This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on ” Milk

Production – 1″.

1. Off-flavor of milk that may be described as tasteless and the flavor of normal milk lacks in.
a) High acid
b) Rancid
c) Oxidized
d) Flat/watery
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A watery flavor is a kind of off flavor. Normal milk has a denser taste.

2. Flavor detected by consumption of strong feeds or weeds or milk from cows in late stages of
lactation in milk.
a) Feed
b) Salty
c) Bitter
d) Rancid
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Strong feed or weed contributes towards the bitter off-flavor in the milk.

3. Off-flavors are detected in milk when cows eat obnoxious weeds. The flavor can be recognized by
distinctive odor and taste suggested by its name.
a) Rancid
b) Garlic/onion
c) Foreign
d) Flat/watery
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Obnoxious weeds contribute to garlic/onion off flavor in the milk. This off flavor is
recognizable by a distinct smell and taste.

4. Off-flavor to milk due to fly spray, paint, kerosene or creosote. These Substances enter milk as
direct contaminants or in vapor form.
a) Rancid
b) Foreign
c) Feed
d) Malty
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Foreign to milk caused by fly spray, paint, kerosene or creosote.

5. Off-flavor which is pungent in advanced stages and is recognized by its “papery” or cardboard
sensation initially and a tallow odor in more advanced stages.
a) Malty
b) Foreign
c) Salty
d) Oxidized
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Pungency is the characteristic of Oxidized flavor. It has a very distinct carboard
sensation as well.

6. This flavor similar to the flavor of stale fat and has a soapy taste and a goaty, unclean odor as a
result of breaking down of fats in milk.
a) Salty
b) Garlic/onion
c) Feed
d) Rancid
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Due to the breakdown of fats in milk rancid flavor resembles the flavor of stale fat and
has a soapy taste and a goaty, unclean odor.

7. This off-flavor is rarely found except in pasteurized milk that has been stored too long or stored at
slightly high refrigerator temperature.
a) Foreign
b) Unclean
c) High acid
d) Feed
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Unclean flavor is characteristic of the milk which has been stored for prolonged period
of time.

8. This off-flavor is a result of bacterial growth (commonly Streptococcus lactic) and will have
detectable ________ flavor long before it may be classified sour.
a) High acid
b) Malty
c) Feed
d) Rancid
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Streptococcus lactic gives sour off flavor to milk. It initially has a very high acid flavor.

9. Milk inadequately cooled may encounter this off flavor and is caused by improperly cleaned
milking machines or equipment.
a) Malty
b) Foreign
c) Feed
d) Rancid
View Answer
Answer-: a
Explanation: Milk not properly cooled may encounter Malty flavor. Dirty and Unclean machines and
equipment contribute to this flavor.

10. Removing offending _____ from cows four hours before milking can reduce the risk of getting
this off-flavor milk.
a) Bitter
b) Acid
c) Feed
d) Malty
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Feed plays a major role in the flavor of milk. Offending feeds can result in off flavor.

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11. A Mastitis test appearance with a strong gel formation that tends to adhere to paddle and forms
a distinct central peak would have a Leukocyte count/ml of___________
a) Below 200,000
b) 150,000-500,000
c) 800,000-5,000,000
d) Over 5,000,000
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Milk having leukocyte count/ml of over 5,000,000 would be characterized by gel
formations that tend to adhere to paddle. This milk is considered unfit for consumption.

12. While performing a CMT tests watch for color changes and gel formation. Milk from a normal
quarter does which of the following?
a) Gelatinous mass clinging together in a strong reaction
b) Flows freely
c) Gel is fragile and forms small clumps in a moderate reaction
d) Has no pattern, simply is a randomly run test
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Milk from a normal quarter flows freely when performing CMT tests.

This set of Dairy Engineering Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Milk Production – 2”.

1. The dairy product resulting from the addition of a creaming mixture (dressing) that Contains not
less than 4 percent milk fat and not more than 80 percent moisture?
a) Sorbet
b) Sherbet
c) Yogurt
d) Cottage cheese
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cottage cheese is formed by the addition of a creaming mixture to the milk. The
mixture should have 4% fat and <80% moisture.

2. Dairy Rations for lactating cows should be not be calculated based on:
a) Body Size
b) Milk Production
c) Stage of lactation
d) Season
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Body Size, Milk Production and Stage of lactation all three factors contribute towards
the calculation of dairy rations of lactating cows.

3. Which of the following would be classified as a “Hard Cheese”?

a) Brick
b) Monterey Jack
c) Cheddar
d) Brie
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Cheddar would be classified as a “Hard Cheese”. Monterey Jack, cheddar and Brie all
three are the example of soft cheese.

4. __________ is a dairy product resulting from the culturing of a mixture of milk and cream
products, with lactic acid producing bacteria. The product contains not less than 3.25 percent milk
fat and 8.25 percent solids-not-fat.
a) Ice cream
b) Yogurt
c) Cottage cheese
d) Gelato
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Yogurt is a cultured dairy product. It has 3.25% fat and 8.25 SNF. Preparation of yogurt
involves addition of LAB (Lactic acid bacteria) to milk.

5. Of the 14 cheese varieties, which has a tangy peppery flavor, is crumbly and pasty, has a white
interior with veins of mold that are marbled or streaked?
a) Muenster
b) Edam/gouda
c) Swiss
d) Blue
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Blue cheese is characterized by all the above characteristics mentioned in the question.

6. Of the listed below products, which contains no dairy ingredients?

a) Gelato
b) Sherbet
c) Custard
d) Sorbet
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Gelato, sherbet, and custard all three have dairy ingredients in them. Sorbet on the
other hand lacks any dairy ingredient in it.

7. As it comes from a cow, the solids portion of milk contains approximately 3.7 percent fat and ____
percent solids-not-fat.
a) 3%
b) 6%
c) 9%
d) 12%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Solids portion of milk contains 9% SNF.

8. Milk contains 87 % water and the rest is solids and fats. Which of the following is not included as
milk solid?
a) Protein
b) Water
c) Carbohydrate
d) Milk Fat
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Protein, Carbohydrate and Milk Fat all three are milk solids.

9. The part of the mammary gland where milk is produced is called _____________
a) Capillary
b) Teat Cistern
c) Chine
d) Alveolus
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Alveolus is the mammary gland where milk is produced. All the rest are organs and not
glands.

10. The heritability of the traits for milk production is ____________

a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 55%
d) 100%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Milk production is 25% dependent on heritability of traits.
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11. The Primary Milk carbohydrate is ____________

a) Leucine
b) Sucrose
c) Arginine
d) Lactose
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Lactose is the primary Milk carbohydrate. Sucrose is the primary carbohydrate of sugar.

12. The primary Protein in Milk is ____________

a) Casein
b) Tryptophan
c) Lysine
d) Arginine
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Casein is the primary Milk Protein. Tryptophan, Lysine, and Arginine are secondary
proteins present in milk.

13. The major component in milk is _______

a) Protein
b) Water
c) Lactose
d) Fat
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The major component in milk is Water. It constitutes about 83% of milk and 17% is rest.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cow Milk”.

1. The gestation period for cow is __________

a) 9 months
b) 1 year
c) 2 year
d) 3 months
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Fetal development period from the time of conception until birth i.e. gestation period
for cow is nine months.

2. After calving the cow gives milk for how many months __________
a) 2 months
b) 6 months
c) 10 months
d) 1 year
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After giving birth the cow lactates for about 10 months.

3. Amount of blood through udder needed for formation of 1 litre of milk __________
a) 100 litres
b) 200- 300 litres
c) 800- 900 litres
d) 500-600 litres
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 800 – 900 l of blood required for formation of one litre of milk. Usually, 850 litres of
blood is used up.

4. The first milk the cow produces after calving is called __________
a) Lactate
b) Colostrum
c) Cream
d) Butter
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: First milk produced by the cow after giving birth is called colostrum. This special milk is
yellow to orange in color and thick and sticky.

5. _____ Hormone that needs to be released in order to start milking.

a) Oxytocin
b) Gastrin
c) Leptin
d) Tryoxin
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: to start the milking process it is very important that oxytoxin is released from the cow’s
body.

6. Milking is done by which of the following methods?

a) Hand Milking
b) Machine Milking
c) Hand Milking and machine milking
d) Shaking
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Milking can be done both by hand and by machine. But automated milking is preferred
over manual milking as it reduces the risk to contamination.

7. Milk should be kept at ____ temperature as soon as it leaves the cow udder.
a) 15℃
b) 8℃
c) 6℃
d) 4℃
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Milk should be kept at 4℃. It has been found that at 4℃ the growth of pathogenic
microorganisms stops.

8. Which is not a consequence of season milk production is ________

a) Seasonal swings in price
b) Excess manufacturing capacity
c) Excess milk production in the spring
d) Season
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Seasonal swings in price, excess manufacturing capacity and excess milk production in
the spring all are consequences to seasonal milk production.

9. The leading cause of high bacteria counts in raw milk is _________

a) Younger cows
b) Poor sanitation
c) Older cows
d) BST
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Poor sanitation attributes to the high bacteria count in the milk. It leads to downgrade
of quality.

10. After milking a cow, the cows teats should be dipped ___________
a) after 2 minutes
b) after 1 minute
c) after 30 seconds
d) immediately
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It is advisable that the cow’s teats should be dipped immediately after milking.

11. Generally, which breed produces the largest volume of milk?

a) Aryshire
b) Jersey
c) Holstein
d) Brown Swiss
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Holstein breed produces the largest volume of milk as compared to Aryshire, jersey and
brown Swiss.

12. Milk from a cow with mastitis will have__________

a) abnormal freezing point
b) a high somatic cell count
c) both abnormal freezing point and a high somatic cell count
d) abnormal boiling point
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Milk from a cow with mastitis will have an abnormal freezing point and a high somatic
cell count. This milk should not be consumed.

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13. Name (General) for a class of bacteria that causes mastitis in dairy cattle.
a) lactococcus
b) staphylococcus
c) lactobacillus
d) E.Coli
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Mastitis in dairy cattle is caused by Staphylococcus. Mastitis is a bacterial disease which
leads to inflammation in mammary glands of a cow.

14. Mostly healthy open cows will start a new reproductive cycle every ______ days.
a) 5-7
b) 21-28
c) 30-34
d) 47-50
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Reproductive cycle for healthy cows start every 21-28 days.

15. Percentage of water in buffalo milk is ____________

a) 65-67 %
b) 70-75 %
c) 80-85 %
d) 87-90 %
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Buffalo has 87-90 % of water in its milk and 10-13% other material.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Milk
Marketing”.

1. A dairy farmer who delivers “Grade A “or “bottling quality “milk to the processing plant is known
as the __________
a) Handler
b) Producer
c) Order taker
d) Consumer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Producer is the dairy farmer which assigns a quality to the milk in the processing plant.

2. What is not the justification for government involvement in the marketing of milk?
a) Price and Income support for Dairy farmers
b) Reduce price and income flexibility
c) Improve market power of farmers
d) To reduce the consumption
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The government is involved in the marketing of milk in order to support the price and
income of dairy farmers; reduce price and improve the market power of farmers.

3. Milk from cows being treated with antibiotics should be withheld from the supply because:
a) Antibiotics curdle the milk
b) People are sensitive to antibiotics
c) They create high bacteria counts
d) They prevent proper cooling
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Many people are sensitive to antibiotics hence milk treated with them should be
excluded from the supply.

4. ________ is not a form of differentiation milk sellers use to separate themselves from
competitors.
a) Physical product differentiation
b) Container differentiation
c) Advertising
d) Production
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Physical product differentiation; container differentiation; advertising helps milk sellers
in differentiating them from their business competitor.

5. The tanker of milk must be checked for which of the following before it can be unloaded at a milk
plant?
a) Antibiotics
b) Lactose
c) Fat
d) BST
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Before a tanker of milk can be unloaded at a milk plant; it must be checked for
antibiotics. Many people are sensitive to antibiotics.

6. Every month, regulated handlers file a report of milk receipts and utilization with the order market
administrator. This information is used to determine:
a) Maximum price paid to processors
b) Minimum price paid to producers
c) Minimum price paid to processors
d) No price paid
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Reports of milk receipts and utilization are used to determine the minimum price paid
to producers.

7. Major deductions on a dairy farmer’s milk check does not include:

a) Hauling
b) Federal advertisement/promotion
c) Cooperative/marketing fees
d) Seasonal loss
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Major Deductions on a dairy farmer’s milk check include Hauling, federal
advertisement/promotion and cooperative/marketing fees.

8. What is the purpose of a “milk check-off”?

a) To increase the milk price support
b) Determine if milk contains antibiotics
c) To pay for the generic advertising and research
d) To prevent spoilage
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of a “milk check-off” is to increase milk price support. Fifteen cents per
hundredweight of milk is taken from the producers ‘milk check.

9. Prices are based on which of the following in component pricing system?

a) Uniform skim milk price and uniform butter price
b) Value of butterfat, protein, and other solids
c) Total solids content
d) Total moisture content
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In the component pricing system producer prices are based on the value of butterfat,
protein, and other solids.

10. Specific milk will not be rejected by the plant if the milk fails to meet requirements for which of
the following?
a) Color and appearance
b) Sediment
c) Tests positive for drug residue
d) Acceptable pH
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The plant will reject specific milk from a producer if the milk fails to meet requirements
for Color and appearance; sediment or it tests positive for drug residue.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Composition
of Cow Milk”.

1. True about cow’s milk are all except:

a) Cow’s milk contains 80% whey protein not casein
b) Cow milk has less carbohydrate than mother’s milk
c) Has more K+ and Na+ than infant formula feeds
d) Has more protein than breast milk
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Cow milk has less carbohydrate than mother’s milk; cow milk has more K+ and Na+ than
infant formula feeds and cow milk has more protein than breast milk are all false.

2. What is the moisture content of cow milk?

a) 30%
b) 50%
c) 83%
d) 90%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Cows’ milk consists of about 87% water and 13% dry substance. It is considered to have
elements of a complete balanced diet.

3. What is the fat percentage of cow milk?

a) 9%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 4%
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cow milk has 4% fat percent. It has an SNF (Solid not Fat) 8.5-9%. Rest is water.

4. Milk is an emulsion of _____ in water.

a) Oil
b) Water
c) Soap
d) Dirt
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Milk is a suspension of droplets of one liquid in another. Milk is an emulsion of fat in
water.

5. In milk, the whey proteins are in _____ solution and the casein in colloidal suspension.
a) Water
b) Colloidal
c) Fat
d) Gas
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Colloidal suspension constitutes of casein and Colloidal solution constitutes of whey
proteins. They together make up milk.

6. Approximate size of fat globules in milk solution is ______________

a) 10–2 to 10–3
b) 10–4 to 10–5
c) 10–5 to 10–6
d) 10–6 to 10–7
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Size of fat globules in milk solution is 10–2 to 10–3. Fat is bound in the globular form by
phospholipids membranes, which are hydrophobic.

7. Which of the following can be the method to compute fat crystallization in cow milk?
a) JMR
b) DMR
c) NMR
d) CMR
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The NMR method can also be utilized to find out the degree of fat crystallization as a
function of the time of crystallization.

8. _________ Value states the % of iodine that the fat can bind.
a) Fractional
b) Iodine
c) Fatty acid
d) Distillation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Iodine value states the percentage of iodine that the fat can bind. Iodine is taken up by
the double bonds of the unsaturated fatty acids.

9. Milk has all the essential amino acid.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An important fact with regard to nutrition is that eight (nine for infants) of the 20
amino acids cannot be synthesized by the human organism. All of them are present in milk protein.
10. Name the organic compounds which have amines and carboxyl functional group in them.
a) Amino acid
b) Alcohol
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Amine
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This refers to the structure of amino acid. They are organic compounds containing
amines and carboxyl functional group.

11. Casein cannot be classified as _________

a) α- casein
b) β- casein
c) κ-casein
d) Delta- casein
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Casein is a group of proteins commonly found in mammalian milk. They can be
classified α- casein; β- casein and κ-casein.

12. Which of the following ways is not to make caseinate particles flocculate and coagulate?
a) Precipitation by acid
b) Precipitation by enzymes
c) Precipitation by water
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Precipitation by acid and precipitation by enzymes are the ways to make caseinate
particles flocculate and coagulate. A precipitate is a solid that forms out of liquid.

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13. Which of the following is/are whey protein?

a) α – lactalbumin
b) β – lactoglobulin
c) κ- lactis
d) α – lactalbumin and β – lactoglobulin
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The whey proteins are: α-lactalbumin and β-lactoglobulin. Whey protein is a composite
of globular proteins isolated from whey, the liquid material created as a by-product of cheese
production.

14. Which of the following fat-soluble vitamins are present in milk?

a) A
b) D
c) A & D
d) B
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Milk contains many vitamins. Among the best known are A, B1, B2, C and D. Vitamins A
and D are soluble in fat, or fat solvents, while the others are soluble in water.

15. Combination of glucose (C6H12O6) and galactose (C6H12O6) molecules result in:
a) Maltose
b) Galactose
c) Lactose
d) Sucrose
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Glucose and galactose combine to form lactose. Lactose is the primary milk sugar.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Changes In
Milk and its Constituents”.

1. Which of the following does not accelerate the rate of oxidation of fat?
a) Presence of iron and copper salts
b) Presence of dissolved oxygen
c) Exposure to light
d) Presence of water
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The presence of iron and copper salts accelerates the onset of auto-oxidation and
development of metallic flavor, as does the presence of dissolved oxygen and exposure to light,
especially direct sunlight or light from fluorescent tubes.

2. _______ is the principal contributor to sunlight flavor.

a) Methional
b) Ethane
c) Heptanes
d) Acid
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Methional or 3-mercapto-methylpropionaldehyde is the principal contributor to
sunlight flavor, as this particular flavor is called. It is a typical off-flavor found in milk.

3. What is the process of breakdown of fat into glycerol and free fatty acid called?
a) Addition
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Lipolysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The breakdown of fat into glycerol and free fatty acids is called lipolysis. Lipolysed fat
has a rancid taste and smell, caused by the presence of low molecular free fatty acids.

4. Enzyme responsible for Lipolysis is ____________

a) Pepsin
b) Pectinase
c) Lipases
d) Rennin
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lipolysis is caused by the action of lipases. Lipolysis is encouraged by high storage
temperatures.

5. The purpose of heat treatment on milk is ___________

a) Kill pathogenic microorganism
b) Heat milk
c) Evaporation
d) Taste enhancement
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Heat treatment on milk aims to kill pathogenic microorganism. Heat treatment of milk
also enhances its shelf life.

6. The fat globules in milk when heated to 74℃ show which of the following phenomenon?
a) Frothing
b) Evaporation
c) Cream plug formation
d) Condensation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It has been shown that when milk is pasteurized at 70 – 80°C for 15 seconds, the cream
plug phenomenon is already evident at 74°C.

7. ________ is recommended in order to avoid cream plug formation.

a) Cooling
b) Freezing
c) Churning
d) Homogenization
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Homogenization is practiced to avoid cream plug formation. Cream plug formation
leads to blockage in pipes and tubes.

8. What is the result of heat treatment on proteins?

a) Denaturation
b) Blanching
c) Spore formation
d) Froth formation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Proteins on heat treatment undergo denaturation. Denaturing of protein leads to off
flavor.

9. Denature Protein contributes to an improvement in the quality of which of the following

products?
a) Cultured milk product
b) Milk
c) Ice cream
d) Cream
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In milk intended for cultured milk products (yogurt, etc.), the whey protein
denaturation and interaction with casein obtained at 90 – 95°C for 3 – 5 minutes will contribute to
improved quality in the form of reduced syneresis and improved viscosity.

10. Effect of Heat treatment (Temperature above 100℃) on Lactose:

a) Greenish color
b) Bluish color
c) Brownish color
d) Reddish color
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lactose undergoes changes more readily in milk than in the dry state. At temperatures
above 100 °C a reaction takes place between lactose and protein, resulting in a brownish color.

11. The lactulose content ______ with increased intensity of the heat treatment.
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Remains same
d) First increase and then decrease
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The lactulose content thus increases with the increased intensity of the heat treatment.
It may lead to denaturation of proteins.

12. Most Heat sensitive vitamin in milk is?

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Vitamin C is the most heat sensitive vitamin in milk among all others. Milk is a rich
source of Vitamin A& D.
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13. Effect of Pasteurization on Vitamins in Milk ___________

a) Great loss
b) Little or no loss
c) Denature
d) Sublime
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pasteurization in a plate heat exchanger can however, be accomplished with virtually
no loss of vitamin C. The other vitamins in milk suffer little or no harm from moderate heating.

14. Which of the following mineral is affected by heat treatment in milk?

a) Calcium
b) Potassium
c) Hydroxyphosphate
d) Zinc
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Of the minerals in milk only the important calcium hydroxyphosphate in the casein
micelles is affected by heating. Rest has no effect on heating.

15. Heat treatment on minerals results leads to ___________

a) Clumps formation
b) Bubble formation
c) Foul smell
d) Loss of cheese making characteristics
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When heated above 75°C the substance loses water. Loss of water leads to the
formation of insoluble calcium orthophosphate; which impairs the cheese making properties of the
milk.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Physical
Properties of Milk”.

1. Opacity in milk is due to which of the following reasons?

a) White color
b) Heat treatment
c) Additives
d) Suspended particles of fat
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The opacity of milk is due to its content of suspended particles of fat, proteins and
certain minerals. Heat treatment has no effect on opacity.

2. Yellowish tinge in milk can be attributed to which of the following?

a) Carotene
b) Water
c) Riboflavin
d) Metalin
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The color varies from white to yellow according to the coloration (carotene content) of
the fat. This is also the main reason behind the yellow color of the butter.

3. In an equation Fat%, SNF% and water determine‘d’. The‘d’ in this expression is?
a) Viscosity
b) Friction force
c) Density
d) Acceleration
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The d is the density of milk at the temperature 15.5℃.Density is basically the degree of
compactness of the substance.

4. Calculate the density of milk at 15.5℃ having 3.2% fat and 8.5% SNF.
a) 2.03 g/cm3
b) 1.03 g/cm3
c) 4.03 g/cm3
d) 5.03 g/cm3
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Density of milk at 15.5℃ having 3.2% fat and 8.5% SNF is 1.03 g/cm3. It can be
calculated using the formula.

5. Milk is ______ with blood.

a) Hypertonic
b) Hypotonic
c) Isotonic
d) No pressure
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Milk is isotonic with blood. Isotonic denoting or relating to a solution having the same
osmotic pressure as some other solution, especially one in a cell or a body fluid.

6. Osmotic pressure is controlled by the number of molecules or particles, not the weight of solute.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Osmotic pressure is controlled by the number of molecules or particles, not the weight
of solute; thus 100 molecules of size 10 will have 10 times the osmotic pressure of 10 molecules of
size 100.
7. Define the temperature at which a liquid turns into a solid when cooled.
a) Boiling point
b) Melting point
c) Freezing point
d) Evaporation temperature
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The temperature at which a liquid turns into a solid when cooled is called freezing
point. The Freezing point of milk is closer to 0℃.

8. Freezing point helps to check which of the following adulteration in milk?

a) Sugar adulteration
b) Water adulteration
c) Gas adulteration
d) Color adulteration
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The freezing point of milk is the only reliable parameter to check for adulteration with
water. The freezing point of milk from individual cows has been found to vary from –0.54 to –0.59°C.

9. The acidity of a solution is dependent on which of the following?

a) Water content
b) Fat content
c) Acid content
d) [H+] ions
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The acidity of a solution depends on the concentration of hydronium ions [H+] in it.
When the concentrations of [H+] and [OH–] (hydroxyl) ions are equal, the solution is called neutral.

10. What does pH of the solution represent?

a) Solubility
b) Osmotic pressure
c) Hydronium ion concentration
d) Water content
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The pH represents the hydronium ion concentration of a solution and can
mathematically be defined as the negative logarithm of the hydronium ion [H+] concentration.

11. pH of normal milk is _____ at 25℃.

a) 4
b) 4.3
c) 6.6
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Normal milk is a slightly acid solution with a pH falling between 6.5 and 6.7 with 6.6 the
most usual value. The temperature of measurement near 25°C.

12. In determining acidity, the solution in the burette is?

a) Hydrochloric acid
b) Potassium salt
c) Potash alum
d) Sodium Hydroxide solution
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The blue liquid present in the burette in this picture is a NaOH solution. NaoH is a basic
solution.

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13. Titratable acidity of milk cannot be expressed in which of the following degree?
a) ᵒSH
b) ᵒTh
c) ᵒD
d) ℃
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: °SH = Soxhlet Henkel degrees, °Th = Thörner degrees; °D = Dornic degrees, all three can
be used to express titratable acidity.

14. 1.7 ml of N/10 NaOH is required for titration of a 10 ml sample of milk. Compute the titratable
acidity.
a) .17 °Th
b) 170 °Th
c) 17 °Th
d) 10 °Th
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 10 x 1.7 = 17 ml would therefore be needed for 100 ml, and the acidity of the milk is
consequently 17 °Th.

15. The first milk that a cow produces after calving is called ________
a) Cream
b) Butter
c) Colostrum
d) High fat milk
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The first milk that a cow produces after calving is called Colostrum. Colostrum has
brownish-yellow color, peculiar smell and a rather salty taste. The content of catalyzes and
peroxidase is high.
This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Definition
and Basic”.

1. Why is it necessary to study flow behavior in dairy?

a) To design food processing plant
b) To prevent spoilage
c) To design food processing plant and prevent spoilage
d) For nutrition
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Study of flow behavior is important for the designing of a food processing plant. In the
dairy industry; in particular, there are cream and cultured milk products whose characteristics can be
partially or completely spoiled if their flow behavior is not understood.

2. The science of deformation and flow of matter is called _____

a) Welding
b) Bending
c) Tapping
d) Rheology
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Rheology is defined as the science of deformation and flow of matter. Bending is one of
the flow behaviors.

3. Consistency can be described as ___________

a) Viscosity
b) Elasticity
c) Breakability
d) Viscosity and elasticity
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Rheologically the consistency is described by two components, the viscosity
(“thickness”, lack of slipperiness) and the elasticity (“stickiness”, structure). Breakability is the quality
of being easily damaged or destroyed.

4. Rheology stands for viscosity measurements, characterisation of flow behavior and determination
of material structure.
a) True
b) false
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Rheology involves viscosity measurements; it involves characterization of flow behavior
and determination of material structure. Basic knowledge of these subjects is essential in process
design and product quality evaluation.

5. The time required to reduce stress in the material by flow is called __________
a) Peak time
b) Relaxation time
c) Stress time
d) No time
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: One way of characterizing a material is by its relaxation time, i.e. the time required to
reduce stress in the material by flow. It is important to study the flow behavior of the milk.

6. Milk is a ______ fluid.

a) Viscous
b) Elastic
c) Visco-elastic
d) Extraneous
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Gases and liquids are normally described as viscous fluids. An ideal viscous fluid is
unable to store any deformation energy.

7. Which fluids are having a constant viscosity dependent on temperature but independent of the
applied shear rate?
a) Non-Newtonian
b) Newtonian
c) Dry
d) Wet
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Newtonian fluids are those having a constant viscosity dependent on temperature but
independent of the applied shear rate. Dry and wet are irrelevant.

8. A Newtonian fluid is defined as the fluid which?

a) Obeys hook’s law
b) Is compressible
c) Obey Newton’s law of viscosity
d) Is incompressible
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Newtonian fluid is defined as the fluid which obeys Newton’s law of viscosity for a
Newtonian fluid. The viscosity curve, which is a plot of viscosity versus shear rate, will show a
straight line at a constant value equal to h.

9. Property of fluid that describes its internal resistance is known as __________

a) Viscosity
b) Friction
c) Resistance
d) Internal energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Property of fluid that describes its internal resistance is called viscosity. Friction is the
force resisting the relative motion of fluid layers.

10. Stress strain relationship for a Newtonian fluid is __________

a) Hyperbolic
b) Parabolic
c) Linear
d) Inverse type
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Newtonian fluid has a linear stress strain relationship. The increase in stress directly
corresponds to increase in strain.

11. For non-Newtonian fluids, apparent viscosity is a function of __________

a) shear rate
b) flow rate
c) viscous rate
d) specific rate
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Non Newtonian fluid apart from being shear rate dependent.T he viscosity of non-
Newtonian fluids may also be time dependent.

12. The diagram below is a graph of change in shear stress with respect to velocity gradient in a fluid.
What is a type of the fluid?

a) Newtonian
b) Non Newtonian
c) Ideal
d) Dilated
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The above diagram represents the relationship between Shear stress and velocity
gradient of Non- Newtonian fluid. It is non-linear.

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13. Which of the following are now Newtonian material which is time independent?
a) Thixotropic
b) Rheo-pectic
c) Anti-thixotropic
d) Plastic
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Non-Newtonian materials that are time independent are defined as shear thinning.
They can also be shear thickening or plastic.

14. Which of the following are now Newtonian materials which are time dependent?
a) Shear thickening
b) Rheo-pectic
c) Shear thinning
d) plastic
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Non-Newtonian materials that are time dependent are defined as thixotropic. They can
also be rheopectic or anti-thixotropic.

15. Which among the following is not the example of thixotropic fluid?
a) Yogurt
b) Ice cream
c) Mayonnaise
d) Milk
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Typical examples of thixotropic fluids are yoghurt. Mayonnaise, margarine, ice cream
and brush paint also come in the same category.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Flow
Behaviour Models”.

1. At 30℃, water has the viscosity of __________

a) 0.801
b) 1
c) 2
d) 6.29
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Water has the viscosity of 0.801 at the temperature of 30℃. Water at 20.2oC (68.4oF)
has the absolute viscosity of one – 1 – centipoises.

2. Viscosity of milk and milk products is important in not determining __________

a) the rate of creaming
b) rates of mass and heat transfer
c) the flow conditions in dairy processes
d) spoilage rate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Viscosity of milk and milk products plays an important role in determining the rate of
creaming. It also helps in determining rates of mass and heat transfer and flow conditions in the
dairy process.

3. Skim milk exhibit which of the following flow behavior?

a) Newtonian
b) Non Newtonian
c) Pseudo plastic
d) Diliant
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Skim milk has Newtonian behavior. It shows stress and strain directly corresponding to
each other.

4. Viscosity of Skim milk depends on __________

a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Temperature and pH
d) Moisture
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Viscosity of Skim milk is dependent on temperature. The pH of milk also plays a vital
role in determining the viscosity of skim milk.

5. Decrease in temperature of milk leads to _______ in viscosity.

a) Parabolic decrease
b) Linear decrease
c) Constant
d) Increase
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cooler temperatures increase viscosity. This can be due to the voluminosity of casein
micelles.

6. Temperatures above 65° C _______ viscosity of skim milk.

a) Parabolic decrease
b) Linear decrease
c) Constant
d) Increase
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In skim milk, temperatures above 65° C increase viscosity. This is due to the
denaturation of whey proteins.

7. Cooled raw milk and cream exhibit which of the following flow behavior?
a) Newtonian
b) Non Newtonian
c) Sticky
d) None
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cooled raw milk and cream show non-Newtonian behavior in which the viscosity is
dependent on the shear rate.

8. Which of the following factors does not affect the viscosity of milk?
a) State and concentration of proteins
b) State and concentration of Fat
c) Temperature and Age of Milk
d) Spoilage
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Important factors that influence the viscosity of milk are State and concentration of
protein. State and concentration of fat; Temperature of milk and Age of the milk also influence
viscosity.

9. The unit of viscosity is __________

a) Gamma
b) Pascal
c) Poise
d) Bar
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of viscosity is poise. Bar is the unit of pressure. Pascal is also a unit of pressure.

10. Lactose, whey proteins and milk salts have less contribution towards the viscosity of milk
compared with the casein which alone is contributing substantially towards this property.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Lactose, whey proteins and milk salts contribute less towards the
viscosity. Casein contributes substantially towards this property.

11. The force required to maintain a relative velocity of 1cm/sec between two parallel planes placed
1 cm apart is called ________
a) acceleration
b) buoyancy force
c) viscosity
d) flow
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The force required to maintain a relative velocity of 1cm/sec between two parallel
planes placed 1 cm apart is called viscosity. It has a unit of poise.
12. Flow is a kind of __________
a) Breakage
b) Reversible deformation
c) Irreversible deformation
d) Liquid
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Flow is an irreversible deformation. Irreversible deformation can be defined as a state
when a matter is not reverted to the original state when the force is removed.

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13. Elasticity is___________

a) Breakage
b) Reversible deformation
c) Irreversible deformation
d) Liquid
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Elasticity is reversible deformation. Reversible deformation can be defined as a state
when a matter is reverted to the original form after stress is removed.

14. Deformation force can be ______________

a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Static and dynamic
d) Short
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The deformation forces which act on a solid body or a liquid can be Static: the force is
acting constantly and its direction and magnitude are constant and dynamic: the magnitude and/or
direction of the force(s) are variable as a function of time.

15. Viscosity varied ________ with temperature and _______ with fat content of milk.
a) Linearly and exponentially
b) Exponentially and linearly
c) Exponentially and exponentially
d) Linearly and linearly
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Viscosity varies exponentially with temperature and linearly with a fat content of milk.
Viscosity for the fat and temperature range measured varied from 1-60 centipoises.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Measuring
Equipment and Technique”.

1. The rate at which milk flows through a closed pipe can be determined by _____________
a) Determining the mass flow rate
b) Determining the volume flow rate
c) Mass flow rate and volume flow rate
d) Fat content
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Flow rate determines the flow rate of milk through a closed pipe. Volume flow rate also
plays a major role in determining the flow rate.

2. Conveyor-based methods are used for the measurement of the flow of _____________
a) Solids
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Gel
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Conveyor-based method determines flow of solids. Liquid, gas. Gel flow characteristic
cannot be determined by this method.

3. For the measurement of flow rate of liquid, the method used is _____________
a) Conveyor-based methods
b) Bourdon tube
c) Coriolis method
d) Thermal mass flow measurement
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Using the Coriolis Effect that causes a laterally vibrating tube to distort, a direct
measurement of mass flow can be obtained in a coriolis flow meter. Hence, coriolis method is used
for the measuring liquid flow rate.

4. The device cannot be used for flow obstruction is _____________

a) Orifice plate
b) Venturi tube
c) Flow nozzle and dall flow tube
d) sphere
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Orifice plate, venture tube and flow nozzle all these devices are used for flow
obstruction. Sphere can’t be used for flow obstruction.

5. The device which is used for making temporary measurements of flow is _____________
a) Venturi
b) Dull flow tube
c) Orifice plate
d) Pitot static tube
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An orifice plate is a device used for measuring flow rate, for reducing pressure or for
restricting flow. It is also used to make temporary flow measurements.

6. For the measurement of flow, the cheapest device is _____________

a) Venturi
b) Dall flow tube
c) Flow nozzle
d) Pitot static tube
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Flow nozzle is the most economical device for the measurement of flow. Dall flow tube,
Venturi and Pitot static tube are comparatively expensive.

7. The instrument which is not suitable for the application in an automatic control scheme is
_____________
a) Rotameters
b) Pitot static tube
c) Rotary piston meter
d) Orifice plate
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In rotameter, the falling and rising action of a float in a tapered tube provide a measure
of flow rateRotameter is not suitable in the automatic control scheme.

8. Example of positive displacement meter is _____________

a) Variable area flow meter
b) Turbine meters
c) Rotary piston meter
d) Venturi
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A positive displacement meter is a type of flow meter that requires fluid to
mechanically displace components in the meter in order for flow measurement. Rotary piston meter
is a positive displacement meter.

9. Turbine meters are generally preferred for?

a) Low-viscosity and high flow measurements
b) High viscosity and low flow measurements
c) High viscosity and high flow measurements
d) Low viscosity and low flow measurements
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine flow meters are used for the measurement of natural gas and liquid flow.
Turbine meters are used for low-viscosity and high flow measurements.

10. The flow meter which is replacing the differential pressure meters in its applications is
_____________
a) Vortex-shedding flow meter
b) Electromagnetic flow meters
c) Ultrasonic flow meters
d) Displacemement meter
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A vortex flow meter is a flow measurement device best suited for flow measurements
where the introduction of moving parts presents problems. Vortex-shedding flow meter took place
of differential pressure meters in its applications.

11. Ostwald, Herschel-Bulkley, Steiger-Ory, Bingham, Ellis and Eyring. The following models are to
study the flow behavior of?
a) Newtonian fluid
b) Non-Newtonian fluid
c) Dilated fluid
d) Ideal fluid
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Several models are available for mathematical description of the flow behavior of non-
Newtonian systems. Examples of such models are Ostwald, Herschel-Bulkley, Steiger-Ory, Bingham,
Ellis and Eyring.

12. Which of the following satisfy n=1 (where n is flow behavior index)?
a) Pseudoplastic fluid
b) Thixotropic fluid
c) Newtonian fluid
d) Diliant fluid
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The n=1 for Newtonian fluids. Newtonian fluid is a fluid in which the viscous stresses
arising from its flow, at every point. The stress is linearly proportional to the local strain rate—the
rate of change of its deformation over time.

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13. Which of the following satisfy n<1 (where n is flow behavior index)?
a) Pseudoplastic fluid
b) Thixotropic fluid
c) Newtonian fluid
d) Diliant fluid
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The n<1 for shear thinning (pseudoplastic) fluids. Shear thinning is the non-Newtonian
behavior of fluids whose viscosity decreases under shear strain. It is sometimes considered
synonymous for pseudo plastic behavior.

14. Which of the following satisfy n>1 (where n is flow behavior index)?
a) Pseudoplastic fluid
b) Thixotropic fluid
c) Newtonian fluid
d) Diliant fluid
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The n>1 for shear thickening (diliants) fluids. Dilatant fluids, also known as shear
thickening fluids, are liquids or solutions whose viscosity increases as stress is applied.

15. Herschel-Bulkley model is also called as ______

a) Low equation
b) Young’s equation
c) Power law equation
d) Rutherford equation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Herschel-Bulkley model, also called the generalized power law equation which in
principle is an extended Ostwald mode.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Collection of
Milk”.

1. Soft fats in milk fat are __________

a) Lauric & Stearic
b) Capric & Lauric
c) Oleic & Butyric
d) Oleic & Lauric
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: That pinchable fat, also known as subcutaneous fat, acts as insulation and a source of
energy for your body. Oleic and butyric are soft fat in milk.

2. Principal protein in milk is ___________

a) Albumin
b) Lactalbumin
c) Casein
d) Lactoglobulin
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Proteins are the building blocks of human body. Principal protein present in milk is
Casein.

3. Percentage of mineral matter in milk is about ________

a) 1 %
b) 0.7 %
c) 1.5 %
d) 0.05 %
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Milk is the source of the mineral. About 0.7% is the mineral matter present in milk.

4. Whey is the by-product in the manufacture of?

a) Skimmed milk
b) Butter
c) Cheese
d) Yogurt
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Whey is the liquid remaining after milk has been curdled and strained. It is a byproduct
of the manufacture of cheese or casein and has several commercial uses.

5. Which of the following is an example of soft cheese is?

a) Cheddar
b) Swiss
c) Brick
d) Cottage
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Soft cheese is probably our most popular category. This category includes some of the
most beloved cheeses in our store, like the ever-popular Brie and Camembert, as well as our
incredible selection of double and triple cream cheeses like cottage cheese.

6. How many indigenous enzymes have been reported in bovine milk?

a) 30
b) 60
c) 50
d) 40
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Bovine milk contains the nutrients needed for growth and development of the calf, and
is a resource of lipids, proteins, amino acids, vitamins and minerals. It has about 50 indigenous
enzymes present in it.

7. Destruction of which enzyme is used as an index of super-HTST pasteurization?

a) Catalase
b) Lipase
c) Lactoperoxidase
d) Pepsin
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lactoperoxidase is an enzyme. It is used as an indicator of super- HTST pasteurization.

8. Rennet belongs to ___________

a) Lipases
b) Catalase
c) Proteinases
d) Phosphatases
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Rennet is a complex of enzymes produced in the stomachs of ruminant mammals. It
belongs to the category of proteinases.

9. Temperature used in UHT treatment is __________

a) 90-100 °C
b) 100-120 °C
c) 120-125 °C
d) 130-140 °C
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ultra-high temperature processing (UHT) milk is heated to above 135 °C (275 °F). This is
the temperature required to kill spores in milk – for 1 to 2 seconds.

10. Lactose is a disaccharide which contains?

a) Glucose & Fructose
b) Glucose & Glactose
c) Glucose & Glucose
d) Glucose & Maltose
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Lactose is primary milk sugar. It is made of glucose and galactose.

11. CaCl2 is added at the rate of ________

a) 0.5 %
b) 0.8 %
c) 0.02 %
d) 0.08 %
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: CaCl2 is added to milk during cheese making process. It must be added at the rate of
0.02%.

12. Which one is used as an emulsifying agent in process cheese blend?

a) Paprika
b) Pectin
c) Glycerides
d) Whey Powder
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Emulsifying agents are both fat soluble and water soluble. Emulsifying agents enable fat
to be uniformly dispersed in water as an emulsion. Glycerides are emulsifying agents used in butter.

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13. People with high blood pressure or edema are advised to take ________
a) Multivitamin Mineral Milk
b) Low Sodium Milk
c) Sterile Milk
d) Low Lactose Milk
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Low sodium milk is recommended to people with high blood pressure. High amount of
sodium in milk has adverse effect on their health.

14. Normal bovine milk contains what amount of protein?

a) 7.5%
b) 5.5%
c) 3.5%
d) 9.5%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Bovine milk contains the nutrients needed for growth and development of the calf, and
is a resource of lipids, proteins, amino acids, vitamins and minerals. It has 3.5% protein.

15. The aim of pasteurization milk is to ______

a) Improve flavor
b) Kill disease producing organisms
c) Improve color
d) Oxidation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pasteurization is a phenomenon of heat treating a liquid or food to kill pathogenic
bacteria to make the food safe to eat. The use of pasteurization to kill pathogenic bacteria has aided
to reduce the transmission of diseases.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Testing Milk
for Quality”.

1. People with high blood pressure or edema are advised to take which of the following?
a) Multivitamin Mineral Milk
b) Low Sodium Milk
c) Sterile Milk
d) Low Lactose Milk
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: People with high blood pressure should refrain from high sodium content food) they
are advised to consume low sodium milk.

2. Evaporated milk is concentrated to approximately what times the solid of normal whole milk?
a) 2.25 times
b) 6.25 times
c) 7 times
d) 8.5 times
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the process of preparation of Evaporated milk it is concentrated) The concentration
should be 2.25 times the solid of normal whole milk.

3. 10-15 % more milk is produced with which growth hormones if injected to lactating cows?
a) Auxin
b) Bovine Growth Hormone
c) Ethylene
d) Trypsin
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Growth hormones aid in increased milk production in lactating cows. Approximately
18% of increased milk production is noticed by injecting Bovine Growth Hormone.

4. The process to increase in volume caused by whipping air into the ice cream mix during freezing is
called?
a) Homogenization
b) Aging
c) Overrun
d) Hardening
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ice cream overrun refers to the amount of air pushed into the ice cream while it is
being made. Standard of 50%overrun means that the ice cream is made with one part air to every
two parts cream.

5. Semisolid ice cream is placed in a hardening room at a temperature of about?

a) -15 °C
b) -20 °C
c) -34 °C
d) -44 °C
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ice cream is a dairy dessert. -34℃ is the temperature preferred to toughen the
semisolid ice cream.

6. The “eyes” in swiss cheese are formed by the growth of which of the following microorganism?
a) Leuconostoc
b) Propionibacterium
c) Streptococcus
d) Lactobacillus
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In Swiss-type cheeses, the eyes form as a result of the activity of propionic acid bacteria
(propionibacteria), notably Propionibacterium freudenreichii subsp. shermanii. These bacteria
transform lactic acid into propionic acid and carbon dioxide.

7. Yogurt contains mixed lactic acid culture containing which of the following?
a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophilus
b) Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Propionibacterium
c) Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Leuconostoc
d) Leuconostoc and Propionibacterium
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The bacteria used to make yogurt are known as “yogurt cultures”. Lactobacillus
bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophilus are two strains used in yogurt preparation.

8. The melting point of milk fat varies normally between _______

a) 32-36 °C
b) 40-45 °C
c) 20-25 °C
d) 26-30 °C
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Milk is a mix of butter fat and water so it is slightly heavier than water. Milk Fat melts at
32-36 °C.

9. The specific gravity of milk fat at 21°C is?

a) 0.70
b) 0.82
c) 0.93
d) 0.98
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The specific gravity depends on the protein and fat content. Milk has the specific gravity
of 0.93 at 21℃.

10. The iodine number measures the amount of what?

a) Free Fatty Acids
b) Saturated Fatty Acids
c) Chain Length of Fatty Acids
d) Unsaturated Glycerides
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The iodine value in chemistry is the mass of iodine in grams that is consumed by 100
grams of a chemical substance. Iodine numbers are often used to determine the amount of
unsaturation in fatty acids.

11. Milk fat differs from other common fats in having a larger percentage of ______
a) Free Fatty Acids
b) Saturated Fatty Acids
c) Volatile Fatty Acids
d) Unsaturated Fatty acid
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The fat content of milk is the proportion of milk, by weight, made up by butterfat. Milk
fat has higher amount of volatile fatty acids as compared to common fat.

12. Sponification number of butter fat is ___________

a) 190
b) 195
c) 210
d) 231
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The saponification number is the number of milligrams of potassium hydroxide
required to neutralize the fatty acids resulting from the complete hydrolysis of 1g of fat. Butter fat
has the Sponification number of 231.

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13. Energy value of milk having 3.5% fat according to Sharp’s Formula will be?
a) 60
b) 60.5
c) 62.5
d) 65.5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The energy value of a food is calculated based on the calories provided by the amount
of protein (4 kcal/gram), carbohydrate (4 kcal/gram), and fat (9 kcal/gram) that is present. According
to this, the milk has an energy value of 60.5.

14. Lactose reduces copper salt to?

a) Cupric Oxide
b) Cuprous Oxide
c) Copper Oxide
d) Cupric dioxide
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Lactose is the primary milk carbohydrate. It reduces copper salt to cuprous oxide.

15. Yellow color of milk fat is due to the presence of?

a) Vitamin D
b) Carotinoids
c) Calcium
d) Folic Acid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Carotenoids are plant pigments responsible for bright red, yellow and orange hues in
many fruits and vegetables. They are also responsible for yellow color in milk fat.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Milk
Reception”.

1. Tests for proper pasteurization are based on the activity of which enzyme?
a) Lactase
b) Diastase
c) Phosphatase
d) Catalase
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Phosphatase is an enzyme which is naturally present in milk, but is destroyed at a
temperature just near to the pasteurization temperature. Alkaline Phosphatase test is used to
indicate whether milk has been adequately pasteurised or whether it has been contaminated with
raw milk after pasteurization.

2. Starch is split by which enzyme?

a) Lactase
b) Diastase
c) Phosphatase
d) Catalase
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Diastase is an enzyme group that is originally found in malt and it is produced when the
germination of the seeds happens. Diastase converts starch into maltose and after that it converts it
this into glucose.

3. What is the freezing point of milk?

a) 0 °C
b) -0.55 °C
c) -1 °C
d) -1.55 °C
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Milk that has been watered down contains more water and less solutes, so its freezing
point is closer to 0 °C. Most milk processors will conclude that milk has been watered down if the
freezing point is anywhere above -0.55 °C.

4. What is the average boiling point of milk?

a) 100-101 °C
b) 105-110 °C
c) 115-117 °C
d) 102-105 °C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Milk is a mix of butter fat and water so it is slightly heavier than water. The boiling
points of liquids are due to the gravity of the liquid. Milk boils at 100-101 °C.

5. What is the average specific gravity of normal whole milk at 16 °C?

a) 0.903
b) 1.032
c) 1.582
d) 2.032
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The specific gravity of milk measured at 15oC or 20oC is normally 1.028 – 1,033 kg/litre.
The specific gravity depends on the protein and fat content. The specific gravity of fat is 0.93, solids-
non-fat, 1.6 and water 1.0 kg/litre.

6. Which is the pre-dominating organism in dirty utensils of milk?

a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
b) Propionibacterium
c) Streptococcus lactis
d) Phosphorous
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Streptococcus lactis, Members of the Lactococcus genus (lactis, milk; milk cocci) are
facultatively anaerobic, catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci that occur singly, in pairs, or in chains.
They are extensively found in dirty milk utensils.

7. Energy value of a food is measured in terms of?

a) Carbohydrates
b) Fats
c) Proteins
d) Calories
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Energy value calculation uses a single factor for each of the energy-yielding substrates
(protein, fat, and carbohydrate), regardless of the food in which it is found. The energy values are 37
kJ/g (9.0 kcal/g) for fat, 17 kJ/g (4.0 kcal/g) for protein, and 17 kJ/g (4.0 kcal/g) for carbohydrates.

8. Legal butter must contain at least what percentage of fat?

a) 70 %
b) 80 %
c) 90 %
d) 95 %
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Butter must contain at least 80% butterfat. In practice, most American butters contain
slightly more than that, averaging around 81% butterfat.
9. The high nutritive value of cheese is due to which of the following?
a) High mineral contents
b) High protein contents
c) Taste & flavor
d) Rancidity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cheese has been an important part of the human diet, both as a dietary staple and
gourmet food. In addition to being delicious, it is highly nutritious and very rich in several vitamins
and minerals.

10. Food value of ice cream depends to a large extent on its?

a) Flavor
b) Volume
c) Composition
d) Taste
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The food value of a particular food measures of how good it is for you, based on its
level of vitamins, minerals, or calories. Ice cream’s food value depends on its composition.

11. Chlorine compounds have widespread acceptance in the dairy industry due to?
a) Non-toxicity
b) High sanitizing efficiency
c) High corrosiveness
d) Oxidative properties
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Sanitization is one of the important aspects of the dairy industry. Chlorine is a highly
efficient sanitizing agent.

12. At what concentration chlorine sanitizing solutions are usually used in the dairy industry?
a) 50-100 ppm
b) 100-200 ppm
c) 200-500 ppm
d) 500-800 ppm
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is important to prepare the sanitizing solution accurately to ensure that the
concentration is in optimum range for optimal results. Chlorine sanitizing solution to be effective is
used at the concentration of 200-500 ppm.

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13. The process of raising or lowering the percent of fat in milk or cream to the desired standard is
called?
a) Enrichment
b) Fortification
c) Standardization
d) Addition
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Standardization of milk refers to the adjustment which means raising or lowering of fat
and solids not fat levels of milk. It is simply the process of adjusting the fat content of milk.

14. A product consisting of a mixture of milk and cream which contains not less than 10.5% milk fat
is called?
a) Concentrated Milk
b) Low Fat Milk
c) Half-and –Half
d) Eggnog
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Half and half is simplyhalf whole milk and half cream. Its butterfat content is usually
12.5%. but never less than 10.5%.

15. Buttermilk is a fluid product resulting from the manufacture of?

a) Cheese
b) Yogurt
c) Ice cream
d) Butter
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Buttermilk refers to a number of dairy drinks. Originally, buttermilk was the liquid left
behind after churning butter out of cream.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Storage”.

1. What is the application of any effective method or substance to a clean surface for the destruction
of a pathogen is called?
a) Pasteurization
b) High Temperature Treatment
c) Sanitization
d) Cleaning
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: When items are “sanitized” it means that those surfaces have a reduction of pathogens.
Sanitization is Destruction of most microorganisms (whether or not pathogenic) on wounds,
clothing, or hard surfaces, through the use of chemicals or heat.

2. In what from Formaldehyde- preservatives used in milk exists?

a) Gas
b) Liquid
c) Solid
d) Semi-Solid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In personal care products, formaldehyde can be added directly, or more often, it can be
released from preservatives. In Milk, formaldehyde preservative exists as a gas.

3. Mammary glands complete unit of milk synthesis of is called _________

a) lumen
b) micelles
c) alveolus
d) secretary cells
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A mammary alveolus is a small cavity or sac found in the mammary gland. Mammary
alveoli are the site of milk production and storage in the mammary gland.

4. Fatty acids synthesized in mammary gland are?

a) Higher chain fatty acids
b) Unsaturated fatty acids
c) Lower chain fatty acids
d) Medium and lower chain fatty acids
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Synthesis of lower chain fatty acids in the mammary gland occurs by de novo synthesis.
De novo synthesis of fatty acids occurs in the cytoplasm of the mammary epithelial cell.

5. Most variable constituent of milk is?

a) proteins
b) fat
c) lactose
d) minerals
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pelleted, finely ground, or very high concentrate rations may drastically reduce milk fat
content, often without a compensatory increase in other components or yield. Characteristic
changes in rumen fatty acid concentrations are associated with these milk composition changes.

6. Which of the following has the largest particle size in milk?

a) lactose
b) casein micelles
c) fat globule
d) minerals
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: More than 95% of the total milk lipid is in the form of globules ranging in size from0.1
to 15 µm in diameter, with milk fat having a size ranging from 1 – 10 µm, depending on cow breed
and season.

7. Lactose has water solubility of __________

a) 100%
b) 50%
c) 18%
d) 25%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide sugar composed of galactose and glucose that is found in milk.
Solubility in water is 19.5 g/100 mL.

8. Which enzyme is tested for cream pasteurization?

a) Plasmin
b) Phosphatas
c) Catalase
d) Peroxidase
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Another enzyme, peroxidase is used for checking the pasteurization results for cream.
The test must be negative in samples of cream that is properly pasteurized and there should be no
detectable peroxidase activity in the product.

9. Which of the following is used for milk storage in dairy farms?

a) Utensils
b) Milk is not stored
c) Silos
d) Machines
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Milk storage tanks and silos are one of the key equipment in the dairy industry. They
are used to store milk on dairy farms.

10. The _____________ level indicator measures the static pressure represented by the head of
liquid in the tank.
a) Pneumatic
b) Magnetic
c) Float
d) Boat
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The pneumatic level indicator measures the static pressure represented by the head of
liquid in the tank. Greater the pressure; higher the level in the tank.

11. Which of the equipment is used for chilling of milk in dairy?

a) Refrigerator
b) Freezer
c) Dry ice
d) Plate heat exchanger
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Normally a temperature increase to slightly above + 4 °C is unavoidable during
transportation. The milk is therefore usually cooled to below + 4 °C in a plate heat exchanger before
being stored in a silo tank to await processing.

12. What is the recommended temperature for the storage of milk?

a) 8℃
b) 9℃
c) 4℃
d) 5℃
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By law, Grade A milk must be maintained at a temperature of 4 °C or below. Bacteria in
milk will grow minimally below 4.5 °C. However, temperatures well below 4°C are necessary to
protect the milk’s quality. It is critical that these temperatures be maintained through warehousing,
distribution, delivery and storage.

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13. What is the recommended temperature for the storage of Paneer?

a) 8℃
b) 9℃
c) 4℃
d) 5℃
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Paneer is also known as Indian cottage cheese. It is rich in protein. Recommended
storage temperature of paneer is 8℃.

14. What is the reason for the presence of agitator in milk silo?
a) Prevent Cream separation from gravity
b) Prevent spoilage
c) Prevent leakage
d) Prevent off-taste
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: These large tanks must have some form of agitation arrangement to prevent cream
separation by gravity. The agitation must be very smooth. Too violent agitation causes aeration of
the milk and fat globule disintegration.

15. Which of the following electrode/s are used in the silo?

a) High Level Electrode
b) Low Level Electrode
c) High Level Electrode and Low Level Electrode
d) Medium Level Electrode
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An electrode is often fitted in the tank wall at the level required for starting the
agitator. The agitator stops if the level in the tank drops below the electrode. This electrode is
known as the low-level indicator (LL). A high-level electrode (HL) is fitted at the top of the tank to
prevent overfilling.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Heat
Exchangers – 1”.

1. Pasteurization aid in which of the following?

a) killing tubercle bacillus
b) killing spores
c) increasing fat content
d) lowering temperature
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The pasteurization of milk is a special type of heat treatment which can be defined as
“any heat treatment of milk which secures the certain destruction of tubercle bacillus (T.B.) without
markedly affecting the physical and chemical properties”.

2. Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for HTST pasteurization?

a) 72°C to 74°C for 15 to 20 seconds
b) 135°C to 140°C for 2 to 4 seconds
c) 63°C for 30 minutes
d) 57°C to 68°C for 15 min
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: High temperature short time (HTST) pasteurization. Heat the milk to between 72°C to
74°C for 15 to 20 seconds. Targets resistant pathogenic bacterial spores (Clostridium botulinum
spores).

3. Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for LTST pasteurization?

a) 72°C to 74°C for 15 to 20 seconds
b) 135°C to 140°C for 2 to 4 seconds
c) 63°C for 30 minutes
d) 57°C to 68°C for 15 min
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Low temperature long time (LTLT) pasteurization involves heating the milk to 63°C for
30 minutes. The extended holding time causes alteration in the milk protein structure and taste.

4. Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for UHT pasteurization?

a) 72°C to 74°C for 15 to 20 seconds
b) 135°C to 140°C for 2 to 4 seconds
c) 63°C for 30 minutes
d) 57°C to 68°C for 15 min
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: UHT Pasteurization involves heating the milk to between 135°C to 140°C for 2 to 4
seconds. The extreme heat targets Coxiella burnetii, which causes Q-fever. The heat kills all the
vegetative forms of bacteria and the milk can survive for 9 months.

5. Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for Thermization?

a) 72°C to 74°C for 15 to 20 seconds
b) 135°C to 140°C for 2 to 4 seconds
c) 63°C for 30 minutes
d) 57°C to 68°C for 15 min
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Thermization involves heating the milk to between 57°C to 68°C and hold for 15
minutes. Thermization targets pathogenic bacteria while leaving the good bacteria in the product.
The low temperatures do not alter the structure and taste of the milk.

6. Which of the following is the time-temperature combination for Sterilization?

a) 72°C to 74°C for 15 to 20 seconds
b) 135°C to 140°C for 2 to 4 seconds
c) 63°C for 30 minutes
d) 115 – 120°C for some 20 – 30 minutes
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Sterilization is a wet treatment of canned milk products in an autoclave/specialized
treatment chambers. Heat to between 115°C to 121°C for 10 to 20 minutes.

7. “Heat transferred from the bowl of the spoon to the handle” is an example of which of the
following way of heat transfer?
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Filtration
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Conduction means a transfer of thermal energy through solid bodies and through layers
of liquid at rest (without physical flow or mixing in the direction of heat transfer). The question
shows an example of heat conduction to a teaspoon in a cup of hot coffee. Heat is transferred by
conduction to the handle, which becomes warmer.

8. “The spoon is rinsed in running cold water. Heat gets absorbed by the water and the spoon gets
cooler, until the spoon and the water are at the same temperature” is an example of which of the
following way of heat transfer?
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Filtration
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Convection consequently involves mixing. When the teaspoon is rinsed with running
cold water, heat gets transferred from the spoon to the water, which is heated in the process. The
heated water when replaced by cold water, which in turn absorbs heat from the spoon. Heat
transfer by convection continues until the spoon and the running water have the same temperature.

9. “A roof accumulates solar heat during the day and radiates the heat at night” is an example of
which of the following way of heat transfer?
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Filtration
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Radiation is the emission of heat from a body which has accumulated thermal energy.
In the given example the thermal energy is converted into radiant energy, emitted from the body
and absorbed by other bodies which it strikes. Almost all substances emit radiant energy.

10. Which of the following is the application of direct heating in the dairy industry?
a) Heating curd in the manufacture of cheese
b) Solar heating
c) Heating with gamma rays
d) Oxidation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Direct heating means that the heating medium is mixed with the product. This
technique is used in heating the curd in the manufacture of cheese in dairy industry.

11. Heat exchanger works on which of the following principle?

a) Direct heating
b) Indirect heating
c) Slow heating
d) Fast heating
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A heat exchanger is used to transfer heat by the indirect method. Hot water flows
through one channel and milk through the other. Heat is transferred through the partition.

12. If the product flow rate in a plant is to be increased from 10 000 l/h to 20 000 l/h, the heat
exchanger must be extended to_______ the original size, provided the flow rates of the service
media are also doubled, other factors being constant.
a) Double
b) Triple
c) Same
d) Quadruple
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the question the size needs to be doubled as The flow rate, V, is determined by the
planned capacity of the dairy. The higher the flow rate, the larger the heat exchanger needed.
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13. Calculate temperature change: 20 000 l/h cheese milk (V1) is to be heated from 4°C to 34°C by
30 000 l/h hot water (V2) at 50°C. Density (r) and specific heat (cp) for milk are about 1020 kg/m3
and 3.95 kJ/kg, K and for water 990 (at 50°C) and 4.18.
a) 20.5℃
b) 21.5℃
c) 18.8℃
d) 19.5℃
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The temperature change for the hot water can then be calculated:
20 000 x 1 020 x 3.95 x (34 – 4) = 30 000 x 990 x 4.18 x Dt2
Dt2 = 19.5°C. The hot water temperature will drop by 19.5 from 50 to 30.5°C.

14. The temperature difference between the two liquids is best utilized if they flow in opposite
directions through the heat exchanger. This type of flow is called ________
a) Countercurrent
b) Concurrent
c) Rapid flow
d) Slow flow
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The cold product then meets the cold heating medium at the inlet and a progressively
warmer medium as it passes through the heat exchanger. During the passage, the product is
gradually heated so that the temperature is always only a few degrees below that of the heating
medium at the corresponding point. This type of arrangement is called a countercurrent flow.

15. ______________ tells how much heat passes through 1 m2 of the partition per 1°C of differential
temperature.
a) Friction coefficient
b) Temperature coefficient
c) Overall heat transfer coefficient
d) Time coefficient
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The overall heat transfer coefficient refers to how well heat is conducted over a series
of mediums. This factor, k, is a measure of how efficient the heat transfer is.

This set of Dairy Engineering Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Heat Exchangers – 2”.

1. Which among the following surface promote heat transfer?

a) Plain
b) Shiny
c) Corrugated
d) Wet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The partition is often corrugated to create a more turbulent flow, which results in
better heat transfer. The thickness is also important. The thinner the partition, the better the heat
transfers.

2. _______ Heat exchanger is needed for cream than for milk, if capacities and temperature
programs are identical.
a) Larger
b) Smaller
c) Similar
d) Stagnant
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A liquid with high viscosity develops less turbulence when it flows through the heat
exchanger compared to a product with lower viscosity. This means a larger heat exchanger is
needed, everything else being constant.

3. Which of the following material is used for heat transfer in the dairy industry?
a) Iron
b) Platinum
c) Copper
d) Stainless steel
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For food processing, the normal material is stainless steel. It has fairly good heat
transfer characteristics.

4. The rate of buildup of fouling does not depend on which of the following?
a) Milk quality and Air content of the product
b) Temperature difference between product and heating medium
c) Pressure conditions in the heating section
d) Thickness of stainless steel
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The rate of buildup of fouling depends on many factors such as temperature difference
between product and heating medium, Milk quality, Air content of the product and Pressure
conditions in the heating section.

5. What is the method of using the heat of a hot liquid, such as pasteurized milk, to preheat cold
incoming milk?
a) Heating
b) Cooling
c) Regeneration
d) Standardization
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Regeneration (Heating): The raw cold incoming milk is partially and indirectly heated by
the hot outgoing milk (milk-to-milk regeneration). This adds to the economy.

6. Zigzag tube in heat treatment is used for which purpose?

a) Fouling
b) Standardization
c) Holding for a long holding time
d) Discard
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Correct heat treatment requires that the milk is held for a specified time at
pasteurization temperature. This is done in an external holding cell. A holding cell usually consists of
a pipe arranged in a spiral or zigzag pattern and often covered by a metal shroud to prevent people
from being burned if they touch the holding cell.

7. Which heat exchanger used for heating and cooling viscous, sticky and lumpy products?
a) Plate heat exchanger
b) Tubular heat exchanger
c) Scraped surface heat exchanger
d) Spray dryer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The scraped-surface heat exchange is designed for heating and cooling viscous, sticky
and lumpy products and for crystallization of products. The operating pressures on the product side
are high, often as much as 40 bar. All products that can be pumped can therefore be treated.

8. PHE (Plate Heat Exchanger) is more efficient in terms of heat transfer than THE (Tubular Heat
Exchanger).
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The given statement is true. From the standpoint of heat transfer, the tubular heat
exchanger is less efficient than a plate heat exchanger.

9. Which of the following is/are the category of Tubular Heat exchanger?

a) Multi/mono channel
b) Multi/mono tube
c) Cubical channel
d) Multi/mono channel and Multi/mono tube
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Tubular heat exchangers (THE) are in some cases used for pasteurization/ UHT
treatment of dairy products. Tubular heat exchangers are available in two fundamentally different
types; multi/mono channel and multi/mono tube.
10. Heat exchanger characterized by pack of stainless steel in a frame is ________
a) Plate heat exchanger
b) Tubular heat exchanger
c) Scraped surface heat exchanger
d) Spray dryer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Most heat treatment of dairy products is carried out in plate heat exchangers. The plate
heat exchanger (often abbreviated PHE) consists of a pack of stainless steel plates clamped in a
frame.

11. Scraped Heat exchanger has a ______ design.

a) Simple
b) Vertical
c) Planar
d) Horizontal
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Thanks to the vertical design, the product can be displaced by water with minimum
intermixing which helps assure product recovery at the end of every run. Following this, completely
drainage facilitates CIP and product changeover.

12. Plate heat exchanger was patented in which year?

a) 1890
b) 1990
c) 2009
d) 1790
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The plate heat exchanger was patented in 1890 by the German inventors Langen and
Hundhausen.

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13. “R” in the below equation refers to what?

a) Recycle
b) Regeneration efficiency
c) Regression
d) Reuse
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: We can take the simplest operating profile – heat treatment of raw milk –as an
example. Using this formula: where R = regenerative efficiency %, tr = milk temperature after
regeneration, ti = temperature of raw incoming milk, tp = pasteurization and temperature.
14. The unwanted buildup of material on a surface is called?
a) Secretion
b) Plating
c) Fouling
d) Layering
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Fouling is the accumulation of unwanted material on solid surfaces to the detriment of
function. Dairy industry also experiences fouling problems by chemical reactions.

15. Heat must be supplied to a substance in order to increase its temperature by 1°C is called?
a) Plate heat
b) Specific heat
c) Heat of chemical reaction
d) Heat of crystallization
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Specific heat, cp, is also determined by the product. The specific heat is basically the
amount of heat per unit mass required to raise the temperature by one degree Celsius.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Centrifugal
Seperators”.

1. After centrifugation when sublimate settles, clear liquid _____________

a) can be allowed to rest
b) can be allowed to form crystals
c) can be decanted off
d) can be evaporated
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Centrifugation separates sublimate and whey. Once the sublimate settles after
centrifugation, clear liquid can be decanted off.

2. After centrifugation, sublimate ______

a) dissolves completely
b) remain suspended in a liquid
c) settles at bottom
d) depends upon pH of sublimate
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: These particles can sediment at the bottom of the tube into what’s known as a pellet,
and this isolated specimen, or the remaining solution, the supernatant, can be further processed or
analyzed.

3. Which of the following is an effective way of purifying liquids containing suspensions?

a) crystallization
b) decanting
c) centrifuging
d) separating funnel
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture containing solid particles that are sufficiently
large for sedimentation. Liquids containing suspension can be purified using centrifugation.

4. Fine insoluble solid particles can be removed through which of the following process?
a) crystallization
b) decanting
c) centrifuging
d) separating funnel
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Decantation is a process for the separation of mixtures, by removing a layer of liquid,
generally one from which a precipitate has settled. Centrifugation helps in the removal of fine
insoluble particles in a solution.

5. Process quicker than filtration but not so effective is __________

a) decanting
b) centrifuging
c) crystallization
d) fractional distillation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Decanting is a process to separate mixtures. Decanting is just allowing a mixture of solid
and liquid or two immiscible liquids to settle and separate by gravity. This process can be slow and
tedious without the aid of a centrifuge.

6. Differential centrifugation relies on the differences in ______ of biological particles of different

___________
a) Size, density
b) Sedimentation rate, sizes and density
c) Size, structure
d) Mass, size
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Differential centrifugation is a process which is used to separate certain organelles from
whole cells for further analysis of specific parts of cells. Differential centrifugation is a process based
on the differences in the sedimentation rate of biological particles of different sizes and density.

7. Which of the following statements about the basic principle of sedimentation is False?
a) The denser a biological structure is, the faster it sediments in a centrifugal field
b) The more massive a biological particle is, the slower it moves in a centrifugal field
c) The denser the buffer system is, the slower the particle will move in a centrifugal field
d) The greater the centrifugal force is, the faster the particle sediments
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sedimentation is the tendency for particles in suspension to settle out of the fluid in
which they are entrained, and come to rest against a barrier. The statement is false because the
more massive a biological particle is, the faster it moves in a centrifugal field.

8. Which of the following is/are the application of analytical centrifugation?

I. The determination of the purity of macromolecules.
II. The determination of the relative molecular masses of solutes in their native state.
III. The examination of changes in the molecular mass of supramolecular complexes.
IV. The detection of conformational changes.
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) I, II and III only
d) I, II, III and IV
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Analytical ultracentrifugation (AUC) is a versatile and powerful method for the
quantitative analysis of macromolecules in solution. All of these are application of analytical
centrifugation.

9. Which of the following is/are appropriate care and maintenance of centrifuges?

I. Proper balancing of centrifuge tubes.
II. Avoid long time exposure of the rotors to alkaline solution and acidic buffers.
III. Cleaning centrifuges and rotors with coarse brushes and then wash them with distilled or de-
ionized water after every run.
IV. For overnight storage, the rotors are left upside down and then positioned in a safe and dry
place.
a) I, II, III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, II, and IV only
d) II only
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Only option I, II and IV are appropriate care and maintenance of centrifuges. However,
cleaning centrifuges and rotors with coarse brushes may cause damage to the protective layers of
rotors. Therefore, option iii is wrong.

10. After centrifugation of milk, the supernatant is?

a) Fat
b) Whey
c) Casein
d) Water
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: After centrifugation of milk, the whey is left as the supernatant. A separator is a
centrifugal device which aids in separation of milk into cream and skimmed milk.
11. What is the name of the machine that spins in order to separate out components making up a
mixture?
a) Centrifuge
b) Blood plasma
c) Centrifugation
d) Centrifugation tube
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A centrifuge is a machine with a rapidly rotating container that applies centrifugal force
to its contents, typically to separate fluids of different densities (e.g. cream from milk) or liquids
from solids.

12. How does centrifugation work?

a) Through dripping particles
b) Through spinning
c) By keeping large particle in the center and smaller on the outside
d) By separating particles into different tubes
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The centrifuge works using the sedimentation principle, where the centripetal
acceleration causes denser substances and particles to move outward in the radial direction. At the
same time, objects that are less dense are displaced and move to the center.

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13. If you were centrifuging whole milk, which would you expect to get flung further out from the
center of the centrifuge?
a) The cream/fat
b) Both would be equally flung
c) The skim milk
d) Neither would be flung
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: When spun, the heavier milk is pulled outward against the walls of the separator and
the cream, which is lighter, collects in the middle. The cream and milk then flow out of separate
spouts.

14. Which of the following scientist invented the centrifugal separator?

a) Gustaf de Laval
b) Donald ronholm
c) Luis pastuer
d) Rutherford
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: From 1890 the separators built by Gustaf de Laval were equipped with specially
designed conical discs, the patent on which had been granted in 1888.
15. The skimming efficiency of a separator consequently decreases with increased throughput.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The flow velocity through the separation channels will be reduced if the flow rate
through the machine is reduced. Thus providing the fat globules more time to rise and be discharged
through the cream outlet. The skimming efficiency of a separator consequently increases with a
decrease in throughput and vice versa.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on ”
Standardization”.

1. Standardization of milk involved which of the following?

a) Adjustment of fat content
b) Breakdown of protein
c) Whitish appearance of milk
d) Increase in nutritional content of milk
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Standardization of fat content involves adjustment of the fat content of milk, or a milk
product, by addition of cream or skim milk as appropriate to obtain a given fat content.

2. Which of the following method is used in a standardization of milk?

a) Pearson square method
b) Donald method
c) Jake method
d) Pearson cube method
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: One of these methods, frequently used, is taken from the Dictionary of Dairying by J.G.
Davis and is illustrated by Pearson square method. How many kgs of cream of A% fat must be mixed
with skim milk of B% fat to make a mixture containing C% fat? The answer is obtained from a square,
where the given figures for fat contents are placed.

3. The pressure in the skim milk outlet must be kept _______ in order to enable accurate
standardization.
a) High
b) Low
c) Constant
d) Steep
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The pressure in the skim milk outlet must be kept constant in order to enable accurate
standardization. This pressure must be maintained regardless of variations in flow or pressure drop
caused by the equipment after separation, and this is done with a constant-pressure valve located
close to the skim milk outlet.
4. Which of the factor does not affect the precision in standardization process?
a) Fluctuations in the fat content of the incoming milk
b) Fluctuations in throughput
c) Fluctuations in preheating temperature
d) Fluctuation in protein content
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For precision in the process it is necessary to measure variable parameters such as
fluctuations in the fat content of the incoming milk, fluctuations in throughput, and fluctuations in
preheating temperature. Most of the variables are interdependent; any deviation in one stage of the
process often results in deviations in all stages.

5. The cream fat content is _______ to the flow rate.

a) Inversely proportional
b) Directly proportional
c) Neither inversely proportional nor directly proportional
d) Increased
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The cream fat content is inversely proportional to the flow rate. Some standardization
systems therefore use flow meters to control the fat content.

6. What is the objective of Bactofugation?

a) Separate microorganisms from milk
b) Separate fat from skim milk
c) Standardize milk
d) Separate fat globules
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Bactofugation is a Belgian process for removing bacteria from milk by high speed
centrifugation. It aims at separation of microorganisms from milk.

7. Which of the following device is used in Bactofugation?

a) Decanter
b) Centrifuge
c) Bactofuge
d) Filter
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Bacteria, especially heat resistant spores, have a significantly higher density than the
milk. A Bactofuge is therefore a particularly efficient means of ridding milk of bacteria spores. Since
these spores are also resistant to heat treatment, the Bactofuge makes a useful complement to
thermisation, pasteurization and sterilization.

8. Major Application of Bactofugation is in which of the following processing?

a) Wine processing
b) Juice processing
c) Cheese processing
d) Ice cream processing
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Bacteria belonging to the genus Clostridium – anaerobic spore-forming bacteria – are
among the most feared by cheese makers, as they can cause late blowing of cheese even if present
in small numbers. That is why cheese milk is bactofugated.

9. The amount of bactofugate from the two-phase Bactofuge ______ as compared to one-phase
Bactofuge.
a) More
b) Less
c) Constant
d) Variable
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The amount of bactofugate from the two-phase Bactofuge is about 3% of the feed,
while the corresponding amount from the one-phase Bactofuge can be as low as 0.15% of the feed.

10. A decanter centrifuge is a machine for continuous sedimentation of suspended solids from a
liquid by the action of ________in an elongated, horizontal rotating bowl.
a) Centrifugal force
b) Gravitation force
c) Friction force
d) Force of resistance
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A decanter centrifuge separates solid materials from liquids in the slurry by centrifugal
force. It plays an important role in wastewater treatment, chemical, oil and food processing
industries.

11. How much whole milk with 3.9% fat and skimmed milk with 0.04% fat content will you need to
produce 2000 kg of standardized milk with 2.5% fat?
a) 725.4 kg
b) 825.4 kg
c) 925.4 kg
d) 715.4 g
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Using Pearson’s Square method:
Proportion of the whole milk = 2.46/3.86
Amount of whole milk required = (2.46/3.86)*2000 = 1274.6 kg
Proportion of skimmed milk = 1.4/3.86
Amount of skimmed milk required = (1.4/3.86)*2000 = 725.4 kg (or 2000 – 1274.6).

12. 500 kg of milk testing 6.5% fat to be standardized to 3.1% fat using skim milk containing 0.05%
fat. Therefore, the quantity of skim milk required to be added to 500 kg whole milk will be?
a) 557.38 kg
b) 440 kg
c) 850 kg
d) 500 kg
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation:

Thus mixing of 3.05 kg of 6.5% fat milk with 3.40 kg of the skim milk will yield 6.45 kg of milk
containing the desired fat level i.e. 3.1%. Therefore, the quantity of skim milk required to be added
to 500 kg whole milk will be (3.4 x 500)/3.05=3.05. Accordingly, 557.38 kg of 0.05% skim milk mixed
with 500 kg of 6.5% fat whole milk will yield 1057.38 kg of milk having 3.1% fat.

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13. Which of the following standardization is more desirable in large-scale operation?

a) Continuous
b) Batch
c) No standardization
d) Centrifugation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Continuous, on-line blending is much more desirable in a large-scale operation. This can
be achieved on the cream separator itself by allowing sufficient cream to remix with the skim milk so
that the mixture is milk with the desired fat content; the balance cream flows through the cream line
into the cream tank. This requires that the separator is fitted with a standardizing device.

14. How many parts by weight of 40% cream and 3% milk must be mixed to make milk testing 5%
fat?
a) 2 and 35
b) 4 and 45
c) 5 and 10
d) 6 and 12
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 2.0 parts of 40% cream when mixed with 35 parts of 3.0% milk will give 37 parts of 5%
milk. Calculated using the Pearson square method.

15. Fat is added back to skim milk in the process of standardization.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: When standardizing dairy products, the cream and milk are first separated on a dairy
line. The two elements are then mixed together again. However, not all of the original fat content is
added back; only the exact level required for milk to be classified as skimmed, semi skimmed or
whole.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Homogenizer
– 1”.

1. Name the scientist who invented Homogenization?

a) Pasteur
b) Rutherford
c) Leuwenhoek
d) Gaulin
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Gaulin, who invented the process of homogenization in 1899, described it in French as
“fixer la composition des liquids”.

2. Disruption of fat globules into much smaller fat globules is defined as?
a) Standardization
b) Centrifugation
c) Homogenization
d) Chilling
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Homogenization has become a standard industrial process, universally practiced as a
means of stabilizing the fat emulsion against gravity separation. Homogenization primarily causes
disruption of fat globules into much smaller ones.

3. Disintegration of fat globules in homogenization is achieved by which of the following?

a) Turbulence
b) Cavitation
c) Turbulence and cavitations
d) Pasteurization
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The disintegration of the original fat globules is achieved by a combination of
contributing factors such as turbulence and cavitations. The net result reduces the fat globules to
approximately 1mm in diameter.

4. Cream with higher fat content than ____ cannot normally be homogenized at the normal high
pressure.
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 12%
d) 15%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Cream with higher fat content than 12 % cannot normally be homogenized at the
normal high pressure because clusters are formed as a result of lack of membrane material (casein).
A sufficiently good homogenization effect requires approximately 0.2 g casein per g of fat.

5. Homogenization of cold milk is ineffective.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Homogenization of cold milk, in which the fat is essentially solidified, is virtually
ineffective. Processing at temperatures conducive to the partial solidification of milk fat (i.e. 30 –
35°C) results in incomplete dispersion of the fat phase.

6. Homogenization temperature applied normally are ________

a) 30- 40℃
b) 50- 60℃
c) 60- 70℃
d) 90-100℃
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Homogenization temperatures normally applied are 60 – 70°C, depending on the
product. Processing at temperatures conducive to the partial solidification of milk fat (i.e. 30 – 35°C)
results in incomplete dispersion of the fat phase. Homogenization is most efficient when the fat
phase is in a liquid state and in concentrations normal to milk.

7. Preferred Homogenization pressure is _______

a) 5- 15 MPa
b) 10-25 MPa
c) 25- 50 MPa
d) 60-70 MPa
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Homogenization pressure is between 10 and 25 MPa (100 – 250 bar), depending on the
product. High-pressure homogenisation procedures cause the formation of small fat globules.

8. The dispersion of the lipid phase increases with ________ temperatures of homogenisation and is
commensurate with the_________ viscosity of milk at higher temperatures.
a) Increase, decrease
b) Increase, increase
c) Decrease, increase
d) Decrease, decrease
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The dispersion of the lipid phase increases with increasing temperatures of
homogenization and is commensurate with the decreasing viscosity of milk at higher temperatures.

9. Name the theory of homogenization According to which homogenization takes place when the
liquid is leaving the gap, so the back pressure which is important to cavitation is important to
homogenization.
a) Cavitation theory
b) Eddies theory
c) Current theory
d) Voltage theory
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The cavitation theory, on the other hand, claims that the shock waves created when the
steam bubbles implode disrupt the fat droplets. However, it is possible to homogenise without
cavitation, but it is less efficient.

10. Which homogenization theory predicts how the homogenisinneffect varies with the
homogenizing pressure?
a) Cavitation theory
b) Eddies theory
c) Current theory
d) Voltage theory
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The theory of globule disruption by turbulent eddies is based on the fact that a lot of
small eddies are created in a liquid travelling at a high velocity. Higher velocity gives smaller eddies.
If an eddy hits an oil droplet of its own size, the droplet will break up. This theory predicts how the
homogenizing effect varies with the homogenizing pressure.

11. Application of Single-stage homogenization is in?

a) Products demanding a high viscosity (certain cluster formation).
b) Product with low viscosity
c) Product with no viscosity
d) Product without fat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single-stage homogenization may be used for homogenization of products demanding a
high viscosity (certain cluster formation).

12. Two-stage homogenization may not be applied to which of the following?

a) Products with a high fat content
b) Products where high homogenization efficiency is desired.
c) Product with low viscosity
d) Product demanding high viscosity
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Two-stage homogenization is used for products with a high fat content and products
where high homogenization efficiency is desired.

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13. Two-stage method is usually chosen to achieve optimal homogenization efficiency.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: pressure is measured before the first stage, P1, and the homogenization pressure in the
second stage is measured before the second stage, P2. The two-stage method is usually chosen to
achieve optimal homogenization efficiency. Best results are obtained when the relation P1 / P2 is
about 0.2.

14. The effect of homogenization on the physical structure of milk has which of the following
advantages?
I) Smaller fat globules leading to no cream-line formation
II) Somewhat increased sensitivity to light – sunlight and fluorescent tubes
III) Reduced heat stability
a) I) only
b) I) and III)
c) I), II) and III)
d) II) only
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Homogenization has following advantages: Smaller fat globules leading to no cream-
line formation, Whiter and more appetizing color, reduced sensitivity to fat oxidation, more full-
bodied flavor, better mouth feel, and Better stability of cultured milk products.

15. Homogenization of milk may give milk which of the following off-flavor?
a) Fruity
b) Bitter
c) Sunlight
d) Salty
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Homogenization has a disadvantage of increased sensitivity to light – sunlight and
fluorescent tubes can result in Sunlight flavor to the milk.

This set of Dairy Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “Homogenizer
– 2”.

1. Homogenization reduce the size of fat globules to which size?

a) Less than 2µ
b) Less than 3µ
c) Less than 4µ
d) Less than 5µ
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Homogenization leads to a reduction of fat globule size to < 2 µ prevents formation of
cream layer and increases the surface area of the fat above 6 times.

2. Which of the following is the effect of homogenization on the appearance of milk?

a) Dusty appearance
b) Yellowish appearance
c) Whitish appearance
d) Blackish appearance
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Homogenization of milk increases its whitening power due to an increase in the number
and surface area of the fat globules. Adsorption of casein micelles and serum proteins on newly
created fat globules surface increases scattering of light thereby causing whiter appearance.

3. Homogenization has which of the following effects on the physiology of nutrition of milk?
a) Improved digestibility
b) Reduced digestibility
c) Cholesterol
d) Sugar
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Homogenization has been reported to improve the digestibility of milk due to an
increase in the number and surface area of the fat globules.

4. Which of the following does not denotes the flavor profile of homogenized milk?
a) Richer than unhomogenized milk
b) Smoother than unhomogenized milk
c) Creamier than unhomogenized milk
d) Bitter
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Homogenized milk has a uniform flavor throughout. Homogenized milk tastes richer,
smoother and creamier than unhomogenized milk due to an increase in the surface area of the fat
globules which are uniformly distributed in milk.
5. Homogenized milk show sensitivity to which enzyme?
a) Lipases
b) Tryptases
c) Pepsin
d) Oxyin
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Homogenized milk is more susceptible to enzyme activities, especially lipase action,
than unhomogenized milk. Lipase can cause rancidity rapidly in homogenized raw milk.

6. Which of the following packaging material should be used in order to avoid off flavor formation in
homogenized milk?
a) Transparent Glass bottles
b) Transparent bags
c) Opaque containers
d) Transparent containers
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Homogenized milk is more susceptible to oxidized flavors caused by natural or artificial
light than unhomogenized milk. To prevent the development of off-flavors, homogenized milk must
be packaged in opaque containers, such as cartons, plastic containers or colored bottles.

7. Storage of homogenized milk may lead to which of the following development?

a) Sediment development
b) Fat development
c) Protein development
d) Cream layer development
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Homogenized milk may develop dark sediment at the bottom of the container after
standing for 24 h. Sedimentation in homogenized milk is due to the settling of cells, foreign matter
and casein particles. In unhomogenized milk, these particles are usually held by the fat globules.

8. In order to prevent sedimentation in homogenized milk which of the following measure prove
effective?
a) Heating
b) Pasteurization
c) Concentration of milk
d) Filtration/clarification of milk prior to homogenization
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: To prevent the sediment formation, homogenized milk must be filtered or clarified,
preferably before homogenization.

9. The bacterial counts of milk will _______ after homogenization.

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) First increase then decrease
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There will be an apparent increase in bacterial count after homogenization. Increase is
due to the break-up of clumps and colonies of organisms.

10. The milk after homogenization will not be suitable for the production of semi-hard or hard
cheeses due to which of the following reasons?
a) Too soft coagulum
b) Too hard coagulum
c) Off flavor
d) Bitter taste
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The milk will not be suitable for the production of semi-hard or hard cheeses. This is
because the coagulum will be too soft and difficult to dewater.

11. Homogenization in which the main body of skim milk is not homogenized, but only the cream
together with a small proportion of skim milk is homogenized is called?
a) Complete homogenization
b) Partial homogenization
c) Concentrate homogenization
d) Pasteurized homogenization
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Partial homogenization, this form of homogenization is mainly applied to pasteurized
market milk. The basic reason is to reduce operating costs. Total power consumption is cut by some
65% because of the smaller volume passing through the homogenizer.

12. Main function of first stage of homogenization is?

a) Fat globule reduction
b) Separation of clusters of fat into individual fat molecules
c) Oxidation
d) Off flavor development
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the fat globule reduction takes place in the first stage. There is a tendency for
clumping or clustering of the reduced fat globules after the first stage.

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13. Main function of Second stage of homogenization is?

a) Fat globule reduction
b) Separation of clusters of fat into individual fat molecules
c) Oxidation
d) Off flavor development
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is a tendency for clumping or clustering of the reduced fat globules after the first
stage. The second stage valve permits the separation of those clusters into individual fat globules.

14. Lack of homogenization leads to which of the following developments?

a) Cream layer development
b) Protein development
c) Astringency development
d) Increased fat content
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Milk is an oil-in-water emulsion, with the fat globules dispersed in a continuous skim
milk phase. In raw milk left to stand, the fat would rise and form a cream layer.

15. Which of the following factors does not contribute to enhanced stability of homogenized milk?
a) Decrease in the mean diameter of the fat globules
b) Decrease in the size distribution of the fat globules
c) Increase in density of the globules
d) Decrease in density of the globules
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Three factors contribute to this enhanced stability of homogenized milk: a decrease in
the mean diameter of the fat globules, a decrease in the size distribution of the fat globules, and an
increase in density of the globules owing to the adsorption of a protein membrane.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Evaporator –
1”.

1. Statement related to the process of evaporation that is incorrect is?

a) Evaporation occurs at any temperature
b) Evaporation takes place within liquid
c) Temperature may change during evaporation
d) No bubbles are formed in liquid during evaporation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Some of the salient features of evaporation are it occurs at any temperature, It might
lead to temperature change. It has been noted that no bubbles are formed in liquid during
evaporation.

2. Rate of evaporation is______

a) directly proportional to temperature of liquid
b) inversely proportional to temperature of liquid
c) independent of temperature of liquid
d) directly proportional to humidity of surrounding air
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Evaporation depends directly on temperature of liquid. Higher the temperature of the
substance the greater is the kinetic energy of the molecules at its surface and therefore the faster
the rate of their evaporation.

3. Rate of evaporation increases as?

a) exposed surface area of liquid increases
b) exposed surface area of liquid decreases
c) movement of air above surface of liquid decreases
d) atmospheric pressure increases
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A substance that has a larger surface area will evaporate faster, as there are more
surface molecules per unit of volume that are potentially able to escape.

4. Rate of evaporation decreases as?

a) temperature increases
b) humidity of surrounding air increases
c) movement of air above surface of liquid increases
d) atmospheric pressure decreases
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Humidity is the amount of water vapor present in the air. The air around us cannot hold
more than a definite amount of water vapor at a given temperature. If the amount of water in air is
already high, the rate of evaporation decreases.

5. Which of the following factors do not affect the rate of evaporation?

a) Temperature of liquid
b) Humidity of surrounding air
c) Depth of liquid
d) Surface of liquid
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The rate of condensation increases if the temperature of the gas is decreased. On the
other hand, the rate of evaporation increases if the temperature of the liquid is increased. It is also
increased if: the surface area of the liquid is increased.

6. Evaporation occurs only _____

a) after boiling
b) after extreme cooling
c) at surface of a liquid
d) if boiling occurs at atmospheric pressure
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Evaporation takes place at a surface and below the boiling point. The surface atoms or
molecules gains energy from surroundings and overcome the attractions of other molecules & get to
vaporize.

7. Compounds evaporating easily and giving off a smell are?

a) ionic compounds
b) covalent bonds
c) metallic bonds
d) dative bonds
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ‘Hospital smells’ are really covalent compounds floating in the air and these attacks our
noses. This means that molecules can escape from the liquid fairly easily and evaporate.

8. When heating begins in miscible solutions, vapors formed will be?

a) of liquid lower in boiling point
b) of liquid higher in boiling point
c) vapors will be of both liquids with a higher concentration of liquid having low boiling point
d) collected in a gas syringe
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Vapors will be of both liquids with a higher concentration of liquid having low boiling
point as the heating starts in miscible solution.

9. Evaporation of solution of CuSO4 helps in?

a) making it concentrated
b) crystallization of CuSO4
c) evaporation of salt CuSO4
d) concentration and crystallization
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The solution turns blue because of diffusion. On heating the solution nothing will
happen. Evaporation of solution of CuSO4 leads to its concentration and crystal formation.

10. Crystallization, evaporation and distillation are a means of?

a) separating soluble substances in solution
b) separating insoluble substances in solutions
c) separating filtrate from solution
d) concentration
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Crystallization, evaporation and distillation are methods of separation of soluble
substances in a solution.

11. Concentration is different than drying.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Concentration of a liquid means removal of a solvent, in most cases water;
concentration is distinguished from drying in that the final product – the concentrate – is still liquid.
12. Which of the following is not the reason for the concentration of food liquids?
a) reduce the cost of drying
b) induce crystallization
c) reduce costs for storage and transportation
d) increase water activity in order to increase microbiological and chemical
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are several reasons for concentrating food liquids, e.g. to reduce the cost of
drying, induce crystallization, reduce costs for storage and transportation, reduce water activity in
order to increase microbiological and chemical stability and to recover by-products from waste
streams.

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13. Evaporation in dairy industry is a preliminary step to which of the following process?
a) Drying
b) Flavoring
c) Watering
d) Pasteurization
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Dairy industry evaporation is used for concentration duties such as milk, skim milk and
whey. It is also used as a preliminary step to drying. Milk products intended for milk powder are
normally concentrated from an initial solids content of 9 – 13% to a final concentration of 40 – 50%
total solids before the product is pumped to the dryer.

14. Evaporation in dairy industry is done under __________

a) Vacuum
b) Heater
c) Dryer
d) Pasteurizer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The products to be evaporated are normally heat sensitive and can be destroyed by
adding heat. To reduce this heat impact, evaporation takes place under vacuum, sometimes at
temperatures as low as 40°C.

15. Which evaporators can be used when a low degree of concentration is required?
a) Falling film evaporator
b) Circular type evaporator
c) Tubular type evaporator
d) Plate type evaporator
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Circulation evaporators can be used when a low degree of concentration is required or
when small quantities of product are processed. In yogurt production, for example, evaporation is
utilized to concentrate milk 1.1 to 1.25 times, or from 13% to 14.5% or 16.25% solids content
respectively. This treatment simultaneously de-aerates the product and rids it of off-flavors.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Tanks”.

1. The maximum size of silo used in dairy is?

a) 150000 litres
b) 100000 litres
c) 10000 litres
d) 100 litres
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Tanks in a dairy are used for a number of purposes. The sizes range from 150000 litres
for the silo tanks in the reception department down.

2. The minimum size of silo used in dairy is?

a) 150000 litres
b) 100000 litres
c) 10000 litres
d) 100 litres
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The sizes range from 150000 litres for the silo tanks in the maximum category down to
approximately 100 litres for the smallest tanks.

3. Main category of silos is?

a) Storage tank
b) Process tank
c) Storage and process
d) Steel tank
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Tanks can generally be divided into two main categories according to function as
storage tanks and process tanks.

4. Tank used for “collection and reception of milk” is called ______

a) Storage tank
b) Process tank
c) Mixing tank
d) Balance tank
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Silo tanks for milk reception belong to the storage category and have been described
under “Collection and reception of milk”.

5. Storage tank inner shell is made of which of the following material?

a) Copper
b) Steel
c) Stainless steel
d) Aluminum
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: They vary in size from 25 000 to about 150 000 litres and the wetted surfaces are of
stainless steel. They are often placed outdoors to save on building costs. In these cases, the tanks are
insulated.

6. Storage tank are double shelled.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Storage shell has a double shell with a minimum of 70 mm mineral-wool insulation in
between. The outer shell can be of stainless steel, but for economic reasons it is usually made of
mild steel and coated with anti-corrosion paint.

7. The number and size of silo tanks depend on which of the following?
I) Milk intake per day
II) Number of days per working week
III) Number of hours per working week
IV) Types of product manufactured
a) I) and II)
b) II) and III)
c) III) and IV)
d) I), II), III) and IV)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The number and size of the silo tanks are determined by such factors as the milk intake
per day, the number of days per working week, the number of hours per working day (1, 2 or 3
shifts), the number of different products to be manufactured and the quantities involved.

8. Which of the following tank are used to create buffer storage?

a) Process tank
b) Intermediate storage tank
c) Mixing tank
d) Balance tank
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Intermediate storage tanks are used to store a product for a short time before it
continues along the line. These tanks are used for buffer storage, to level out variations in flow. After
heat treatment and cooling, the milk is pumped to a buffer tank, and from there to filling.

9. Intermediate storage tank can be used during process halt.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Storage tank, if filling is interrupted, the processed milk is buffered in the tank until the
operation can be resumed. Similarly, milk from this tank can be used during a temporary processing
stoppage.

10. Tank used for mixing an ice cream formulation is?

a) Process tank
b) Mixing tank
c) Balance tank
d) Storage tank
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Mixing tank, as the name implies, these tanks are used for mixing different products
and for the admixture of ingredients to the product. The tanks may be of the insulated type or have
a single stainless steel shell.

11. What is the use of agitator in tanks?

a) To mix
b) To heat
c) To cleanse
d) To impart flavor
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An agitator is a device or mechanism used to put something into motion by shaking or
stirring. There are several types of agitation machines, including washing machine agitators and
magnetic agitator. Agitators can come in many sizes and varieties, depending on the application.

12. Role of insulation in the tank is?

a) Maintain temperature due to weather fluctuation
b) Chilling
c) Freezing
d) Heating
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Insulation may refer to as thermal insulation, materials used to reduce the rate of heat
transfer. Hence insulation in silo tank helps to maintain temperature fluctuation due to weather
changes.

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13. Ripening tanks of butter cream come under which of the following categories?
a) Process tank
b) Mixing tank
c) Balance tank
d) Storage tank
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In process tanks, the product is treated for the purpose of changing its properties. They
are widely used in dairies, e.g. ripening tanks for butter cream and for cultured products such as
yoghurt, crystallization tanks for whipping cream.

14. Tank which aid in keeping product at same level is called _______
a) Process tank
b) Mixing tank
c) Balance tank
d) Storage tank
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The balance tank keeps the product at a constant level above the pump inlet. In other
words, the head on the suction side is kept constant.

15. Process tank has a scraper which aid in which kind of products?
a) Viscous
b) Dry
c) Powder
d) Milk
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Scraper is a tool or device used for scraping matter from a surface. Also, Scraper in
process tank is used to mix viscous products.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cows in
Dairy – 1”.

1. What is the most common breed of dairy cow?

a) Holstein
b) Aryshire
c) Brown Swiss
d) Jersey
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Holstein Friesians are a breed of dairy cattle originating from the Dutch provinces of
North Holland and Friesland, and Schleswig-Holstein in Northern Germany and Jutland. They are
known as the world’s highest-production dairy animals.

2. What is the cow’s first milk called?

a) Holostrum
b) Drostrum
c) Colostrum
d) milk
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Colostrum is a form of milk produced by the mammary glands of cows during
pregnancy. Most species will generate colostrum just prior to giving birth.
3. What are the six nutrients animals need?
I. carbohydrate
II. fat and protein
III. vitamin
IV. mineral and water
a) I only
b) II and III
c) III and IV
d) I, II, III, and IV
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are seven major classes of nutrients: carbohydrates, fats, fiber, minerals, protein,
vitamin, and water. The macronutrients (excluding fiber and water) provide structural material
(amino acids from which proteins are built, and lipids from which cell membranes and some
signaling molecules are built) and energy.

4. How soon before the show should an exhibitor begin fitting and training animals?
a) 5months
b) 2 months
c) 1 year
d) 8months
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The purpose of proper fitting and showmanship is to present your animal to its best
advantage for evaluation by. Fitting and training should begin 2 months before the show.

5. What is a male dairy animal called?

a) cow
b) vache
c) moose
d) bull
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A bull is an intact (i.e., not castrated) adult male of the species Bos taurus (cattle). It is
the male dairy animal.

6. One group of mammals eats meat and are called carnivores. What is the group that eats grass and
grains called?
a) omnivore
b) autotrophs
c) carnivore
d) herbivore
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: cows are animal which doesn’t eat meat. They survive on grass and feed. They are
called herbivores.
7. Which of the following are three common breeds of dairy cows in the United States?
I. Holstein
II. Guernsey
III. Jersey
a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) I, II, III
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Holstein, Guernsey and jersey are most popular cattle breeds. Apart from them lesser
known are Swiss brown.

8. What special ingredient in colostrums helps fight infection and disease in the newborn calf?
a) protein
b) carbohydrate
c) ammonia
d) antibodies
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Most species will generate colostrum just prior to giving birth. Colostrum contains
antibodies to protect the newborn against disease.

9. What is the nutrient that eventually becomes part of muscle, bone and blood?
a) protein
b) carbohydrate
c) mineral
d) antibodies
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Proteins are the building blocks of a body. Protein consumption end up being a part of
muscle, bone and blood.

10. What purpose is served by covering a dairy show animal with a blanket?
I. loosens the hair
II. keeps animal clean
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II
d) None
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Covering animal helps in loosening of hair. Covering the animal with blanket also aid in
keeping the animal clean.

11. The time between conception and parturition is called ______

a) reproduction period
b) gestation period
c) feed period
d) pregnancy
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Gestation length varies by age of dam, breed, and sex of the calf. Gestation length
ranges from 279 to 287 days. For most breeds, 283 days is common. Cows having bull calves tend to
have a slightly longer gestation compared to cows having heifer calves.

12. What breed of dairy cow came to the United States from Holland?
a) Holstein
b) Brown Swiss
c) Arya
d) jersey
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Holstein cow originated in Europe. The major historical development of this breed
occurred in what is now the Netherlands and more specifically in the two northern provinces of
North Holland and Friesland which lay on either side of the Zuider Zee.

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13. What two colors is the Holstein breed?

a) grey and white
b) brown and black
c) black and white
d) white and brown
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Holsteins are big, stylish animals with color patterns of black and white. A healthy
Holstein calf weighs 90 pounds or more at birth. A mature Holstein cow weighs about 1500 pounds
and stands 58 inches tall at the shoulder.

14. What is the process called whereby milk is heated to a high temperature?
a) freezing
b) chilling
c) pasteurization
d) vacuum treatment
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pasteurization is heat treatment processing a liquid or food to kill pathogenic bacteria
to make the food safe to eat. The use of pasteurization to kill pathogenic bacteria has helped reduce
the transmission of diseases.

15. Which vitamin keeps eye and body cell linings healthy and working?
a) vitamin D
b) vitamin C
c) vitamin K
d) vitamin A
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Vitamin A helps form and maintains healthy skin, teeth, skeletal and soft tissue, mucus
membranes, and skin. It is also known as retinol because it produces the pigments in the retina of
the eye. Vitamin A promotes good vision, especially in low light.

This set of Dairy Engineering Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Cows in
Dairy – 2”.

1. What is an excellent point to blend into on the rear legs when clipping?
a) blood view in the hock region
b) udder
c) skin
d) eyes
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: To assess the efficiency of grooming the following parts of the body should be
examined carefully (1) poll region (2) inside the ears (3) bend of the knees and hocks (4) under the
belly (5) and between the fore legs and thighs. Blood view in the hock region should be bend into
the rear leg while clipping.

2. How long is a dairy cow’s gestation period?

a) approximately 50 days
b) approximately 100 days
c) approximately 250 days
d) approximately 280 days
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Gestation length varies by age of dam, breed, and sex of the calf. Gestation period in
cattle ranges from 278 to 287 days. For most breeds, 283 days is common.

3. What breed of the dairy cow was first raised on the Island of Guernsey in the English Channel?
a) Guernsey
b) Holstein
c) Jersey
d) Brown Swiss
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Guernsey cattle breed came first into being in the Channel Islands between France
and England and is named for the Isle of Guernsey, which is the most western of the group.

4. What are the two parts of a cows hoof?

I. sole
II. heel
III. claw
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II
d) I, II, and III
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A cow hoof is cloven, or divided, into two approximately equal parts, usually called
claws, sole, and heels.

5. What is the process called wherein the fat in milk is broken into small parts so it will not float to
the top layer of milk?
a) Pasteurization
b) Thermalization
c) Homogenization
d) UHT
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Homogenization is the process of breaking down the fat molecules in milk so that they
stay integrated rather than separating as cream. Homogenization is a purely physical process;
nothing is added to the milk.

6. The lack of which vitamin causes night blindness in cattle?

a) vitamin K
b) vitamin B
c) vitamin A
d) vitamin C
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Vitamin A deficiency (VAD) or hypovitaminosis A is a lack of vitamin A in blood and
tissues. It is common in poorer countries but rarely seen in more developed countries. Nyctalopia
(night blindness) is one of the first signs of VAD.

7. What piece of equipment may be used to trip cow’s hooves?

I. Hoop trimmer
II. Nipper
III. Hoop knife
IV. Chisel
V. Mallet
a) I, II and IV
b) I, II and III
c) I only
d) I, II, III, IV and V
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Hoop trimmers, nippers, hoop knife, chisel and mallet are all equipment which could be
used to trip cow hooves.

8. What should be dipped in iodine after the birth of a calf?

a) calf’s leg
b) calf’s navel
c) calf’s foot
d) calf’s head
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Remove any debris or straw on the navel cord and dip it immediately, once the calf’s
breathing well on its own. Tincture of iodine (at least seven percent iodine) should be used for
dipping. The alcohol in the solution will help dry out the cord.

9. What breed is the smallest of all the dairy breeds?

a) Holstein
b) Jersey
c) Brown Swiss
d) Guernsey
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Jersey is the smallest of the dairy breeds, weighing in at 800 to 1,200 pounds, while the
average cow weighs about 1,500 pounds.

10. Cows of what breed are known for their yellow milk?
a) Holstein
b) Jersey
c) Brown Swiss
d) Guernsey
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Guernsey is a breed of dairy cattle from the island of Guernsey in the Channel Islands. It
is fawn or red and white in color and is hardy and docile. Its milk is rich in flavor, high in fat and
protein, and has golden-yellow tinge.

11. In dairy cattle what is the mother called?

a) Sam
b) Ram
c) Dam
d) Tam
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A calf (plural, calves) is the young of domestic cattle. Calves are reared in order to make
them into adult cattle; some calves are ear tagged soon after birth, particularly those that are stud
cattle in order to correctly identify their dams (mothers).

12. What is a good source of carotene to provide Vitamin A to cattle?

a) Green leafy grass and yellow corn
b) Wheat
c) Maize
d) Millet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: While grazing green grass, cattle get plenty of vitamin A but during the winter. The best
source of this vitamin is beta-carotene, a pigment in green plants.

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13. Which direction should the cow be led in the ring?

a) clockwise
b) anticlockwise
c) parallel
d) horizontal
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The lead strap should be looped loosely in the right hand. During the show inside the
ring, the master will almost always be walking in a clockwise direction, so this is how master should
practice when preparing for the round robin. When displaying, always stay on the cows left side.

14. What is the process called when the egg from the cow and the sperm from the bull are joined?
a) milking
b) making
c) healing
d) fertilization
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Fertilization is the fusion of haploid gametes, egg and sperm, to form the diploid
zygote.

15. Switzerland is the origin of what dairy breed?

a) Holstein
b) Jersey
c) Brown Swiss
d) Guernsey
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Perhaps the oldest of all dairy breeds, Brown Swiss originated in the valleys and
mountain slopes of Switzerland around 4000 B.C. Switzerland, the native home of the Brown Swiss is
a rough and mountain trail country with a total area of about 15,940 square miles.

This set of Dairy Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“Cows in Dairy – 3”.

1. What is the father of a calf called?

a) bull
b) cow
c) calf
d) vache
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mature male of the species is called a ‘bull’. It is the father of calf.

2. What are the tiny cells in a cows udder called?

a) Alveoli
b) Hind
c) Leg
d) Nipple
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An alveolus is composed of a single layer of epithelial cells surrounding a lumen,
another section of lactating mammary tissue from a cow. They are tiny cells in cow udder.

3. What is another name for Vitamin C?

a) tartaric acid
b) ascorbic acid
c) tannins
d) malic acid
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Vitamin C is also known as ascorbic acid. It is present in citrus fruits.

4. Which direction should the show person walk in relation to the cow?
a) forward
b) parallel
c) backward
d) front
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The person should walk in a clockwise direction in the ring. It is advised to walk
backward as compared to cow during the show.

5. What is the weight of a newborn calf?

a) 70-100 pounds
b) 120 pounds
c) 50-60 pounds
d) 20 pounds
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: New born calf weighs around 70-100 pounds. Weight is dependent on nutrition during
pregnancy and breed etc.

6. The Ayrshire breed of dairy cow first came from what country?
a) Netherlands
b) New Zealand
c) USA
d) Scotland
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Ayrshire breed is originally from County Ayr, Scotland, before 1800. The adult
Ayrshire cow weighs more than 450 to 600 kilograms (990–1,320 lb).

7. The choice of animals to be parents of each new generation. Involves culling cows and selecting
bulls is called?
a) classification
b) selection
c) mixing
d) breeding
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Classification is the practice which involves culling and selection of bulls. It helps in the
choice of parents of each new generation.

8. What hormone is important in the milking process?

a) Oxytocin
b) Thryoxine
c) Tri-iodothyronine
d) Parathyroid hormone
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Before milking, less than 20% of the milk yielded by dairy cows is stored within the
cistern, where it is immediately available for removal. Most of the milk is available for the milking
machine only after milk ejection, which occurs in response to tactile teat stimulation and oxytocin
release.

9. The lack of which vitamin causes rickets?

a) vitamin A
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lack of vitamin D results in reduced absorption of calcium and phosphorus. Difficulty
maintaining proper calcium and phosphorus levels in bones can cause rickets. Symptoms include
delayed growth, bow legs, weakness and pain in the spine, pelvis and legs.

10. When showing calves and heifers where should the hind foot nearest the judge be when the
animal is posed?
a) one half step back
b) no space
c) 2 steps back
d) 3 steps back
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: When posing and showing a dairy animal, stay on the animal’s left side and stand. For
cows and springing heifers, the hind leg nearest the judge should be. Hind foot must be one and a
half foot back.

11. What are the two methods calves can acquire protection against disease?
I. Passive immunity from absorption of antibodies found in first milk colostrums
II. active immunity in which the calf manufactures its own antibodies
a) I only
b) None
c) II only
d) I and II
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are two ways to acquire immunity i.e. active immunity and passive immunity.
Passive immunity from absorption of antibodies found in first milk colostrums, active immunity in
which the calf manufactures its own antibodies.

12. What is a calf over six months of age called?

a) adult
b) mature
c) heifer
d) bull
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Heifer is a young cow over one year old that has not produced a calf. Heifers are female
cows that have not yet given birth to a calf. Farmers can raise heifers for dairy or for meat.

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13. When considering sire selection, what does repeatability measure?

a) accuracy of sire’s Predicted Difference(P.D.)
b) efficiency
c) totality
d) result
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Accuracy of sire’s PD plays an important role during sire selection. It measures
repeatability.

14. What management practice helps prevent navel ill in newborn calves?
a) dipping foot
b) dipping navel in iodine
c) ethylene treatment
d) milking
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: – Consistent use of navel dip for newborn heifer calves using a recommended protocol.
This practice helps preventing infection in the newborn.
15. What is the condition called which results from a lack of Vitamin E in the diet?
a) black muscle disease
b) grey muscle disease
c) white muscle disease
d) brown muscle disease
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Nutritional muscular dystrophy (NMD) or white muscle disease is caused by a deficiency
of vitamin E, selenium.

1. What type of soap should be avoided when washing a dairy cow?

a) fragrant soap
b) soap with antimicrobial activity
c) soap with herbal treatment
d) soap with detergent
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The hindquarters, thighs and udder should be washed thoroughly before milking. It is
advised to avoid detergent soap for washing.

2. What are dairy animals that are officially recorded in the breed association herd book called?
a) unregistered animal
b) token animal
c) unlicensed animal
d) registered animal
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A registered animal is officially entered on a register or list; formally recorded(of mail)
sent using a Post Office service by which compensation is paid for loss or damage to mail for which a
registration fee has been paid.

3. Most of what ingredient is removed from skim milk?

a) protein
b) carbohydrate
c) mineral
d) Fat
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Skim milk is basically milk having low percentage of fat. Thus, fat is removed from
normal milk in order to make it skim milk.

4. The back of a dairy cow is made up of what two parts?

a) chine and loin
b) udder and skin
c) chine and udder
d) loin and bone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Chine and loin make up the back of the dairy cow. These two are important for body
balance.

5. What is the expected daily weight gain of a Holstein heifer calf from 200-800 pounds?
a) 1.5 pounds per day
b) 1.65 pounds per day
c) 1 pound per day
d) 2 pound per day
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Calf is the new born baby cow. It is observed that a calf generally gains 1 pound per day
daily.

6. What is the condition in which large amounts of gas are trapped in a calf’s stomach and the
stomach gets big?
a) Float
b) Tloat
c) Bloat
d) Piles
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Bloating is the condition in which the stomach of the calf gets big. It is due to the air
trapped inside the calf’s stomach.

7. Before entering the show ring, what is a question that the exhibitor should be prepared to answer
about the animals?
I. Birth date and sire
II. Dam and breeding rate
III. Date use to calve
IV. Age
a) I. and II
b) II. And III
c) I, II, III, and IV
d) IV only
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Showman should have a lot of information about his cow. He is expected to know about
birth date, sire, Dam, breeding rate, age etc of the cow.

8. What is the official record of registered animals of a breed kept by the breed association called?
a) cow book
b) bull book
c) heard book
d) book
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Registration is an important step to identify the cow. Official records of animal are kept
in a heard book.

9. Milk that has all the water removed is called what?

a) powdered milk
b) whey
c) flavor milk
d) condensed milk
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Milk has a high amount of water content. It can be removed with the help of dryer. The
milk with all the water removed is powdered milk.

10. How many points are given to General Appearance on the Dairy Cow Unified Score Card?
a) 10 points
b) 20 points
c) 35 points
d) 40 points
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: General Appearance is one of the parameters on which the cow is judged. It has about
35 points.

11. What is the process called when a calf is switched from milk or milk replaced to water and dry
feed?
a) fertilization
b) culling
c) breeding
d) weaning
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Weaning is the gradual introduction of a calf to what will be its adult diet and
withdrawing the supply of its mother’s milk. The process takes place only in mammals, as only
mammals produce milk.

12. What percent of a calf’s weight should it receive in colostrum the first 3 days?
a) 4%
b) 5%
c) 6%
d) 8%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Calf should receive about 3% of its weight in colostrum. Colostrum is protein rich milk
the mother produces.

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13. In relation to the grain of the hair, which direction should the tail be clipped?
a) opposite to grain of the hair
b) with the grain of the hair
c) parallel to grain of the hair
d) no relation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Rule of thumb is never clip against the grain of the hair. An ear should be clipped with
the direction of hair growth while holding the ear firmly, with the ear flap laying flat on your fingers.

14. What are two pieces of information not kept in the Herd Book kept by the breed association?
a) animals registration name, birth date
b) registration name and number of its sire and dam
c) name of the breeder and birth date
d) no of udders and skin color
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Herd book has a lot of information about a particular breed. The information is
regarding Animal but no of udders and skin color is not the part of this information.

15. What form of milk is made by the churning of whipping cream?

a) cream
b) ghee
c) curd
d) butter
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Butter is a popular dairy product made from cow’s milk. It is composed of milk fat that
has been separated by the churning of whipping cream from other milk components.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Quality – 1”.

1. The milk fat differential used in paying for raw milk is?
a) The price to be added or subtracted per 1/10 % of milk fat above or below a set percentage
b) A value established to penalize milk producers who have too much fat in their milk
c) A value set to penalize milk producers who have too little fat in their milk
d) The price to be added or subtracted per 50 percent of milk fat above or below a set percentage
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The milk fat differential is the price to be added or subtracted per 1/10 % of milk fat
above or below a set percentage.

2. The form of mastitis that is hidden from sight is known as __________________

a) Infectious
b) Clinical
c) Acute
d) Sub-Clinical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mastitis is a cow disease. Sub clinical mastitis is a kind of mastitis which is not visible.

3. Which of the following will best control contagious mastitis?

a) Pre-milking teat dip
b) Barrier type teat dip
c) Antibiotic teat dip
d) Germicidal teat dip
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Contagious mastitis spread from one cattle to another. The best way to control is by
Antibiotic teat dip.

4. The Standard Plate Count (SPC) has a prescribed incubation time of _____ hours at _____ ºC.
a) 24 hours at 32ºC
b) 48 hours at 45ºC
c) 48 hours at 32ºC
d) 12 hours at 45ºC
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Standard plate count test is carried out for 48 hours at 32ºC. It is also known as aerobic
plate count.

5. One type of test for antibiotics, common adulterants of milk, is based upon the principle that the
growth of bacteria is __________ by them.
a) Stimulated
b) Enhanced
c) Magnified
d) Inhibited
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Antibiotic inhibits growth of bacteria. This principle is used as a principle to check
adulterine of milk by the antibiotic.

6. The __________ test is used to detect if milk has been pasteurized properly.
a) Lipase
b) Coliform
c) Standard Plate Count
d) Phosphatase
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Pasteurization is the heat treatment for milk in order to kill pathogenic microorganisms.
Phosphatase test us used to check proper pasteurization of milk has been carried out.

7. Milk provides__________ and _____________ in approximately the same ratio as found in bone.
a) Calcium and Magnesium
b) Calcium and Phosphorus
c) Calcium and Iron
d) Phosphorus and Magnesium
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Calcium and phosphorus are provided by milk. They are provided approximately the
same ratio as found in bone.

8. Which of the following is not a cause of coliform mastitis?

a) Cracked or split inflations
b) Milking too soon after calving
c) Using excessive water in washing udders
d) Slightly damp, warm bedding
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Coliform mastitis caused by several reasons. Milking too soon after calving is not one of
the reasons.

9. About ____________ percent of the calcium available in the food supply is provided by milk and
milk products.
a) 66%
b) 76%
c) 86%
d) 96%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Milk is a major source of calcium in the body. About 76% off calcium is provided by milk
and milk products.

10. Which of the following directly influence(s) the total supply of milk?
a) Prices paid milk producers
b) Manufacturing plants
c) Costs of fat production
d) Foreign exports
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Milk supply is governed by several factors. Prices paid to milk producers have a direct
influence on the total supply of the milk.

11. The pasteurized Milk Ordinance regulates what?

a) Grade A milk
b) Manufacturing grade milk
c) Grade B milk
d) Grade C milk
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pasteurized milk ordinance is responsible for regulating Grade A milk.
12. Dairy farmers can buy and sell dairy futures on what exchange?
a) New York Stock Exchange
b) National Dairy Exchange
c) Coffee, Sugar, Coca Exchange
d) Chicago Mercantile Exchange
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Chicago Mercantile Exchange provides a platform for farmers to buy and sell dairy
futures there. It is convenient and transparent process.

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13. According to the Food & Nutrition Board of the National Academy of Sciences, all people need at
least _________ milligrams of calcium per day.
a) 100
b) 1000
c) 10,000
d) 100,000
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Calcium is an important component of human diet. Dairy requirement of calcium by
huan body is about 1000 milligram per day.

14. The cheese price series is based on 63 U.S. cheese plants that make 80-85 percent of the bulk
Cheddar. What is the price series called?
a) NASS Cheese Price Survey
b) NASS Cheddar Cheese Price Survey
c) NASS Swiss cheese Price Survey
d) U.S. Cheddar Cheese Price Survey
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: NASS cheddar cheese price survey determines the price of bulk cheddar. The prices are
accepted by all.

15. What marketing tool would be used in the futures market by someone who owns a commodity
such as milk and intends to sell it sometime in the future?
a) Basis contract
b) Pooling contract
c) Short Hedge
d) Speculating buyer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A short hedge is an investment strategy that is focused on mitigating a risk that has
already been taken. The “short” portion of the term refers to the act of shorting security, usually a
derivatives contract, which hedges against potential losses in an investment that is held long. It will
enable the futures market by someone who owns a commodity such as milk and intends to sell it
sometime in the future.
This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Quality – 2”.

1. Farm water supplies must be protected from surface contamination. Water is usually tested for
__________ as an indicator of possible sewage contamination.
a) Proteolytic bacteria
b) Lipolytic bacteria
c) Coliform bacteria
d) Psychotropic bacteria
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In order to protect far water from surface contamination, the water is tested for
coliform bacteria. If it tests positive thus water is infected.

2. Specific gravity of milk at 60ºF is __________

a) 1.022
b) 1.032
c) 1.033
d) 1.042
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a reference
substance; equivalently, it is the ratio of the mass of a substance to the mass of a reference
substance for the same given volume. A specific gravity of milk is 1.032 at 60ºF.

3. The International Dairy Federations (IDF) mission is to promote ______________

a) Scientific, cultural & economic progress
b) Agricultural, technical & economic progress
c) Technical, scientific & industrial progress
d) Scientific, technical & economic progress
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The International Dairy Federation is the leading source of scientific and technical
expertise for all stakeholders of the dairy chain. IDF’s mission is to help nourish the world with safe
and sustainable dairy, thus it promotes scientific, technical and economic progress.

4. USDA reports net prices received by dairy farmers for milk, usually the prices are published on a
map to show regional differences. The prices are referred to as _______________
a) Blend prices
b) Regional prices
c) Mailbox prices
d) BFP prices
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The “mailbox price” is defined as the net price received by dairy farmers for milk,
including all payments received for milk sold and deducting costs associated with marketing the
milk.
5. The “set aside” of $0.15 per hundred pounds of milk from a milk producer’s check is used in
programs that support ______
a) Promotions & research
b) Research & testing
c) Teaching & promotion
d) Promotion & teaching
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Promotion and teaching is an n important aspect of dairy. $0.15 per hundred pounds of
milk is used in order to support this initiative.

6. Onion and garlic are responsible for the garlic/onion off-flavor in milk, and are more prevalent in
pasture during __________
a) Fall
b) Spring
c) Early and late summer
d) Early spring and late fall
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Early spring and late fall lead to higher production of onion and garlic. Thus such off
flavor are more prevalent in the milk of cow’s feeding on these pastures during this duration.

7. Chemical sanitizers containing __________ are most widely used for sanitizing milking equipment.
a) Bromine
b) Saline
c) Chlorine
d) Iodine
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Chlorine is a very effective sanitizer. It is used to sanitize milking equipment.

8. Milk found in cows with a high somatic cell count would result in a decrease in __________
a) Butterfat
b) Whey protein
c) Casein
d) Trace minerals
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Somatic cell count in milk shouldn’t exceed the prescribed limit. High somatic count
would lead to decrease in amount of casein.

9. Milk is a good supplier of minerals except for _____

a) Magnesium-Iron-Manganese-Copper
b) Riboflavin-Magnesium-Lactose-Manganese
c) Phosphorus-Copper-Zinc-Calcium
d) Potassium-Boron-Iron-Calcium
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Milk is an all round nutritional product. It is rich in most of the minerals except
Magnesium-Iron-Manganese-Copper.

10. Adulterants of milk that are detrimental to human health are _____
a) Proteins
b) Pesticides
c) Water
d) Minerals
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pesticides are adulterant which is very harmful for human health. They lead to cancers.

11. Water added to milk is detected by checking the _____

a) Acid degree value
b) Sediment content
c) Titratable acidity
d) Freezing point
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Freezing point check is the best method to check the adulteration in milk by water. The
freezing point goes down as water is added.

12. Milk with low total solids will produce what off-flavor?
a) Flat
b) Malty
c) Salty
d) Acid
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Flat off flavor is persistent in milk with low total solids. Hence milk should have
sufficient total solid.

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13. A cryoscopy is an important tool that test for __________ in milk.

a) Butterfat
b) Antibiotics
c) Pesticides
d) Added water
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Apart from the freezing point check, cryoscopy is a tool which helps in checking added
water in milk. Cryoscopy is the process of determination of the lowered freezing points produced in
liquid by dissolved substances in order to determine molecular weights of solutes and various
properties of solutions.
14. Milk is the only source of __________ in nature.
a) Calcium
b) Phosphorous
c) Lactose
d) Fatty acids
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lactose is the major milk carbohydrate. It is only found in milk in nature.

15. Which of the following is not an important reason for a five day-seven degree shelf life test?
a) Psychotropic bacteria reproduce at this temperature
b) Data made available for control application in a reasonable time
c) It lowers variability among cartons of milk
d) The Temperature is at or near the maximum at which milk will be stored
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Out of the options lower variability among cartons of milk isn’t an important reason for
shelf life test. All the others are important in shelf life testing.

This set of Dairy Engineering MCQs focuses on “Quality – 3”.

1. The ideal cleaning material for removing milk stone from milking equipment surfaces is _____
a) Acidic detergent
b) Phosphate
c) Surfactant
d) Chelate
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Acidic detergent is used for cleaning purpose. It is an ideal material in order to remove
milk stone from milking equipment surface.

2. The somatic cell count standard for Grade A raw milk is _____ or less per milliliter of milk.
a) 500,000
b) 750,000
c) 1,000,000
d) 1,500,000
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Somatic cell if less leads to the flat flavor of milk. Somatic cell count for grade A raw
milk should be 750,000 0r less per milliliter of milk.

3. The ability of lipase in milk to attack milk fat and produce a rancid off flavor is enhanced by?
a) Excessive agitation of warm raw milk
b) Poorly cleaned milking equipment
c) Exposing milk to sunlight
d) Feeding cows moldy hay
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lipase is an enzyme which helps in the breakdown of milk fat. Its ability to produce off
flavor is enhanced by excessive agitation of warm raw milk.

4. In ______ when the Capper-Volstead Act was enacted, cooperatives were given the right and
power to organize producers of a farm commodity to its fullest extent.
a) 1829
b) 1959
c) 1729
d) 1929
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Capper–Volstead Act, the Co-operative Marketing Associations Act was adopted by the
United States Congress on February 18, 1922. In 1929 it gave right and power to organize producers
of a farm commodity to fullest extent.

5. The two most important etiologic agents of mastitis are __________

a) Streptococcus agaiactiae and Staphylococcus aureaus
b) Streptococcus uberis and Streptococcus dysgapactiae
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa and coliform bacteria
d) Klebsiella and actinomycetes
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A total of 137 microbial species, subspecies and serovars have been isolated from the
bovine mammary gland. Nucleic acid hybridization studies have restructured the classification of
many mastitis pathogens. Streptococcus agaiactiae and Staphylococcus aureaus are two most
important etiologic agents of mastitis.

6. ___________ cause(s) off flavors in milk such as acid, high acid, or sour milk.
a) Chemical adulterants
b) Microorganisms
c) Sediment
d) Weeds
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Microorganism release acid which is responsible for sour milk.

7. Aflatoxins sometimes found in dairy feeds are produced by?

a) Protozoa
b) Bacteria
c) Mold
d) Yeasts
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Aflatoxins are a family of toxins produced by certain fungi that are found on agricultural
crops such as maize (corn), peanuts, cottonseed, and tree nuts. They are produced by molds.
8. With the exception of ________ all of the following off flavors of milk are caused by bacteria
a) Bitter
b) Malty
c) Yeasty
d) Salty
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Bacteria contribute to a variety of off flavor to the milk. It leads to bitter, malty and
yeasty off flavor.

9. The Grade A Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO) specifies requirements for the production of
Grade A raw milk for pasteurization and is recommended by _________
a) The Food and Drug Administration
b) The Small Business Administration
c) The U.S. Department of Agriculture
d) The National Committee on Milk
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: PMO Pasteurized Milk Ordinance gives the Grade “A” Pasteurized Milk Ordinance
(PMO) is a set of minimum standards and requirements that are established by the Food and Drug
Administration (FDA) for regulating the production, processing and packaging of Grade A milk.

10. In Federal order markets, milk sold for consumption in fluid form is in __________
a) Class IV
b) Class III
c) Class II
d) Class I
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Milk sold for consumption in liquid form is a class I product.

11. Milk covered by Federal milk marketing orders is __________

a) Grade A
b) Grade B
c) Grade C
d) Grade A, B, C
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Federal Milk Marketing Orders (FMMOs) establish certain provisions under which dairy
processors purchase fresh milk from dairy farmers supplying a marketing area. It covers Grade A
milk.

12. The largest percentage of the U.S. milk supply is utilized in the production of ______
a) Cream and specialty sales
b) Cheese
c) Frozen dairy desserts
d) Evaporated, condensed and dry products
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cheese production is a major dairy operation. It utilizes a large percentage of U.S. milk
supply.

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13. Operating costs of Federal orders are paid by ______

a) The State Department of Agriculture
b) The Federal government
c) The milk producers
d) The milk handlers
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The milk handlers pay the operating cost of federal orders. It is written under the norms
of payment.

14. One objective of a federal order is to _______________

a) Assure all dairy farmers an adequate income
b) Assure consumers that an adequate supply of pure, wholesome milk
c) Assure that all dairy plants receive an adequate supply of milk
d) Prevent surpluses of milk in the marketplace
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: USDA cites three major objectives of federal milk orders: 1) To assure consumers of an
adequate supply of wholesome milk at a reasonable price. 2) To promote greater producer price
stability and orderly marketing. 3) To provide adequate producer prices to ensure an adequate
current and future Grade A milk supply.

15. What is the most popular size container used for fluid milk?
a) Gallon
b) Half Gallon
c) Quart
d) Five quart bulk
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Fluid milk is available in the market in different packaging and quantity. The most
popular among them is a Gallon packing.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Milk Quality
Farm – 1”.

1. Federal Definitions and Standards of Identity specify that Whole Milk contains not less than _____
a) 3.00 percent milk fat and 8.25 percent solids-not-fat
b) 3.50 percent milk fat and 8.50 percent solids-not-fat
c) 3.50 percent milk fat and 8.00 percent solids-not-fat
d) 3.25 percent milk fat and 8.25 percent solids-not-fat
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Standards of Identity for Dairy Products. This page contains the Standards of Identity
for Milk and Cream, Cheese and Related Cheese Products, and Frozen Desserts that are listed in the
United States Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). It specifies that the whole milk should at least
contain 3.25 percent milk fat and 8.25 percent solids-not-fat.

2. Cheddar cheeses sold in the United States, which are not made from pasteurized milk, must be
ripened at least _________ days.
a) 30
b) 60
c) 120
d) 150
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cheddar cheese gets its characteristic flavor by ripening. It should undergo a ripening
period of minimum of 60 days.

3. The establishment of a Federal milk marketing order is generally initiated by ________

a) Dairy farmers, through their cooperative association
b) Milk handlers in the market
c) Consumers
d) Dairy farmers, milk handlers and consumers
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Federal Milk Marketing Orders (FMMOs) establish certain provisions under which dairy
processors purchase fresh milk from dairy farmers supplying a marketing area. Federal orders serve
to maintain stable marketing relationships for all handlers and producers supplying marketing areas,
thus facilitating the complex process of marketing fresh milk.

4. A milk order, including pricing and other provisions, becomes effective only after approval by
____________
a) Consumers
b) Dairy farmers
c) Milk processors
d) Secretary of Agriculture
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A milk order becomes effective only after the approval of dairy farmers. Milk order
includes pricing and other provisions.

5. Federal milk marketing orders give _______ an active voice in determining minimum milk prices
through public hearings.
a) Milk activists
b) Milk handlers
c) Milk processors
d) Milk consumers
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In Federal order provisions, dairy processors are referred to as handlers and dairy
farmers are known as producers. Federal orders serve to maintain stable marketing relationships for
all handlers and producers supplying marketing areas, thus facilitating the complex process of
marketing fresh milk.

6. The rules States adopt to govern the production, processing, packaging and storage of Grade A
milk are based on ________
a) The Code of Federal Regulations
b) The Pasteurized Milk Ordinance and Code
c) USDA Rules and Regulations
d) The Pure Milk Act of 1937
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Grade “A” Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO) is a set of minimum standards and
requirements that are established by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for regulating the
production, processing and packaging of Grade A milk.

7. Flavors of milk may be caused in general by _______________

a) Water content of the milk
b) Temperature that milk is stored
c) Feeds consumed by the cow
d) Amount of sun light the cow receives
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Milk flavor is caused due to the feeds consumed by the cow. They might even result in
off flavor development in the milk.

8. The major cause of the salty flavor in milk is ___________

a) The large intake of salt by the cow
b) Associated with sunlight exposure
c) Mastitis
d) Bacteria
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Salty of flavor in milk can be attributed to Mastitis. It is an off-flavor.

9. ___________ is a test for rancidity.

a) Acid degree value
b) Cryoscope
c) Disc assay
d) Titratable acidity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Acid degree value (ADV) as determined by the standard method, free fatty acid profile,
and sensory analyses by a trained panel (n = 5) using magnitude estimation were used as measures
of intensity of rancid flavor in milk. The correlation between ADV and rancidity scores was 0.13 (p =
0.16).

10. Mastitis in milk ____________

a) Has a direct effect on cheese yield
b) May cause increased rancidity
c) Decreases calcium content
d) Increases protein content
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Mastitis refers to milk disease in cows. It may have a direct effect on cheese yield.

11. Which of the following is not one of the duties of the bulk milk hauler, who plays a critical role in
milk handling?
a) Checking milk temperature
b) Making sure equipment has been cleaned correctly
c) Examining milk to determine appearance
d) Collecting a representative sample to be used for tests
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Milk hauler is responsible for checking the milk temperature. He is also held responsible
for examining milk to determine the appearance and collecting a representative sample to be used
for the test.

12. Milk with an Acid Degree Value (ADV) of 1.0 or above will have a detectable ______ flavor.
a) Rancid
b) Malty
c) Acidic
d) Fruity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Acid degree value (ADV) as determined by the standard method, free fatty acid profile,
and sensory analyses by a trained panel (n = 5) using magnitude estimation were used as measures
of intensity of rancid flavor in milk.

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13. The four primary taste sensations are _____________________

a) Bitter, metallic, sour, sweet
b) Bitter, salt, sour, sweet
c) Metallic, salt, sour, sweet
d) Burnt, bitter, salt, sour
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Dating back to ancient Greece and China, the sensation of taste has historically been
dominated by the four “basic tastes” of sweet, bitter, sour and salty.
14. Lactose is the principal ________ in milk.
a) Fat
b) Protein
c) Carbohydrate
d) Mineral
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lactose is a primary milk carbohydrate. The milk is the only source for this carbohydrate
for body.

15. The most effective and economical means of reducing the exposure of cows to mastitis causing
microorganisms is to _________
a) Isolate animals with clinical mastitis
b) Disinfect or sterilize milking machine inflation’s between cows
c) Wear rubber or plastic gloves during milking and disinfect the gloves between cows
d) Use a bactericide for disinfecting the teats after milking
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Mastitis usually happens in nursing mothers when bacteria enter the breast through a
cracked or sore nipple. This can cause an infection. Good breastfeeding techniques and use of
bactericide for disinfecting the teats after milking can help prevent sore and cracked nipples that
may lead to mastitis.

This set of Dairy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Milk Quality
Farm – 2”.

1. Most farm bulk milk tanks are designed for every-other-day (EOD) pickup and must cool 25
percent of the volume of the tank to ___ degrees F within two hours after milking.
a) 25
b) 45
c) 60
d) 70
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Bulk tanks are used for pickup. They should cool up to 25 percent the volume of the
tank to 45 degrees F within two hours prior to milking.

2. A consumer found an off-flavor in milk packaged in transparent plastic and exposed to high
intensity fluorescent light. The off-flavor probably was?
a) High acid
b) Bitter
c) Oxidized
d) Rancid (lipolyzed)
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Oxidized flavor may result due to exposure of milk to high fluorescent lighting. Such
milk is more prone to this when packaged in transparent packaging material.
3. Which group of flavors cannot be detected by odor?
a) Bitter, salty
b) High acid, rancid
c) Feed, garlic/onion
d) Metallic/oxidized, malty
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the flavors are detectable. However, Bitter and salty flavor can’t be detected by
odor.

4. Milk used to make ice cream would be priced in what Federal Order class?
a) Class I
b) Class II
c) Class II
d) Class IV
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Milk of class II is used to make ice cream. Class II is the milk going into ‘soft’
manufactured products such as sour cream, cottage cheese, ice cream and yogurt.

5. _________ is the time after processing during which a dairy product normally remains suitable for
human consumption.
a) Code date
b) Product life
c) Package date
d) Shelf date
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Sell-by date is the date in which your supermarket needs to stop selling that particular
carton of milk. Shelf date specifies the time during which the product remains fit for consumption.

6. The off flavor most likely to be found in milk that has not been cooled properly is __________
a) Sour
b) Rancid
c) Oxidized
d) Bitter
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Sour off flavor is found in improperly cooled milk. Hence cooling done properly is an
important factor to avoid off flavor development.

7. The Babcock test is a rapid, simple and accurate test for __________
a) Water in milk
b) Titratable acidity
c) Fat content
d) Nonfat milk solids content
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Babcock test is the first inexpensive and practical test factories could use to
determine the fat content of milk. It is a rapid, simple and accurate test.

8. To remove fat from milking equipment use __________

a) Alkaline cleaner in hot water
b) Alkaline cleaner in cold water
c) Acid cleaner in cold water
d) Acid cleaner in hot water
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Milk has high amount of fat. Such fat needs to be cleaned. Alkaline cleaner in hot
waters helps to remove fat from milking equipments.

9. Quality of grade A milk is __________

a) Not controlled by Federal Orders
b) The first consideration in pooling milk
c) The part of the testing by Market Administrators
d) Only checked if there is excess milk
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Grade A milk, also called fluid grade milk, refers to milk produced under sufficiently
sanitary conditions to qualify for fluid (beverage) consumption. Only Grade A milk is regulated under
not federal milk marketing orders.

10. Federal Milk Marketing Orders provide or describe __________

a) Sanitary standards used for grade A
b) Milk purchased by dealers
c) Milk sold by farmers
d) Payment made to milk producers for milk
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Federal milk marketing order is an association. It helps to provide or describe payment
made to milk producers for milk.

11. It takes approximately _______ lbs. of whole milk to make one pound of whole milk cheddar
cheese.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 13
d) 22
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cheddar cheese is a unique variety of cheese. Approximately 10lbs whole milk is
utilized to make 1 pound of cheddar cheese.

12. Federal Milk Marketing Orders are a mechanism for?

a) The most economical utilization of milk
b) Finding a market for every producer’s milk
c) Economical transportation of milk
d) Market stabilization
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Federal Milk Marketing Orders (FMMOs) establish certain provisions under which dairy
processors purchase fresh milk from dairy farmers supplying a marketing area. They help in market
stabilization.

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13. Cow’s milk contains _____ percent lactose.

a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lactose is an important milk carbohydrate. Milk contains 5% lactose.

14. For the maximum intake of calcium, one should consume ___________
a) Whole Milk
b) 2% Milk
c) 1% Milk
d) Skim Milk
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Calcium is an essential component to maintain bone health in the body. For maximum
intake of calcium it is advised to have skim milk.

15. While some extra-label drugs can be used by food-producing animals, others cannot. Which of
the following is/are an illegal drug(s)?
a) Clenbuterol
b) Penicillin
c) Tetracycline
d) Ivomec
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Clenbuterol, also called “clen,” is considered a performance-enhancing drug and is
banned in most athletic competitions. Because of this, some athletes who test positive for
clenbuterol often claim they must have eaten contaminated meat, thus this drug is banned.

This set of Dairy Engineering online quiz focuses on “Milk Quality Farm – 3”.

1. The fat in one serving of whole milk (8 ounces) provides _______ calories.
a) 85
b) 90
c) 95
d) 100
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Milk has a high concentration of fat. The fat in one serving of milk has 90 calories.

2. The most prevalent off the flavor of fluid milk is ______

a) Malty
b) Oxidized
c) Flat
d) Feed
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Milk can have several off- flavor. Most prevalent of them is off flavor due to feed.

3. The microbiological standard for Grade A raw from a single procedure is _________ bacteria per
millimeter of milk prior to co-mingling with milk from other producers.
a) 200,000
b) 150,000
c) 100,000
d) 50,000
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Certain microbiological standards are set for Grade A milk. For Grade, A milk is 100,000
bacteria per millimeter of milk prior to mixing that milk with a milk of other producers.

4. Pasteurization is the process of heating every particle of milk and milk products to the minimum
required _______ and holding it continuously for the minimum required ______ in equipment that is
properly designed and operated).
a) Temperature and length
b) Time and temperature
c) Temperature and time
d) Time and length
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pasteurization is the process of heating milk to a certain time and temperature in order
to kill pathogenic microorganism. Usually, preferred pasteurization time and temperature is 63
degrees C for 30 min.

5. The major reason milk from cows treated with antibiotics must be withheld from the milk supply
is because of _______
a) A large proportion of the human population is sensitive to antibiotics
b) Antibiotics increase the somatic cell count of milk
c) Antibiotics cause an off-flavor in milk
d) Antibiotics kill some of the good bacteria found in milk
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Milk with antibiotics is held from milk supply. This is due to the large proportion of the
human population is sensitive to antibiotics.

6. When cows have mastitis, the protein content of milk may be higher, but the cheese yield is lower
because of a decrease in _______ protein.
a) Lysine
b) Casein
c) Tryptophan
d) Whey
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Mastitis leads to a reduction in casein proteins in milk. Thus cow milk of mastitis cow is
not suitable for cheese preparation.

7. Bacteria that survive specific heat treatment are said to be _____

a) Psychotropic
b) Coliform
c) Psychrophilic
d) Thermoduric
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Thermoduric bacteria can survive specific heat treatment. These bacteria pose a
problem during pasteurization of milk.

8. ________ is exposure of hot milk or milk product to reduced pressure to affect the removal of
volatile substances, especially those that enter milk from feed).
a) Vaporization
b) Infusion heater
c) Vacuumization
d) Vac Pac process
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Vacuumize: to produce a vacuum in; to clean, dry, or pack by a vacuum mechanism or
in a vacuum container. Vacuumization deals with exposing milk to reduced pressures.

9. A high acid flavor (sour) in milk is caused by ________

a) Growth of bacteria in the milk
b) Exposure of cows to acid rain
c) Drinking hard water
d) Absorption of acid from corn silage
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Micro organisms if present in milk leads to sour off flavor in milk. Bacteria are most
responsible for sour off flavor in milk.

10. The enzyme _______ is almost completely inactivated during pasteurization.

a) Lactose
b) Acid glycerol
c) Alkaline phosphatase
d) Free fatty acids
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Alkaline Phosphatase is completely inactivated during pasteurization. It is hence also
called indicator organization.

11. A pooling method, whereby, handlers with higher than average utilization pay into and handlers
with lower than average utilization receives payment from is called _______
a) Base excess pricing
b) Louisville takes out and pay back
c) Individual handler pools
d) Producer settlement fund
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In producers settlement fund, handlers with higher than average utilization pay into
and handlers with lower than average utilization receives payment from. It is a kind of pooling
method.

12. The absence of _____ and _____ is not an accident, because they would catalyze oxidation, their
producing metallic or oxidized flavors.
a) Lead-casein
b) Boron-tin
c) Iron-copper
d) Zinc-brass
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Iron and copper leads to the formation of metallic and oxidized flavor in milk. They are
removed from milk.

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13. The CMT test results that indicate a somatic cell count of 400000 to 1500000 are _____
a) Mixture thickens with slight gelation
b) Viscous gel forms, mass adheres to paddle
c) Distinct precipitate forms, but no gel
d) Slight precipitate forms and tends to disappear
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: One of the best ways to detect mastitis is to use the California Mastitis Test (CMT). A
four-compartment paddle and the CMT reagent are the only supplies you need to conduct the
test.400,000 to 1,500,00 would show Distinct precipitate but does not gel with paddle movement.

14. Which of the following is not a part of the establishment of a federal marketing order?
a) A public hearing is held for the producers-handlers and the public
b) Must be approved by 2/3 of the producers supplying 3/4 of the milk
c) Cooperative associations of milk producers petition the U.S. Secretary of Agriculture
d) A producer cooperative may vote all its members who deliver milk during a certain period)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Federal market order establishes several norms. The order to be approved by 2/3 of the
producers supplying 3/4 of the milk is not one of the norms.

15. To reduce the feed flavor in milk to acceptable levels, cows should be removed from offending
feeds _____ hours before milking.
a) 1-2
b) 2-4
c) 4-6
d) 6-8
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Offending feed to cow lead to milk produced containing off flavor. Thus such feed is
avoided prior to 2-4 hours of milking.

This set of Dairy Engineering online test focuses on “Milk Quality Farm – 4”.

1. The only persons regulated by federal orders are _____

a) Farmers
b) Truckers
c) Handlers
d) Retail store owners
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In Federal order provisions, dairy processors are referred to as handlers and dairy
farmers are known as producers. Handlers are regulated by federal orders.

2. The increased use of bulk cooling and storage equipment has made _____ bacteria the primary
organisms in raw milk.
a) Psychrophilic
b) Coliform
c) Staphylococcus
d) Streptococcus
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Psychrophiles or cryophiles (adj. cryophilic) are extremophilic organisms that are
capable of growth and reproduction in cold temperatures, ranging from −20 °C to +10 °C. The
growth of psychrophilic bacteria has tremendously increased due to bulk cooling and storage.

3. _____ is the cause of the rancid flavor in milk.

a) Feeding high moisture corn
b) Feeding haylage
c) Storing milk in the sunlight
d) Extreme agitation of raw milk
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Racidilty is the result of fat oxidation. In milk, it is caused due to excessive agitation of
raw milk which leads to a breakdown of fat molecule exposing them to oxidation.

4. Which of the following does not promote metallic/oxidized off flavor in milk?
a) Hypochlorite sanitizer
b) Sunlight
c) Fluorescent light
d) Copper
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Milk with a cardboardy or metallic taste is more common in milk during the winter and
early spring. The off- flavor can be detected in raw milk, but sometimes not until two days after
collection. Hypochlorite doesn’t promote metallic off flavor in milk.

5. Whole milk contains _____ percent protein.

a) 1.5-2.5
b) 2.5-3.5
c) 3.5-4.0
d) 4.0-4.5
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Whole milk is rich in protein. It contains around 3.5-4.0 percent protein.

6. Which of the following is not an objective of milk evaluation?

a) Determining the presence of desirable characteristics
b) Determining one brand of milk from another
c) Determining if one sample differs from another
d) Determining the presence and magnitude of undesirable characteristics
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Brand differentiation is not one of the objectives of milk evaluations. Its objective
includes determining the presence of desirable characteristic etc.

7. Mastitis infecting microorganisms almost invariably gain entrance to the mammary gland via the
_____
a) Caudal base
b) Blind quarter
c) Streak canal
d) Feed
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Mastitis is a cow disease in a cow. It is due to microorganisms that enter mammary
gland via streak canal.

8. A _____ cup is a cup with fine wire mesh on top used to detect the presence of abnormal milk.
a) Striated
b) Mesh
c) Streak
d) Strip
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The strip cup is used to detect mastitis. Method involves squirting the first stream of
milk from each teat into strip cup then inspecting for flakes, lumps, and other signs of abnormal
milk.

9. A _____ needs to be applied to the teat end in order for a milking machine to remove milk.
a) Massaging action
b) Pulsation
c) Vacuum
d) Pressure
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A vacuum is applied to the teat end. This helps to remove milk from the milking
machine.

10. Which of the following four primary taste sensations is correctly matched with the causal agent?
a) Salty-sugar
b) Bitter-quinine
c) Sweet-lactic acid
d) Sour-table salt
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Quinine content gives the characteristic bitter flavor. More the quinine content more
the bitter flavor.

11. Some streptococci that produce lactic acid also produce certain aldehydes, which impart a _____
flavor.
a) Malty
b) Bitter
c) Salty
d) Metallic
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Certain aldehydes give malty flavor. They are produced by streptococci that produce
lactic acid.

12. By using a _____ with plastic beads of varying density, nonfat solids in milk can be rapidly
estimated.
a) Lactometer
b) Hydrometer
c) Humidoscope
d) Polyscope
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A hydrometer is an instrument that measures the specific gravity (relative density) of
liquids—the ratio of the density of the liquid to the density of water. a hydrometer with plastic
beads varying density would help in estimation of non fat solids.

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13. The two main proteins in milk are ____ and ____
a) Lactose, Lactalbumin
b) Casein, Lactalbumin
c) Ascorbic, Thiamin
d) Colgate, Casein
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Casein and lactalbumin are main protein present in milk. Milk is a good source of
protein.

14. Vitamin _____ was first discovered in milk fat and is important to eyesight.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin that is also a powerful antioxidant. Vitamin A plays a
critical role in maintaining healthy vision.

15. Milk contains all the known vitamins and is an especially good source of ___
a) Cyanocobalmin
b) Riboflavin
c) Ascorbic Acid
d) Thiamine
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Riboflavin, also known as vitamin B2, is a vitamin found in food and used as a dietary
supplement. Milk is also a good source of riboflavin.