the individual is genetically determined.
• Sex determination is the process by which sex of a new born individual can be determined.
• Human beings have 1 unpaired sex chromosome. Sex chromosome of male is XY and of female is XX.
• Sex of a child depends on what happens at fertilisation.

• Thus, father is responsible for the determination of

the sex of a child.
13. With the help of suitable examples explain natural selection. [Foreign]
Answer. Let us assume that there exist a group of red beetles in some green bushes. Due to variation
during sexual reproduction one green beetle evolved among them. This green beetle can pass the
colour to its progeny which are green beetles.
Crows cannot see green beetles in green bushes and therefore, cannot eat them. The progeny of
green beetles are not eaten while the progeny of red beetles continued to be eaten. As a result
there are more and more green beetles in the beetle population. The progeny of green beetles
increase due to natural selection which gives survival advantage.
16. Explain the terms: (i) Speciation (ii) Natural selection [Delhi]
Answer. (i) Speciation is the evolution or the development of one or more species from an existing
species.
(ii) Natural selection is the process, according to Darwin, which brings about the evolution of new
species of animals and plants.
17. Explain with examples how the following are evidences in favor of evolution in organisms. (i)
Homologous organs (ii) Analogous organs (iii) Fossils [Delhi]
Answer. (i) Forelimb of human and bird are homologous organs. They have same structural design and
developmental origin but they have different functions and appearance. Homologous organs help
us to understand that the organism has evolved from a common ancestor. The more common
characteristics the two species have, the more closely they are related.It gives evidences of
divergent evolution.
(ii) Analogous organs are those organs design and developmental origin but have similar
appearance and perform similar functions.
Example: The wings of birds and bats look similar but have different design in their structure. They
have a common function of flying but their origins are not common. So, birds and bats are not
closely related.
It gives evidences of convergent evolution.
(iii) Fossils and their study is useful in knowing about the species which are no longer alive. They
provide evidence and missing links between two classes. They are helpful in forming a sequence
of organisms in the pathway of evolution. Thus, fossils have an importance in deciding
evolutionary relationship. Archaeopteryx is a fossil bird. It had feathers, fused bones and beak,
which are exclusively, bird structures. It also had some features, which are found in reptiles, e.g.
teeth in jaw, claws on free fingers and a long tail. This fossil provides a clue that birds have
evolved from reptiles.
18. Give an example of body characteristics used to determine how close two species are in terms
of evolution and explain it.
Answer. Homologous organs help to identify the relationship between organisms. These characteristics
in different organisms would be similar because they have inherited from a common ancestor. For
example, forelimbs of human and wings of birds show closeness between the two species because
the organs have similar basic structural design of limbs though it has been modified to perform
different functions.
19. What are homologous organs? Can the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat be regarded as
homologous? Why? [All India]
Answer. Homologous organs are those organs which have the same basic structural design and
developmental origin but have different functions and appearance.
Example: The forelimb of a frog, a lizard, a bird and a man seem to be built from the same basic design
of bones, but they perform different functions.
 No, the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat cannot be considered homologous organs
because they have a common function for flying but their origin and structure are not common.
So, they are analogous organs.
1 .
21. A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is cross bred with that of white colour flower plant
denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants are
self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny. [Delhi]
Answer.
22. Distinguish between homologous organs and analogous organs. In which category ; would you
place wings of a bird and wings of a bat? Justify your answer giving a suitable reason.[Delhi]
Answer.

Wings of a bird and wings of a bat are analogous organs as they have different basic structural
design but have similar appearance and perform similar functions.
23. Define the term ‘evolution’. “Evolution cannot be equated with progress”. Justify this
statement.
Answer.2Evolution is defined as a process of gradual changes which takes in primary organisms over
millions of years in which new species are produced. Evolution cannot be equated with progress.
This statement is not justified because it can't be said that the older designs before the evolution
were not efficient. Evolution has led to the complexity of the body over the time but the older
designs were equally efficient and it is provable with the example of the bacteria which came
before the evolution and is still surviving in the present conditions. Bacteria inhabits themselves
in hot Springs, deep oceans ad ice in Antarctica. The body of the Human beings have been
designed with the environmental conditions and their existence is supported.
4. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plant we
will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F2 generation, then we
obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of F2 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F2 generation but appeared in F2 generation, mentioning
the reason for the same. [All India]
Answer. (a) All plants of F1 generation will be tall plants.
(b) 3:1
(c) Dwarf trait is recessive trait which was not expressed in the F11 generation, the recessive trait
gets expressed in the F22 generation after self pollination.
25. How are fossils formed? Describe, in brief, two methods of determining the age of fossils.
Answer. When organisms die, their bodies decompose due to action of micro organisms. However,
sometime the body or at least some parts of the body may be in such an environment that does
not let it decompose completely. All such preserved traces of living organisms are called fossils.
The age of fossils can be estimated by the following two methods:
1 If we dig into the earth and start finding fossils, it can be assumed that the fossils closer to the
surface are more recent to those found in deeper layers.
2 By detecting the ratios of different isotopes of the same element in the fossil material.
26. State the meaning of inherited traits and acquired traits. Which of the two is not passed on to
the next generation? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer. Inherited traits are the characteristics transmitted from parents to their offspring.Acquired
 traits are characteristics which are developed during the lifetime of an individual.Acquired traits
are not passed on to the next generation. For example, if we breed a group of mice, all their
progeny will have tails. Now, if the tails of these mice are removed by surgery and allowed to
breed, the next generation mice will also have tails. If these tails are also removed and allowed to
breed, the progeny of mice will again have tails. Removal of tail by surgery is an acquired trait
and do not change the genes of germ cells and hence, are not passed on to the next generation.
27.”An individual cannot pass on to its progeny the experiences of its lifetime.” Justify the
statement with the help of an example and also give reason for the same. [Foreign]
Answer. Experience achieved during the lifetime of an individual does not make any change in the gene
of the individual.
For example, if a person reads a book on birds, the knowledge he earns by reading the book does
not make any change in the gene, hence, this knowledge will not get automatically transmitted to
his next generation. Such a trait is called acquired trait.
Heredity and evolution Worksheet-1

Heredity and evolution Worksheet-2

Choose the correct options:
1. Equal distribution of genes in gametes occurs because:
A. They are located on pairs of homologous chromosomes
B. They are located on pairs of heterologous chromosomes
C. They are duplicated during cell division
D. None of these
2. Inheritance of traits from one generation to next was explained by:
A. Charles Robert Darwin B. Carolus Linnaeus
C. Gregor Mendel D. Robert Brown
 3. In Snail, Sex is determined by:
A. Sex chromosomes
B. Temperature at which eggs are incubated
C. Physical contact with surface
D. Environmental conditions to which they are exposed during life time
4. In Human beings, Sex of an individual is determined by:
A. The X chromosome in the zygote B. The Y chromosome in zygote
C. X chromosome in sperm D. Y chromosome in sperm
5. How many alleles for a particular trait is/ are present in a gamete?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Multiple
6. How many alleles for a particular trait is/ are present in a diploid cell?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Multiple
7. How many types of gametes will be produced by a cell having genotype- TtWw?
A. Two B. Four C. Six D. Eight
8. Who is known as Father of Evolution?
A. Charles Robert Darwin B. Carolus Linnaeus
C. Gregor Mendel D. Robert Brown
9. Pea plant was selected by Gregor Mendel for his experiment because:
A. They are bisexual B. They reproduce by self pollination
C. They have short life cycle D. All of these
10. Study of fossils is done by:
A. Relative method B. Absolute method
C. Dating method D. All of these

How Do Organism Reproduce Worksheet-3

Multiple Choice Questions

5 . In the list of organisms given below, those that reproduce by the asexual method are
(i) banana (ii) dog (iii) yeast (iv) Amoeba
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
6 In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are
(a) stamen and anther (b) filament and stigma
(c) anther and ovary (d) stamen and style
7 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in a flower?
(a) pollination, fertilisation, seedling, embryo
(b) seedling, embryo, fertilisation, pollination
(c) pollination, fertilisation, embryo, seedling
(d) embryo, seedling, pollination, fertilisation
8 Offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among themselves
because
(i) asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(ii) asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(iii) asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
(iv) asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
9 Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in
(a) cytoplasm (b) ribosome (c) golgi bodies (d) genes
10 Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring during reproduction show
(a) only similarities with parents
(b) only variations with parents
(c) both similarities and variations with parents
(d) neither similarities nor variations
11 A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Spirogyra and Yeast is that
(a) they reproduce asexually
(b) they are all unicellular
(c) they reproduce only sexually
(d) they are all multicellular
12 In Spirogyra, asexual reproduction takes place by
(a) breaking up of filaments into smaller bits
(b) division of a cell into two cells
(c) division of a cell into many cells
(d) formation of young cells from older cells.
13 The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is called
(a) budding
(b) reduction division
(c) binary fission
(d) multiple fission
14 The correct sequence of reproductive stages seen in flowering plants is
(a) gametes, zygote, embryo, seedling
(b) zygote, gametes, embryo, seedling
(c) seedling, embryo, zygote, gametes
(d) gametes, embryo, zygote, seedling
15 The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species remains constant
due to
(a) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) halving of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) halving of chromosomes after gamete formation
16 In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structures bearing sporangia at their tips are called
(a) filaments (b) hyphae (c) rhizoids (d) roots
17 Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new plants from
(a) stem, roots and flowers
(b) stem, roots and leaves
(c) stem, flowers and fruits
(d) stem, leaves and flowers
18 Factors responsible for the rapid spread of bread mould on slices of bread are
(i) large number of spores
(ii) availability of moisture and nutrients in bread
(iii) presence of tubular branched hyphae
(iv) formation of round shaped sporangia
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and iv) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
19 Length of pollen tube depends on the distance between
(a) pollen grain and upper surface of stigma
(b) pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule
(c) pollen grain in anther and upper surface of stigma
(d) upper surface of stigma and lower part of style
20 Which of the following statements are true for flowers?
(i) Flowers are always bisexual (ii) They are the sexual reproductive organs
(iii) They are produced in all groups of plants (iv) Afterfertilisation they give rise to fruits
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
21 Which among the following statements are true for unisexual flowers?
(i) They possess both stamen and pistil
(ii) They possess either stamen or pistil
(iii) They exhibit cross pollination
(iv) Unisexual flowers possessing only stamens cannot produce fruits
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
22 Which among the following statements are true for sexual reproduction in flowering plants?
(i) It requires two types of gametes
(ii) Fertilisation is a compulsory event
(iii) It always results in formation of zygote
(iv) Offspring formed are clones
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
23 In Figure 8.1, the parts A, B and C are sequentially

(a) cotyledon, plumule and radicle

(b) plumule, radicle and cotyledon
(c) plumule, cotyledon and radicle
(d) radicle, cotyledon and plumule
24 Offspring formed as a result of sexual reproduction exhibit more variations because
(a) sexual reproduction is a lengthy process
(b) genetic material comes from two parents of the same species
(c) genetic material comes from two parents of different species
(d) genetic material comes from many parents
25 Reproduction is essential for living organisms in order to
(a) keep the individual organism alive
(b) fulfill their energy requirement
(c) maintain growth
(d) continue the species generation after generation
26 During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change associated with
sexual maturation in boys
(a) loss of milk teeth (b) increase in height
(c) cracking of voice (d) weight gain
27 In human females, an event that reflects onset of reproductive phase is
(a) growth of body (b) changes in hair pattern
(c) change in voice (d) menstruation
28 In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the
(a) process of mating (b) formation of sperm
(c) easy transfer of gametes (d) all the above
29 Which among the following is not the function of testes at puberty?
(i) formation of germ cells (ii) secretion of testosterone
(iii) development of placenta (iv) secretion of estrogen
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
30 The correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for transport of sperms is
(a) testis→vasdeferens→ urethra
(b) testis→ ureter → urethra
(c) testis→ urethra → ureter
(d) testis→vasdeferens→ ureter
31 Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a) Syphillis (b) Hepatitis (c) HIV – AIDS (d) Gonorrhoea
Short Answer Type Questions
4 Can you consider cell division as a type of reproduction in unicellular organism? Give one reason.
5 What is a clone? Why do offsprings formed by asexual reproduction exhibit remarkable
similarity?
6 Explain how, offspring and parents of organisms reproducing sexually have the same number of
chromosomes?
7 Why does bread mould grow profusely on a moist slice of bread rather than on a dry slice of
bread?
8 Give two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual
reproduction.
9 Would a Planaria cut vertically into two halves regenerate into two individuals? Complete Figure
8.2 D and E by indicating the regenerated regions.

10 In tobacco plant, the male gametes have twenty four chromosomes. What is the number of
chromosomes in the female gamete? What is the number of chromosomes in the zygote?
11 Why cannot fertilization take place in flowers if pollination does not occur?
12 Is the chromosome number of zygote, embryonal cells and adult of a particular organism always
constant? How is the constancy maintained in these three stages?
13 Reproduction is linked to stability of population of a species. Justify the statement.
14 What changes are observed in the uterus if fertilisation does not occur?
15 What are the benefits of using mechanical barriers during sexual act?
16 In the given Figure 8.3 label the parts and mention their functions

17 What would be the ratio of chromosome number between an egg and its zygote? How is the sperm
genetically different from the egg?
Long Answer Type Questions
1 Why are budding, fragmentation and regeneration all considered as asexual types of
reproduction? With neat diagrams explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
.
2 Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation. Mention the site and product of fertilisation in a
flower.
3 Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube growth and its entry into the ovule.
4 Distinguish between a gamete and zygote. Explain their roles in sexual reproduction.
5 Draw the diagram of a flower and label the four whorls. Write the names of gamete producing
organs in the flower.
6 What is placenta? Mention its role during pregnancy?
7 What are various ways to avoid pregnancy? Elaborate any one method.
8 Reproduction is essentially a phenomenon that is not for survival of an individual but for the
stability of a species. Justify.

Life Process Worksheet-4

Multiple Choice Questions

32 Which of the following statements about the autotrophs is incorrect?
(a) They synthesise carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight
and chlorophyll
(b) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch
(c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight
(d) They constitute the first trophic level in food chains
33 In which of the following groups of organisms, food material is broken down outside the body and
absorbed?
(a) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba
(b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(c) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta
(d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
34 Select the correct statement
(a) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own food
(b) Heterotrophs utilise solar energy for photosynthesis
(c) Heterotrophs synthesise their own food
(d) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates
35 Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?
(a) Mouth → stomach → small intestine →oesophagus→ large intestine
(b) Mouth →oesophagus→ stomach → large intestine → small intestine
(c) Mouth → stomach →oesophagus→ small intestine → large intestine
(d) Mouth →oesophagus→ stomach → small intestine → large intestine
36 If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity will
be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins
37 The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric acid. Choose
the correct one
(a) Pepsin (b) Mucus (c) Salivary amylase (d) Bile
38 Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine (c) Large intestine (d) Oesophagus
39 A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue-black in colour.
This indicates that rice water contains
(a) complex proteins (b) simple proteins (c) fats (d) starch
40 In which part of the alimentary canal food is finally digested?
(a) Stomach (b) Mouth cavity (c) Large intestine (d) Small intestine
41 Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following
(a) trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
(b) trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
(c) trypsin and lipase digest fats
(d) trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
42 When air is blown from mouth into a test-tube containing lime water, the lime water turned milky
due to the presence of
(a) oxygen (b) carbon dioxide (c) nitrogen (d) watervapour
43 The correct sequence of anaerobic reactions in yeast is

44 Which of the following is most appropriate for aerobic respiration?

45 Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about respiration?
(i) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised
(ii) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place i.e., oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into blood
and carbon dioxide from blood into alveolar air
(iii) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen
(iv) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange of gases
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
46 Which is the correct sequence of air passage during inhalation?
(a) Nostrils → larynx → pharynx → trachea → lungs
(b) Nasal passage → trachea → pharynx → larynx → alveoli
(c) larynx→ nostrils → pharynx → lungs
(d) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea → alveoli
47 During respiration exchange of gases take place in
(a) trachea and larynx (b) alveoli of lungs (c) alveoli and throat (d) throat and larynx
48 Which of the following statement (s) is (are) true about heart?
(i) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right atrium receives
deoxygenated blood from lungs
(ii) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts while right ventricle pumps
deoxygenated blood to lungs
(iii) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to right ventricle which sends it to different body parts
(iv) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body while left ventricle
pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of the body
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
49 What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?
(a) Valves in heart (b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(c) Thin walls of atria (d) All of the above
50 Single circulation i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage
through the body, is exhibited by
(a) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
(c) Hyla, Rana, Draco
(d) Whale, Dolphin, Turtle
51 In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump oxygenated blood to
different parts of the body?
(a) Pisces and amphibians
(b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only
(d) Pisces only
52 Choose the correct statement that describes arteries.
(a) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under high pressure; collect blood from different
organs and bring it back to the heart
(b) They have thin walls with valves inside, blood flows under low pressure and carry blood
away from the heart to various organs of the body
(c) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the heart to
various organs of the body
(d) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside, blood flows under high pressure and
carry blood away from the heart to different parts of the body.
53 The filtration units of kidneys are called
(a) ureter (b) urethra (c) neurons (d) nephrons
54 Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from
(a) water (b) chlorophyll (c) carbon dioxide (d) glucose
55 The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in
(a) carbon dioxide (b) water (c) hemoglobin (d) oxygen
56 Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Organisms grow with time
(b) Organisms must repair and maintain their structure
 (c) Movement of molecules does not take place among cells
(d) Energy is essential for life processes
57 The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is
(a) glycogen (b) protein (c) starch (d) fatty acid
58 Which of the following equations is the summary of photosynthesis?
(a) 6CO2 + 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
(b) 6CO2 + H2O + Sunlight → C6H12O6 + O2 + 6H2O
(c) 6CO2 + 12H2O + Chlorophyll + Sunlight → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
(d) 6CO2 + 12H2O + Chlorophyll + Sunlight → C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + 6H2O

59 Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis

(a) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(b) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(c) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
(d) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
60 The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depends upon
(a) oxygen
(b) temperature
(c) water in guard cells
(d) concentration of CO2 in stomata
61 Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen
(i) Proteins (ii) Nitrates and Nitrites (iii) Urea (iv) Atmospheric nitrogen
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
62 Which is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
(a) Pepsin (b) Cellulase (c) Amylase (d) Trypsin
63 Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
(i) Pyruvate can be converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide by yeast
(ii) Fermentation takes place in aerobic bacteria
(iii) Fermentation takes place in mitochondria
(iv) Fermentation is a form of anaerobic respiration
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
64 Lack of oxygen in muscles often leads to cramps among cricketers. This results due to
(a) conversion of pyruvate to ethanol
(b) conversion of pyruvate to glucose
(c) non conversion of glucose to pyruvate
(d) conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
65 Choose the correct path of urine in our body
(a) kidney→ ureter → urethra → urinary bladder
(b) kidney→ urinary bladder → urethra → ureter
(c) kidney→ ureters → urinary bladder → urethra
(d) urinary bladder → kidney → ureter → urethra
66 During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid
in the
(a) cytoplasm (b) chloroplast (c) mitochondria (d) golgi body
Short Answer Type Questions
18 Name the following
(a) The process in plants that links light energy with chemical energy
(b) Organisms that can prepare their own food
(c) The cell organelle where photosynthesis occurs
(d) Cells that surround a stomatal pore
(e) Organisms that cannot prepare their own food
(f) An enzyme secreted from gastric glands in stomach that acts on proteins.
19 How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?.
20 Why do fishes die when taken out of wate
21 What would happen if green plants disappear from earth?
22 Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline. Will this plant remain healthy for long?
Give reasons for your answer.
23 How does aerobic respiration differ from anaerobic respiration?
24 Match the words of Column (A) with that of Column (B)

25 Differentiate between an artery and a vein.

26 Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?
27 What will happen if the gastric glands do not secrete mucus?
28 What is the significance of emulsification of fats?
29 What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?
30 Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small intestine?
31 Match Group (A) with Group (B)

32 Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial organisms?
33 Why is blood circulation in human heart called double circulation?
34 Mention the major events during photosynthesis
35 In each of the following situations what happens to the rate of photosynthesis?
(a) Cloudy days
(b) No rainfall in the area
(c) Good manuring in the area
(d) Stomata get blocked due to dust
36 Match the terms in Column (A) with those in Column (B)

37 Name the correct substrates for the following enzymes

(a) Trypsin
(b) Amylase
(c) Pepsin
(d) Lipase
38 Why do veins have thin walls as compared to arteries?
39 What will happen if platelets were absent in the blood?
40 Why and how does water enter continuously into the root xylem?
41 Why is transpiration important for plants?
42 How do leaves of plants help in excretion?
Long Answer Type Questions
9 Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.
10 Explain the process of breathing in man.
.
11 Draw the diagram of alimentary canal of man and label the following parts.
Mouth, Oesophagus, Stomach, Intestine
And explain their role in digestion of food
12 How do carbohydrates, proteins and fats get digested in human beings?
13 Explain the three pathways of breakdown in living organisms.
14 Describe the flow of blood through the heart of human beings.
15 Describe the process of urine formation in kidneys.

SOCIAL SCIENCE
OBJECTIVE ASSIGNMENT

1. Which option about the Italy is correct?

(1) In 1859, Kingdom of Piedmont and Sardinia gain Lombardy from the Austrian Europe.
(2) Garbaldi conquers Sicily and Naples.
(3) In 1860, Panama, Modena and Tuscany joined it.
(4) All of the above are correct.
2. Mahatma Gandhi’s first experience with mass movement in India was at
(1) Champaran (2) Bardoli (3) ChauriChaura (4) Gujarat
3. The first iron and steel plant of India was established at—
(1) Bokaro (2) Durgapur (3) Bhilai (4) Jamshedpur
4. What do you mean by SHG?
(1) Self Help Groups (2) Service Holder Groups
(3) Self Housing Groups (4) Soul Harassing Groups
5. Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from the options given
below:
A. Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics
B. Wanted members of Congress to ask for PoornaSwaraj for Indians
C. Wanted members of Congress to ask Dominion State for India
D. Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission
6. Which one of the following is an example of Cultivable Wasteland?
A. Gross cropped Area B. Uncultivable Land
C. Barren Wasteland D. Current fallow Land
7. Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary Sector of economy?
A. Fisherman B. Farmer C. Factory worker D. Teacher
8. Arrange the following in the correct sequence –
i. Transporting cloth to the workshops
ii. Sale in shops and showrooms
iii. Spinning the yarn
iv. Weaving of the fabric
Options –
A. i--iv--iii—ii B. iii –iv—i—ii C. iv—i--ii—iii D. iii—iv--ii—i
9. Which of the following book was written by Mahatma Gandhi?
A Kesari B Swaraj C Discovery of India D Hind Swaraj
10. Which religion is adopted by the constitution of SriLanka?
(I) Jainism (2) Buddhism (3) Christianity. (4) Hinduism
 Fill in the blanks
11. The representation of women in Indian Parliament is still low as compared to European countries
because __Lack of legally imposed quotas or reservation policy at central level
12. The Constitution of India provides to all individuals and communities freedom to
profess,practice and propagate any religion because –India is a secular country
13. One of the best ways to reduce over usage of ground water is implementation of stringent policies
to control misuse of water
14. The number of deaths of children less than one year of age per 1000 live births is referred
asdeath rate.
15. The total number of children of age group 6 to14 years attending school as a
percentage of total number of children in the same age group is referred as gross enrollment
ratio.

One statement based questions

16. Who was called as the architect of Germany’s unification?
Ans: Otto von Bismarck
17. Who was proclaimed as king of united Italy in 1861?
Ans: Victor Emmanual II

18. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of Rice:
Rice Annual rain fall Cropping season Temperature
required required for its
growth (in degrees)
100 cm (A) - ? (B) - ?
Ans: (A) Kharif Cropping Season (B) 16*-27*c
19. Being a tropical country, India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy. Suggest
anyone way to popularize its maximum use.
Ans: Aware people about renewable energy resources/use of rooftop solar panels/solar street lighting
system etc.
20. A concerted effort has to be made for sustainable development. Suggest any one step inconserving
our mineral resources for the future.
Ans: Improved technologies/recycling of metals/using scrap metals and other substitutes etc.
21. Who presides over the meeting of the Municipal Corporation?
Ans: The Mayor
22. Which government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects in India?
Ans: Union
Study the picture and answer the question that follows

23. Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of ‘Germania’?
A. Heroism and Justice B. Folk and Cultural Tradition
C. Austerity and Asceticism D. Revenge and Vengeance

24. Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
A. Demand for separate state from Democratic Government
B. Democratic Government is facing territorial issues with the bordering states
C. Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation
D. Democratic Government accepts demands based on separate state
Match the column.

25.

26.

STATEMENT BASED MCQ.

27. Consider the following statements:
(a) Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic regions. -
(b) A large part of Balkans was free from the Ottomon empire.
(c) The dismembering of Ottomonempire with its Balkan states became a scene of big power
rivalry.
(d) Balkan states were jealous of each other.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a),(b)and(c)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b)and(c)
28. Consider the following statements:
(a) Martial law has been imposed in Amritsar to repress the struggle against Rowlatt Act.
(b) All the members of Simon commission were whites.
(c) Only rich people took part in civil disobedience movement.
(d) Muslim did not take part in non-cooperation movement.
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)(3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) and (c)
29. With the reference of capital consider the followingstatements.
(a) •This type of industry has huge investments of capital.
(b) Capital intensive industry require less infrastructure.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
30. Consider the following statements :—
(a) Modern forms of money include currency paper rates and coins.
(b) State bank of India issues currency, notes on behalf of the control government.
(c) No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees
(d) No other organization except SBI is alloyed to issue currency.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(I) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d) (4) None of the above

PASSAGE BASED MCQ

Gremms’ Fairy Tales is a familiar name. The brothers Jacob and Wilhelm Grinum were born in
the German City of Hanau in 1785 and 1786 respectively. While both studied law, they soon
developed an interest in collecting old folktales. They spend six years travelling from village to
village, talking to people and writing down fairy tales. In 1812, they published their first collection
of tales. They also published 33 volume dictionary of the German language. They considered their
projects of collecting folktales and developing the German language as the part of the wider effort
to oppose French domination.
31. Where did Jacob and Gremm born?
(1) Paris (2) Italy (3) Hanau (4) Frankfurt
32. When did Jacob was born?
(1) 1785 (2) 1793 (3) 1787 (4) 1779
33. How many years they travelled from village to village?
(1) 7 years (2) 6 years (3) 5 years (4) 9 years
34. When did they first publish their collections?
(1) 1892 (2) 1811 (3) 1818 (4) 1812
35. What was Jacob and Grimm’s area of interest?
(1) Folktàles (2) Music (3) Fairytales (4) Painting

Mahatma Gandhi contribuied a lot to the national movement. He was regarded as “Father of
Nation.” Gandhi ji started Satyagrah movement from Dandi against the Rowlett Act in 1919. The
Satyagrah was a non-violent movement to fight against British imperialism. He opposed strongly
the British government against the JalliawalaBagh massacre when thousands of people were
killed at Amritsar on the command of General Dyer. He lived among Harijans and uplifted them
through his policies. In 1920 he started Non-cooperation movement. He led the national
movement from 1919 to 1947. He was shot dead on January 30, 1948.
36. Who was called ‘Father of Nation’?
(1) DadabhaiNaroji (2) Sardar Pate!
(3) J. L. Nehru (4) M. K. Gandhi
37. From which place Gandhiji started Satyagrah?
(1) Dandi (2) Porbander (3) Champaran (4) Chaura-Chauri
38. Where did Jalliawala Bag Massacre happen?
(1) Punjab (2) Amritsar (3) Surat (4) Ludhiana /
39. When did Gandhiji start his non co-operation movement?
(1) 1917 (2) 1942 (3) 1920 (4) 1931
40. What kind of people did Gandhiji work for?
(1) Harijans (2) Poor people (3) Rich people (4) Freedom fighters

Megha has taken a loan of Rs. 5 lakhs from the bank to purchase a house, The annual interest
rate on the bank is 12% and the loan is to be repaid in 10 years in monthly installments. Megha
had to submit to the bank, documents showing her employment records and salary before the
bank agreed to give her the loan the bank retained as collateral the papers of the new house,
which will be returned to megha only when she repays the entire loan with interest.
41. What was the loan amount which was taken be Megha?
(1) 5 lakh (2) 2 lakhs (3) llakh (4) 6lakhs
42. What kind of documents are required for the approval of loan?
(1) employment records (2) Salary slips
(3) Both a and (4) None of them

43. What is the period fixd duration for paying the lown?
(1) 15 years (2) 5 years (3) 10 years (4) 1 year
Rita has taken a loan of Rs. 7 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual interest rate
onthe loan is 14.5 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly instalments.The
bank retained the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be returned to Ritaonly when she
repays the entire loan with interest.
44. Analyse the loan information given above, considering one of the following correct option.
a. Mode of re-payment b. Terms of credit
c. Interest on loan d. Deposit criteria

ASSERTION REASON BASED MCQ

DIRECTIONS :Following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion’ and
the ‘other as ‘Reason’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to
these items using the code given below.
Code
(1)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A:
(2) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true.
45. Assertion Italian unification was a result of diplomatic alliances and series of diplomatic moves
and military events.
Reason Romanticism as a cultural movement focused on involving and mystical feelings instead
of reason and science.
(2) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
46. Assertion : In Poona pact in 1932, congress demanded for the Puma Swaraj.
Reason Gandhiji attended the second Round Table Conference in London.
(4) A is false but R is true.
47. Assertion : Industrial revolution brought drastic change in the textile industry.
Reason : Cotton cloth was made by hand spinning of wheel& and handloom before 18th century
(1)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A:
48. Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know
the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
(1)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A:
CORRECT DEFINITION BASED MCQ
49. Which of the following is the correct definition of Conservatism?
(1) A direct vote by which all the people of region are asked.to accept or reject a proposal.
(2) A government that has no restraints on the power exercised.
(3) A political philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established customs and
institutions and preferred gradual development to quick change.
(4) It was a political association who founded a women’s journal.
50. Who were called moderates?
(1) Those members of the Indian National Congress who believed in man action.
(2) Those members of the INC who wanted to achieve Swaraj by force of their own strength.
(3) Those members of the INC who believed in peaceful and constitutional means.
(4) Those members of the INC who believed in doing service under British government
51. Which one of the following is the correct definition of public sector industry.
(1) Which is run and operated by the government and the private sector.
(2) Which is not a capital intensive industry.
(3) Which is run and operated by the government.
(4) Which is managed by a group of people for their mutual benefit.
52. Which of the following statement defines Sustainable Development?
A. Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of the future generation.
B. Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well.
C. It means utilization of natural resources by the past, present and forthcoming future
generation.
D. To meets the needs of the future generations even if the needs of the present generationgo
unmet.
Correct the following statement and rewrite:
53. In Srilanka, an Act was passed in 1956 to recognise Tamil as the only official
language,disregarding Sinhala.
Ans: In Srilanka, an Act was passed in 1956 to recogniseSinhala as the only official language,
disregarding Tamil.
54. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, Italy, Germany and
Luxembourg.
Ans: Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, Netherlands, Germany and
Luxembourg.

FEATURE BASED MCQ

55. On the basis of following features identify the correct option

(I) She was a political activist.
(II) She was an elected member of Frankfurt parliament.
(III) She founded a political association who was feminist in nature.
(IV) She founded a women’s journal.
(1) Otto Peter (2) Carl Weleker (3) Frederic sorrien (4) Guteppe Mazzini
56. On the basis of following features identify the correctoption.
(I) It began in January 1921.
(II) Various social groups participated in this movement.
(III) It had to called of! after the violence between people and police.
(IV) It was headed by Mahatma Gandhi.
(1) JalliawalaBagh Massacre (2) Quit India Movement
(3) Non Co-operation Movement (4) Civil Disobedience Movement
57. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
(I) It can be shared among different organs of government.
(II) It is shared among governments at different levels.
(III) It may also be shared among different social groups.
(IV) It can be influenced by political parties pressure groups or movements.
(1)Decentralisation (2)Majoritarianism (3)Power sharing (4)Federalism
58. On the basis of followingfeatures identify thecorrectoption
(I) It is the decision making body for the entire village.
(II) It works under the overall supervision of gram sabha.
(III) It has to meet twice or thrice in a year to approve the annual budget.
(IV) Its president is called sarpanch.
(1) Zillaparishad (2) Municipal corporation
(3) Panchayat (4) Mandal or Block

59. Consider the following statements on the basis of communalism. Communal politics is based on
the belief that—
(a) Followers of a particular religion constitute one community.
(b) State power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religions group over others.
(c) One religion is superior to that of others.
(d) People belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal citizens.
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) (a,), (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (d) (3) (‘a) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
60. On the basis of following features identify the correct option.
(I) It refers to the phase of 17th to 18th century.
(II) It means existence of industries before the factory system.
(III) It was in vogue in England and Europe.
(IV) It was a part of a network of commercial exchanges.
(1) Proto-urbanisation (2) Capitalism
(3) Proto-industrialisation (4)Industrial Revolution
 Social Science Project Work

Every student has to compulsorily undertake a project on the topic “Consumer Awareness”. The
overall objective of the project work is to help students gain an insight and pragmatic understanding
of the theme and see all the Social Science disciplines from interdisciplinary perspective. It should also
help in enhancing the Life Skills of the students. Students are expected to apply the Social Science
concepts that they have learnt over the years in order to prepare the project report. You are required to
integrate the various forms of art in the project work.
The Project Report should be handwritten by the students themselves.
The distribution of marks over different aspects relating to Project Work is as follows:
S. No. Aspects Marks
2
a. Content accuracy, originality and analysis

b. Presentation and creativity 2

c. Viva Voce
1

NOTE: Prepare the project on project papers and submit the same before 6th November 2019

******************HAPPY DIWALI***************