TEST BANK Final

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 7e (Silverthorn)
Chapter 1 Introduction to Physiology
1) Physiology is the study of

A) the structure of the body.
B) the tissues and organs of the body at the microscopic level.
C) growth and reproduction.
D) the normal functions of the organ systems.
E) the facial features as an indication of personality.
Answer: D
Section Title: The Science of Physiology
Learning Outcome: 1.5
Skill: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge)
2) The literal meaning of the term physiology is knowledge of

A) organs.
B) nature.
C) science.
D) chemistry.
E) math.
Answer: B
3) Because anatomy and physiology have different definitions, they are usually considered
separately in studies of the body.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
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Copyright (c) 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.
4) The following is a list of several levels of organization that make up the human body.
1. tissue
2. cell
3. organ
4. molecule
5. organism
6. organ system
The correct order from the smallest to the largest is
A) 2, 4, 1, 3, 6, 5.
B) 4, 2, 1, 6, 3, 5.
C) 4, 2, 1, 3, 6, 5.
D) 4, 2, 3, 1, 6, 5.
E) 6, 4, 5, 2, 3, 1.
Answer: C
5) "Glucose is transported from blood into cells because cells require glucose to meet their energy
needs." This type of explanation is
A) mechanistic.
B) theological.
C) teleological.
D) metalogical.
E) scatological.
Answer: C
6) "Glucose is transported from blood into cells by transporters in response to insulin." This type
of explanation is
A) mechanistic.
B) theological.
C) teleological.
D) metalogical.
E) scatological.
Answer: A
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7) Which of the following is a buffer zone between the outside world and most of the cells of the
body?
A) blood
B) lumen
C) lymph
D) extracellular fluid
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
Section Title: Homeostasis
Skill: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension)
8) Which of the following is one of Cannon's "internal secretions"?

A) hormones
B) nutrients
C) water
D) inorganic ions
E) None of the answers are correct.
Answer: A
9) The study of body function in a disease state is

A) necrology.
B) physiology.
C) microbiology.
D) pathophysiology.
E) histology.
Answer: D
10) Homeostasis is the ability of the body to

A) prevent the external environment from changing.
B) prevent the internal environment from changing.
C) quickly restore changed conditions to normal.
D) ignore external stimuli to remain in a state of rest.
E) prevent excessive blood loss.
Answer: C
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11) Oxytocin is a hormone that is released in response to cervical dilation. It in turn causes more
uterine contractions that will further dilate the cervix. What type of feedback loop does oxytocin
trigger?
A) negative feedback
B) positive feedback
C) local control
D) nociceptive feedback
Answer: B
Section Title: Homeostasis
12) How genetics influences the body's response to drugs is called

A) pharmacokinetics.
B) pharmacogenetics.
C) pharmacogenomics.
D) pharmacodynamics.
E) pharmageddon.
Answer: C
13) A physician basing clinical decisions on primary research published in biomedical literature is
doing ________ medicine.
A) evidence-based
B) traditional
C) alternative
D) whimsical
E) holistic
Answer: A
14) A study in which a participant acts as an experimental subject in part of the experiment and a
control in another part of the experiment is called what?
A) double-blind study
B) crossover study
C) meta-analysis study
D) retrospective study
Answer: B
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15) The Internet database for molecular, cellular, and physiological information is called the
________ Project.
A) Human Genome
B) Physiognomy
C) Physiosome
D) Physiome
E) Manhattan
Answer: D
16) A placebo is
A) any drug being tested in a clinical trial.
B) any drug in a class of drugs commonly used as pain relievers.
C) a drug or treatment that is expected to have no pharmacological effect.
D) a nutritive and respiratory organ in fetal development.
E) a hole in a cavity wall through which an organ protrudes.
Answer: C
17) A technique used to resolve contradictory results in scientific studies is

A) meta-analysis.
B) retrospective analysis.
C) prospective analysis.
D) cross-sectional analysis.
E) longitudinal analysis.
Answer: A
18) A scientifically logical guess is a

A) model.
B) theory.
C) hypothesis.
D) law.
E) variable.
Answer: C
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19) If a scientific opinion has been verified repeatedly, it becomes a
A) model.
B) theory.
C) hypothesis.
D) law.
E) variable.
Answer: D
20) Place these terms in the typical sequence in which they appear in the scientific process:
experimental data, theory, model, observation, hypothesis, replication.
A) experimental data, theory, model, observation, hypothesis, replication
B) replication, hypothesis, experimental data, theory, model, observation
C) theory, observation, experimental data, hypothesis, replication, model
D) observation, replication, model, experimental data, hypothesis, theory
E) observation, hypothesis, experimental data, replication, model, theory
Answer: E
21) You are interested in learning more about Parkinson's disease, a neurological disorder that
primarily affects motor function. What is the best source to begin your investigation?
A) Google
B) PubMed
C) public library
D) physiology textbook
E) a physician
Answer: B
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Match the level of organization with its definition below.
A. a collection of similar cells that carry out similar functions-tissue

B. the smallest living unit-cell
C. a collection of different tissues that carry out related functions-organs
D. groups of organs functioning in a coordinated manner-organ systems
26) What is a nocebo effect?

Answer: It is the phenomenon whereby a patient who has been informed of the side effects of a
drug he is taking is more likely to experience some of the side effects than an otherwise similar
patient receiving the same drug who has not been so informed.
27) List the key concepts or themes in physiology.

Answer: See Table 1.2 in the chapter.
28) Adaptive significance is an important concept in physiology because it describes

A) the importance of a highly variable external environment.
B) the physiological functions that promote an organism's survival.
C) the ability of an organism to monitor and restore its internal state to normal conditions when
necessary.
D) the similarities between ancient and modern marine organisms.
E) the parameters necessary to maintain a constant internal environment.
Answer: B
Skill: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension)
29) You conduct an experiment on twenty 18-year-old male subjects to see how various intensities
of exercise influence heart rate. Which of the following is/are considered an independent variable?
A) age of subjects
B) sex of subjects
C) intensity of exercise
D) heart rate
E) More than one of the answers is correct.
Answer: C
30) You conduct an experiment on twenty 18-year-old male subjects to see how various intensities
of exercise influence heart rate. Which of the following is/are considered a dependent variable?
A) age of subjects
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B) sex of subjects
C) intensity of exercise
D) heart rate
Answer: D

Chapter 2 Molecular Interactions
1) Stanley Miller set out to demonstrate an explanation for the origins of organic molecules using a
combination of simple organic molecules, heat and periodic burst of electricity through the
mixture, ultimately producing what kind of molecules?
A) carbohydrates
B) amino acids
C) lipids
D) glycoproteins
E) nucleic acids
Answer: B
Section Title: Molecules and Bonds
2) Glycosylated molecules are those formed with which group of organic compounds?
A) lipids
B) nucleic acids
C) proteins
D) carbohydrates
E) lipoproteins
Answer: D
3) Cells regulate their level of activity by regulating the amount of proteins present in the cell at
any given time, so an up regulation of enzymes would be expected to
A) increase the level of productivity of chemical reactions that rely on them.
B) decrease the level of productivity of chemical reactions that rely on them.
C) increase the rate of reactions catalyzed by the enzymes.
D) decrease the rate of reactions catalyzed by the enzymes.
E) both decrease the level of productivity of chemical reactions that rely on them and decrease the
rate of reactions catalyzed by the enzymes.
Answer: A
Section Title: Protein Interactions
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4) When an enzyme reaches its saturation point,
A) the amount of substrate for the enzyme to act upon is very high.
B) the amount of substrate for the enzyme to act upon is very low.
C) the amount of product produced continues to increase.
D) the amount of product produced by the enzyme decreases.
E) the amount of substrate for the enzyme to act upon is very low and the amount of product
produced by the enzyme decreases.
Answer: A
5) Which group of elements makes up more than 90% of the body's mass?
A) O, H, Na
B) C, Na, K
C) O, Ca, H
D) Ca, C, O
E) O, C, H
Answer: E
6) The organic molecules known as phospholipids are key components of cell membranes and
composed of what monomeric units?
A) amino acids
B) nucleotides
C) glycerol
D) fatty acids
E) both glycerol and fatty acids
Answer: E
7) Chromium is
A) a major essential element.
B) a minor essential element.
C) a dietary supplement with no natural role in the body.
D) None of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
Section Title: Running Problem
8) Which of the following is a way to recognize a carbohydrate by looking at its name only?
A) It always ends in -ase.
B) It ends in -ose
C) It begins with nucleo-.
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D) It begins with proteo-.
E) It begins with lipo-.
Answer: B
9) Which of the following is NOT considered an essential element for a living organism?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) mercury
D) oxygen
E) nitrogen
Answer: C
10) The largest carbohydrate molecules are called polysaccharides because they are composed of
________ molecules bonded together with one another.
A) amino acid
B) nucleotide
C) purine
D) pyrimidine
E) sugar
Answer: E
11) Essential amino acids that are used to build proteins

A) exist in twenty six different configurations.
B) are linked together by ionic chemical bonds in proteins.
C) can be used medically for both diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
D) can be derived from the foods we eat and digest.
E) can only be made by cells within our bodies.
Answer: E
12) Which of the following are examples of cations?

A) SO42-
B) Ca2+
C) HPO42-
D) HCO3-
E) Cl-
Answer: B
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13) A positively charged ion is called a(n)

A) electron.
B) proton.
C) neutron.
D) cation.
E) anion.
Answer: D
14) The most important polar molecule is ________ because it is practically a universal solvent.
A) water
B) bicarbonate
C) sodium chloride
D) magnesium sulfate
E) nucleic acid
Answer: A
15) A molecule referred to as highly soluble is

A) very likely to dissolve in water.
B) not very likely to dissolve in water.
C) called aqueous.
D) very likely to dissolve in water and is called aqueous.
E) not very likely to dissolve in water and is called aqueous.
Answer: D
Section Title: Noncovalent Interactions
16) A free radical is a

A) charged particle.
B) molecule with an extra electron.
C) molecule with an extra neutron.
D) molecule with an extra proton.
E) molecule with an unpaired electron.
Answer: E
17) The chemical bonding behavior of an atom is directly determined by

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A) the number of protons.
B) the number of neutrons.
C) the number and arrangement of electrons.
D) the size of the atom.
E) the mass of the atom.
Answer: C
18) Atoms in a covalent molecule

A) share electrons in single pairs.
B) share electrons in double pairs.
C) share electrons in triple pairs.
D) share electrons singly, never in pairs.
E) can share electrons in single pairs, double pairs, or triple pairs.
Answer: E
19) The weak interactions between atoms that keep atoms near each other but don't tightly bind
them together are called
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) van der Waals forces.
C) ionic bonds.
D) hydrogen bonds and van der Waals forces.
E) van der Waals forces and ionic bonds.
Answer: D
20) All of these statements about carbohydrates are true except one. Identify the exception.
A) Simple sugars include lactose, glucose, and ribose.
B) Cellulose is the most abundant carbohydrate on earth.
C) Glycogen is a storage polysaccharide made by animal cells.
D) Polysaccharides are important both for energy storage and to provide structure to cells.
E) Glycogen is important both for energy storage and to provide structure for cells.
Answer: E
21) In regard to lipids, the term unsaturated refers to

A) the lack of double bonds between adjacent carbon atoms in a fatty acid.
B) the presence of double bonds between adjacent carbon atoms in a fatty acid.
C) the ring structure of steroids.
D) glycerol, which acts as an anchor for joined fatty acids.
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E) fats, such as butter and lard, which come from animal sources.
Answer: B
22) Each amino acid differs from others in the

A) number of central carbon atoms.
B) size of the amino group.
C) number of carboxyl groups.
D) chemical structure of the R group.
E) number of peptide bonds in the molecule.
Answer: D
23) The alpha-helix and pleated sheet are examples of the ________ structure of a protein.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) pentanary
Answer: B
24) Interactions between different globular or fibrous polypeptide chains result in which type of
structure?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) pentagonal
Answer: D
25) The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of

A) solvent per volume of solute.
B) solute per volume of solvent.
C) solvent per volume of solution.
D) solute per volume of solution.
Answer: D
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26) Nucleic acids are polymers of units called

A) amino acids.
B) fatty acids.
C) bases.
D) ribose.
E) nucleotides.
Answer: E
27) A nucleotide consists of a

A) five-carbon sugar and phosphate group.
B) five-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base.
C) phosphate group and a nitrogenous base.
D) five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group.
E) five-carbon sugar and an amino acid.
Answer: D
28) According to the rules of complementary base pairing, a nucleotide containing the base
cytosine would only pair with a nucleotide containing the base
A) thymine.
B) adenine.
C) uracil.
D) cytosine.
E) guanine.
Answer: E
29) The most important energy-transferring compound in cells is a nucleotide known as

A) glucose.
B) fructose.
C) protein.
D) adenosine triphosphate.
E) deoxyribonucleic acid.
Answer: D
30) Which bases below are purines?

1. adenine
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2. cytosine
3. guanine
4. thymine
5. uracil
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 3, and 5
D) 1 and 3
E) 2, 4, and 5
Answer: D
31) Polymers are a typical formation of ________ molecules.

A) organic
B) inorganic
C) either organic or inorganic
Answer: A
2) Cholesterol is
A) a precursor to steroid hormones.
B) a structural component of cell membranes.
C) a dangerous fat that is absent from a healthy body.
D) a precursor to steroid hormones and a structural component of cell membranes.
E) a precursor to steroid hormones, a structural component of cell membranes, and a dangerous
fat that is absent from a healthy body.
Answer: D
33) A component of an important buffer in the human body is

A) NaCl.
B) H+.
C) HCl.
D) HCO3-.
E) H2O.
Answer: D
34) Which of the following substances is most alkaline?

A) lemon juice, pH = 2
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B) urine, pH = 6
C) tomato juice, pH = 4
D) white wine, pH = 3
E) stomach secretions, pH = 1
Answer: B
35) If a substance has a pH that is less than 7, it is considered

A) neutral.
B) acidic.
C) alkaline.
D) a buffer.
E) a salt.
Answer: B
36) Protein specificity is

A) the activation of a specific protein that is needed to perform a particular function.
B) the degree to which a protein is attracted to a ligand.
C) the ability of a protein to bind a certain ligand or a group of related ligands.
D) the degree to which a protein-ligand complex initiates a response.
E) the degree to which a protein is attracted to a ligand and the ability of a protein to bind a
certain ligand or a group of related ligands.
Answer: C
37) Which of the following is a common feature of soluble proteins?

A) structural support
B) noncovalent interaction
C) receptor binding
D) chemical modulation
Answer: B
Match the correct subatomic particle with the statement about it. Answers may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
A. proton(s)
B. neutron(s)
C. electron(s)
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38) An ion has gained or lost ________.
Answer: C
39) Isotopes of the same element differ by having different numbers of ________.
Answer: B
40) The identity of an element can be determined by the number of ________.

Answer: A
41) This particle has a charge of +1 and a mass of 1.

Answer: A
42) This particle has a charge of -1 and a negligible mass.

Answer: C
43) This particle has a neutral charge and a mass of 1.

Answer: B
Match each bond type with its description.
A. van der Waals

B. ionic
C. hydrogen
D. covalent
53) This results when an atom has such a strong attraction for electrons that it pulls one or more
electrons completely away from another atom.
Answer: B
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54) These are weak attractive forces between hydrogen and certain other atoms.
Answer: C
55) These result when two atoms share a pair of electrons.

Answer: D
56) These are weak attractive forces between the nucleus of one atom and the electrons of another
atom close by.
Answer: A
Match each class of biomolecules to the correct statement about it.
A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. proteins
D. nucleotides
57) Glucose and ribose are examples; these molecules provide energy or structure.
Answer: A
58) ATP and DNA are examples; they transfer energy and encode genetic information.
Answer: D
59) Composed of units called amino acids, these can be linked into chains over 100 peptides long.
Answer: C
60) Triglycerides and steroids are members of this group. As a class they are hydrophobic.
Answer: B
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Match each level of protein structure with its description.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
61) applies to proteins containing more than one peptide chain

Answer: D
62) the sequence and number of amino acids in the chain

Answer: A
63) the three-dimensional shape of an amino acid chain; can be fibrous or globular
Answer: C
64) the spatial arrangement of amino acids; can be a helix or a pleated sheet
Answer: B
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Match the descriptions to the correct protein category.
A. fibrous
B. globular
65) soluble in water

Answer: B
66) keratin
Answer: A
67) disulfide bond

Answer: B
68) lipid carriers

Answer: B
69) structural components

Answer: A
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For the following questions, match the type of modulator with the best description below.
A. involved in phosphorylation
B. cannot be displaced by competition
C. bind to proteins away from the active site
D. reversible antagonist
70) irreversible antagonist

Answer: B
71) covalent modulator

Answer: A
72) competitive inhibitor

Answer: D
73) allosteric modulator

Answer: C
93) List the following in order of increasing mass: atom, molecule, proton, neutron, electron.
Answer: electron < proton = neutron < atom < molecule
95) List and briefly describe the seven categories of soluble proteins.
Answer: The seven categories: enzymes, membrane transporters, signal molecules, receptors,
binding proteins, regulatory proteins, and immunoglobulins. See the "Protein Interactions"
section of the chapter.
96) Which of the following elements combine to form nonpolar covalent bonds?
A) carbon and hydrogen
B) nitrogen and hydrogen
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C) sodium and chlorine
D) hydrogen and oxygen
E) carbon and chlorine
Answer: A
97) The designation Ca2+ means

A) calcium has space for two more electrons.
B) calcium has gained two more electrons.
C) calcium has space for two more protons.
D) calcium has gained two more protons.
Answer: A
98) In a 5% NaCl solution,

A) this means there are 5 grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of water.
B) this means there are 5 grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of total solution.
C) the solute is water.
D) this means there are 5 grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of water and there are 5
grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of total solution.
E) this means there are 5 grams of sodium chloride for every 100 mL of total solution and the
solute is water.
Answer: B
100) A double covalent bond is formed when atoms

A) share one pair of electrons (a total of two).
B) share two pairs of electrons (a total of four).
C) swap two pairs of electrons.
D) transfer a pair of electrons from one atom to the other.
E) transfer two pairs of electrons from one atom to the other.
Answer: B
101) The term polar is used to describe molecules because

A) polar covalent molecules are found in colder climates.
B) polar covalent molecules were first discovered in polar bears.
C) there are at least two distinct ends of the molecule regarding electron position and the resulting
charge.
D) there are at least two distinct ends of the molecule regarding hydrogen placement.
E) such molecules are always linear in shape.
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Answer: C
102) What makes vegetable oils with trans fats similar in structure to saturated animal fats?
Which type of fat is harmful, and in what way?
Answer: Trans fats have hydrogen atoms attached to make them more saturated and solid at
room temperature, like animal fats. Both vegetable trans fats and saturated animal fats are
associated with cardiovascular disease.
Skill: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application)
103) Lipids are hydrophobic, and do not usually dissolve in water. Because blood is water-based,
the lipid cholesterol is combined with ________ so that it can be transported by blood.
A) a hydrophilic molecule
B) a hydrophobic molecule
C) nothing; cholesterol is not transported in blood
D) a cation
E) an anion
Answer: A
104) Only free H+ contributes to the hydrogen ion concentration.

A) True
B) False
Answer: A
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105) In the equation CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-, which of these is an acid?
A) HCO3-
B) H2CO3
C) H2O
D) CO2
E) H+
Answer: B
106) Chemical reactions that occur in the human body proceed at a faster rate due to special
catalytic molecules called
A) enzymes.
B) cytozymes.
C) cofactors.
D) activators.
Answer: A
107) The fuel molecule all cells in the body can use is
A) sucrose.
B) starch.
C) protein.
D) vitamins.
E) glucose.
Answer: E
108) A fatty acid that contains three double bonds in its carbon chain is said to be
A) saturated.
B) monounsaturated.
C) polyunsaturated.
D) hydrogenated.
E) carboxylated.
Answer: C
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109) Most of the fat found in the human body is in the form of
A) steroids.
B) phospholipids.
C) triglycerides.
D) prostaglandins.
E) monoglycerides.
Answer: C
110) Each of the following is a function of proteins except one. Identify the exception.
A) support and structure
B) transport
C) catalyst
D) storage of genetic information
E) carrying of messages
Answer: D
111) If a polypeptide contains 10 peptide bonds, how many amino acids does it contain?
A) 0
B) 5
C) 10
D) 11
E) 12
Answer: D
112) Glycoprotein molecules

A) act as receptors on the surface of cell membranes.
B) function as cell markers.
C) are present in the secretions coating the respiratory tract.
D) function as hormones from the pancreas.
E) act as receptors on the surface of cell membranes and function as cell markers.
Answer: E
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Chapter 3 Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
1) When cancer develops in one tissue and spreads to another via the blood or the lymph, the
cancer is said to have undergone what process?
A) differentiation
B) metastasis
C) cytokinesis
D) mutation
Answer: B
Section Title: Functional Compartments of the Body
2) The space that is surrounded by the tissue wall of hollow organs is known as
A) the peritoneal cavity.
B) the lumen.
C) the extracellular space.
D) the epidural space.
E) the tract.
Answer: B
3) The lumen of a hollow organ such as the stomach is considered to be part of the ________
environment.
A) internal
B) external
Answer: B
4) The watery medium that surrounds a cell is known as

A) cytosol.
B) protoplasm.
C) extracellular fluid.
D) cytoplasm.
E) plasma.
Answer: C
5) Which of the following terms is NOT used to define the structure that separates the contents of
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a human cell from its surrounding medium?
A) a cell wall
B) a cell membrane
C) plasma membrane
D) plasmalemma
Answer: A
Section Title: Biological Membranes
6) Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins?

A) bind to ligands
B) regulate the passage of ions
C) act as transport molecules for various solutes
D) anchor or stabilize the cell membrane
E) produce energy
Answer: E
7) Cell membranes are said to be

A) impermeable.
B) freely permeable.
C) selectively permeable.
D) actively permeable.
Answer: C
8) What is/are the major role(s) of the phospholipid bilayer?

A) the absorption of fats only
B) the formation of a barrier that is selectively permeable to lipid-soluble molecules only
C) to provide a framework for membrane proteins only
D) to carry water-soluble molecules through a hydrophobic environment only
E) the formation of a barrier that is selectively permeable to lipid-soluble molecules and to
provide a framework for membrane proteins
Answer: E
Skill: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application)
9) Which of the following is NOT a membrane lipid?

A) sphingolipids
B) cholesterol
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C) phospholipids
D) All are membrane lipids.
Answer: D
10) Which cellular organelle is a lipid bilayer that controls which objects can leave or enter the
cell?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) Golgi apparatus
C) nucleus
D) plasma membrane
E) ribosome
Answer: D
11) A liposome is
A) only an additive to creams and lotions.
B) only a drug-delivery vehicle.
C) only a type of lipid.
D) only a structural component of cell membranes.
E) an additive to creams and lotions and a drug-delivery vehicle.
Answer: E
Section Title: Intracellular Compartments
12) An immunoliposome is a liposome that

A) suppresses the immune system.
B) stimulates the immune system.
C) can recognize cancer cells.
Answer: C
13) Intermediate filaments

A) provide the cell with strength.
B) stabilize the position of organelles.
C) transport materials within the cytoplasm.
D) form the neurofilaments in nerve cells.
Answer: E
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14) The cellular organelle(s) responsible for packaging and transporting proteins is/are the
A) microtubules.
B) mitochondria.
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum.
D) ribosomes.
E) Golgi complex.
Answer: E
15) Each of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle except one. Identify the
exception.
A) lysosome
B) cilia
C) centriole
D) ribosome
E) cytoskeleton
Answer: A
16) The thickest protein fibers from the following group are
A) microtubules.
B) neurofilaments.
C) microfilaments.
D) myosin molecules.
E) keratin filaments.
Answer: A
17) Ribosomal RNA is formed by

A) the endoplasmic reticulum.
B) Golgi complexes.
C) lysosomes.
D) mitochondria.
E) nucleoli.
Answer: E
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18) Each of the following statements concerning mitochondria is TRUE except one. Identify the
exception.
A) The mitochondrial cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle.
B) The matrix of the mitochondria contains metabolic enzymes involved in energy production.
C) Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae.
D) The mitochondria contain no DNA or RNA.
E) The mitochondria produce most of a cell's ATP.
Answer: D
19) In humans, only ________ cells have flagella.

A) respiratory tract lining
B) intestine lining
C) stomach lining
D) sperm
E) uterine tube lining
Answer: D
20) Tay-Sachs is a disease caused by having ineffective

A) mitochondria.
B) Golgi bodies.
C) lysosomes.
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum.
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: C
21) Microvilli are found

A) mostly in muscle cells.
B) on the inside of cell membranes.
C) in large numbers on cells that secrete hormones.
D) in cells that are actively engaged in absorption.
E) only on cells lining the reproductive tract.
Answer: D
22) Microtubules
A) are composed of tubulin.
B) are hollow, filamentous structures.
30
C) form cilia that aid in cell movement.
D) are the largest cytoplasmic fibers.
Answer: E
23) Centrioles
A) function as pipelines to move fluid through the cell.
B) direct the movement of DNA during cell division.
C) hold the cell's ribosomes in place.
D) are white blood cells out of vessels.
E) provide shape and stability to a cell.
Answer: B
24) Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the
A) ribosomes.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) nucleus.
D) mitochondria.
E) Golgi apparatus.
Answer: D
25) Which does NOT accurately complete the sentence? One of the major functions of both types
of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the
A) synthesis of biomolecules.
B) storage of genetic material for the cell.
C) transport of biomolecules.
D) storage of biomolecules.
Answer: B
26) All of the following are synthesized along various sites of the endoplasmic reticulum except
one. Identify the exception.
A) proteins
B) fatty acids
C) steroids
D) RNA
E) phospholipids
31
Answer: D
27) Which of the following is NOT a molecule synthesized in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(SER)?
A) fatty acids
B) steroids
C) proteins
D) lipids
E) All are synthesized in the SER.
Answer: C
28) Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached
ribosomes?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) mitochondria
D) nucleoli
E) Golgi apparatus
Answer: A
29) All of the structures listed below are involved in storage, EXCEPT
A) lysosomes.
B) peroxisomes.
C) secretory vesicles.
D) storage vesicles.
E) All are involved in cellular storage.
Answer: E
30) The proteins synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum are then sent to
A) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum for storage.
B) the Golgi complex for packaging.
C) the lysosome for modification.
D) the cell membrane for secretion.
E) the nucleus for cellular use.
Answer: B
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31) If a cell lacked lysosomes, it would not be able to

A) synthesize lipids.
B) produce enzymes.
C) digest cellular wastes and bacteria.
D) destroy H2O2.
E) transport water-soluble molecules.
Answer: C
32) Which substance is responsible for activating the digestive enzymes inside lysosomes?
A) air
B) water
C) acid
D) enzymes
E) base
Answer: C
33) Peroxisomes
A) use an enzyme to destroy H2O2 that is toxic to the cell.
B) are a type of lysosome.
C) are responsible for the atrophy of unused muscles.
D) are sites for synthesis of fatty acids, steroids, and phospholipids.
E) All of the answers accurately describe peroxisomes.
Answer: A
34) The number of mitochondria in skeletal muscle cells is ________ adipose (fat) cells.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
Answer: A
35) The control center for cellular operations is the

A) nucleus.
B) mitochondria.
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C) Golgi complex.
D) endoplasmic reticulum.
E) ribosomes.
Answer: A
36) The beta cells of the pancreas produce insulin, a protein-based hormone. Which of the
following organelles would be found in higher levels in the beta cells?
A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) microvilli
D) lysosomes
Answer: B
37) If the adrenal cortex produces lipid based hormones such as aldosterone, which organelle
would be higher in cells of the adrenal cortex than in the adrenal medulla?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) mitochondria
C) ribosome
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
38) The nucleus stores all the information needed to synthesize which of the following molecules?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) phospholipids
Answer: E
39) The term secretion refers to

A) the process by which a cell releases a substance into the extracellular space for a particular use.
B) synthesis of a protein for export from the cell.
C) the manufacture and assembly of a material.
D) storage of a material, until it is time for it to leave the cell.
E) None of the answers describe secretion.
Answer: A
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40) Which cellular organelle is considered the powerhouse of the cell?

A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) Golgi apparatus
C) mitochondria
D) nucleus
E) ribosome
Answer: C
41) Arrange the following events in protein secretion in the proper sequence.
1. The polypeptide chain enters the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum.

2. A secretory vesicle is formed.
3. A transport vesicle is formed.
4. The polypeptide chain enters the lumen of the Golgi complex.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4, 2
D) 4, 3, 1, 2
E) 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: A
42) Movement of material between cells is known as the ________ pathway.

A) transcellular
B) paracellular
C) metacellular
D) transendothelial
E) cisendothelial
Answer: B
Section Title: Tissues of the Body
43) All but one of the structures listed below are a type of cell junction. Identify the exception.
A) desmosomes
B) tight junctions
C) gap junctions
D) loose junctions
E) adherens junctions
35
Answer: D
44) The esophagus is a tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach. It does not secrete
any enzymes or absorb any nutrients, but it does need to stand up to significant friction and stress.
The type of epithelium most likely lining the esophagus would be:
A) cuboidal epithelium.
B) simple squamous epithelium.
C) simple columnar epithelium.
D) stratified squamous epithelium.
E) transitional epithelium.
Answer: D
45) The type of protein found in gap junctions is the

A) claudin.
B) occludin.
C) cadherin.
D) connexin.
E) integrin.
Answer: D
46) Disappearance of which type of junction most likely contributes to the metastasis of cancer
cells throughout the body?
A) gap
B) tight
C) anchoring
Answer: C
47) The types of junction proteins important in growth and development are
A) claudins.
B) occludins.
C) CAMs.
D) connexins.
E) integrins.
Answer: C
36
48) Each of the following is a primary tissue type except one. Identify the exception.
A) muscle tissue
B) neural tissue
C) osseous tissue
D) connective tissue
E) epithelial tissue
Answer: C
49) Functions of epithelia include all of the following EXCEPT

A) providing physical protection.
B) controlling permeability.
C) producing specialized secretions.
D) storing energy reserves.
E) movement.
Answer: D
50) Epithelial cells that are adapted for membrane transport of materials, such as ions and
nutrients, usually have ________ on their apical surface.
A) mitochondria
B) cilia or flagella
C) microvilli
D) junctional complexes
E) vesicles
Answer: C
51) Epithelia are connected to underlying connective tissues by

A) a basement membrane only.
B) protein filaments embedded in glycoprotein only.
C) a basal lamina only.
D) a basement membrane and protein filaments embedded in glycoprotein only.
E) a basement membrane, protein filaments embedded in glycoprotein, and a basal lamina.
Answer: E
52) Glands that secrete hormones into the blood via tissue fluids are
37
A) endocrine glands.
B) mixed glands.
C) exocrine glands.
D) unicellular glands.
Answer: A
53) Exocrine glands

A) may make either mucous or serous secretions.
B) release their secretions into the external environment.
C) release their secretions through open tubes, called ducts.
D) may work as single cells or as a multicellular organ.
E) All of the statements are true.
Answer: E
54) Every substance that enters or leaves the internal environment of the body must cross an
epithelium.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
55) Due to the fact that they divide frequently, epithelia are prone to the genetic mutations
associated with cancer.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
56) The function of microvilli, often seen on the apical membrane of transporting epithelia, is to
A) increase the movement of extracellular fluid.
B) increase the resistance of the cell to viruses.
C) increase the cell's surface area.
D) increase the toughness of the cell.
E) allow the cell to move through a fluid medium.
Answer: C
38
57) The simple squamous epithelial lining of blood vessels is called

A) basolateral epithelium.
B) endothelium.
C) luteal cells.
D) the vasa recta.
Answer: B
58) Which type of tissue below has minimal extracellular matrix?

A) epithelial only
B) connective only
C) neural only
D) muscle only
E) epithelial, neural, and muscle
Answer: E
59) Functions of connective tissue include

A) establishing a structural framework for the body.
B) transporting fluids and dissolved materials.
C) providing protection for delicate organs.
D) storing energy reserves.
Answer: E
60) Cells that store fat are called

A) fibroblasts.
B) liposomes.
C) adipocytes.
D) mast cells.
E) melanocytes.
Answer: C
61) Loose connective tissue functions in

A) supporting small glands.
39
B) supporting epithelia.
C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
62) Plasma is
A) found within the circulatory system.
B) the fluid portion of blood.
C) a subdivision of the ECF.
D) sometimes donated instead of blood.
Answer: E
63) The term meaning programmed cell death is

A) necrosis.
B) apoptosis.
C) oncogenesis.
D) diuresis.
E) cytocide.
Answer: B
Section Title: Tissue Remodeling
64) The term meaning a mitotic population of cells that persists into adulthood applies to
A) stem cells.
B) totipotent cells.
C) apoptosis.
D) nurse cells.
E) gametocytes.
Answer: A
65) Groups of tissues that carry out related functions may form structures known as
A) cells.
B) organs.
C) organelles.
D) organisms.
E) impossible to tell from the information given
Answer: B
40
Section Title: Organs
66) The heaviest organ in the body is the

A) liver.
B) brain.
C) skin.
D) stomach.
E) urinary bladder.
Answer: C
Section Title: Organs
Match the organelle with its function.
A. endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. lysosomes
D. mitochondria
E. peroxisomes
67) The "powerhouse" of the cell, ATP is produced here.

Answer: D
68) These degrade long chain fatty acids and toxic foreign molecules.
Answer: E
69) It is the digestive system of a cell, degrading and/or recycling bacterial or organic components.
Answer: C
70) It modifies proteins and packages them into secretory vesicles for export from the cell.
Answer: B
Match the type of cell junction with the best description. Answers may be used once, more than once,
or not at all
41
A. gap junction
B. tight junction
C. anchoring junction
71) simplest cell-cell junction

Answer: A
72) contributes to the blood-brain barrier

Answer: B
73) can be cell-matrix junctions

Answer: C
74) their loss is characteristic of cancer

Answer: C
Match the cell type to its tissue or function.
A. cartilage
B. destroys bone matrix
C. loose connective tissue
D. fat
E. maintains bone matrix
75) adipocyte
Answer: D
76) fibroblast
Answer: C
42
77) chondrocyte
Answer: A
78) osteocyte
Answer: E
79) osteoclast
Answer: B
104) If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to

A) maintain its balance.
B) synthesize proteins.
C) produce DNA.
D) metabolize sugars.
E) undergo nuclear division.
Answer: E
105) Which of the following cytoskeleton components are responsible for the movement of
chromosomes during cell division?
A) microfilaments
B) intermediate filaments
C) thick filaments
D) microtubules
Answer: D
Skill: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge)
106) A flagellum moves a cell through a fluid medium. What moves the fluid medium across the
surface of cells that are not free to move?
A) centrioles
B) thick filaments
C) cilia
43
D) ribosomes
E) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C
107) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding mitochondria?

A) The outer mitochondrial membrane is responsible for its shape.
B) The intermembrane space is used in the production of ATP.
C) Mitochondria contain their own DNA and RNA.
D) Mitochondria can replicate themselves only when directed by the cell's nuclear DNA.
E) Mitochondria are responsible for providing energy to the cell.
Answer: D
108) Plasma is to blood as ________ is to cytoplasm.

A) inclusion
B) organelle
C) protein
D) cytosol
E) serum
Answer: D
Skill: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis)
109) Examination of a sample of glandular cells reveals an extensive network of smooth

endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following would be a likely product of these cells?
A) digestive enzymes
B) steroid hormones
C) protein (peptide) hormones
D) transport proteins
E) antibodies
Answer: B
110) In a pancreatic cell producing digestive enzyme, you would expect to find an elaborate
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum.
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: A
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111) Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to
A) blood.
B) epithelium.
C) fat.
D) bone.
E) neural tissue.
Answer: D
112) The tissue(s) that is/are considered excitable because of the ability to generate electrical
signals is/are called
A) muscle tissue.
B) neural tissue.
C) epithelial tissue.
D) muscle tissue and neural tissue.
E) muscle tissue, neural tissue, and epithelial tissue.
Answer: D
113) You are looking at a slide of an unknown organ that has an empty lumen with stratified
squamous epithelium contacting the lumen. Deep to the epithelium is a basement membrane and
then two layers of smooth muscle. Which of the following organs would this most likely belong to
and why?
A) The intestines because they need to move food along and absorb digested products.
B) The liver because it secretes enzymes and bile and needs to move them to the gallbladder.
C) The esophagus because it is a passageway that needs to move but not absorb food products.
D) The urinary bladder because it needs to stretch and constrict to store and eliminate urine.
Answer: C
114) A layer of glycoproteins and a network of fine protein filaments that prevents the movement
of proteins and other large molecules from the connective tissue to epithelium describes
A) interfacial canals.
B) the basal lamina.
C) the reticular lamina.
D) areolar tissue.
E) endothelium.
Answer: B
45
115) The distinguishing characteristic of connective tissue is
A) that it is arranged in sheets of tissue that lie on body surfaces.
B) always dividing, constantly being replaced throughout the body.
C) the presence of extensive extracellular matrix containing widely scattered cells.
D) the collagen fibers that offer support.
E) All of these characteristics help make connective tissue unique.
Answer: C
116) Which type of connective tissue does NOT fit with the typical characteristic regarding
relative cell density?
A) cartilage
B) bone
C) adipose
D) blood
E) dense
Answer: C
117) Close examination of an organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not
contain any blood vessels, and one surface of the cells faces the internal cavity of the organ. This
tissue is probably
A) epithelium.
B) muscle tissue.
C) connective tissue.
D) neural tissue.
E) fat tissue.
Answer: A
118) Increasing muscle mass and decreasing fat content in your body can increase resting
metabolism. Why is this?
A) because doing so requires exercise and exercising burns calories
B) because muscle cells have more mitochondria than fat cells, allowing for more energy to be
made from sugar
C) because adipocytes contain more cytoplasmic inclusions which slow down metabolism
D) because fat cells have no blood supply and cannot carry nutrients to be metabolized
Answer: B
46
119) Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals an open framework of fibers with a large volume
of fluid ground substance and elastic fibers. This tissue would most likely have come from the
A) inner wall of a blood vessel.
B) lungs.
C) spleen.
D) tissue that separates skin from underlying muscle.
E) bony socket of the eye.
Answer: D
120) Mature nerve and muscle cells are expected to lack which organelle(s)?
A) nucleus
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) centrioles
D) ribosomes
E) Golgi bodies
Answer: C
121) Neurons in the CNS of the adult don't contain centrioles. What does that tell you about CNS
neurons?
A) They don't produce any products.
B) It doesn't tell you much of anything.
C) They don't replicate themselves.
D) They don't carry nerve impulses.
Answer: C
122) Only totipotent stem cells are capable of producing new cells in an adult.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
For each question, select the corresponding category:
A. membranous organelle
B. inclusion
123) lysosome
47
Answer: A
124) mitochondrion
Answer: A
125) ribosome
Answer: B
126) cilium
Answer: B
127) endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: A
The five functional types of epithelia are listed below. Match each type with its location and/or
description.
A. exchange
B. transport
C. ciliated
D. protective
E. secretory
128) Found in the epidermis, esophagus, and mouth, these stacked layers of cells prevent
exchange, while they resist chemicals, bacteria, and other destructive forces.
Answer: D
129) This tissue actively and selectively regulates the exchange of nongaseous material, such as
ions and nutrients, and can be regulated in response to various stimuli.
Answer: B
48
130) These thin, flattened cells allow the rapid passage of O2 and CO2 through the cells of the
lungs and of certain blood vessels.
Answer: A
131) These cells produce a substance and release it, either onto a surface or directly into the blood.
Answer: E
132) This tissue is composed of cells with membrane extensions that beat in a coordinated fashion
to move fluid and particles across the tissue.
Answer: C

Chapter 5 Membrane Dynamics
1) Which body fluid compartment contains high levels of K+, large anions, and proteins?
A) plasma only
B) interstitial fluid only
C) intracellular fluid only
D) both plasma and intracellular fluid
E) both plasma and interstitial fluid
Answer: C
Section Title: Osmosis and Tonicity
2) Which body fluid compartment contains higher levels of Na+, Cl-, and HCO3-?
A) plasma only
B) interstitial fluid only
C) intracellular fluid only
D) both plasma and intracellular fluid
E) both plasma and interstitial fluid
Answer: E
49
3) All of the following are types of mediated transport except one. Identify the exception.
A) facilitated diffusion
B) primary active transport
C) simple diffusion
D) secondary active transport
Answer: C
Section Title: Transport Processes
4) Bulk flow is fluid flow as a result of a(n) ________ gradient.

A) concentration
B) electrical
C) pressure
D) Two of the answers are correct.
Answer: C
5) Water is a polar molecule, yet it easily moves through the nonpolar portions of cell membranes.
Which transport process is responsible?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) simple diffusion
C) uniport
D) symport
E) antiport
Answer: B
Section Title: Diffusion
6) Permeability is a property of
A) membranes.
B) ions.
C) solutes.
D) solvents.
E) proteins.
Answer: A
7) The term cellular (metabolic) energy indicates any biological process requiring
A) energy in any form.
50
B) ATP.
C) thermal energy.
D) chemical energy.
E) thermal energy and chemical energy.
Answer: B
8) What are the two extracellular fluid compartments in the body?

A) intracellular and plasma
B) plasma and interstitial
C) interstitial and intracellular
D) plasma and the fluid portion of the blood
Answer: B
9) Saturation occurs when

A) molecules are moved by the use of vesicles.
B) the energy required to move molecules results from a high-energy bond.
C) a group of carrier proteins is operating at its maximum rate.
D) a preference of a carrier protein for a substance is demonstrated based on the differing
affinities of the carrier for the substrates.
E) a carrier molecule has the ability to transport only one molecule or a group of closely related
molecules.
Answer: C
10) The means by which a cell transports large molecules out of the cell is called
A) phagocytosis.
B) endocytosis.
C) exocytosis.
D) diffusion.
E) active transport.
Answer: C
11) Which of the following is a way for solutes in an aqueous solution to move from an area of
high solute concentration to an area of low solute concentration?
A) only facilitated diffusion
B) only osmosis
C) only active transport
51
D) both facilitated diffusion and osmosis
Answer: A
12) In an epithelium, the apical membrane is also known as the ________ membrane.
A) basolateral
B) mucosal
C) serosal
D) basement
E) nictitating
Answer: B
Section Title: Epithelial Transport
13) Hyposmotic solutions

A) have higher concentrations of solutes than hyperosmotic solutions.
B) have lower concentrations of solutes than other hyposmotic solutions.
C) have the same concentration of solutes as hyperosmotic solutions.
D) have lower concentrations of solutes than hyperosmotic solutions.
Answer: D
14) Which of the following statements about the Na+/K+ pump is FALSE?
A) It transports Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell.
B) It is present in neurons.
C) Its activity requires the expenditure of metabolic (cellular) energy.
D) It transports Na+ and K+ in a 1:1 ratio.
Answer: D
15) Which of the following statements about the resting membrane potential is TRUE?
A) It is normally equal to zero volts.
B) The inside of the membrane is positively charged compared to the outside.
C) It results, in part, from the concentration gradients for Na+ and K+.
D) It is due in part to the presence of extracellular proteins.
Answer: C
Section Title: The Resting Membrane Potential
52
16) Voltage-gated (voltage-dependent) channels and antiport carriers are both types of
A) structural proteins.
B) enzymes.
C) transporters.
D) receptors.
Answer: C
17) The resting membrane potential in a typical nerve cell is approximately

A) +70 mV.
B) -70 mV.
C) +35 mV.
D) -35 mV.
E) 0 mV.
Answer: B
18) Compared to the outside surface, the inside of a resting cell membrane is
A) positively charged.
B) negatively charged.
C) electrically neutral.
D) continuously reversing its electrical charge.
E) positively charged whenever the sodium-potassium pump is active.
Answer: B
19) Caveolae and clathrin-coated pits are both used in

A) endocytosis.
B) exocytosis.
C) phagocytosis.
Answer: A
Section Title: Vesicular Transport
20) As the charge on the membrane of a typical neuron approaches 0 from -70 mV, the cell is
A) only repolarizing.
B) only hyperpolarizing.
C) only depolarizing.
D) only becoming more difficult to stimulate.
E) hyperpolarizing and becoming more difficult to stimulate
53
Answer: C
54
21) The ion that plays a key role in initiating electrical signals in neurons is
A) K+.
B) Na+.
C) Cl-.
D) Ca2+.
Answer: B
22) Which of the following is NOT involved in creating the resting potential of a neuron?
A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell
B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell
C) resting membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions
D) resting membrane permeability for potassium ions greater than sodium ions
Answer: C
23) Passive transport refers to a process that requires

A) no energy at all.
B) no cellular energy.
C) no pressure gradient.
D) no concentration gradient.
E) no electrical gradient.
Answer: B
24) Which of the following is NOT true of diffusion in the human body?
A) Diffusion occurs faster at higher temperatures.
B) Smaller molecules take longer to diffuse than larger ones.
C) Net movement of molecules occurs until the osmolarity is equal.
D) Diffusion is rapid over short distances and slower over longer distances.
Answer: B
55
25) Gated channels for sodium ions may include
A) mechanical gates, which respond to pressure.
B) chemical gates, which respond to ligands.
C) voltage gates, which respond to electrical signals.
Answer: D
26) When a neuron changes its ion permeability from the resting state,
A) a variety of gated ion channels may open or close.
B) Na+ channels may open, allowing Na+ to enter the cell.
C) K+ channels must open, allowing K+ to enter the cell.
D) only a variety of gated ion channels may open or close and Na+ channels may open, allowing
Na+ to enter the cell.
E) a variety of gated ion channels may open or close, Na+ channels may open, allowing Na+ to
enter the cell, and K+ channels must open, allowing K+ to enter the cell.
Answer: D
Match the membrane protein with its function.
A. transfer signals from the extracellular environment to the cytoplasm of the cell
B. form cell-to-cell connections
C. bind to molecules to facilitate entry to or exit from the cell
D. ligands bind to these proteins and are changed by the protein
27) structural proteins

Answer: B
Section Title: Protein-Mediated Transport
28) enzymes
Answer: D
29) receptors
Answer: A
56
30) transporters
Answer: C
Match the transport process to its description.
A. active transport
B. passive transport
31) the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
Answer: B
32) the movement of molecules via proteins embedded in the cell membrane; requires ATP
Answer: A
33) the movement of molecules against the concentration gradient

Answer: A
34) tends to create an equilibrium state

Answer: B
Match the transport process to its description.
A. simple diffusion
B. facilitated diffusion
C. both
D. neither
35) the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
Answer: C
57
36) the use of ATP to move molecules
Answer: D
37) a form of mediated transport

Answer: B
38) conform(s) to the properties of specificity, competition, and saturation

Answer: B
Match the type of transport with its description.
A. secretion
B. paracellular transport
C. transcellular transport
D. absorption
39) between adjacent cells

Answer: B
40) from an organ's lumen to the extracellular fluid

Answer: D
41) in one side of a cell and out the other

Answer: C
42) movement from the extracellular fluid into the lumen of an organ
Answer: A
58
Match the terms to changes presented, assuming a resting membrane potential of -70 mV. Answers
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. electrical polarization
B. hyperpolarization
C. depolarization
D. repolarization
E. more than one of the answers
43) to -50 mV from resting potential

Answer: C
44) to -70 mV from -50 mV

Answer: D
45) to -90 mV from resting potential

Answer: B
46) to +30 mV from resting potential

Answer: C
47) to -70 mV from -90 mV

Answer: D
48) any value other than 0 mV, regardless of relationship to resting potential
Answer: A
59
Match the potential or potential change with the causative circumstances. Assume ion movements are
net movements. Answers may be used more than once or not at all.
A. resting membrane potential

B. hyperpolarization
C. depolarization
D. repolarization
E. more than one of the answers
49) Na+ enters the cell

Answer: C
50) K+ leaves the cell

Answer: E
51) Cl- enters the cell

Answer: B
52) membrane potential is 0 mV

Answer: C
65) Which of the following is a unique characteristic of glucose as a solute in biological systems?
A) It enters the interstitial fluid before going into the cell.
B) It is freely penetrating and can pass in and out of the cells at any time.
C) 100% of it is absorbed into the cell from the extracellular fluid.
D) It is converted into dextrose inside the cell.
Answer: C
71) A cell membrane that is selectively permeable

A) randomly chooses which substances will pass through.
B) can change which substances pass through by changing its lipid and protein content.
C) is impermeable to all substances but water.
60
D) will only allow substances in or out if their concentration in the cell is above or below a certain
point.
Answer: B
72) Fick's law of diffusion states that the rate of diffusion across a membrane is
A) proportional to surface area and membrane thickness, but inversely proportional to
concentration gradient.
B) proportional to concentration gradient, surface area, and membrane permeability.
C) proportional to membrane permeability, but inversely proportional to concentration gradient
and surface area.
D) proportional to membrane thickness and surface area.
Answer: B
73) Which of the following would increase the rate of diffusion across a cell membrane?
A) a decrease in the surface area of the membrane
B) a decrease in the concentration gradient
C) a decrease in membrane permeability
D) a decrease in membrane thickness
Answer: D
74) Pinocytosis and potocytosis are types of

A) endocytosis.
B) exocytosis.
C) phagocytosis.
D) endocytosis and exocytosis.
E) exocytosis and phagocytosis.
Answer: A
Section Title: Vesicular Transport
75) Sodium ions are more concentrated in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid.
This is an example of
A) electrical disequilibrium.
B) osmotic equilibrium.
C) chemical disequilibrium.
D) failed homeostasis.
Answer: C
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76) The inside of a resting cell is slightly negative relative to the outside. This is an example of
A) electrical disequilibrium.
B) osmotic equilibrium.
C) chemical disequilibrium.
D) failed homeostasis.
Answer: A
77) Which property of diffusion best helps explain the necessity of the circulatory system in
multicellular organisms?
A) Molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
B) Diffusion can take place in an open system or across a partition that separates two systems.
C) Diffusion is rapid over short distances but much slower over long distances.
D) Diffusion rate is inversely related to molecule size.
Answer: C
78) Facilitated diffusion and active transport differ in that

A) facilitated diffusion uses cell membrane proteins to move substances, whereas active transport
does not.
B) facilitated diffusion uses a substrate to bind to a protein carrier, whereas active transport does
not.
C) ATP is necessary for active transport, but not for facilitated diffusion.
D) facilitated diffusion moves water across the cell membrane, whereas active transport does not.
E) potential energy is required for active transport but not for facilitated diffusion.
Answer: C
79) Water will always move from ________ areas to ________ areas, if there are no impermeable
barriers.
A) hyperosmotic, hyposmotic
B) hyposmotic, hyperosmotic
C) isosmotic, hyposmotic
D) hyperosmotic, isosmotic
Answer: B
80) Substances that readily dissolve in water and do not readily dissolve in lipids are
A) hydrophobic and lipophobic.
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B) hydrophilic and lipophobic.
C) hydrophobic and lipophilic.
D) hydrophilic and lipophilic.
Answer: B
81) Which of the following molecules can move across the phospholipid bilayer by simple
diffusion?
A) lipids
B) steroids
C) water
D) lipids and water
Answer: E
82) A cell that is permeable to Solute X is placed into solution containing a higher concentration of
X. Diffusion occurs until equilibrium is attained. At this time,
A) there is no further movement of Solute X across the membrane.
B) there is no further change in concentration of Solute X.
C) Both of the statements are correct.
D) Neither of the statements is correct.
Answer: B
83) Cations will ________ each other.

A) attract
B) repel
C) not react with
Answer: B
84) Anions will ________ each other.

A) attract
B) repel
C) not react with
Answer: B
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85) The cell membrane acts as a good
A) electrical insulator.
B) electrical conductor.
C) electrical gradient.
D) source of ions.
Answer: A
116) When you eat a large meal and your body absorbs a lot of glucose and that makes its way to
the interstitial fluid before going into the cell. 100% of the glucose should be absorbed into the cell
from the interstitial fluid. Why does nearly all of the glucose enter the cell, rather than only half of
it?
A) It is moved by active transport.
B) It is modified by the cell, so there is still more glucose on the outside of the cell than inside it.
C) Insulin forces glucose into the cell against a concentration gradient.
D) The cells make ATP so fast, they use up all the glucose as soon as it enters the cell.
Answer: B
Section Title: Integrated Membrane Processes: Insulin Secretion
117) If a 10% sucrose solution is separated from a 20% sucrose solution by a membrane
impermeable to sucrose, in which direction will net movement of water occur?
A) from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution only
B) from the 20% sucrose solution to the 10% sucrose solution only
C) There will be no net movement of water in this case.
D) from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution and from the 20% sucrose solution
to the 10% sucrose solution
Answer: A
Skill: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application)
118) If a 10% sucrose solution is separated from a 20% sucrose solution by a membrane
permeable to sucrose, in which direction will net diffusion of sucrose take place?
A) from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution
B) from the 20% sucrose solution to the 10% sucrose solution
C) There will be no diffusion in this case.
D) from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution and from the 20% sucrose solution
E) neither from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution nor from the 20% sucrose
solution to the 10% sucrose solution
Answer: B
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119) The concentration of calcium inside a cell is 0.3%. The concentration of calcium outside the
cell is 0.1%. How could the cell transport even more calcium to the inside?
A) passive transport
B) active transport
C) osmosis
D) exocytosis
Answer: B

Chapter 6 Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
1) Cells that respond to signals are usually called

A) responders.
B) receivers.
C) targets.
D) contacts.
E) junctions.
Answer: C
Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication
2) Which is NOT a basic method of cell-to-cell communication?

A) cytoplasmic transfer of signals
B) contact-dependent signals
C) diffused chemical signals
D) nerve and blood-transported signals
E) mechanical signals
Answer: E
3) The most significant difference between a paracrine and an autocrine is

A) the cell that releases it.
B) the cell that responds to it.
C) the method of transport.
D) the route of transport.
E) There are no differences—they are the same.
Answer: B
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4) Neurotransmitters and neurohormones both
A) are released by neurons.
B) affect only cells with a specific receptor.
C) travel in the blood to their target cell.
D) are released by neurons and affect only cells with specific receptors.
E) are produced by all cells.
Answer: D
5) Why do some normal cells fail to respond to a chemical signal?

A) Chemical signals are only delivered to specific cells.
B) Some cells lack the necessary receptors.
C) Some cells are completely without receptors.
D) Some cells are completely without ligands.
E) Signal chemicals often break down before reaching a distant target.
Answer: B
Section Title: Signal Pathways
6) Receptor molecules on the surface of a cell

A) determine that cell's response.
B) may allow a particular ligand to bind.
C) bind to all ligands.
D) determine that cell's response and may allow a particular ligand to bind.
E) determine that cell's response and bind to all ligands.
Answer: D
7) Receptor molecules are located

A) only in the outer cell membrane.
B) only in the cytosol.
C) only in the nucleus.
D) only on the cell surface.
E) in all of these places.
Answer: E
8) Down-regulation may allow a target cell to

A) only increase its number of receptors for a ligand.
B) only decrease its number of receptors for a ligand.
C) only increase its binding affinity for a ligand.
D) decrease the receptors' binding affinity and increase its number of receptors.
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Answer: B
Section Title: Modulation of Signal Pathways
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9) Inositol triphosphate
A) is a water-insoluble messenger molecule.
B) binds to the calcium channel of the endoplasmic recticulum.
C) is involved in the release of calcium into the cytosol.
D) is a second messenger that is involved in the release of calcium into the cytosol.
E) uses all of the mechanisms.
Answer: D
10) Lipophilic hormones

A) bind to receptors on the surface of the cell.
B) function by way of a second messenger system.
C) cannot diffuse through the cell membrane.
D) bind to receptors inside the cytoplasm or nucleus.
E) function by activating cAMP.
Answer: D
11) When adenylyl cyclase is activated,

A) calcium ions are released from intracellular stores.
B) cAMP is formed.
C) cAMP is broken down.
D) protein kinases are metabolized.
E) steroids are produced.
Answer: B
12) Second messenger molecules directly

A) change the regulation of ion channels.
B) increase intracellular calcium concentration.
C) change enzyme activity.
D) change regulation of gene expression.
Answer: E
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13) Cyclic AMP activates
A) a G protein.
B) adenylyl cyclase.
C) protein hormones.
D) protein kinase A.
E) hormone receptors.
Answer: D
14) Diacylglycerol is produced from

A) cyclic AMP.
B) phospholipase C.
C) a G protein.
D) protein kinase A.
E) phosphatidylinositol bisphosphate.
Answer: E
15) Usually, cytokine binding activates

A) JAK kinase.
B) tyrosine kinase.
C) intrinsic transducers.
D) calmodulin kinase.
E) citrulline kinase.
Answer: A
16) What by-product results during the production of nitric oxide?

A) arginine
B) citrulline
C) nitric oxide synthase
D) carbon monoxide
E) carbon dioxide
Answer: B
Section Title: Novel Signal Molecules
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17) An integrating center
A) is the disturbance or change that sets the pathway in motion.
B) is an electrical and/or chemical signal that travels to the effector.
C) evaluates incoming signals and compares it with the setpoint.
D) is the minimum stimulus that must be achieved to set the reflect response in motion.
Answer: C
Section Title: Homeostatic Reflex Pathways
18) Which of the following are considered differences between endocrine and neural control
systems?
A) specificity
B) nature of the signal
C) speed
D) duration of action
Answer: E
Match the term with its description:
A. threshold
B. effector
C. integrating center
D. setpoint
E. sensory receptor
19) the desired target value for a parameter

Answer: D
20) receives information about the regulated variable and initiates a response
Answer: C
21) the minimum stimulus to trigger a response

Answer: A
22) the organ or gland that performs the change

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Answer: B
23) continuously monitors its environment for a specific variable

Answer: E
51) The intracellular effector in chemical signaling is often

A) a hormone.
B) a membrane receptor molecule.
C) ATP.
D) a protein kinase.
E) cholesterol.
Answer: D
52) The most important factor determining which type of receptor a signal molecule will bind to is
A) the lipid solubility of the ligand.
B) the size of the ligand.
C) the size of the receptor molecule.
D) the location of the receptor molecule.
Answer: A
53) An ion widely important in intracellular signaling is

A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) calcium.
D) chloride.
E) cobalt.
Answer: C
54) When calcium becomes available inside a cell, it comes from

A) extracellular fluid only.
B) intracellular storage only.
C) extracellular fluid and intracellular storage.
D) It is always available as a major cytosol cation.
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Answer: C
55) One intracellular calcium-binding protein is

A) calmodulin.
B) calcitonin.
C) calcitriol.
D) IP3.
E) nitric oxide.
Answer: A
56) Signal molecule receptors exhibit

A) specificity only.
B) competition only.
C) saturation only.
D) competition and saturation only.
E) specificity, competition, and saturation.
Answer: E
Section Title: Modulation of Signal Pathways
57) The binding of lipophilic messengers, such as steroid hormones, to their receptors triggers
A) adenylyl cyclase activation.
B) cyclic nucleotide formation.
C) G protein inhibition.
D) gene transcription.
E) protein kinase activation.
Answer: D
58) Both insulin and glucagon are peptide hormones that target liver cells. The response of the
target cells to each of these two hormones is opposite. This information implies that
A) the two hormones bind to different cell surface receptors.
B) one hormone binds to a receptor on the cell membrane and the other to an intracellular
receptor.
C) each of the two hormones uses a different second messenger.
D) both hormones interact with receptors at the cell nucleus.
E) the two hormones bind to different receptors and use a different second messenger.
Answer: E
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59) Each of the following is an example of homeostasis except one. Identify the exception.
A) Increased pressure in the aorta triggers mechanisms to lower blood pressure.
B) A rise in blood calcium levels triggers the release of a hormone that lowers blood calcium levels.
C) A rise in estrogen during the menstrual cycle increases the number of progesterone receptors
in the uterus.
D) Increased blood sugar stimulates the release of a hormone from the pancreas that stimulates
the liver to store blood sugar.
E) A decrease in body temperature triggers a neural response that initiates physiological changes
to increase body temperature.
Answer: C
60) Homeostatic control that takes place at the tissue or cell by using paracrine or autocrine
signals is called ________.
A) local control
B) reflex control
C) Cannon's law
D) down-regulation
Answer: A

Chapter 7 Introduction to the Endocrine System
1) Which of the following is NOT a method of hormone action?

A) control of enzymatic reaction rates
B) control of ion or molecule transport across cell membranes
C) control of electrical signaling pathways
D) control of gene expression and protein synthesis
E) All are methods of hormone action.
Answer: E
Section Title: The Classification of Hormones
2) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell,

A) the cell membrane becomes less permeable.
B) a second messenger appears in the cytoplasm.
C) the cell becomes inactive.
D) the hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA.
Answer: B
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3) The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide
hormones is usually
A) cAMP.
B) cGMP.
C) adenylyl cyclase.
D) a G protein.
E) calcium.
Answer: D
4) When adenylyl cyclase is activated,

A) calcium ions are released from intracellular stores.
B) cAMP is formed.
C) cAMP is broken down.
D) protein kinases are metabolized.
E) steroids are produced.
Answer: B
5) Typically, when steroid hormones bind to their receptors,

A) adenylyl cyclase is activated.
B) cyclic nucleotides are formed.
C) G proteins are inhibited.
D) gene transcription may increase or decrease.
E) protein kinases are activated.
Answer: D
6) Steroid hormones are synthesized in the ________ of the cell.

A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi apparatus
D) mitochondria
E) nucleus
Answer: B
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7) Each of the following statements concerning peptide hormones is true except one. Identify the
exception.
A) Peptide hormones are first synthesized as prohormones.
B) Prohormones can be activated before their release via post-translational modification.
C) Peptide hormones remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time.
D) Peptide hormones in the bloodstream are always bound to carrier proteins.
E) Peptide hormones interact with receptors on the surface of their target cells.
Answer: D
8) Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except one. Identify the exception.
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) thyroid hormone
D) thyroid-stimulating hormone
E) melatonin
Answer: D
9) The majority of hormones in the body are

A) peptide hormones.
B) steroid hormones.
C) amino acid-derived hormones.
D) neurohormones.
E) All of the hormones are present in equal amounts in the body.
Answer: A
10) The most complex endocrine responses involve the

A) thyroid gland.
B) pancreas.
C) adrenal glands.
D) hypothalamus.
E) thymus.
Answer: D
Section Title: Control of Hormone Release
11) The posterior pituitary gland secretes

A) FSH.
B) TSH.
C) ACTH.
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D) ADH (Vasopressin).
E) MSH.
Answer: D
12) The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) FSH.
D) LH.
E) STH.
Answer: B
13) The pituitary hormone that controls hormone synthesis and release from the thyroid gland is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) FSH.
D) LH.
E) STH.
Answer: A
14) The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) growth hormone.
D) FSH.
E) prolactin.
Answer: E
15) The pituitary hormone that stimulates cell growth and metabolism in many tissues is
A) ACTH.
B) MSH.
C) prolactin.
D) insulin.
E) somatotropin.
Answer: E
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77
Match each term with the appropriate description.
A. peptide hormone
B. steroid hormone
C. amino acid-derived hormone
D. anterior pituitary
E. hypothalamus
F. posterior pituitary
16) lipophobic molecule that interacts with receptors on cell surface

Answer: A
17) site of vasopressin synthesis

Answer: E
18) true endocrine gland of epithelial origin

Answer: D
19) cannot be stored in secretory vesicles

Answer: B
20) derivatives of tyrosine

Answer: C
21) storage and release site for oxytocin

Answer: F
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Match each hormone with its primary source.
A. prolactin
B. insulin
C. aldosterone
D. melatonin
E. calcitonin
F. epinephrine
22) adrenal medulla

Answer: F
23) pancreas
Answer: B
24) thyroid
Answer: E
25) anterior pituitary

Answer: A
26) adrenal cortex

Answer: C
27) pineal
Answer: D
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49) When stimulated by a particular hormone, there is a marked increase in the activity of G
proteins in the membrane. The hormone is probably
A) a steroid.
B) a peptide.
C) testosterone.
D) estrogen.
E) aldosterone.
Answer: A
50) After a hormone has exerted its effects, it typically

A) continues to act until an opposing hormone is secreted.
B) spontaneously degrades.
C) is inactivated or removed from the blood.
D) is absorbed by its target cell.
E) is absorbed by the gland that secreted it.
Answer: C
Section Title: Hormones
51) Hormones are not typically considered to be cytokines because hormones are ________ like
cytokines.
A) synthesized in advance and stored, not
B) not peptides
C) not effective in small amounts
D) secreted into the blood, not
E) secreted by cells, not
Answer: A
Section Title: Hormones
52) In a simple endocrine reflex, the endocrine cell is the

A) sensor only.
B) integrating center only.
C) target.
D) sensor and integrating center.
E) integrating center and target.
Answer: D
53) Synergism occurs when

A) one hormone triggers the secretion of a second hormone.
B) one hormone inhibits the release of a second hormone.
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C) hormones working together produce a larger effect than predicted.
D) hormones working together produce a smaller effect than predicted.
E) a hormone can exert its full effects only in the presence of another hormone.
Answer: C
Section Title: Hormone Interaction
54) Hormones acting through signal transduction pathways elicit a ________ response compared
to hormones that produce genomic effects.
A) faster
B) slower
C) equal
Answer: A
Section Title: Endocrine Pathologies

Chapter 8 Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
1) The portions of a neuron that extend off of the roughly spherical cell body are usually
collectively called
A) protrusions.
B) processes.
C) prostheses.
D) projections.
Answer: B
Section Title: Cells of the Nervous System
2) Detailed understanding of the cellular basis of signaling in the nervous system has led to good
understanding of consciousness, intelligence, and emotion.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Section Title: Organization of the Nervous System
3) Neurotransmitter is stored and released from

A) axon terminals only.
B) axon varicosities only.
C) dendritic spines only.
D) cell bodies only.
E) axon terminals and axon varicosities.
Answer: E
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4) Information coming into the central nervous system is transmitted along ________ neurons.
A) afferent
B) sensory
C) efferent
D) afferent and sensory
E) sensory and efferent
Answer: D
5) The afferent and efferent axons together form the

A) central nervous system.
B) autonomic division system.
C) somatic motor division of the nervous system.
D) peripheral nervous system.
E) visceral nervous system.
Answer: D
6) The brain and spinal cord together compose the

B) autonomic division system.
C) somatic motor division of the nervous system.
E) visceral nervous system.
Answer: A
7) Exocrine glands, smooth muscles, and cardiac muscles are controlled by the
B) autonomic nervous system.
C) somatic motor division.
E) enteric nervous system.
Answer: B
8) Autonomic motor neurons are subdivided into the

A) visceral and somatic divisions.
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B) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
C) central and peripheral divisions.
D) visceral and enteric divisions.
E) somatic and enteric divisions.
Answer: B
9) The enteric nervous system is a network of neurons that function in controlling

A) reproduction.
B) digestion.
C) excretion, particularly urination.
D) the skeletal system.
E) the endocrine system.
Answer: B
10) In general, the nervous system is composed of which two types of cells?
1. motor
2. neurons
3. sensory
4. glial
5. associative
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 3 and 4
E) 3 and 5
Answer: C
11) The cell body of neurons is generally

A) 90% of the cell volume.
B) 50% of the cell volume.
C) 10% of the cell volume.
D) found in the same position on every neuron.
Answer: C
12) Interneurons are found

A) only in the brain.
B) only in the spinal cord.
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C) only in the CNS.
D) throughout the nervous system.
E) only in spinal nerves.
Answer: C
13) The multiple thin, branched structures on a neuron whose main function is to receive
incoming signals are the
A) cell bodies.
B) axons.
C) dendrites.
D) somata.
Answer: C
14) The collection of axons that carries information between the central nervous system and the
peripheral effectors is called the
A) axon hillock.
B) varicosity.
C) axon.
D) dendrite.
E) nerve.
Answer: E
15) The region where the axon terminal meets its target cell is called the
A) collateral.
B) hillock.
C) synapse.
D) nerve.
E) dendrites.
Answer: C
16) The axon is connected to the cell body by the

A) myelin sheath.
B) axon terminal.
C) collaterals.
D) axon hillock.
E) synapse.
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Answer: D
17) Branches that sometimes occur along the length of an axon are called
A) dendrites.
B) axon terminals.
C) collaterals.
D) axon hillocks.
E) synapses.
Answer: C
18) Neurotransmitters are released from the

A) dendrites.
B) axon terminals.
C) collaterals.
D) axon hillock.
E) synapse.
Answer: B
19) The term axonal transport refers to

A) the release of neurotransmitter molecules from the axon.
B) the transport of microtubules to the axon for structural support.
C) vesicle transport of proteins and organelles down the axon.
D) the movement of the axon terminal to synapse with a new postsynaptic cell.
Answer: C
20) Anterograde and retrograde axonal transport are forms of ________ transport.
A) fast
B) slow
C) Neither of these
Answer: A
21) Clusters of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system are called
A) microglia.
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B) neuroglia.
C) glia.
D) ganglia.
E) nodes.
Answer: D
22) Glial cells

A) only provide structural and metabolic support.
B) only guide neurons during growth and repair.
C) only help maintain homeostasis of the brain's extracellular fluid.
D) provide structural and metabolic support and help maintain homeostasis of the brain's
extracellular fluid.
Answer: E
23) Glial cells communicate primarily using

A) electrical signals only.
B) chemical signals only.
C) neurotransmitters only.
D) neuromodulators only.
E) electrical signals and chemical signals.
Answer: B
24) Myelin is formed by

A) axons only.
B) Schwann cells only.
C) oligodendrocytes only.
D) Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes.
Answer: D
25) These glial cells act as scavengers.

A) Schwann cells
B) astrocytes
C) microglia
D) oligodendrocytes
E) ependymal cells
Answer: C
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26) These glial cells may contribute to Lou Gehrig's disease.

A) Schwann cells
B) astrocytes
C) microglia
D) oligodendrocytes
E) ependymal cells
Answer: C
27) The Nernst equation predicts

A) intracellular ion concentrations.
B) extracellular ion concentrations
C) the membrane potential resulting from all permeable ions.
D) the membrane potential resulting from permeability to a single ion.
E) the threshold membrane potential.
Answer: D
Section Title: Electrical Signals in Neurons
28) Which is the correctly written Nernst equation?

A) 61/z × log [ion]out / [ion]in
B) 61/z × log [ion]in / [ion]out
C) log 61/z × [ion]in / [ion]out
D) log 61/z × [ion]out / [ion]in
Answer: A
29) What does the Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation take into account that the Nernst equation
does NOT?
A) the electrical charges of the ions
B) the permeabilities of the ions
C) the solubilities of the ions
D) the sizes of the ions
E) the temperature
Answer: B
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30) The resting membrane potential results from
A) uneven distribution of ions across the cell membrane only.
B) differences in membrane permeability to Na+ and K+ only.
C) activity of the sodium/potassium pump only.
D) uneven distribution of ions across the cell membrane and differences in membrane
permeability to Na+ and K+.
Answer: D
31) Which ion(s) is/are higher in concentration inside the cell compared to outside?
A) potassium
B) sodium
C) chloride
D) calcium
Answer: A
32) The channelopathy known as QT syndrome is a result of mutation in ________ channels.

A) sodium
B) potassium
C) calcium
D) chloride
E) sodium, potassium, or calcium
Answer: E
33) Ion channel inactivation is

A) closing of the channel in response to decrease in the stimulus.
B) closing of the channel even when the stimulus continues.
C) any type of channel closing.
Answer: B
34) The total amount of neurotransmitter released at the axon terminal is directly related to
A) the amplitude of the action potential.
B) the length of the axon.
C) the total number of action potentials.
D) the amplitude of the graded potential.
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Answer: C
Section Title: Cell-to-Cell Communication in the Nervous System
35) Which of the following is the most common location where action potentials originate?
A) dendrites
B) cell body
C) axon hillock
D) synaptic cleft
E) synaptic bouton
Answer: C
36) The rising phase of the action potential is due to

A) Na+ flow into the cell only.
B) Na+ flow out of the cell only.
C) K+ flow out of the cell only.
D) K+ flow into the cell only.
E) Na+ flow out of the cell and K+ flow into the cell.
Answer: A
37) The falling phase of the action potential is due primarily to

A) Na+ flow in the cell only.
B) Na+ flow out of the cell only.
C) K+ flow out of the cell only.
D) K+ flow into the cell only.
E) Na+ flow out of the cell and K+ flow into the cell.
Answer: C
38) The point during an action potential when the inside of the cell has become more positive than
the outside is known as the
A) depolarization.
B) rising phase.
C) falling phase.
D) overshoot.
E) peak.
Answer: D
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39) Choose all of the items that are incorrectly matched.

A) inactivation gate — closed at rest
B) activation gate — open at rest
C) inactivation gate — closed during repolarization
D) activation gate — opens during depolarization
E) All of the answers are incorrectly matched.
Answer: D
40) The absolute refractory period of an action potential

A) only ensures one-way travel down an axon.
B) only allows a neuron to ignore a second signal sent that closely follows the first.
C) only prevents summation of action potentials.
D) ensures one-way travel down an axon and allows a neuron to ignore a second signal sent that
closely follows the first.
E) ensures one-way travel down an axon, allows a neuron to ignore a second signal sent that
closely follows the first, and prevents summation of action potentials.
Answer: E
41) In order to signal a stronger stimulus, action potentials become

A) higher in amplitude only.
B) more frequent only.
C) longer-lasting only.
D) higher in amplitude and more frequent.
E) higher in amplitude and longer-lasting.
Answer: B
42) All of the following must occur before a second action potential can begin, EXCEPT
A) the Na+ and K+ ions that moved in/out of the cell must move back to their original
compartments.
B) the Na+ inactivation gate must open and the Na+ activation gate must close.
C) the absolute refractory period must occur.
D) the Na+ and K+ ions that moved in/out of the cell must move back to their original
compartments; the Na+ inactivation gate must open; and the Na+ activation gate must close.
Answer: A
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43) Voltage-regulated channels are located

A) within the cytosol only.
B) in the membranes of dendrites only.
C) in the membranes of axons only.
D) on the neuron cell body only.
E) in the membranes of dendrites, in the membranes of axons, and on the neuron cell body.
Answer: E
44) The sodium-potassium exchange pump

A) must re-establish ion concentrations after each action potential.
B) transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization.
C) transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization.
D) moves sodium and potassium in the direction of their chemical gradients.
E) requires ATP to function.
Answer: E
45) The all-or-none principle states that

A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.
B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce action potentials of
identical magnitude.
C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the intensity of the action potential.
D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.
E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.
Answer: B
46) When voltage-gated Na+ channels of a resting neuron open,

A) enters the neuron.
B) Na+ leaves the neuron.
C) the neuron depolarizes.
D) Na+ enters the neuron and the neuron depolarizes.
E) Na+ leaves the neuron and the neuron depolarizes.
Answer: D
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47) When voltage-gated K+ channels of a resting neuron open,
A) K+ enters the neuron.
B) K+ leaves the neuron.
C) the neuron depolarizes.
D) K+ enters the neuron and the neuron depolarizes.
E) K+ leaves the neuron and the neuron depolarizes.
Answer: B
48) In the membrane of a resting nerve cell, when chemically gated Cl- channels open,
A) Cl- ions enter the cell.
B) Cl- ions leave the cell.
C) the cell becomes depolarized.
D) Cl- ions enter the cell and the cell becomes depolarized.
E) Cl- ions leave the cell and the cell becomes depolarized.
Answer: A
49) Ion concentrations are first significantly affected after ________ action potential(s).
A) one
B) a few dozen
C) a few hundred
D) a few thousand
E) a few million
Answer: D
50) Action potentials are primarily associated with the membranes of

A) dendrites only.
B) cell bodies only.
C) axons only.
D) dendrites and axons.
E) cell bodies and axons.
Answer: C
51) Which of the following will best increase the conduction rate of action potentials?
A) Increase the diameter of the axon, decrease the resistance of the axon membrane to ion leakage.
B) Increase the diameter of the axon, increase the resistance of the axon membrane to ion leakage.
C) Decrease the diameter of the axon, decrease the resistance of the axon membrane to ion
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leakage.
D) Decrease the diameter of the axon, increase the resistance of the axon membrane to ion
leakage.
Answer: B
52) Which of the following does NOT influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be
conveyed by a particular neuron?
A) length of the axon
B) presence or absence of a myelin sheath
C) diameter of the axon
D) presence or absence of nodes of Ranvier
E) whether axon is sensory or motor
Answer: E
53) Graded potentials may

A) initiate an action potential.
B) depolarize the membrane to the threshold voltage.
C) hyperpolarize the membrane.
D) be called EPSPs or IPSPs.
E) All of the statements are true.
Answer: E
54) Some neurotoxins work essentially the same way as some local anesthetics, which is to
A) inactivate the enzyme that destroys the neurotransmitter only.
B) bind to Na+ channels and inactivate them only.
C) prevent depolarization by blocking Na+ entry into the cell only.
D) inactivate the enzyme that destroys the neurotransmitter and bind to Na+ channels and
inactivate them.
E) bind to Na+ channels and inactivate them and prevent depolarization by blocking Na+ entry
into the cell.
Answer: E
55) The major determinant of the resting potential of all cells is

A) Ca2+ concentration in the blood and interstitial fluid.
B) Na+ concentration in the blood and interstitial fluid.
C) K+ gradient between the blood and interstitial fluid.
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D) K+ concentration inside cells.
E) Na+ concentration inside cells.
Answer: C
56) The term hyperkalemia specifically indicates too much potassium in which fluid
compartment?
A) blood
B) intracellular
C) interstitial
D) extracellular
Answer: A
57) A chemical synapse ALWAYS includes ________.

1. axon terminal
2. presynaptic cell
3. synaptic cleft
4. postsynaptic cell
5. dendrite
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4, 5
E) 1, 3, 4
Answer: B
58) Which type of synapse is most prevalent in the nervous system?

A) chemical
B) electrical
C) mechanical
D) processing
E) radiative
Answer: A
59) The ion necessary to initiate the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
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C) calcium.
D) chloride.
E) zinc.
Answer: C
60) To increase the amount of neurotransmitter released onto a postsynaptic cell, the presynaptic
cell would have to
A) send action potentials with higher voltage (higher amplitude).
B) send action potentials with longer durations.
C) send action potentials with higher frequency.
D) do nothing; no change is possible since the all-or-none law is in effect.
Answer: C
61) Which is/are the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) of the CNS?
A) GABA only
B) glycine only
C) glutamate only
D) GABA and glycine
Answer: D
62) The inhibitory neurotransmitters of the CNS, GABA and glycine, act by opening ________
channels.
A) only Na+
B) only Cl-
C) only K+
D) only Ca2+
E) Na+ and K+
Answer: B
63) Excitatory neurotransmitters of the CNS usually act by opening ________ channels.
A) Na+
B) K+
C) Cl-
D) H+
E) Ca2+
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Answer: A
64) Which of the following is NOT a known drug effect on synaptic function?
A) interfere with neurotransmitter synthesis
B) alter the rate of neurotransmitter release
C) prevent neurotransmitter inactivation
D) prevent neurotransmitter binding to receptors
E) change the type of neurotransmitter found in the synaptic vesicle
Answer: E
65) The site of information integration in the nervous system is the

A) chemical synapse.
B) electrical synapse.
C) trigger zone.
D) dendritic membrane.
E) axon terminal.
Answer: C
66) Once the stimulus alters the receptor on the cell's membrane, what happens next?
A) Ion channels open, allowing ions to enter or exit.
B) The membrane permeability is altered.
C) A second messenger is activated on the inside of the cell.
D) Any of these actions could happen next.
Answer: D
67) Once the action potential reaches the axon terminal, what happens next?
A) exocytosis of a neurocrine
B) release of the neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft
C) release of a neurohormone into the blood
D) Any of the above could happen next.
Answer: D
68) Calcium is important in the synapse because it

A) is necessary for acetylcholine synthesis.
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B) signals the exocytosis of the neurotransmitter.
C) binds to receptors on the postsynaptic cell, opening ion channels, and triggering graded
potentials.
D) leaves the axon terminal, hyperpolarizing the cell.
Answer: B
69) In response to binding a neurotransmitter, a postsynaptic cell can

A) only open chemically gated ion channels, causing graded potentials known as fast synaptic
potentials.
B) only close ion channels via G proteins and second messenger systems, producing slow
responses.
C) only regulate protein synthesis and affect the metabolic activities of the postsynaptic cell.
D) open chemically gated ion channels, causing graded potentials known as fast synaptic
potentials and regulate protein synthesis and affect the metabolic activities of the postsynaptic cell.
E) open chemically gated ion channels, causing graded potentials known as fast synaptic
potentials, close ion channels via G proteins and second messenger systems, producing slow
responses, and regulate protein synthesis and affect the metabolic activities of the postsynaptic
cell.
Answer: E
70) The neurotransmitter thought to be involved in learning and memory is

A) norepinephrine.
B) glutamate.
C) acetylcholine.
D) GABA.
E) glycine.
Answer: B
Section Title: Integration of Neuronal Information Transfer
71) In order for a synapse to be an effective means of cellular communication, slow removal or
inactivation of neurotransmitter molecules from the synapse is important.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
72) Identify the FALSE statement.

A) EPSPs that reach threshold can initiate an action potential.
B) The trigger zone is the integrating center of the neuron.
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C) IPSPs depolarize the membrane.
D) All of the statements are true.
Answer: C
73) An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

A) depolarizes a neuron, decreasing the likelihood of an action potential.
B) hyperpolarizes a neuron, decreasing the likelihood of an action potential.
C) depolarizes a neuron, increasing the likelihood of an action potential.
D) hyperpolarizes a neuron, increasing the likelihood of an action potential.
Answer: C
74) Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs )

A) result in local depolarizations.
B) result in local hyperpolarizations.
C) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions.
D) prevent the escape of potassium ions.
E) prevent the escape of calcium ions.
Answer: B
75) When two or more graded potentials arrive at the trigger zone, which of the following could
happen?
A) An excitatory and inhibitory signal can cancel each other out.
B) Two excitatory stimuli may be additive, and summation could occur.
C) Two inhibitory stimuli may be additive, resulting in lower excitability.
D) An excitatory and inhibitory signal can cancel each other out and two excitatory stimuli may be
additive, and summation could occur.
E) An excitatory and inhibitory signal can cancel each other out; two excitatory stimuli may be
additive, and summation could occur; and two inhibitory stimuli may be additive, resulting in
lower excitability.
Answer: E
76) Presynaptic facilitation makes a pathway

A) less likely to be in use, just through hyperpolarization of selected neurons.
B) more likely to be in use, just through depolarization of selected neurons.
C) capable of alteration, just through training and conditioning.
D) less likely to be in use, just through hyperpolarization of selected neurons and capable of
alteration, just through training and conditioning.
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E) more likely to be in use, just through depolarization of selected neurons and capable of
alteration, just through training and conditioning.
Answer: E
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77) Spatial summation refers to
A) electrical signals reaching neurons from outer space.
B) multiple graded potentials arriving at one location simultaneously.
C) repeated graded potentials reaching the trigger zone one after the other.
D) suprathreshold potentials triggering action potentials that are extra large.
Answer: B
78) If a hyperpolarizing graded potential and a depolarizing graded potential of similar

magnitudes arrive at the trigger zone at the same time, what is most likely to occur?
A) An action potential is fired off more quickly than usual.
B) Nothing. They will cancel each other out.
C) The cell becomes hyperpolarized.
D) The cell becomes easier to excite.
E) The cell dies.
Answer: B
79) When multiple, possibly even conflicting signals reach a neuron, the neuron evaluates the
signals and may respond or not. This property is called
A) temporal summation.
B) spatial summation.
C) postsynaptic integration.
D) graded potentials.
E) EPSPs.
Answer: C
80) When a second EPSP arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have
disappeared, what occurs?
A) spatial summation
B) temporal summation
C) inhibition of the impulse
D) hyperpolarization
E) decrease in speed of impulse transmission
Answer: B
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81) The pattern of synaptic connectivity where a large number of presynaptic neurons provide
input to a single postsynaptic neuron, is known as
A) divergence.
B) convergence.
C) integration.
D) saltatory conduction.
E) potentiation.
Answer: B
82) During childhood, growth and development of the brain PRIMARILY occurs by increasing
A) neuron numbers only.
B) neuron size only.
C) number of dendrites and synapses only.
D) neuron numbers and neuron size.
E) neuron size and number of dendrites and synapses.
Answer: E
83) The rearrangement of connections at synapses, which occurs throughout life, is termed
A) elasticity.
B) intelligence.
C) plasticity.
D) senility.
E) synchronicity.
Answer: C
84) A damaged neuron has a better chance of survival and repair if the ________ is/are
undamaged.
A) cell body
B) axon
C) dendrites
D) Schwann cells
E) axon and dendrites
Answer: A
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85) Repair of damaged neurons can be assisted by certain neurotrophic factors secreted by the
A) cell body only.
B) axon only.
C) dendrites only.
D) Schwann cells only.
E) axon and dendrites.
Answer: D
86) The tip of an embryonic nerve cell's axon is called a

A) kissing cone.
B) stem tip.
C) growth cone.
D) growth tip.
Answer: C
Match the glial cell to the nervous system division in which it is found.
A. central nervous system

B. peripheral nervous system
87) Schwann cells

Answer: B
88) oligodendrocytes
Answer: A
89) microglia
Answer: A
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90) satellite cells
Answer: B
91) ependymal cells

Answer: A
92) astrocytes
Answer: A
Match the term with its description (answers may be used more than once).
A. ependymal cells
B. astrocytes
C. satellite cells
D. Schwann cells
E. oligodendrocytes
F. microglia
93) highly branched cells that transfer nutrients between blood vessels and neurons
Answer: B
94) specialized immune cells that are confined to the CNS

Answer: F
95) cells that form supportive capsules around cell bodies

Answer: C
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96) cells that create a selectively permeable epithelial layer to separate fluid compartments of the
CNS
Answer: A
97) cells in the CNS that form myelin

Answer: E
98) cells in the PNS that form myelin

Answer: D
99) cells that are a source of neural stem cells

Answer: A
100) cells that myelinate several axons

Answer: E
101) cells that myelinate only one axon each; multiple cells per axon
Answer: D
104
Match the part of the neuron to its description (answers may be used more than once).
A. dendrites
B. axon
C. cell body
102) may be covered with myelin

Answer: B
103) receive(s) most of the incoming synapses

Answer: A
104) occupy(ies) the least amount of cell volume

Answer: C
105) make(s) proteins necessary for repair of damaged neuron

Answer: C
106) contribute(s) most to membrane surface area of cell

Answer: A
107) supported by satellite cells

Answer: C
108) where most graded potentials originate

Answer: A
105
109) location of voltage-gated ion channels
Answer: B
Match the type of signal to its description (answers may be used more than once).
A. graded potential
B. action potential
C. both
110) may be hyperpolarizing

Answer: A
111) originate(s) at the trigger zone

Answer: B
112) originate(s) on dendrites and cell bodies

Answer: A
113) can involve ion channels regulated by chemicals

Answer: A
114) require(s) a minimum stimulus to occur

Answer: B
115) size increases if stimulus strength increases

Answer: A
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116) result(s) from influx of sodium
Answer: C
137) Microvilli are present on cells that, because of their function, benefit from an increased
membrane surface area. Which structure(s) on a neuron provide a comparable benefit?
A) cell body
B) dendrites
C) axon
D) varicosities
E) collaterals
Answer: B
138) A home satellite dish receives signals from a satellite, allowing your television to display TV
shows. Which part of a neuron is analogous to the satellite dish?
A) cell body
B) dendrites
C) axon
D) varicosities
E) collaterals
Answer: B
139) These CNS glial cells may be a source of treatment for neural degenerative disorders.
A) Schwann cells
B) astrocytes
C) microglia
D) oligodendrocytes
E) ependymal cells
Answer: E
140) In terms of embryonic origin, neurons are most closely related to ________ cells.
A) skeletal muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) connective tissue
D) epithelial
Answer: D
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141) If the resting axon's membrane becomes more permeable to potassium ions,
A) the inside of the membrane will become more positively charged.
B) the membrane will depolarize more rapidly.
C) it will take a stimulus of larger magnitude to initiate an action potential.
D) the hyperpolarization at the end of the action potential will not occur.
Answer: C
142) If the sodium-potassium pumps in the cell membrane of a neuron fail to function, over time
A) the extracellular concentration of potassium ion will increase.
B) the intracellular concentration of sodium ion will increase.
C) the membrane resting potential will become more positive than normal.
Answer: D
143) How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-gated sodium channels
remained inactivated?
A) It would be longer than normal.
B) It would be shorter than normal.
C) It would be the same whether the channels remained inactivated or not.
Answer: A

A) Under normal conditions, all action potentials in a given cell are identical.
B) Between nodes of Ranvier, signal conduction is decremental.
C) The amplitude of the action potential depends on the amplitude of the graded potential that
precedes it.
D) The voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels begin to open during the depolarization.
Answer: C
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145) When the neuron is at rest, which statement is true?
A) The activation gate is closed.
B) The inactivation gate is open.
C) No Na+ crosses the membrane is the only observation.
D) The activation gate is closed and the inactivation gate is open.
E) The activation gate is closed and no Na+ crosses the membrane.
Answer: D
146) In the first phase of triggering an action potential in a neuron, Na+ ions flow in and
A) only trigger a negative feedback loop.
B) only trigger a positive feedback loop.
C) only activate the sodium/potassium pump.
D) trigger a negative feedback loop and activate the sodium/potassium pump.
E) trigger a positive feedback loop and activate the sodium/potassium pump.
Answer: B
147) What stops the rising phase of the action potential?

A) The K+ gate closes.
B) The Na+ activation gate opens.
C) The Na+ inactivation gate closes.
D) The Na+ inactivation gate opens.
E) The sodium activation gate closes.
Answer: C
148) The inactivation gate

A) quickly opens and closes after depolarization.
B) is coupled to the movement of the activation gate, but is much slower.
C) depends on a change of +100 mV from rest to be signaled to close.
D) depends on a loss of Na+ permeability to be triggered.
E) depends on a loss of K+ permeability to be triggered.
Answer: B
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149) During the relative refractory period, an initial threshold-level depolarization is usually not
sufficient to trigger an action potential. Why?
A) Only some Na+ channels have returned to their resting position.
B) Only K+ channels are still open, so Na+ entry is offset by K+ loss.
C) Only a few K+ channels have returned to their resting position.
D) The statement is incorrect; a threshold-level depolarization always triggers an action potential.
E) Some Na+ channels have returned to their resting position and K+ channels are still open, so
Na+ entry is offset by K+ loss.
Answer: E
150) The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential:
1. sodium channels are inactivated
2. more voltage-regulated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating
repolarization
3. sodium channels regain their normal properties
4. a graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold
5. a temporary hyperpolarization occurs
6. sodium channel activation occurs
7. sodium ions enter the cell and further depolarization occurs
The proper sequence of these events is

A) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1.
B) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 5, 3.
C) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5.
D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5.
E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1.
Answer: B
151) When comparing action potentials to graded potentials, an/two important distinguishing
characteristic/s is/are
A) graded potentials can undergo summation.
B) action potentials can undergo summation.
C) that the rate of action potentials is limited by the refractory period.
D) graded potentials can undergo summation and the rate of action potentials is limited by the
refractory period.
E) action potentials can undergo summation and the rate of action potentials is limited by the
refractory period.
Answer: D
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152) When more action potentials arrive at the axon terminal, how are neurotransmitters
affected?
A) More molecules are released into the synapse.
B) Different molecules are released into the synapse.
C) Fewer molecules are released into the synapse.
D) There is no effect–all signals are identical.
Answer: A
153) When more action potentials arrive at the axon terminal, how is the postsynaptic cell
affected?
A) Neurotransmitter release increases, but does not change the graded potentials that follow.
B) Neurotransmitter release does not change, thus the postsynaptic cell behaves the same way it
always behaves.
C) Neurotransmitter release increases, thereby increasing the frequency or magnitude of graded
potentials in the postsynaptic cell.
D) Neurotransmitter release does not change, but voltages applied to the postsynaptic cell
increase.
Answer: C
154) If a stimulating electrode is placed in the middle of a resting axon and an above-threshold
voltage is applied to the electrode action potentials
A) will not occur.
B) will start at that point and proceed only toward the axon terminal.
C) will start at that point and proceed only toward the cell body.
D) will start at that point and travel in both directions in the axon.
Answer: D
155) Conduction occurs along an axon because

A) outflow of K+ triggers the adjacent channels to open.
B) inflow of Na+ triggers the adjacent channels to open.
C) once Na+ enters the cell, the entire membrane depolarizes simultaneously.
D) axonal transport "walks" voltage changes along the membrane.
Answer: B
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156) Conduction speed is (or can be) enhanced by
A) myelin.
B) altering extracellular sodium concentration.
C) increasing the temperature.
D) altering extracellular potassium concentration.
E) myelin and increasing the temperature.
Answer: E
157) When sodium channels open during an action potential, the opening is caused by
A) binding of sodium ions.
B) binding of potassium ions.
C) presence of calcium.
D) presence of positive charge.
Answer: D
158) The primary problem in hyperkalemia is

A) that neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized.
B) that neurons are hyperexcitable because their resting potential is closer to threshold.
C) that neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.
D) neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized and neurons
respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.
E) neurons are hyperexcitable because their resting potential is closer to threshold and neurons
respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.
Answer: E
159) Graded potentials can

A) only act as signals over short distances.
B) only act as signals over long distances.
C) only cause or prevent an action potential.
D) act as signals over short distances and cause or prevent an action potential.
E) act as signals over long distances and cause or prevent an action potential.
Answer: D
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160) The following are steps involved in transmission at the cholinergic synapse:
1. Chemically regulated ion channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated.
2. Calcium ions enter the axon terminal.
3. An action potential depolarizes the axon terminal at the presynaptic membrane.
4. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis.
5. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
The correct sequence for these events is

A) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
C) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
D) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
E) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: B
161) Arrange the following events in the proper sequence:

1. Efferent neuron reaches threshold and fires an action potential.
2. Afferent neuron reaches threshold and fires an action potential.
3. Effector organ responds by performing output.
4. Integrating center reaches decision about response.
5. Sensory organ detects change in the environment.
A) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
B) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
C) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
D) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
E) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
Answer: B
162) How would blocking retrograde transport in an axon affect the activity of a neuron?
A) The neuron would not be able to produce neurotransmitters.
B) The neuron would not be able to produce action potentials.
C) The cell body would not be able to export products to the axon terminals.
D) The cell body would not be able to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon.
E) The neuron would be unable to depolarize when stimulated.
Answer: D
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163) The basis of neural integration is
A) addition of postsynaptic potentials overlapping in time and space.
B) command signals from central pattern generators.
C) spontaneous activity in pacemaker neurons.
D) the area under the curve of postsynaptic potentials overlapping in time and space.
Answer: A
164) Caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol all have effects on

A) action potential conduction.
B) long-term potentiation.
C) synaptic activity.
D) neurotransmitter degradation.
E) neurotransmitter reuptake.
Answer: C
165) Tom's father suffers a stroke that leaves him partially paralyzed on his right side. What type
of glial cell would you expect to find in increased numbers in the damaged area of the brain that is
affected by the stroke?
A) astrocytes
B) Schwann cells
C) oligodendrocytes
D) microglia
Answer: D
166) Tetrodotoxin is a toxin that blocks voltage-gated sodium channels. What effect does this
substance have on the function of neurons?
A) Neurons depolarize more rapidly.
B) Action potentials lack a repolarization phase.
C) The absolute refractory period is shorter than normal.
D) The neuron is not able to propagate action potentials.
E) The toxin does not interfere with neuron function because the voltage-regulated sodium
channels would still function.
Answer: D
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167) Inhibition of neural activity can result from
A) presynaptic events only.
B) postsynaptic events only.
C) presynaptic events and postsynaptic events.
Answer: C
168) Presynaptic facilitation occurs when

A) extracellular concentration of sodium increases.
B) extracellular concentration of potassium increases.
C) calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane are inhibited.
D) calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane remain open longer.
E) temporal summation occurs.
Answer: D
169) Learning and memory are thought to be due to a synaptic phenomenon known as
A) inhibition.
B) excitation.
C) modulation.
D) facilitation.
E) long-term potentiation.
Answer: E

Chapter 9 The Central Nervous System
1) The first multicellular animals to develop neurons were

A) jellyfish and sea anemones.
B) flatworms and sea urchins.
C) segmented worms and sea horses.
D) mollusks and sea stars.
E) fish and sea monkeys.
Answer: A
Section Title: Evolution of Nervous Systems
2) The most primitive nervous systems consist of structures known as nerve

A) tracts.
B) nets.
C) webs.
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D) cords.
E) mazes.
Answer: B
3) Simple reflexes in a worm are integrated within a segment rather than in the brain, because
A) worms do not have brains.
B) worms do not have a nervous system.
C) worms have a ganglion at each segment.
D) worms have a neural network within each segment.
Answer: C
4) The brain region that is identifiable by its folds and grooves is the
A) cerebellum only.
B) cerebrum only.
C) medulla oblongata only.
D) cerebellum and cerebrum.
E) cerebrum and medulla oblongata.
Answer: D
Section Title: Anatomy of the Central Nervous System
5) Which of these have the most advanced nervous system?

A) flatworms
B) segmented worms
C) jellyfish
D) sea anemones
Answer: B
6) The earliest discrete embryonic structure from which the entire nervous system eventually
develops is the
A) ventricle.
B) neural tube.
C) neural plate.
D) ependyma.
E) neural crest.
Answer: C
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7) The peripheral nervous system develops from the
A) neural plate.
B) neural tube.
C) neural crest.
Answer: C
8) The pons develops from the

A) forebrain.
B) midbrain.
C) hindbrain.
Answer: C
9) Which of these does NOT contribute significantly to the protection of the brain?
A) cranium
B) subarachnoid space
C) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
D) dura mater
E) cerebral space
Answer: E
10) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the

A) choroid plexus.
B) arachnoid villi.
C) frontal sinuses.
D) pia mater.
E) ventricles.
Answer: A
11) The brain has a ________ (high or low?) demand for oxygen, and receives about ________%
of the total blood volume in circulation.
A) high; 35
B) low; 35
C) low; 15
D) high; 15
E) high; 50
Answer: D
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Learning Outcome: N/A
12) The brain consumes about half of the ________ circulating in the body.
A) oxygen
B) glucose
C) sodium
D) potassium
E) fatty acids
Answer: B
13) Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in

A) propriospinal tracts.
B) ventral root ganglia.
C) ventral horns.
D) dorsal horns.
E) dorsal root ganglia.
Answer: E
Section Title: The Spinal Cord
14) The mixed cranial nerve that projects to and from internal organs, muscles, and glands is the
________ nerve.
A) trochlear
B) spinal accessory
C) trigeminal
D) vagus
E) glossopharyngeal
Answer: D
15) Which is NOT housed in the medulla oblongata?

A) centers for blood pressure control
B) centers for control of vomiting
C) centers for control of eye movement
D) centers for control of breathing
E) the pyramids, where tracts cross to the opposite side of the body
Answer: C
Section Title: The Brain
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16) Which of these roles is NOT related to the reticular formation?
A) arousal and sleep
B) muscle tone and stretch reflexes
C) pain modulation
D) blood pressure regulation
E) regulation of the menstrual cycle
Answer: E
17) Which statement regarding the hypothalamus is FALSE?

A) Hypothalamic trophic factors control the release of anterior pituitary hormones.
B) It receives input from multiple sources.
C) It receives sensory fibers from the optic tract, ears, and spinal cord.
D) The hypothalamus contains various centers for behavioral drives such as hunger and thirst.
Answer: C
18) The structure that connects the two cerebral hemispheres is the
A) basal nuclei.
B) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
C) corpus callosum.
D) hippocampus.
E) gray "H."
Answer: C
19) The brain area(s) that has/have a cortex is/are the

A) cerebrum only.
B) cerebellum only.
C) medulla oblongata only.
D) cerebrum and cerebellum.
E) cerebrum and medulla oblongata.
Answer: D
20) Which is a system that influences motor output, according to Larry Swanson?
A) emotional state
B) reflexive
C) behavioral state
D) emergent
E) diffuse modulatory
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Answer: C
21) The most primitive region of the cerebrum is probably the

A) limbic system.
B) basal nuclei.
C) corpus callosum.
D) reticular system.
E) pons.
Answer: A
22) Which functions in the control of movement?

A) hippocampus only
B) amygdala only
C) basal nuclei only
D) hippocampus and amygdala
E) All of the above function in the control of movement.
Answer: C
23) Reasoning arises in the outer layer of neurons of which of the following?
A) amygdala
B) basal nuclei
C) hippocampus
D) cerebral cortex
E) amygdala and hippocampus
Answer: D
24) The brain's interpretation of sensory stimuli is called

A) proprioception.
B) perception.
C) cognition.
D) lateralization.
E) emotion.
Answer: B
Section Title: Brain Function
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25) Language and verbal skills tend to be ________ side of the brain of right-handed people.
A) concentrated on the left
B) concentrated on the right
C) equally distributed between the left and right
D) randomly located with respect to the left or right
Answer: A
26) The internal clock of mammals appears to be located in the

A) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B) pituitary gland.
C) choroid plexus.
D) pons.
E) brain stem.
Answer: A
27) Substances that have been isolated from the blood and have been shown to induce sleep have
also been linked to the ________ system.
A) urinary
B) respiratory
C) reproductive
D) integumentary
E) immune
Answer: E
28) Which brain area is considered to be a key integrating center for homeostasis?
A) hypothalamus
B) thalamus
C) pituitary gland
D) brain stem
E) medulla
Answer: A
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29) Symptoms of the fight-or-flight reaction include all of these EXCEPT
A) hunger.
B) pounding heart.
C) sweating palms.
D) increased blood pressure.
E) pupillary dilation.
Answer: A
30) The hormone that is released to enhance the fight-or-flight reaction is

A) thyroid hormone.
B) prolactin.
C) oxytocin.
D) epinephrine.
E) antidiuretic hormone.
Answer: D
31) The brain area acknowledged as the center for emotions is the
A) amygdala.
B) hypothalamus.
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
D) pons.
E) cerebellum.
Answer: A
32) An important structure in both learning and memory is the

A) cerebellum.
B) pons.
C) medulla.
D) hippocampus.
E) hypothalamus.
Answer: D
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33) The inability to remember newly acquired information is called
A) discombobulation.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) short-term amnesia.
D) implicit amnesia.
E) retrograde amnesia.
Answer: B
34) Which of these has a higher concentration in cerebrospinal fluid than in the blood?
A) K+
B) H+
C) Ca2+
D) HCO3-
E) Na+
Answer: B
35) Enhancement of the postsynaptic cell's response to a repeated stimulus is called

A) training.
B) learning.
C) reflexation.
D) facilitation.
E) consolidation.
Answer: D
36) Declarative memories are stored in cortical areas of the ________ lobes.
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) temporal
D) amygdala
E) cerebellar
Answer: C
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37) Reflexive memories are stored in areas of the
A) frontal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) cerebellum.
Answer: E
38) An enhancement of the postsynaptic cell's response to a constant stimulus that lasts for a
period of time from hours to weeks is called
A) training.
B) consolidation.
C) long-term potentiation.
D) synchronicity.
E) synaptic plasticity.
Answer: C
Match these terms with their descriptions.
A. gray matter
B. white matter
C. ascending tracts
D. descending tracts
E. propriospinal tracts
39) carry primarily efferent signals from the brain

Answer: D
40) projections of white matter that remain in the spinal cord

Answer: E
41) unmyelinated, consists of cell bodies, dendrites, and axon terminals

Answer: A
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42) projections that carry sensory information to the brain
Answer: C
43) myelinated axons with very few cell bodies

Answer: B
Match these terms with their descriptions.
A. dorsal horns
B. columns
C. ventral root
D. dorsal root ganglia
E. nuclei
44) swellings containing sensory cell bodies

Answer: D
45) tracts of axons that transfer information to and from the brain
Answer: B
46) motor fibers leave the spinal cord's gray matter via this
Answer: C
47) cluster of gray matter in the brain

Answer: E
48) sensory fibers enter this part of the "H"

Answer: A
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Match these brain areas with their descriptions.
A. cerebellum
B. hypothalamus
C. thalamus
D. cerebrum
49) composed of many small nuclei, an area that integrates as well as relays sensory information
that passes through it
Answer: C
50) receives sensory input from the inner ear's receptors for equilibrium and balance
Answer: A
51) composed of distinct regions of gray and white matter, a section of the brain that develops with
sulci and gyri
Answer: D
52) playing key roles in homeostasis, an area that contains centers for hunger and thirst, as well as
controlling the autonomic nervous systems
Answer: B
Match these brain areas with their locations.
A. primary somatic sensory cortex

B. visual cortex
C. auditory cortex
D. association areas
53) all lobes

Answer: D
54) parietal lobe

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Answer: A
55) temporal lobe

Answer: C
56) occipital lobe

Answer: B
69) Some types of antihistamines make one sleepy, others do not. This difference is partly
attributed to a difference in
A) lipid solubility.
B) the type of receptor involved.
C) ATP-dependence of drug transport.
D) whether or not the drug mimics the hormone melatonin.
Answer: A
Section Title: Anatomy of the Nervous System
70) A complete spinal cord transection injury results in paralysis, which is the inability to do
which of the following?
A) move voluntarily
B) move at all
C) feel
D) move voluntarily and feel
E) move at all and feel
Answer: D
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71) General anesthetics keep surgical patients unconscious by reducing activity in the
A) hippocampus.
B) corpus callosum.
C) lateral ventricles.
D) reticular formation.
E) medullary pyramids.
Answer: D
72) Caffeine and related stimulants exert their effects by

A) mimicking a specific neurotransmitter.
B) inhibiting a specific neurotransmitter.
C) mimicking a specific neuromodulator.
D) inhibiting a specific neuromodulator.
Answer: D
73) Experimental animals become tamer and more sexually active following damage to the
A) amygdala.
B) hippocampus.
C) suprachiamatic nucleus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) corpus callosum.
Answer: A
74) You used to love to drink milk when you were a child. Lately, you notice that your stomach
hurts and you experience bloating and discomfort when you drink it. It is no longer inviting when
you see someone else drinking it. What kind of learning has occurred?
A) associative
B) anterograde
C) habituation
D) sensitization
Answer: D
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75) When a puppy is scolded "No!" each time he chews on your ficus tree, eventually he learns to
leave the tree alone. This type of learning is called
A) associative.
B) nonassociative.
C) habituation.
D) sensitization.
Answer: A
Match these functions with the correct brain area.
A. medulla oblongata
B. pons
C. midbrain
D. reticular formation
76) contains corticospinal tracts, the pyramids, and control centers for breathing, swallowing, and
blood pressure
Answer: A
77) network to coordinate arousal and sleep, but also involved in blood pressure regulation and
pain modulation
Answer: D
78) small area that relays signals for auditory and visual reflexes as well as eye movement
Answer: C
79) relay station for transfer of information between the cerebrum and cerebellum; coordinates
breathing control with other areas
Answer: B
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For the structures listed below, choose one of the following:
A. structure is composed of gray matter

B. structure is composed of white matter
80) cerebral cortex

Answer: A
81) limbic system

Answer: A
82) corticospinal tracts

Answer: B
83) ventral horn

Answer: A
84) basal ganglia

Answer: A
85) corpus callosum

Answer: B
97) There is a legend about an autopsy having been performed on a space alien in New Mexico,
many decades ago. Assuming that this alien was as well-educated and trained on its planet as
NASA educates and trains astronauts on Earth, what feature would be expected in the alien's
brain?
A) a system of fluid-filled cavities deep in the brain
B) a thick band of fibers connecting right and left hemispheres
C) an enlarged area with surface grooves and folds
D) at least 12 pairs of cranial nerves
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E) glandular structures resembling the pineal and pituitary
Answer: C

Chapter 10 Sensory Physiology
1) Which of the following would be an adequate stimulus for a mechanoreceptor?

A) oxygen
B) cell stretch
C) photon of light
D) cold temperature
E) pH
Answer: B
Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems
2) Which of the following would be an adequate stimulus for a chemoreceptor?

A) oxygen
B) cell stretch
C) photon of light
D) cold temperature
E) vibration
Answer: A
3) Identify the FALSE statement regarding sensory receptor cells.

A) Threshold is the minimal stimulus intensity required to generate an action potential.
B) Sensory transduction converts stimulus energy into a receptor potential.
C) Each type of sensory receptor responds only to the stimulus that defines the receptor.
D) A graded potential is referred to as a receptor potential.
E) Many sensory receptor cells are NOT nerve cells.
Answer: C
4) A graded change in membrane potential within a sensory receptor cell is always called a(n)
A) depolarization.
B) hyperpolarization.
C) action potential.
D) receptor potential.
Answer: D
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5) Opening a Na+ channel in a non-neural sensory receptor cell would cause that cell to
A) depolarize.
B) hyperpolarize.
C) generate an action potential.
D) decrease neurotransmitter release.
Answer: D
6) With the exception of olfaction, all sensory pathways first travel to the ________, which acts as
a relay and processing station.
A) cerebrum
B) thalamus
C) cerebellum
D) hypothalamus
E) medulla oblongata
Answer: B
7) A receptor potential is
A) an action potential.
B) a graded potential.
C) the resting membrane potential of a receptor cell.
D) always converted to an action potential in sensory receptor cells.
Answer: B
8) The two-point discrimination test

A) is used to determine clarity of vision.
B) provides information about olfactory receptors.
C) provides a measure of receptive field size for touch receptors.
D) is used to test for hearing disorders.
E) monitors the activity of taste buds.
Answer: C
9) Convergence describes
A) the reason why receptive fields are so small.
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B) how one primary sensory receptor neurons synapses with a secondary neuron.
C) how multiple primary sensory neurons synapse on a single secondary neuron.
D) how receptive fields can overlap with one another.
Answer: C
10) The larger the receptive field, the

A) stronger the stimulus intensity required to activate a sensory receptor.
B) more primary sensory neurons synapse on a secondary sensory neuron.
C) fewer primary sensory neurons are involved.
D) larger the area of the somatosensory cortex in the brain that perceives the sensation.
Answer: B
11) The perception threshold describes the

A) intensity of stimulus required to generate a receptor potential.
B) intensity of stimulus required to generate an action potential.
C) convergence of information from multiple primary sensory neuron onto a single secondary
neuron.
D) concept that neurons higher in the sensory pathway can dampen the intensity of a stimulus.
Answer: D
12) A decrease in ones perception of a stimulus whose intensity has not changed due to higher
neural inhibition is
A) habituation.
B) convergence.
C) divergence.
D) adaptation.
Answer: A
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13) The intensity of a stimulus can be determined within the central nervous system by
A) population coding only.
B) labeled line coding only.
C) frequency coding only.
D) population coding and/or frequency coding.
E) labeled line coding and/or frequency coding.
Answer: D
14) The modality of a stimulus can be determined within the central nervous system by
A) population coding.
B) lateral inhibition.
C) frequency coding.
D) adequate stimulus for the sensory receptor cell.
Answer: D
15) Tonic receptors

A) are quick to adapt to a particular stimulus intensity.
B) slowly decrease the frequency of action potentials generated to a constant stimulus.
C) are attune to changes in a parameter, not the extent of that change.
D) will always decrease to the point where no action potentials are generated.
Answer: B
16) Phasic receptors

A) are quick to adapt to a particular stimulus intensity.
B) slowly decrease the frequency of action potentials generated to a constant stimulus.
C) are attune to parameters that the body must continuously assess.
D) once threshold is reached by a stimulus will always generate action potentials.
Answer: A
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17) Which of the following are responsible for a receptor adapting to a stimulus?
A) K+ channel inactivation only
B) Na+ channel inactivation only
C) opening of Na+ channels only
D) opening of K+ channels only
E) Na+ channel inactivation or K+ channel opening
Answer: E
18) Which of the following is NOT a somatosensory modality?

A) proprioception
B) touch
C) vision
D) nociception
E) temperature
Answer: C
Section Title: Somatic Senses
19) Which of the following statements regarding pathways for somatic perception projection is
correct?
A) The tertiary sensory neurons cross-over the body's midline.
B) The synapse for the secondary to tertiary sensory neuron is within the medulla.
C) The longest of the secondary sensory neurons transmit fine touch and proprioceptive
information.
D) Primary sensory neurons from the hands project to a specific region of the somatosensory
cortex.
E) Primary sensory neurons that respond to cold sensation project to the same region of the
somatosensory cortex.
Answer: D
20) The tactile receptor whose nerve endings are surrounded by concentric connective tissue
layers is the
A) Ruffini corpuscle.
B) Pacinian corpuscle.
C) Meissner's corpuscle.
D) Merkel disc.
E) root hair plexus.
Answer: B
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136
21) Sensory receptors that respond when body temperature is below normal are called
A) warm receptors.
B) photoreceptors.
C) cold receptors.
D) All receptors respond to temperatures above and below body temperature (no unique name).
Answer: C
22) Nociceptors are responsible for the perception of

A) pain only.
B) skin stretch only.
C) itch only.
D) pain and itch.
E) pain and skin stretch.
Answer: D
23) Sharp, localized (fast) pain is rapidly transmitted to the central nervous system along
A) large, unmyelinated C fibers.
B) small, myelinated A-delta fibers.
C) small, unmyelinated C fibers.
D) large, myelinated A-beta fibers.
Answer: B
24) Visceral pain is poorly localized and can be perceived to originate from a region of the body
that is different from it's actual location; this is called
A) analgesia.
B) adaptation.
C) referred pain.
D) tonic reception.
E) latency.
Answer: C
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25) Chronic pain is
A) only pathological.
B) only treated by analgesic drugs.
C) only the result of short-term changes in the nervous system.
D) pathological and treated by analgesic drugs.
Answer: A
26) Chemicals such as histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin, and substance P

A) only sensitize nociceptors.
B) only activate nociceptors.
C) only inhibit nociceptors.
D) only sensitize and activate nociceptors.
E) sensitize, activate and inhibit nociceptors.
Answer: D
27) In addition to temperature, cold receptors respond to

A) menthol.
B) capsaicin.
C) alcohol.
D) water.
Answer: A
28) The gate control theory of pain modulation states that pain transmission can be blocked by
A) cold stimulation of the A-delta fibers.
B) mechanical stimulation of A-beta fibers.
C) stimulation of C-fibers.
D) tonic activity of the inhibitory neurons in the dorsal horn.
Answer: B
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29) Beta-endorphin is produced from the same prohormone as
A) adrenocorticotropin (ACTH).
B) insulin.
C) aldosterone.
D) thyroxine.
E) glucagon.
Answer: A
30) Neuronal cells that are short-lived and therefore are frequently replaced are
A) gustatory receptors.
B) nociceptors.
C) Pacinian corpuscles.
D) olfactory receptors.
E) retinal cells.
Answer: D
Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste
31) When Golf is activated, which of the following steps in the olfactory cells contribute to their
depolarization?
A) increases in adenylate cyclase only
B) increases in cAMP concentrations only
C) increases in the closure of cAMP gated cation channels only
D) increases in adenylate cyclase activity and cAMP concentrations
E) increases in adenylate cyclase activity, cAMP concentrations and closure of cAMP gated cation
channels
Answer: D
32) Gustatory cells that respond to sour via release of serotonin are called
A) type I taste cells.
B) type II taste cells.
C) type III taste cells.
D) basal taste cells.
Answer: C
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33) Gustatory cells that respond to sweet, bitter or umami are called
A) type I cells.
B) type II cells.
C) type III cells.
D) type IV cells.
Answer: B
34) ________ is released from type II cells to stimulate primary gustatory neurons.
A) Serotonin
B) Gustducin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Glutamine
E) ATP
Answer: E
35) Umami is
A) another name for salty taste.
B) a taste receptor cell activated by glutamate and nucleotides.
C) a flavor enhancer that is part of olfaction.
D) the name of the ion channel activated by glutamate.
Answer: B
36) Signal transduction in the type II taste cells relies on the G protein
A) Golf.
B) Ggus.
C) gustducin.
D) transducin.
Answer: C
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37) There are ________ primary taste (gustation) sensations.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 5
D) 20
E) 400
Answer: C
38) The loudness or intensity of a sound wave is related to its

A) amplitude.
B) frequency.
C) duration.
D) pitch.
Answer: A
Section Title: The Ear: Hearing
39) The pitch of a sound wave is related to its

A) amplitude.
B) frequency.
C) duration.
D) decibels.
Answer: B
40) The primary purpose of the middle ear bony structures (maleus, incus and stapes) is to
A) equalize pressure in the middle ear.
B) amplify the vibration as it conducts to the cochlea.
C) dampen the vibration as it conducts to the cochlea.
D) transmit otitis media to the cochlea.
E) transduce the sound waves into vibration.
Answer: B
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41) The ion channels that transduce the vibration of the cochlea into receptor potentials are
located on the
A) stereocilia.
B) tectorial membrane.
C) helicotrema.
D) cochlear duct.
E) basilar membrane.
Answer: A
42) The external auditory canal ends at the

A) vestibule.
B) cochlear oval window.
C) malleus.
D) tympanic membrane.
E) pinna.
Answer: D
43) The bones within the middle ear connect the

A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
B) tympanic membrane to the round window.
C) oval window to the round window.
D) cochlea to the tympanic membrane.
E) cochlea to the oval window.
Answer: A
44) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements (vibrations) by the
A) malleus.
B) cochlea.
C) oval window.
D) round window.
E) tympanic membrane.
Answer: E
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45) A structure that allows the middle ear to communicate with the nasopharynx is the
A) pinna.
B) membranous labyrinth.
C) bony labyrinth.
D) eustachian tube.
E) auditory meatus.
Answer: D
46) The receptors of equilibrium and hearing are the

A) utricles.
B) saccules.
C) hair cells.
D) supporting cells.
E) ampullae.
Answer: C
Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium
47) The structure that overlies the organ of Corti and is attached to the tips of the hair cells is the
A) basilar membrane.
B) tectorial membrane.
C) stapedius.
D) perilymph.
E) endolymph.
Answer: B
48) The structure that separates the cochlear duct from the tympanic duct is the
A) tectorial membrane.
B) basilar membrane.
C) membranous labyrinth.
D) bony labyrinth.
E) stapedius.
Answer: B
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49) The highest frequency sound is detected by
A) unique hair cells located anywhere along the basilar membrane.
B) hair cells located near the middle of the basilar membrane.
C) hair cells located near the oval window end of the basilar membrane.
D) hair cells located near the helicotrema end of the basilar membrane.
E) the frequency at which the stereocilia vibrate.
Answer: C
50) Louder noises result in action potentials in the sensory neuron that are
A) taller.
B) shorter.
C) broader.
D) more frequent.
E) less frequent.
Answer: D
51) Collateral pathways take vestibular receptor signals from the medulla to the
A) reticular formation only.
B) thalamus only.
C) cerebellum only.
D) reticular formation and cerebellum.
E) thalamus and reticular formation.
Answer: D
52) The hair cell of the cochlea is depolarized when the stereocilia are bent
A) in any direction.
B) towards the smallest stereocilia.
C) towards the tallest stereocilia.
D) towards the middle stereocilia.
E) Hair cells are not depolarized by bending of the sterocilia.
Answer: B
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53) ________ between hair cell stereocilia ensure that when the largest stereocilia is bent, all of the
sterocilia are bent thereby gating more ion channels.
A) Kinocilia
B) Otoliths
C) Utricles
D) Tip links
Answer: D
54) Which structures monitor rotational acceleration of the head?

A) cristae of the semicircular canals
B) maculae of the saccule only
C) maculae of the utricle only
D) maculae of the utricle and saccule
Answer: A
55) Sensations of the forces of gravity and linear acceleration are detected in the
A) semicircular canals.
B) cochlea.
C) ossicles.
D) saccule and utricle.
E) organ of Corti.
Answer: D
56) The cilia of the hair cells of the semicircular canals are embedded in the
A) saccule.
B) ampullae.
C) cristae.
D) utricle.
E) cupula.
Answer: E
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57) The hair cells of utricle and saccule are clustered in
A) ampullae.
B) cristae.
C) cupulae.
D) maculae.
E) otoliths.
Answer: D
58) Our perception of the pull of gravity and linear acceleration is the result of
A) changes in the pressure exerted by the cupula on hair cells.
B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells.
C) the pressure exerted by the otolithic organ on hair cells of the maculae.
D) the movement of the otolithic organ within the ampullae of the semicircular canals.
Answer: C
59) The hair cell of the semicircular canal hyperpolarize when the stereocilia are bent
A) in any direction.
B) towards the kinocilium.
C) away from the kinocilium.
D) towards the longest stereocilia.
E) Hair cells are not hyperpolarized by bending of the sterocilia.
Answer: C
60) The vitreous chamber of the eye

A) contains the lens.
B) helps to stabilize the structure of the eye and the retina.
C) contains blood vessels that nourish the retina.
D) is located between the lens and the iris.
Answer: B
Section Title: The Eye and Vision
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61) The central opening in the eye through which the light passes on to the retina is the
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) pupil.
D) lens.
E) fovea.
Answer: C
62) The ciliary muscle helps to

A) control the amount of light reaching the retina.
B) control the shape of the lens.
C) control the production of aqueous humor.
D) move the eyeball.
Answer: B
63) An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the
A) outer segment.
B) inner segment.
C) fovea.
D) optic disc.
E) tapetum lucidum.
Answer: C
64) Accomodation describes the focusing of light on the retina by changing

A) the shape of the lens.
B) pupillary diameter.
C) the shape of the cornea.
D) distance of the retina from the lens.
Answer: A
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65) A blind spot in the retina occurs where
A) the fovea is located.
B) ganglion cells synapse with bipolar cells.
C) the optic nerve leaves the eye.
D) rod cells are clustered to form the macula.
E) amacrine cells are located.
Answer: C
66) Which of the following cells is NOT localized to the retina?

A) rods
B) vertical
C) bipolar
D) cones
E) amacrine
Answer: B
67) The photosensitive pigment synthesized from vitamin A is

A) retinal.
B) opsin.
C) rhodopsin.
D) transducin.
E) cGMP.
Answer: A
68) On a dark night, the rods have a high concentration of

A) opsin.
B) cAMP.
C) cGMP.
D) kinase.
Answer: C
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69) Which of the following cells involved in processing visual information in the retina synapse
with the rods?
A) horizontal cells only
B) ganglion cells only
C) bipolar cells only
D) horizontal and bipolar cells only
E) horizontal, ganglion, and bipolar
Answer: E
70) Photoreceptors secrete the neurotransmitter

A) acetylcholine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) glutamate.
D) dopamine.
Answer: C
Match the type of receptor with the appropriate description.
A. chemoreceptors
B. touch receptors
C. thermoreceptors
D. nociceptors
71) The most studied examples of this type are phasic receptors called Pacinian corpuscles.
Answer: B
72) These receptors slowly adapt, and would be activated when the skin is between 20-40° C.
Answer: C
73) These receptors respond to stimuli that are harmful or potentially harmful to body tissues and
lead to the perception of pain.
Answer: D
74) These are probably the oldest sensory receptors as evidenced by their existence in primitive
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animals that do not have formalized nervous systems.
Answer: A
Match the stimulus to the type of receptor that typically responds to it.
A. chemoreceptor
B. mechanoreceptor
75) oxygen
Answer: A
76) pH
Answer: A
77) stretch
Answer: B
78) pressure
Answer: B
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Match the specific receptor to its typical stimulus.
A. free nerve ending

B. Merkel receptor
C. Meissner's corpuscle
D. Ruffini corpuscle
E. Pacinian corpuscle
79) texture
Answer: B
80) flutter
Answer: C
81) stretch
Answer: D
82) vibration
Answer: E
83) temperature
Answer: A
116) A molecule that prevents substance P from binding to its receptor would
A) stimulate a painful sensation.
B) reduce the perception of pain.
C) alter the perception of hot and cold stimuli.
D) interfere with transduction from chemoreceptors.
E) heighten the perception of touch.
Answer: B
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117) Inhibiting adenyl cyclase in olfactory sensory neurons would
A) increase the sensitivity of these receptors.
B) expand the range of sensitivity of these receptors.
C) reduce the sensitivity of these receptors.
D) convert the olfactory receptors from phasic to tonic receptors.
E) have no effect on these receptors.
Answer: C
118) After an injury, Paul has difficulty recognizing and interpreting certain sounds. These
symptoms imply damage to the
A) external ear.
B) auditory cortex.
C) middle ear.
D) cochlea.
Answer: B
119) The release of neurotransmitter from a vestibular hair cell into the synapse with a sensory
neuron would increase
A) in response to any mechanical stimulation of the hair cell.
B) when the stereocilia of the hair cell are displaced away from the kinocilium.
C) when the stereocilia are equally displaced to either side of the kinocilium.
D) when the stereocilia of the hair cell are displaced toward the kinocilium.
Answer: D
120) Low frequency sound waves create the maximum displacement of the basilar membrane
________, where that membrane is ________.
A) near the helicotrema , stiffer
B) near the helicotrema, flexible
C) near the oval window, stiffer
D) near the oval window, flexible
E) in the middle, stiffer
Answer: B
121) Movement of the cupula in the ampullae of the semicircular canals allows detection of
A) high frequency sound.
B) low frequency sound.
C) rotational movements.
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D) a change in body position with respect to gravity.
E) linear acceleration.
Answer: C
122) For astronauts in space, the otoliths in the macula would respond to
A) head position only.
B) linear acceleration only.
C) rotational acceleration only.
D) linear acceleration and head position.
Answer: B
123) A viral infection involving the vestibular nuclei may result in

A) loss of hearing.
B) loss of sight.
C) a sense of dizziness.
D) local paralysis.
E) high blood pressure.
Answer: C
124) A decrease in the release of neurotransmitter from the photoreceptor would indicate a(n)
A) decrease in light intensity.
B) lack of light reaching the retina.
C) increase in light intensity.
D) change in focus of the lens onto a distant object.
Answer: C
125) If the sodium pump in the membranes of the photoreceptors were completely blocked, the
result would be
A) bright white light as all cones would be activated.
B) an increase in visual acuity.
C) darkness (blindness).
D) grey images as only rods would function.
E) the cells would not be able to produce glutamate.
Answer: C
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126) If a person's cornea is flatter than normal, this person is
A) presbyopic.
B) myopic.
C) hyperopic.
D) hypopic.
E) astigmatic.
Answer: C
127) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by a photon of light. Place them in
the correct sequence.
1. Membrane sodium channels close.
2. cGMP is broken down.
3. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines.
4. Transducin is activated.
5. Opsin is activated.
A) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3
B) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
C) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
D) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
Answer: B
128) A sudden flash of bright light would cause

A) parasympathetic activation to contract the pupillary constrictor muscles.
B) sympathetic activation to contract the pupillary constrictor muscles.
C) parasympathetic activation to contract the pupillary dilator muscles.
D) sympathetic activation to contract the pupillary dilator muscles.
E) contraction of the ciliary muscle.
Answer: A
129) Why do objects viewed underwater with a mask appear closer and larger than they really
are?
A) Water is denser than the lens of the eye.
B) Light moves more slowly through the water.
C) The mask provides additional refraction of light before it reaches the retina.
D) The cornea does not function in water, and the light is not refracted as much.
E) Light traveling through the water scatters more than it does when moving through the air.
Answer: C
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130) Damage to the fovea of the eye would interfere with the ability to
A) focus an image.
B) regulate the amount of light striking the retina.
C) detect objects in the periphery of ones field of vision.
D) detect the detailed image of objects in the middle of ones field of vision.
E) detect color images.
Answer: D
131) When a rod located in the retina is stimulated by light,

A) the cell depolarizes.
B) the inactive form of retinal associates with bleached opsin.
C) the activity of transducin decreases.
D) the release of neurotransmitter increases.
E) the intracellular concentration of cGMP decreases.
Answer: D
132) Put these structures of the visual system in the order that they transmit light to the retina.
1. lens
2. aqueous humor
3. cornea
4. vitreous humor
A) 3, 4, 1, 2
B) 3, 2, 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 4, 3, 2
E) 2, 3, 4, 1
Answer: B
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133) Put these structures of the visual system in the order that they transmit visual information
from the retina.
1. optic disk
2. visual cortex of the occipital lobe
3. optic chiasm
4. lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
A) 3, 1, 2, 4
B) 3, 1, 4, 2
C) 1, 3, 4, 2
D) 1, 3, 2, 4
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: C
136) Which two sensory systems contain structures called maculae?

A) gustatory and olfactory
B) olfactory and auditory
C) auditory and vestibular
D) vestibular and visual
E) visual and somatosensory
Answer: D
Match the symptoms to the problem.
A. damage to the cerebral cortex

B. degeneration of hair cells
C. ringing in the ears
D. dizziness and nausea
E. problems with structures of the middle ear
137) Ménière's disease

Answer: D
138) tinnitus
Answer: C
139) central hearing loss

Answer: A
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140) sensorineural hearing loss

Answer: B
141) conductive hearing loss

Answer: E
Match the ganglion cell response to the location of the light stimulus.
A. fully excited
B. fully inhibited
C. weak response
142) Light only shines on the center of an off-center visual field.

Answer: B
143) Light only shines on the center of an on-center visual field.

Answer: A
144) Light only shines on the surround of an off-surround visual field.

Answer: B
145) Light only shines on the surround of an on-surround visual field.

Answer: A
146) Diffuse light illuminates both center and surround of on-center cell.
Answer: C
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147) Diffuse light illuminates both center and surround of on-surround cell.
Answer: C

Chapter 11 Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
1) Nicotine is thought to cause approximately ________ deaths per year, worldwide.

A) 500
B) 5,000
C) 50,000
D) 500,000
E) 5,000,000
Answer: E
Section Title: Introduction
2) The two divisions of the efferent side of the peripheral nervous system are
A) somatic motor neurons and voluntary neurons.
B) somatic motor neurons and autonomic neurons.
C) the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
D) voluntary nervous system and somatic motor neurons.
Answer: B
Section Title: Introduction
3) The division of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for intense levels of
activity and stress is the
A) sympathetic division.
B) parasympathetic division.
C) craniosacral division.
D) intramural division.
E) somatomotor division.
Answer: A
Section Title: The Autonomic Division
4) Which statements apply to the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?

A) It is dominant during "resting and digesting."
B) Its ganglia are nearby, on or near their target organs.
C) Epinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic division.
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D) It is dominant during "resting and digesting" and its ganglia are nearby, on or near their
target organs.
E) All of the statements apply.
Answer: D
5) Nicotine enhances the release of ________ in the brain.

A) serotonin
B) dopamine
C) acetylcholine
D) epinephrine
E) glutamate
Answer: B
6) Which area is NOT normally considered to be an autonomic control center?

A) pons
B) medulla
C) amygdala
D) hypothalamus
Answer: C
7) Antagonistic control of efferent output is typical of the ________ division.

A) somatic
B) sensory
C) autonomic
D) somatic and sensory
E) somatic and autonomic
Answer: C
8) The presence of two peripheral efferent neurons in a pathway is typical of the ________
division.
A) somatic
B) sensory
C) autonomic
D) somatic and sensory
E) somatic and autonomic
Answer: C
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9) The adrenal medulla is important to the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system
because
A) it is a source of catecholamines.
B) it is considered a modified sympathetic ganglion.
C) it releases epinephrine and norepinephrine directly into the blood.
D) it is a source of catecholamines and it is considered a modified sympathetic ganglion.
E) it is a source of catecholamines, it is considered a modified sympathetic ganglion, and it releases
epinephrine and norepinephrine directly into the blood.
Answer: E
10) Each of these statements is true except one. Identify the exception.
A) Monoamine oxidase is the main enzyme responsible for the degradation of catecholamines.
B) β1 receptors respond equally well to both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
C) β2 receptors are not innervated by sympathetic neurons, so are more sensitive to epinephrine,
delivered via the blood.
D) Activation of α receptors opens Na+ channels in the membrane.
Answer: D
11) Which of the following has its cell body in the ganglion?
A) preganglionic neuron
B) postganglionic neuron
C) somatic motor neuron
D) preganglionic neuron and postganglionic neuron
E) preganglionic neuron, postganglionic neuron, and somatic motor neuron
Answer: B
12) Which area(s) of the brain exert(s) control over the autonomic nervous system?
1. cerebrum
2. cerebellum
3. hypothalamus
4. pons
5. medulla
6. thalamus
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B) 1, 3, 5
C) 1, 3, 4, 5
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D) 1, 2, 3, 5
E) 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: C
13) Which functions are controlled through the autonomic nervous system?
1. blood pressure
2. heart rate
3. water balance
4. temperature regulation
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: E
14) Sweat glands contain

A) cholinergic receptors.
B) alpha receptors.
C) beta receptors.
Answer: A
15) Increased parasympathetic stimulation

A) increases heart rate.
B) increases gastric motility.
C) causes sweat glands to release sweat.
D) causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate.
E) causes the pupils to dilate.
Answer: B
16) "Dual innervation" refers to an organ receiving

A) two nerves from the spinal cord.
B) both autonomic and somatomotor nerves.
C) both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.
D) nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord.
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Answer: C
17) The motor end plate is

A) a folded area of muscle cell membrane with ACh receptors clustered at the top of each fold.
B) the same as the neuromuscular junction.
C) the same as the synaptic cleft.
D) formed by the membrane of enlarged axon terminals, or boutons, that lie on the surface of
skeletal muscle cells.
E) a special fibrous matrix whose collagen fibers hold the axon terminal in proper position.
Answer: A
Section Title: The Motor Division
Match the following with its description.
A. acetylcholine
B. norepinephrine
C. cholinergic nicotinic receptor
D. adrenergic receptor
E. cholinergic muscarinic receptor
18) parasympathetic tissue receptor

Answer: E
19) target receptor for preganglionic neurons

Answer: C
20) released by all autonomic preganglionic neurons

Answer: A
21) primary sympathetic neurotransmitter

Answer: B
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22) sympathetic tissue receptor
Answer: D
Match the answers to the questions.
A. true only for the sympathetic division

B. true only for the parasympathetic division
C. true for both divisions
23) The neural pathway from the spinal cord to the target tissue has two neurons, the
preganglionic neuron and the postganglionic neuron.
Answer: C
24) Most preganglionic neurons originate in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.
Answer: A
25) The cell bodies of preganglionic neurons are found either in the brain stem or in the sacral
region of the spinal cord.
Answer: B
26) Inside the ganglia are interneurons, which modulate messages.

Answer: C
27) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released by neurons at the neuroeffector synapse.

Answer: B
28) The ganglia are found in a chain that runs close to the spinal cord or along the descending
aorta.
Answer: A
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29) It releases norepinephrine at the neuroeffector synapse.

Answer: A
30) It contains cholinergic neurons.

Answer: C
31) The adrenal medulla is closely allied with this system.

Answer: A
32) On average, one preganglionic neuron synapses with eight or nine postganglionic neurons,
each innervating a different target.
Answer: C
33) It is important during stress or emergencies (fight-or-flight).

Answer: A
34) It dominates during resting-and-digesting activities.

Answer: B
46) Epinephrine and norepinephrine that are released from the adrenal glands affect target tissue
for a longer period of time than the same substances released from neurons at their peripheral
receptors. Why?
A) The adrenal gland releases larger amounts of the neurotransmitters than the neurons.
B) The hormones released from the adrenal glands bind to different receptors than those released
from neurons.
C) There are no enzymes to break down epinephrine and norepinephrine in the blood and very
little in peripheral tissues.
D) The effectors are less sensitive to epinephrine and norepinephrine released by the adrenal
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glands.
E) The epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal glands are released by sympathetic
neurons, whereas parasympathetic neurons release these substances at the effector organs.
Answer: C
An alien retrieved alive from a crashed UFO has had a thorough medical examination. A hormone
with a distinct but similar structure to epinephrine has been isolated, and named ufo-epi.
47) If humans administered a physiological dose of ufo-epi responded to the chemical, which of the
following would indicate ufo-epi is an epinephrine agonist?
A) constriction of respiratory tubes
B) hyperglycemia (high blood glucose)
C) increase in fatty acids in the blood
D) localized sweating
E) decreased heart rate
Answer: C
48) If the results of ufo-epi treatment of humans included pupil dilation, localized sweating, high
blood pressure, and high blood glucose, which conclusion would be indicated?
A) It acts on AMPA receptors.
B) It acts at the neuromuscular junction.
C) It acts on muscarinic receptors.
D) It acts on alpha adrenergic receptors.
E) It acts on beta adrenergic receptors.
Answer: D
49) The drug Chantix®, which treats nicotine addiction, is an ________ for the nicotine receptor.
A) agonist
B) antagonist
Answer: A
50) A child is rushed to the hospital after taking one of his grandmother's blood pressure
medications. He has a low blood pressure and is also having trouble breathing, with audible
wheezing upon exhalation. Which class of drugs did the child most likely take?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) beta blocker
C) calcium channel blocker
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D) diuretic
Answer: B [Beta blockers will cause relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels (prompting
dilation and decreased blood pressure). They cause contraction of smooth muscles in the airways,
resulting in constriction of the respiratory tree and possibly wheezing and dyspnea.]
Match the response with the type of chemical.
A. sympathetic agonist
B. parasympathetic agonist
51) pupil dilation

Answer: A
52) salivation
Answer: B
53) decreased activity in digestive tract

Answer: A
54) fat breakdown

Answer: A
Match the response with the type of chemical

A. sympathetic antagonist
B. parasympathetic antagonist
55) blocks secretion of pancreatic enzymes

Answer: B
56) blocks secretion of adrenal catecholamines

Answer: A
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57) blocks urination

Answer: B
58) blocks sweating

Answer: A

Chapter 12 Muscles
1) A flexor is a skeletal muscle whose shortening moves attached bones

A) away from one another.
B) towards one another.
C) medially
D) laterally.
Answer: B
Section Title: Skeletal Muscle
2) Skeletal muscle cells are usually attached to bone by

A) fascicles.
B) ligaments.
C) tendons.
D) flexors.
Answer: C
3) The origin is the end of the skeletal muscle that attaches to the
A) more stationary bone.
B) more mobile bone.
C) tendon.
D) ligament.
Answer: A
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4) For antagonistic muscle groups to move a limb, flexor contraction occurs coincident with
A) contraction of the extensor.
B) relaxation of the extensor.
C) no changes in the extensor.
D) contraction of the tendon.
Answer: B
5) The function of transverse tubules is to

A) store Ca2+ ions inside the muscle fiber.
B) rapidly conduct action potentials to the interior of the muscle fiber.
C) ensure a supply of glycogen throughout the muscle sarcoplasm.
D) conduct ATP molecules out of the mitochondria throughout the sarcoplasm.
Answer: B
6) ________ is composed of multiple globular molecules polymerized to form long chains or

filaments.
A) Actin
B) Tropomyosin
C) Troponin
D) Myosin
E) Titin
Answer: A
7) Most of the time, the parallel thick and thin filaments of the myofibrils are connected by
________ that span the space between myosin and actin molecules.
A) tropomyosin molecules
B) crossbridges
C) nebulin molecules
D) sarcomeres
E) calcium ions
Answer: B
8) Striated muscles are so-called because of a repeating pattern of light and dark bands. One
repeating unit of the banding pattern is called a
A) myofilament.
B) myomere.
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C) sarcofibril.
D) sarcomere.
E) crossbridge.
Answer: D
9) The I band contains

A) thick filaments only.
B) thin filaments only.
C) myosin only.
D) thick and thin filaments.
Answer: B
10) The H zone contains

A) thick filaments.
B) thin filaments only.
C) actin only.
D) thick and thin filaments.
Answer: A
11) The function of the titin protein is to

A) stabilize the position of the contractile filaments.
B) pull Z lines together during contraction.
C) interact with actin during contraction.
D) release calcium during contraction.
E) cover the myosin binding site on the actin molecule.
Answer: A
12) When a skeletal muscle generates enough force during contraction to shorten,
A) only the sarcomere will shorten.
B) only the A band will shorten.
C) only the I band will shorten.
D) the sarcomere and the I band will shorten.
E) the sarcomere, the A band and the I band will shorten.
Answer: D
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13) The tension generated in a skeletal muscle fiber is directly proportional to the number of
A) thick and thin filaments present.
B) nebulin and titin molecules present.
C) high energy crossbridges formed.
D) low energy crossbridges formed.
E) active sarcomeres.
Answer: C
14) When a skeletal muscle cell contracts and the muscle shortens,
A) myosin heads generate a single power stroke.
B) the position of an actin molecule relative to a myosin molecule does not change.
C) some myosin heads are forming crossbridges as others are releasing them.
D) the actin ATPase allows the actin molecule to swivel.
E) the actin molecule swivels during the power stroke.
Answer: C
15) In order for high force crossbridges to form in contracting skeletal muscle, calcium must
A) bind to calmodulin to phosphorylate the myosin.
B) phosphorylate the tropomyosin which moves it.
C) phosphorylate the troponin to move the tropomyosin.
D) bind to tropomyosin which moves the troponin.
E) bind to troponin which moves the tropomyosin.
Answer: E
16) Each myosin head has a binding site for

A) calcium only.
B) actin only.
C) ATP only.
D) calcium and ATP.
E) actin and ATP.
Answer: E
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17) As ATP binds to the myosin head at the beginning of a muscle contraction cycle, the myosin
head immediately
A) detaches from actin.
B) initiates binding with actin.
C) tightens its bond to actin.
D) swivels.
Answer: A
18) The molecular event that occurs immediately after the power stroke is the
A) release of actin from the myosin head.
B) hydrolysis of ATP by the myosin head.
C) release of ADP from the myosin.
D) binding of tropomyosin to the myosin.
E) binding of actin to the myosin.
Answer: C
19) The hydrolysis of ATP causes myosin to immediately

A) swivel, moving the actin molecule.
B) release of ADP.
C) release from the actin.
D) rotate into a position (cocked) to bind to actin.
E) bind more tightly to the actin (rigor).
Answer: D
20) Which of the following would cause the crossbridge to transition from a high force state to a
low force state?
A) increasing myosin ATPase activity
B) increasing intracellular calcium
C) decreasing intracellular calcium
D) energizing the myosin head
E) decreasing myosin ATPase activity
Answer: C
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21) The action potential traveling along the t-tubule is detected by the
A) ryanodine receptor.
B) dihydropyridine (DHP) receptor (L-type calcium channel).
C) acetylcholine receptor.
D) Ca2+ ATPase.
Answer: B
22) The binding of acetylcholine to its receptor at the neuromuscular junction causes the opening
of a
A) Na+ channel.
B) channel for both Na+ and K+.
C) calcium channel.
D) ryanodine receptor.
Answer: B
23) The contraction cycle is triggered by the rise in ________ released from the sarcoplasmic
reticulum (SR).
A) Na+
B) K+
C) Ca2+
Answer: C
24) The relaxation of skeletal muscle relies on the activity of the ________, which decreases
cytoplasmic calcium concentration.
A) ryanodine receptor
B) dihydropyridine (DHP) receptor (L-type calcium channel)
C) acetylcholine receptor
D) Ca2+ ATPase
Answer: D
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25) The brief period of time between the beginning of the action potential in the muscle and the
beginning of contraction is referred to as the
A) refractory period.
B) latent period.
C) relaxation phase.
D) depolarization period.
E) repolarization period.
Answer: B
26) ________ is the backup energy molecule that can be rapidly converted to ATP in active
skeletal muscle.
A) Protein
B) Glucose
C) Fatty acid
D) Phosphocreatine
Answer: D
27) During heavy exercise, the ATP requirements of active muscle are likely to be met by
metabolism of
A) protein.
B) fatty acids.
C) carbohydrates.
D) nucleotides.
Answer: C
28) Muscle fatigue arises primarily from failure in

A) neuromuscular transmission.
B) initiation of contraction by the motor cortex.
C) excitation-contraction coupling.
D) signal relay from brain to spinal cord.
E) calcium pumps in the skeletal muscles.
Answer: C
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29) The cause of skeletal muscle fatigue during extended submaximal exercise is primarily a(n)
A) depletion of glycogen stores.
B) depletion of creatine stores.
C) increased inorganic phosphate (Pi) concentration.
D) depletion of K+ stores.
Answer: A
30) Which of the following is a characteristic of slow-twitch oxidative skeletal muscle fibers?
A) long contraction duration only
B) few mitochondria only
C) high capillary density only
D) long contraction duration and high capillary density
E) long contraction duration, few mitochondria, and high capillary density
Answer: D
31) The speed with which force is developed by skeletal muscles is determined by the
A) Ca2+ ATPase activity.
B) sarcoplasmic calcium concentration.
C) myosin ATPase isoform.
D) Ca2+ ATPase activity and sarcoplasmic calcium concentration.
E) Ca2+ ATPase activity, myosin ATPase isoform, and sarcoplasmic calcium concentration.
Answer: C
32) Within a single fiber, the tension developed during a twitch depends upon the
A) amplitude of the action potential.
B) length of the sarcomeres prior to contraction.
C) length of the thick filament.
D) duration of the stimulus.
Answer: B
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33) When comparing complete tetanus with unfused (incomplete) tetanus, which is true?
A) Complete tetanus involves some relaxation between twitches.
B) Complete tetanus involves development of maximum tension.
C) Complete tetanus occurs at a lower frequency of stimulation than unfused tetanus.
D) Complete tetanus would occur when there is more time between twitch contractions.
Answer: B
34) A motor unit consists of

A) one neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it controls.
B) one skeletal muscle fiber and all the neurons that control that fiber.
C) one skeletal muscle fiber and the neuron that controls that fiber.
D) one axon terminal branch and the myofibrils it controls.
Answer: A
35) Motor units that control skeletal muscles involved with fine motor movements (eye muscles or
the hands) have ________ muscle fibers than motor units that control more gross movements
(gastrocnemius muscle of the lower leg).
A) more
B) fewer
C) the same number of
Answer: B
36) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the motor units and their
activation?
A) A motor unit in muscles of gross movement can have thousands of muscle cells.
B) All muscle fibers in a single motor unit are of the same fiber type.
C) A weak contractile stimulus activates fast-twitch motor units.
D) The metabolic capacity of muscle fibers within a motor unit can be altered.
E) At its peak intensity, a contractile stimulus will activate muscle fibers that are easily fatigued.
Answer: C
175
37) Which fibers generate more force?
A) fast-twitch fibers
B) slow-twitch fibers
Answer: A
38) Which fibers fatigue sooner?

A) fast-twitch fibers
B) slow-twitch fibers
Answer: A
39) The nervous system avoids muscle fatigue during submaximal contraction by
A) always recruiting slow-twitch motor units.
B) asynchronous recruitment.
C) synchronous recruitment.
D) always recruiting fast-twitch motor units.
Answer: B
40) A contraction that generates enough force to move a load is known as ________, whereas one
that generates force that equals the load is known as ________.
A) isotropic, isometric
B) isometric, eccentric
C) isotonic, isometric
D) isometric, isotonic
E) isotonic, eccentric
Answer: C
Section Title: Mechanics of Body Movement
41) Before the entire muscle can change length, the force generated by the muscle must stretch the
A) eccentric contractile elements.
B) parallel elastic elements.
C) series elastic elements.
D) contractile elements.
Answer: C
176
42) In the lever system that characterizes the interaction between bones and muscle, the bones act
as the ________ whereas the joints form the ________.
A) lever, fulcrums
B) fulcrum, levers
C) lever, pulleys
D) fulcrum, pulleys
Answer: A
43) In order for the bicep muscle to shorten, the force applied by the muscle must be ________ the
load applied at the hand.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
Answer: A
44) Compared to skeletal muscle, contraction of smooth muscle cells is

A) only a slower response to a stimulus.
B) only sustained without fatigue.
C) only controlled by the somatic nervous system.
D) a slower response to a stimulus and sustained without fatigue.
E) a slower response to a stimulus, sustained without fatigue, and controlled by the somatic
nervous system.
Answer: D
Section Title: Smooth Muscle
45) Smooth muscle cells lack which protein(s)?

A) actin only
B) myosin only
C) troponin only
D) tropomyosin only
E) troponin and tropomyosin
Answer: C
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46) Which of the following is NOT a property of single-unit smooth muscles?
A) All smooth muscle cells are connected by gap junctions.
B) Their contraction occurs in a coordinated manner.
C) Electrical responses travel directly between cells.
D) Only a proportion of the smooth muscle cells receive autonomic nervous input.
E) Each cell functions independent of its neighbor.
Answer: E
47) This protein is activated by the Ca2+-calmodulin complex to phosphorylate the myosin light
chain protein.
A) tropomyosin
B) myosin heavy chain
C) myosin light chain kinase
D) myosin light chain phosphatase
Answer: C
48) The calcium release channel in the smooth muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum that is opened by
increases in phospholipase C activity is the
A) inositol trisphosphate (IP3) receptor channel.
B) ryanodine receptor.
C) dihydropyridine (DHP) receptor.
D) voltage-gated Ca2+ channel.
E) Ca2+-ATPase.
Answer: A
49) A change in smooth muscle cell tension in the absence of a change in electrical potential of the
cells is described as a
A) pacemaker potential.
B) slow wave potential.
C) pharmacomechanical coupling.
D) electromechanical coupling.
Answer: C
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50) Which of the following is NOT a correct comparison of cardiac myocytes to other muscle cell
types?
A) Like smooth muscle cells, some cardiac myocytes have pacemaker potentials.
B) Like some smooth muscle cells, cardiac myocytes are electrically coupled.
C) Like skeletal muscle cells, actin and myosin are organized into sarcomeres.
D) Like skeletal muscle, contraction of cardiac muscle is under autonomic nervous control.
E) Like smooth muscle cells, cardiac muscle is under hormonal control.
Answer: D
Match the structures with the accurate description.
A. muscle fiber
B. fascicle
C. sarcolemma
D. myofibril
E. t-tubules
51) inward extensions of the muscle cell membrane

Answer: E
52) highly organized bundles of contractile proteins within a skeletal muscle cell
Answer: D
53) a single muscle cell

Answer: A
54) the muscle cell membrane

Answer: C
55) a bundle of adjacent muscle cells

Answer: B
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Match from the following list.
A. A band
B. I band
C. Z disk
D. H zone
E. M line
56) The structures that serve as the attachment site for the thin filaments and mark the
boundaries for one sarcomere.
Answer: C
57) The letter assigned to this structure stands for the German word for middle; it is the
attachment site for the thick filaments.
Answer: E
58) The lightest color bands of the sarcomere, comprised only of thin filaments.
Answer: B
59) The band with the most overlap between thick and thin filaments, which unevenly scatters
light leading to its' dark appearance.
Answer: A
60) What are the three types of muscle tissues in the human body? What are the two common
functions of muscles?
Answer: Three types of tissues are skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. The two
common functions are to generate motion and to generate force.
180
79) Put these events in the correct chronological sequence:
1. End-plate potentials trigger action potentials.
2. Transverse tubules convey potentials into the interior of the cell.
3. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end plate.
4. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 3, 1, 2, 4
C) 2, 1, 4, 3
D) 3, 1, 4, 2
E) 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer: B
80) After death, when metabolism stops, in which step of the contractile cycle must skeletal
muscles remain?
A) It depends on what part of the contractile cycle they were in at the time of death.
B) the power stoke phase
C) the rigor state
D) a weak binding state
Answer: C
81) The factor(s) that determine the duration of a twitch in various types of fibers is the speed of
the
A) removal of Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasm only.
B) hydrolysis of ATP only.
C) movement of Na+ across their membranes only.
D) removal of Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasm and hydrolysis of ATP.
E) removal of Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasm and hydrolysis of ATP and movement of Na+ across
their membranes.
Answer: A
82) Skeletal muscle fibers with the greatest endurance rely on ________ for energy.
A) anaerobic glycolysis
B) oxidative phosphorylation
C) lactic acid accumulation
D) ketone body degradation
Answer: B
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83) The force generated by a single muscle fiber can be increased by
A) increasing frequency of action potentials only.
B) increasing muscle length beyond optimal only.
C) increasing the asynchrony of recruitment only.
D) increasing frequency of action potentials and increasing muscle length beyond optimal only.
Answer: A
84) Put these myofibers in the order they would be recruited as the body moves from a weak to a
strong stimulus:
1. glycolytic fast-twitch fibers
2. fatigue-resistant oxidative fast-twitch fibers
3. fatigue-resistant slow-twitch fibers
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 1
C) 3, 2, 1
D) 1, 3, 2
E) 3, 1, 2
Answer: C
85) An important difference between single-unit and multiunit smooth muscle is the
A) numerous gap junctions in single-unit smooth muscle, which allow many cells to work together
as a sheet.
B) longer actin and myosin filaments in multiunit smooth muscle, which allow coordination of
contraction.
C) ability of single-unit fibers to change into multiunit fibers when advantageous.
D) closely controlled individual fibers in single-unit smooth muscle to allow fine control and
graded contractions by selective activation.
Answer: A
86) Relative to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle

A) only uses less energy to generate a given amount of force.
B) only can sustain contractile force without fatigue.
C) only uses calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and extracellular space.
D) uses less energy to generate a given amount of force and can sustain contractile force without
fatigue.
E) uses less energy to generate a given amount of force, can sustain contractile force without
fatigue and uses calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and extracellular space.
Answer: E
182

Chapter 13 Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
1) The effector in a reflex is the

A) control center.
B) afferent neuron.
C) efferent neuron.
D) sensory receptor.
E) muscle or gland.
Answer: E
Section Title: Neural Reflexes
2) A polysynaptic reflex has at least ________ in the reflex pathway.

A) one synapse
B) two synapses
C) two neurons
D) three neurons
E) two synapses and three neurons
Answer: E

A) Adipose tissue is controlled by autonomic efferents.
B) All reflexes require input from the brain.
C) Some reflexes are genetically determined.
D) Muscle spindles are stretch receptors.
E) Proprioceptors detect limb position and movement.
Answer: B
4) Which reflex is NOT controlled by the brain stem?

A) urination
B) vomiting
C) sneezing
D) swallowing
E) salivating
Answer: A
Section Title: Autonomic Reflexes
183
184
5) Which is NOT true regarding autonomic reflexes?
A) Vomiting, sneezing, and coughing are all examples of autonomic reflexes.
B) Integrating centers for autonomic reflexes in the brain include the hypothalamus, brain stem,
and limbic system.
C) Autonomic reflexes are all monosynaptic, with their synapse in the central nervous system.
D) Many autonomic reflexes are characterized by tonic activity, a continuous stream of action
potentials.
Answer: C
Section Title: Autonomic Reflexes
6) The sensory fibers of the muscle spindle organs synapse onto

A) Golgi tendon organs.
B) gamma motor neurons.
C) alpha motor neurons.
D) joint receptors.
Answer: C
Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes
7) The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the
A) stretch reflex.
B) tendon reflex.
C) flexor reflex.
D) crossed extensor reflex.
E) reciprocal reflex.
Answer: B
8) The flexion reflex

A) prevents a muscle from overstretching.
B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension.
C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.
D) makes adjustments in other parts of the body in response to a particular stimulus.
E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.
Answer: C
185
9) The reflex that complements a withdrawal reflex by making compensatory adjustments on the
opposite side of the body receiving the stimulus is the
A) stretch reflex.
B) tendon reflex.
C) flexor reflex.
D) crossed extensor reflex.
E) reciprocal reflex.
Answer: D
10) It is the middle of winter and you walk over an icy patch and lose your balance. As you begin
to fall, you react by extending your arms to catch yourself. In this instance, what type of reflex is
occurring?
A) stretch reflex
B) tendon reflex
C) flexor reflex
D) crossed extensor reflex
E) reciprocal reflex
Answer: D
11) Spinal interneurons prevent muscle antagonists from interfering with an intended movement
by
A) initiating a crossed extensor reflex.
B) initiating a stretch reflex.
C) initiating a tendon reflex.
D) the process of reciprocal inhibition.
E) activating reverberating circuits.
Answer: D
12) The "normal" contractile fibers of the muscle are also called the
A) extrafusal fibers.
B) intrafusal fibers.
C) muscle spindle fibers.
Answer: A
186
13) Motor neurons are sometimes inhibited by
A) Golgi tendon organs.
B) muscle spindle organs.
C) joint receptors.
Answer: A
14) Most reflex movements are integrated by

A) the brain.
B) the spinal cord.
C) central pattern generators.
D) proprioceptors.
E) effectors.
Answer: B
15) Which class of movement can be considered a combination of the other two?
A) reflex
B) voluntary
C) rhythmic
Answer: C
Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement
16) Most reflexes are regulated by

A) the brain.
B) the spinal cord.
C) ganglia.
D) positive feedback.
E) negative feedback.
Answer: E
17) Interneurons of the corticospinal tract synapse onto

A) visceral efferents.
B) somatic efferents.
C) interneurons of central pattern generators.
Answer: B
187
18) The structure whose abnormal function is associated with Parkinson's disease is the
A) spinal cord.
B) basal ganglia.
C) cerebellum.
D) primary motor cortex.
E) skeletal muscle.
Answer: B
Match the type of reflex to its description.
A. somatic
B. autonomic
C. spinal
D. cranial
E. innate
F. acquired
G. polysynaptic
19) integrated in the brain

Answer: D
20) several neurons involved in a pathway; can be complex

Answer: G
21) involves skeletal muscles

Answer: A
22) reflexes that one is born with; genetically determined

Answer: E
188
23) integrated in the spinal cord, often modulated by the brain
Answer: C
24) an example would be slowing or speeding the heart and other internal organs that are not
consciously controlled
Answer: B
25) our experiences tell us how to behave; bracing yourself in anticipation would be an example
Answer: F
Match the structure to its description.
A. muscle spindles
B. Golgi tendon organs
C. both
26) maintain muscle tone at rest through tonic activity

Answer: A
27) have afferent neurons that bring information to the CNS

Answer: C
28) excite both alpha and gamma motor neurons

Answer: A
29) found at the junction of tendons and muscle fibers

Answer: B
189
30) have gamma motor neurons that innervate internal fibers
Answer: A
31) eventually synapses with alpha motor neurons that innervate extrafusal muscle fibers
Answer: A
48) After stretching an intrafusal fiber, the next event is

A) an increase in action potentials along the associated sensory neuron.
B) a decrease in muscle tension.
C) a decrease in muscle tone.
D) decreased sensitivity to stretching.
Answer: A
49) When there is a resistance to the movement produced by a given limb muscle,
A) gamma motor neurons are inhibited by higher brain centers.
B) there is a decrease in the amount of force generated by extrafusal muscle fibers.
C) the muscle involved in the movement immediately shortens when stimulated.
D) intrafusal fibers receive fewer action potentials from the gamma motor neurons.
E) muscle tone is increased and more motor units are recruited to the contraction.
Answer: E
50) Ten-year-old Tina falls while climbing a tree and lands on her back. Her frightened parents
take her to the local emergency room where she is examined. Her knee jerk reflex is normal and
she exhibits a negative Babinski reflex. These results suggest that
A) Tina has injured one of her descending nerve tracts.
B) Tina has injured one of her ascending nerve tracts.
C) Tina has a spinal injury in the lumbar region.
D) Tina has a spinal injury in the cervical region.
E) Tina suffered no damage to her spinal cord.
Answer: E
190
Chapter 23 Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
1) The action of a hormone on a target cell involves effects on

A) receptor proteins.
B) nonreceptor proteins.
C) lipids.
D) receptor and nonreceptor proteins.
E) receptor proteins and lipids.
Answer: D
Section Title: Review of Endocrine Principles
2) The endocrine gland that is a modified sympathetic ganglion is the

A) thyroid.
B) anterior pituitary.
C) posterior pituitary.
D) adrenal cortex.
E) adrenal medulla.
Answer: E
Section Title: Adrenal Glucocorticoids
3) All of the hormones secreted by the adrenal gland play a major role in growth and metabolism.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
4) Cholesterol is a precursor for the synthesis of

A) progesterone.
B) aldosterone.
C) estradiol.
D) calcitonin.
E) progesterone, aldosterone, and estradiol.
Answer: E
191
5) Crossover effects are sometimes seen among
A) most hormones.
B) all hormones.
C) peptide/protein hormones.
D) steroid hormones.
Answer: D
6) The precursor chemical for ACTH synthesis is

A) CRH.
B) POMC.
C) beta-endorphin.
D) MSH.
E) TRH.
Answer: B
7) The adrenal medulla produces

A) androgens.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) mineralocorticoids.
D) catecholamines.
E) corticosteroids.
Answer: D
8) Which of the following could describe the function of 11 Beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase?

A) An enzyme located in renal tubules that acts on cortisol .
B) It converts cortisol to a less active form.
C) It aids in preventing crossover effects from cortisol.
D) It converts cortisol to a form with a lower specificity for mineralocorticoid receptors there.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Answer: E
192
9) Cortisol secretion peaks between ________ and ________.
A) early morning, noon
B) midnight, early morning
C) noon, early evening
D) early evening, midnight
Answer: A
10) CRH stimulates the release of

A) ACTH.
B) cortisol.
C) DHEA.
D) MSH.
E) None of these answers are correct.
Answer: A
11) Cortisol has the following effects:

A) suppresses the immune system.
B) causes positive calcium balance.
C) influences brain function.
D) suppresses the immune system and causes positive calcium balance.
E) suppresses the immune system and influences brain function.
Answer: E
12) Without cortisol's permissive effect on ________, an animal would die.

A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) thyroid hormone
D) parathyroid hormone
E) aldosterone
Answer: B
193
13) Melanocortins includes one or more of the following:
A) ACTH
B) cortisol
C) growth hormone
D) MSH
E) ACTH and MSH
Answer: E
14) Thyroid hormone contains the mineral

A) sodium.
B) thallium.
C) iron.
D) iodine.
E) zinc.
Answer: D
Section Title: Thyroid Hormones
15) The C cells of the thyroid gland produce

A) only thyroxine.
B) only TSH.
C) only calcitonin.
D) only parathyroid hormone.
E) thryoxine and TSH.
Answer: C
16) Pendrin is an anion transporter important in the production of

A) parathyroid hormone.
B) calcitonin.
C) TRH.
D) TSH.
E) thyroid hormone.
Answer: E
194
17) Iodine accumulation in thyroid cells involves symport with
A) hydrogen.
B) sodium.
C) potassium.
D) chloride.
Answer: B
18) Thyroid hormones

A) are lipophilic.
B) are hydrophilic.
C) must bind to plasma proteins for transport to target cells.
D) are lipophilic and must bind to plasma proteins for transport to target cells.
E) are hydrophilic and must bind to plasma proteins for transport to target cells.
Answer: D
19) The Thyroid hormones T3 and T4 are lipophilic so they do not require transporters to cross
cell membranes.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
20) Which of the following transporters are known to transport thyroid hormones into target
cells?
A) CaSR (calcium sensing receptor)
B) TRPV6
C) Sodium-iodide symporter
D) MCT8
E) Mineralocorticoid receptor
Answer: D
195
21) The pituitary hormone that triggers the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) FSH.
D) TRH
E) CRH.
Answer: A
22) Hyperthyroidism
A) decreases oxygen consumption.
B) increases protein catabolism.
C) decreases protein synthesis.
D) slows heart rate.
E) causes cold intolerance.
Answer: B
23) The effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissue include

A) decreased oxygen consumption.
B) decreased heart rate.
C) increased sensitivity to sympathetic stimulation.
D) increased activity of osteoclasts.
Answer: C
24) GH
A) is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
B) is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
C) binds to a plasma protein.
D) is secreted by the anterior pituitary and binds to a plasma protein.
E) is secreted by the posterior pituitary and binds to a plasma protein.
Answer: D
Section Title: Growth Hormone
196
25) Excess secretion of growth hormone during adulthood will cause
A) goiter.
B) exophthalmus.
C) giantism.
D) acromegaly.
E) diabetes.
Answer: D
26) Somatostatin is another name for

A) growth hormone.
B) growth hormone-releasing hormone.
C) growth hormone-inhibiting hormone.
D) thyroid hormone.
E) parathyroid hormone.
Answer: C
27) Excess growth hormone prior to puberty would result in

A) osteoporosis.
B) cretinism.
C) rickets.
D) giantism.
E) dwarfism.
Answer: D
28) Mature, less active bone cells are termed

A) osteocytes.
B) osteoblasts.
C) osteoclasts.
D) chondrocytes.
E) osteons.
Answer: A
Section Title: Tissue and Bone Growth
197
29) Transcellular transport of intestinal calcium is accomplished by entry into the epithelial
enterocytes via
A) a sodium-iodide transporter.
B) osteoclasts.
C) apical calcium channels (TRPV6 = ECaC).
D) CaSR (calcium sensing receptor).
E) an amino acid transporter (MCT8).
Answer: C
Section Title: Calcium Balance
30) Parathyroid hormone

A) stimulates osteoclast activity.
B) increases the rate of calcium absorption.
C) decreases the rate of calcium excretion.
D) raises the level of calcium ion in the blood.
Answer: E
31) The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that

A) stimulates the formation of white blood cells.
B) increases the level of calcium ions in the blood.
C) increases the level of sodium ions in the blood.
D) increases the level of potassium ions in the blood.
E) increases the level of glucose in the blood.
Answer: B
32) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone
A) calcitonin.
B) thyroid hormone.
C) parathyroid hormone.
D) growth hormone.
E) testosterone.
Answer: A
198
33) A condition that produces a reduction in bone mass or density sufficient to compromise
normal function is
A) cretinism.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteomyelitis.
D) osteitis.
E) acromegaly.
Answer: B
34) Calcium reabsorption at the kidneys is promoted by the hormone

A) calcitonin.
B) calcitriol.
C) aldosterone.
D) cortisol.
E) ADH.
Answer: B
35) A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is

A) parathyroid hormone.
B) thyroxine.
C) calcitonin.
D) glucagon.
E) oxytocin.
Answer: C
36) Parathyroid hormone is

A) a lipid.
B) dissolved in plasma.
C) bound to a carrier.
D) an amine hormone.
E) the cause of Graves' disease.
Answer: D
199
37) Vitamin D (calcitriol)
A) is formed by sunlight only.
B) is bound to plasma protein for transport only.
C) synthesis is stimulated by high calcium levels.
D) is formed by sunlight and bound to plasma protein for transport.
E) is formed by sunlight and synthesis is stimulated by high calcium levels.
Answer: D
Match the disease with the description.
A. Addison's disease
B. Cushing's disease
C. Graves' disease
D. Paget's disease
38) hypercortisolism
Answer: B
39) hyperthyroidism
Answer: C
40) involves endocrine stimulation by antibodies

Answer: C
41) Some symptoms mimic diabetes mellitus.

Answer: B
42) associated with overactive osteoclasts

Answer: D
200
43) Calcitonin may be an appropriate treatment.
Answer: D
44) may be an autoimmune disease

Answer: A
45) may result from adrenal tumor

Answer: B
46) may result from a pituitary tumor

Answer: B
Match the condition with the description.
A. acromegaly
B. adrenogenital syndrome
C. cretinism
D. dwarfism
E. exophthalmus
47) associated with Graves' disease

Answer: E
48) caused by growth hormone deficiency in childhood

Answer: D
49) caused by growth hormone excess in adulthood

Answer: A
201
50) mental retardation associated with infantile hypothyroidism
Answer: C
51) This condition results from excess androgens in females.

Answer: B
Match the condition with its description.
A. giantism
B. kyphosis
C. moon face
D. myxedema
E. goiter
52) caused by growth hormone excess in childhood

Answer: A
53) hunchback appearance associated with osteoporosis

Answer: B
54) puffy appearance associated with hypothyroidism

Answer: D
55) easily observable symptom of hypercortisolism

Answer: C
56) caused by elevation of TSH

Answer: E
202
70) Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex would result in
A) the disappearance of axillary and pubic hair.
B) increased volume of urine formation.
C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood.
D) decreased ability to convert lipids to glucose.
E) increased water retention.
Answer: D
71) A rise in cortisol would cause each of the following except one. Identify the exception.
A) enhanced rate of glucose synthesis by the liver
B) increased rate of glycogen usage by the liver
C) higher levels of fatty acids in the blood
D) suppression of the immune system
E) increased ACTH levels
Answer: E
72) Premature closure of the epiphyseal plates could be caused by

A) high levels of vitamin D3.
B) too much calcium in the diet.
C) elevated levels of sex hormones.
D) too little thyroxine.
E) an excess of growth hormone.
Answer: C
73) Increased blood calcium levels result in increased

A) secretion of calcitonin.
B) secretion of parathyroid hormone.
C) retention of calcium by the kidneys.
D) osteoclast activity.
E) excitability of neural membranes.
Answer: A
203
86) Bill does not begin puberty until he is 16. What effect would you predict this will have on his
stature?
A) Bill will probably be taller than if he had started puberty earlier.
B) Bill will probably be shorter than if he had started puberty earlier.
C) Bill will probably be a dwarf.
D) Bill will have bones that are denser than normal.
E) The late onset of puberty will have no effect on Bill's stature.
Answer: A

Chapter 26 Reproduction and Development
1) Gametes are produced by

A) internal genitalia.
B) external genitalia.
C) gonads.
D) autosomes.
E) sex chromosomes.
Answer: C
Section Title: Sex Determination
2) Egg and sperm cells have

A) 46 chromosomes.
B) 23 chromosomes.
C) just 22 pairs of autosomes plus one pair of sex chromosomes.
D) 46 chromosomes and 23 chromosomes.
E) 46 chromosomes, 23 chromosomes, and 22 pairs of autosomes plus one pair of sex
chromosomes.
Answer: B
3) A zygote with the genotype YO will

A) develop into a male.
B) develop into a female.
C) have Turner's syndrome.
D) have Kleinfelter's syndrome.
E) die.
Answer: E
204
4) A zygote with the genotype XO will
A) develop into a female.
B) have Turner's syndrome.
C) develop into a male.
D) die.
E) develop into a female and have Turner's syndrome.
Answer: E
5) X-linked genes are expressed

A) more often in males.
B) more often in females.
C) at equal rates in the two genders.
Answer: A
6) The product of the SRY gene is

A) testosterone.
B) anti-Müllerian hormone.
C) dihydrotestosterone.
D) 5-α reductase.
E) testis-determining factor.
Answer: E
7) Indifferent gonads develop into testes under the influence of

A) androgens.
B) estrogens.
C) peptide or protein hormones.
Answer: D
8) When allowed to develop, the Müllerian ducts become the

A) fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper vagina.
B) distal vagina, clitoris, and labia.
C) epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles.
D) penis and scrotum.
E) fallopian tubes, uterus, upper vagina, distal vagina, clitoris, and labia.
Answer: A
205
9) Sister chromatids
A) are found in cells called primary gametes.
B) contain twice the normal amount of DNA.
C) occur during ovum formation.
D) are found in cells called primary gametes and contain twice the normal amount of DNA.
E) are found in cells called primary gametes, contain twice the normal amount of DNA, and occur
during ovum formation.
Answer: D
Section Title: Basic Patterns of Reproduction
10) During meiosis, the chromosome number is halved

A) during the first meiotic division.
B) during the second meiotic division.
C) prior to the first meiotic division.
D) prior to the first mitotic division.
Answer: A
11) Mitotic divisions in germ cells

A) are complete before birth.
B) begin at puberty.
C) continue throughout life.
D) end at andropause or menopause.
E) The answer depends on gender.
Answer: E
12) Meiosis of one cell results in production of

A) four gametes.
B) one gamete.
C) four gametes if male, one if female.
D) four gametes if female, one if male.
Answer: C
206
13) Aromatase
A) is an enzyme that inactivates sexual signals after they are smelled.
B) makes one more sensitive to the smell of others.
C) is an enzyme that converts androgens to estrogens.
D) enhances one's response to all signals.
Answer: C
14) Periodic pulsatile secretion of GnRH appears to be important in

A) delaying sexual maturation and puberty.
B) preventing down-regulation of GnRH receptors.
C) development of muscle responses.
D) correct growth of coronary arteries.
Answer: B
15) The fold of skin that covers the tip of the penis is the
A) glans penis.
B) prepuce.
C) corpus cavernosum.
D) corpus spongiosum.
E) penile urethra.
Answer: B
Section Title: Male Reproduction
16) The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the

A) membranous urethra.
B) penile urethra.
C) glans penis.
D) corpus spongiosum.
E) corpus cavernosum.
Answer: D
207
17) In the condition known as cryptorchidism,
A) the testes fail to descend into the scrotum.
B) the testes are surgically removed.
C) the foreskin has been surgically removed.
D) sperm cells are not produced.
E) the prostate gland is enlarged.
Answer: A
18) The small paired glands at the base of the penis that produce a lubricating secretion are the
A) seminal vesicles.
B) prostate glands.
C) preputial glands.
D) Bartholin's glands.
E) bulbourethral glands.
Answer: E
19) Sperm production occurs in the

A) ductus deferens.
B) seminiferous tubules.
C) epididymis.
D) seminal vesicles.
E) rete testis.
Answer: B
20) Interstitial cells produce

A) sperm.
B) inhibin.
C) nutrients.
D) androgens.
E) androgen-binding protein.
Answer: D
208
21) The structure that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the
A) ductus deferens.
B) rete testis.
C) seminal vesicle.
D) ejaculatory duct.
E) corpus cavernosum.
Answer: A
22) The role of the pituitary hormone FSH in males is to

A) stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone.
B) stimulate the Sertoli cells to produce inhibin.
C) initiate sperm production in the testes.
D) develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics.
E) influence sexual behaviors and sex drive.
Answer: C
23) The cervix is

A) homologous to the penis only.
B) the neck of the uterus only.
C) the sensory tissue of the vagina only.
D) homologous to the penis and the neck of the uterus.
E) homologous to the penis, the neck of the uterus, and the sensory tissue of the vagina.
Answer: B
Section Title: Female Reproduction
24) The structure that transports the ovum to the uterus is the
A) uterosacral ligament.
B) vagina.
C) fallopian tube.
D) infundibulum.
E) myometrium.
Answer: C
209
25) The average length of the menstrual cycle is
A) 10 days.
B) 14 days.
C) 21 days.
D) 28 days.
E) 35 days.
Answer: D
26) The surge in LH that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers
A) follicle maturation.
B) menstruation.
C) ovulation.
D) menopause.
E) atresia.
Answer: C
27) ________ decreases ovarian follicle sensitivity to FSH.

A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) GnRH
D) LH
E) Anti-Müllerian hormone
Answer: E
28) The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is

A) LH.
B) FSH.
C) progesterone.
D) estradiol.
E) estrogen.
Answer: C
210
29) Menstruation is triggered by a drop in the level(s) of
A) FSH.
B) LH.
C) relaxin.
D) estrogen and progesterone.
E) human chorionic gonadotropin.
Answer: D
30) Which of the following occurs during days 6-14 of the menstrual cycle?
A) ovulation
B) menstruation
C) proliferative phase
D) secretory phase
Answer: C
31) Which of the following occurs during days 15-28 of the menstrual cycle?
A) proliferative phase
B) ovulation
C) menstruation
D) secretory phase
Answer: D
32) Emission is defined as

A) engorgement of the penis.
B) movement of sperm into the urethra.
C) movement of sperm out of the penis.
D) loss of erection following orgasm.
E) failure to achieve ejaculation.
Answer: B
Section Title: Procreation
211
33) Which of the following occurs during an erection?
A) The sympathetic nervous system constricts the veins leaving the penis.
B) Blood fills the corpora spongiosum, causing it to engorge.
C) The veins of the corpora cavernosa dilate.
D) The parasympathetic nervous system dilates the arteries going into the penis.
Answer: D
34) Which form of contraception allows fertilization but prevents implantation?

A) IUD
B) pill
C) female condom
D) diaphragm
E) sponge
Answer: A
35) The corpus luteum in a nonpregnant woman usually lasts about

A) 7 days.
B) 12 days.
C) 3 days.
D) 28 days.
E) 3 months.
Answer: B
Section Title: Pregnancy and Parturition
36) Sperm cannot fertilize an egg until they

A) undergo capacitation.
B) undergo activation.
C) undergo decapitation.
D) lose their acrosome.
E) are in the vagina for 3 days.
Answer: A
212
37) Polyspermy in humans results in
A) twins.
B) triplets.
C) individuals with haploid cells.
D) tetraploid adults.
E) a nonfunctional zygote.
Answer: E
38) The embryo forms from the

A) placenta.
B) morula.
C) inner cell mass of the blastocyst.
D) outer layer of the blastocyst.
E) zona pellucida.
Answer: C
39) The chorionic villi

A) form the umbilical cord.
B) form the umbilical vein.
C) form the umbilical arteries.
D) increase the surface area available for exchange between the placenta and the maternal blood.
E) form the portion of the placenta called the decidua capsularis.
Answer: D
40) The hormone that is the basis for a pregnancy test is

A) LH.
B) progesterone.
C) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
D) human placental lactogen (hPL).
E) relaxin.
Answer: C
213
41) Which of the following hormones is NOT produced by the placenta?
A) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B) human placental lactogen (hPL)
C) relaxin
D) luteinizing hormone
E) progesterone
Answer: D
42) During gestation, powerful uterine contractions are suppressed by elevated levels of
A) progesterone.
B) estrogen.
C) oxytocin.
D) prostaglandins.
Answer: A
43) The hormone primarily responsible for milk synthesis is

A) progesterone.
B) oxytocin.
C) prolactin.
D) estrogen.
E) growth hormone.
Answer: C
44) The hormone primarily responsible for the milk let-down reflex is
A) progesterone.
B) oxytocin.
C) prolactin.
D) estrogen.
E) growth hormone.
Answer: B
214
Match the bipotential structure with its gender-specific result.
A. urethral folds and groove

B. gonad cortex
C. gonad medulla
D. Wolffian duct
E. Müllerian duct
45) ovary
Answer: B
46) testis
Answer: C
47) epididymis
Answer: D
48) shaft of penis

Answer: A
49) uterus
Answer: E
Match the ploidy with a cell stage.
A. haploid
B. diploid
50) germ cell

Answer: B
215
51) spermatogonium or oogonium
Answer: B
52) mature sperm or egg

Answer: A
53) primary spermatocyte or oocyte

Answer: B
54) secondary spermatocyte or oocyte

Answer: A
Match the cells/tissue with the hormone it secretes.
A. Leydig cells
B. granulosa cells
C. corpus luteum
D. placenta
55) progesterone, early in pregnancy

Answer: C
56) human chorionic gonadotropin

Answer: D
57) estrogen in nonpregnant woman

Answer: B
216
58) testosterone
Answer: A

A) Androgens control the development of reproductive organs in the male fetus.
B) Estrogens control the development of the reproductive organs in the female fetus.
C) Females have one less active chromosome than males.
D) Gametogenesis begins in the female fetus.
E) Meiosis is never completed in most oocytes.
Answer: B
85) The following is a list of structures of the male reproductive tract.

1. ductus deferens
2. urethra
3. ejaculatory duct
4. epididymis
Identify the order in which sperm pass through these structures from the testes to the penis.
A) 1, 3, 4, 2
B) 4, 3, 1, 2
C) 4, 1, 2, 3
D) 4, 1, 3, 2
E) 1, 4, 3, 2
Answer: D
86) In the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, the ovary is

A) undergoing atresia.
B) forming a corpus luteum.
C) releasing a mature egg.
D) secreting progesterone.
E) maturing a follicle.
Answer: E
87) An embryo with a genital tubercle, urethral folds, and urethral groove must be
A) under seven weeks old.
B) seven weeks old.
C) nine weeks old.
D) unable to determine the age.
217
Answer: A
88) Hemophilia, color blindness, and Duchenne muscular dystrophy occur more often in males
than females. Why?
A) These traits are carried only on the X chromosome.
B) Since there is no matching gene on the Y chromosome, the traits are expressed more readily in
males.
C) Testis-determining factor (TDF) causes these diseases.
D) These diseases develop due to the lack of estrogen and progesterone.
E) These traits are carried only on the X chromosome and since there is no matching gene on the
Y chromosome, the traits are expressed more readily in males.
Answer: E
89) In the late follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, LH is ________ FSH.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
Answer: A
90) During the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle, progesterone is ________ estrogen.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
Answer: A
91) A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such
that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After the individual grows to maturity, one
would expect that he would
A) not develop secondary sex characteristics.
B) be sterile.
C) be impotent.
D) have impaired function of the interstitial cells.
E) produce large amounts of inhibin.
Answer: B
218
92) A male body builder starts taking injections of testosterone (an anabolic steroid) on a daily
basis. After three weeks, which of the following would you expect to observe?
A) increased sex drive
B) decreased levels of GnRH
C) decreased levels of LH
D) decreased levels of FSH
E) All of the observations
Answer: E
93) Sperm cannot fertilize an egg unless they have been in the female reproductive tract for
several hours. This enhanced ability of the sperm to fertilize the ovum is called capacitation. In
vitro studies indicate that the sperm can fertilize the ovum if they are first washed before being
introduced to the ovum. These observations suggest that
A) capacitation involves the removal of some inhibiting substance(s) from the sperm.
B) capacitation is temperature-dependent.
C) in capacitation, secretions of the female reproductive tract are taken up by the sperm.
D) pH is an important factor in the process of capacitation.
E) only sperm that come into contact with vaginal secretions are capable of fertilizing an ovum.
Answer: A
94) If the ovaries were removed from an otherwise healthy 20-year-old female, which of the
following would you expect to see?
A) increased blood levels of GnRH
B) increased blood levels of FSH
C) increased blood levels of LH
D) cessation of menstruation
E) All of these observations
Answer: E
95) If adenylyl cyclase (the enzyme that converts ATP to cAMP) is blocked,
A) endometrial cells would not respond to estradiol.
B) the corpus luteum would not respond to hCG.
C) the mammary glands would not respond to progesterone.
D) the level of progesterone produced by the ovary during the luteal phase would increase.
E) the activity of progesterone at the endometrium would increase.
Answer: B
219
96) A vasectomy prevents which of the following?
A) ejaculation
B) spermatogenesis
C) erection
D) formed sperm from entering ejaculate
E) ejaculation and spermatogenesis
Answer: D
97) Sally is an avid jogger and she trains incessantly. She has slimmed down so that she is now
underweight for her height and has very little fat tissue. You would expect Sally to
A) have heavy menstrual flows.
B) double ovulate.
C) be amenorrheic.
D) have painful menstrual cramps.
E) show elevated levels of FSH.
Answer: C
Section Title: Growth and Aging
220

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Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 7e (Silverthorn)

Chapter 1 Introduction to Physiology

1) Physiology is the study of

2) The literal meaning of the term physiology is knowledge of

8) Which of the following is one of Cannon's "internal secretions"?

9) The study of body function in a disease state is

10) Homeostasis is the ability of the body to

12) How genetics influences the body's response to drugs is called

17) A technique used to resolve contradictory results in scientific studies is

18) A scientifically logical guess is a

A. a collection of similar cells that carry out similar functions-tissue

26) What is a nocebo effect?

27) List the key concepts or themes in physiology.

28) Adaptive significance is an important concept in physiology because it describes

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 7e (Silverthorn)

11) Essential amino acids that are used to build proteins

12) Which of the following are examples of cations?

13) A positively charged ion is called a(n)

15) A molecule referred to as highly soluble is

16) A free radical is a

17) The chemical bonding behavior of an atom is directly determined by

18) Atoms in a covalent molecule

21) In regard to lipids, the term unsaturated refers to

22) Each amino acid differs from others in the

25) The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of

26) Nucleic acids are polymers of units called

27) A nucleotide consists of a

29) The most important energy-transferring compound in cells is a nucleotide known as

30) Which bases below are purines?

31) Polymers are a typical formation of ________ molecules.

33) A component of an important buffer in the human body is

34) Which of the following substances is most alkaline?

35) If a substance has a pH that is less than 7, it is considered

36) Protein specificity is

37) Which of the following is a common feature of soluble proteins?

40) The identity of an element can be determined by the number of ________.

41) This particle has a charge of +1 and a mass of 1.

42) This particle has a charge of -1 and a negligible mass.

43) This particle has a neutral charge and a mass of 1.

Match each bond type with its description.

A. van der Waals

55) These result when two atoms share a pair of electrons.

Match each class of biomolecules to the correct statement about it.

Match each level of protein structure with its description.

61) applies to proteins containing more than one peptide chain

62) the sequence and number of amino acids in the chain

65) soluble in water

67) disulfide bond

68) lipid carriers

69) structural components

70) irreversible antagonist

71) covalent modulator

72) competitive inhibitor

73) allosteric modulator

97) The designation Ca2+ means

98) In a 5% NaCl solution,

100) A double covalent bond is formed when atoms

101) The term polar is used to describe molecules because

104) Only free H+ contributes to the hydrogen ion concentration.

112) Glycoprotein molecules

Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 7e (Silverthorn)

4) The watery medium that surrounds a cell is known as

6) Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins?