MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION b.

Adenylate cyclase
c. Phospholipase C (PLC)
VETERINARY SCIENCE & d. Acrosin
ANIMAL HUSBANDRY 8. Which of the following is the smallest
NOTE:- Tick Mark the Most Appropriate compartment of the ruminant stomach?
a. Rumen
Answe from the following.
b. Reticulum
1. Punched ulcers in abomasums of cattle are
c. Omasum
characteristic of :
d. Abomasum
a. Theilaria annulata
9. Blood is added in blood medium agar at
b. Babesia bigemina
following concentration:
c. Haemonchus contortus
a) 5-10 %
d. Ostertagia ostertagi
b) 15 %
2. Typical sign of ripened abscess is
c) 20 %
a. Swelling
d) 2 %
b. Pain
10. The 5 carbon sugar compound present in
c. Fluctuation
DNA molecule is:
d. Pointing
a. Erythrose
3. Operation flood I was launched during
b. Deoxyribose
(a) 1960
c. Ribose
(b) 1970
d. Ribulose
(c) 1980
11. Study of birds which are not classed as
(b) 1982.
poultry is known as
4. When world environmental day
a. Poultry Science
celebrated…..
b. Ornithology
a) 15th June
c. Bird Science
b) 5th July
d. Poultry Production
c) 15th July
12. Inhibition of aggregation of platelets
d) 5th June
a) Aspirine
5. Right side displacement of abomasums is
b) Urokinase
usually caused after
c) Thromboxane A2
a) Immediately postpartum
d) Streptokinase
b) 2-4 weeks postpartum
13. Gajrai grass is the fodder grass belong to
c) During gestation
group
d) 9-12 months postpartum
a. Seasonal
6. The term that refers to the percentage of
b. Annual
packed erythrocytes per unit volume of
c. Perennial
blood is the:
d. None
a. Differential Count
14. Which of the following will be the number
b. Hemoglobin
of chromosomes in the sperm of a
c. Hematocrit
Sahiwal bull?
d. Hemopoiesis
a) 30
7. Which of the following enzymes are present in
b) 60
the acrosome of the bovine sperm?
c) 50
a. Trypsin
1
 d) 25 the oocyte to the ampular-isthmic junction
15. Skim milk powder is a byproduct of of the oviduct?
a. Fluid production by the isthmus
a) Industrial b. Cillilary beating in the ampulla
b) Grain c. Muscle contractions in the ampulla
c) Cereal d. The presence of cumulus cells
d) Roughage surrounding the oocyte at
16. East coast fever in cattle is caused by : ovulation.
(a) Theileria 23. Which is the hardest substance in the animal
(b) Trypanosoma body?
(c) Babesia a. Bone
(d) None b. Cartilage
17. Wound does not heal is known as c. Enamel
a. Maggot wound d. Dentine
b. Ulcer 24. Nucleic acid present in virus
c. Infected wound a) DNA
d. Contaminated wound b) RNA
18. 73rd amendment act 1992 was introduced to c) Either DNA or RNA
strengthen d) Both DNA and RNA
a Dairy development 25. The synthesis of new DNA strand on
b Community development template strand takes place in the direction
c Panchayat development of:
d Co-operative development a. 3‟-5‟
19. CFC‟s are responsible for depletion of….. b. 5‟-3‟
a) Ozone c. In both the directions
b) Oxygen d. In 3‟-5‟ on leading strand and in 5‟-3‟
c) Carbon direction on lagging strand
d) Nitrogen 26. Study of birds which are classed as poultry
20. Serum calcium and phosphorus is known as
concentration in nutritional dystrophies may a. Poultry Science
a) Increase above normal level b. Ornithology
b) decrease above normal level c. Bird Science
c) Decrease appreciably d. Poultry Production
d) remain with-in normal range 27. Verapamil blocks transport of
21. Which of the following is a circulating a) Sodium ion
blood cell that is capable of differentiating b) Chloride ion
into a plasma cell? c) Calcium ion
a. Neutrophil d) Potassium ion
b. Basophil 28. Subabul is the grass originated in the
c. B lymphocyte country
d. T lymphocyte a. Maxico
22. After ovulation, which of the following is b. U. S. A.
most important for the rapid movement of c. Brazil
d. India

2
29. Genotype of purebred Rose comb hen b. Albumin
should be c. Fibrinogen
a) RrPp d. Gamma globulin
b) RRPp 37. Following artificial insemination in the cow,
c) RRpp increased retrograde flow will occur if
d) rrpp semen is placed in which of the following
30. Example of protein is locations?
a. Cervix
a) Peptide b. Uterine body
b) Amine c. Uterine horn, at the greater curvature
c) Amino acid (half way up the uterine horn)
d) Glutamine d. At the distal tip of the uterine horn
31. Caecal coccidiosis in fowl is due to which of 38. Which is the largest foramen in the skull?
the following : a. Foramen magnum
(a) Eimeria precox b. Supraorbital foramen
(b) Eimeria mutis c. Infra orbital foramen
(c) Eimeria tenella d. Mantel foramen
(d) Eimeria brunetti 39. Short hair like projections for attachment
32. The main cause of death in case of burn and genetic transfer in bacteria are:
during latter stage is a) Flagella
a. Hypovolemia b) Fimbria
b. Blood loss c) Plasmid
c. Asphyxia d) All
d. Secondary infection 40. The autonomously replicating extra-
33. Ranching is common practice in chromosomal double stranded DNA molecule
(A) India present in bacteria is called:
(B) Australia a. Plasmid
(C) Japan b. Episome
(D) USA c. Phage
34. Humidity is measured by….. d. Transposon
a) Luxmeter 41. Modern chicken are descendents of the
b) Dry bulb thermometer which following wild species
c) Wet bulb thermometer a. Gallus soneratti
d) Chlorinometer b. Gallus lafeyetti
35. Increase survival rate of S. pullorum infected c. Gallus varius
chick embryo is achieved by drug d. Gallus gallus
a) Chloramphenicol 42. The most appropriate anticoagulant used for
b) Furazolidon collection of blood for blood glucose
c) Oxytetracycline estimation
d) Colistin a) Sodium EDTA
36. The component of plasma responsible for b) Sodium fluoride
maintaining the osmotic pressure of blood c) Heparin
is: d) Sodium oxalate
a. Plasmin 43. Swath curing is the method apply to

3
 a. Cutting the crop b) crown like projection
b. Hay making c) Oval shaped body
c. Silage making d) elliptical round body
d. Straw making 52. Plasma is:
44. The strength of selection is expressed as a. Blood that has no red blood cells
(a) Coefficient of selection b. The liquid portion of blood including the
(b) Response to selection clotting factors
(c) Selection differential c. The liquid portion of blood minus the
(d) None clotting factors
45. Inflammation of lymph node is called as- d. The proteins of blood
(A) Lymphangitis 53. The concentration of sperm in the ejaculate
(B) Lymphadenitis would be highest among which of the
(C) Typhilitis following farm animal species?
(D) Both (A) and (B). a. Bull
46. Example of NPN is b. Ram
a) Albumin c. Boar
b) Amino acid d Stallion
c) Prolamine 54. Which of the bone is the hardest bone in the
d) Lignin animal body?
47. Example of anaerobic protozoa is : a. Femur
(a) Leishmania b. Tibia
(b) Trichomonas c. Petrous temporal
(c) Trypanosoma d. Humerus
(d) None of the above 55. The term antibiotic was first used by:
48. Last stage of wound healing is a) Domagk
a. Wound contraction b) Fleming
b. Epithelization c) Waksman
c. Fibroplasia d) Robert Koch
d. Vasodilatation 56. The scientists associated with discovery of
49. The approach in which people have their say “restriction endonucleases”:
in programmed planning is a. Lederberg
(A) Democratic b. Kelly & Smith
(B) Authoritative c. Dulbecco
(C) Directive d. Korenberg
(D) Laissez-faire 57. National Institutes of Nutrition (NIN) to
50. The metal should not be used for storage of Government of India has recommended eggs
rain water is….. and poultry meat consumption per capita per
a) Iron annum are
b) Galvanized iron a. 18 eggs and 9 kg of poultry meat
c) Lead b. 180 eggs and 0.90 kg of poultry meat
d) Copper c. 180 eggs and 9.0 kg of poultry meat
51. Virion of avian infectious bronchitis has a d. 180 eggs and 11.0 kg of poultry meat
shape of 58. Receptors of CTZ stimulated by centrally
a) Globules with cilia acting emetics are

4
 a) α1 (C) 33
b) α2 (D) 50
c) 1 66. Among following is the safest source of
d) Dopamine drinking water…..
59. For ensiling the fodder crop should contain a) Shallow well
moisture percent b) Surface water
a. 40 to 50 c) River
b. 50 to 60 d) Deep well
c. 65 to 70 67. If vomition due to metabolic acidosis
d. 70 to 75 suggested fluid therapy is
60. What will be the phenotypic ratio in a) Ringers lactate
progenies from a cross between creeper and b) Normal saline
normal fowl c) Dextrose saline
a) 1:1 d) Dextrose saline 20%
b) 3:1 68. Excessive destruction of erythrocytes is
c) 9:7 characteristic of:
d) 2:1 a. Thalassemia
61. DCP content of Guinea grass b. Aplastic anemia
a) 50% c. Pernicious anemia
b) 5% d. Hemolytic anemia
c) 15% 69. Which of the following are examples of the
d) 1% maturation function in the epididymis?
62. Disease of poultry which is not caused by a. Removal of protoplasmic droplets
virus is- b. Concentration of sperm
(A) Chronic respiratory Disease c. Secretion of glycoproteins by principle
(B) Infectious Bronchitis cells
(C) Fowl Pox d. Contractions of smooth muscle
(D) Ranikhet Disease. 70. Which of the following is tendineous linear
63. Wild game is reservoir host for which sheet present at the abdominal floor?
parasite : a. Linea alba
(a) Trypanosoma evansi b. Rectus abdominis
(b) Taenia c. Fascia
(c) Entamoeba histolytica d. Tendoachillis
(d) Coccidia 71. Agar is a source of carbohydrate to:
64. The best treatment of fistula is a) Most of the bacteria
a. Antibiotics b) Only a few bacteria
b. Antibiotics and corticosteroids c) None of the bacteria
c. Surgical removal d) All the bacteria
d. Counter irritants 72. The acquisition of DNA molecule by
65. In IRDP, SC/ST and physical handicapped bacterial cells from environment is called:
beneficiaries are provided subsidy @ a. Transformation
Percent b. Transduction
(A) 10 c. Conjugation
(B) 25 d. None

5
 80. Typical sign of moist gangrene of tail is
73. First poultry show was held at Boston in the a. Erected hairs
year b. Immobility of tail
a. 1838 c. Swelling
b. 1870 d. Cold to touch
c. 1861 81. In First five year plan -------------
d. 1849 programmed was started for development of
74. Agar acts as a animal Husbandry common alone
a) Cathartics (A) Operation flood I
b) Emollient purgative (B) Key village scheme
c) Bulk purgative (C) ICDP
d) Osmotic purgative (D) Gosadan
75. Mango seed kernel is the byproduct of 82. Causative agent of undulant fever is…..
industry a) Br. abortus
a. Canning industry b) Br. melitensis
b. Oil industry c) Br. suis
c. Gluten industry d) Br. Equi
d. None 83. Coughing up of blood is termed as
76. Proportion of Roan polled progenies from a a) Haematemesis
cross between Red polled (Pp) and white b) Epistaxsis
polled (Pp) cow will be c) Metrorrhagia
a) 0.25 d) Haemoptysis
b) 0.50 84. A hematocrit of 80 would be considered:
c) 0.75 a. Polycythemia
d) 0.60 b. Anemia
77. Bronze discolouration of Liver in poultry is c. Thrombocytopenia
caused by- d. Leukemia
(A) Pasteurellosis 85. The ATP produced by sperm goes towards
(B) IBD Virus which of the following?
(C) Leptospirosis a. Motility
(D) Salmonellosis b. Maturation of sperm
78. Rich source of carbohydrates c. Lysis of corona radiate
d. Transcription and translation
a) Barley 86. Which of the following is the longest
b) Bone meal ligament in the animal body?
c) Cotton seed a. Broad ligament
d) Dub grass b. Umbilical ligament
79. Tape worm increases in which of the c. Supraspinatous ligament
following : d. Caudate ligament
(a) Liver 87. Bacteria that grow at 50-550 C are known as:
(b) Caecum a) Psychrophiles
(c) Small intestine b) Mesophiles
(d) None c) Thermophiles

6
 d) Halophiles (c) Dipylidium sp
88. The ability of the cell to acquire DNA from (d) Taenia sp.
environment is called: 96. Common site of occurrence of haematoma
a. Competence in dog is
b. Compatibility a. Ear
c. Interference b. Eyelid
d. None of the above c. Tail tip
89. Per capita availability of poultry eggs and d. Digit
meat are respectively
a. 44 nos. and 17.6 kg.
b. 176 nos. and 44 kg. 97. Prime goal of state department of animal
c. 44 nos. and 1.76 kg. husbandry and dairying is to provide --------
d. 176 nos. and 4.4 kg To the farmers
90. Acid rebound effect is observed with (A) Subsidy
a) Sodium bicarbonate (B) Input
b) Sodium citrate (C) Service
c) Sodium chloride (D) Semen
d) Potassium iodide 98. The causative agent of hydatidious is…..
91. Rotational stocking is the method of a) Echinococcus granulosa
a. Storage of feed b) Diphylobothrium spp.
b. Feeding of animal c) Taenia solium
c. Grazing of animal d) Taenia saginata
d. Management of pasture 99. Ptyakusn is
92. The cross over percentage ranges between a) Excessive secretion from brunners gland
a) 80 -100 % b) Excessive salivation
b) 50 -100 % c) Decrease secretion from salivary gland
c) 0- 50 % d) Decrease secretion of succus entericus
d) 50 – 80 % 100. During hemoglobin recycling in the spleen,
93. Fragmentation of nucleus in a cell is termed heme is initially converted into:
as- a. Bilirubin
(A) Pyknosis b. Stercobilin
(B) Karyorrhexis c. Urobilin
(C) Karyolysis d. Urobilinogen
(D) Chromatolysis 101. Failure of the blood testis barrier would
94. Concentrate is a feed containing more than directly prevent
% TDN a. Stem cell renewal.
a) 20 b. Spermatocytogenesis.
b) 10 c. Meiosis.
c) 60 d. Spermiogenesis.
d) 30 102. Which of the following is unpaired skeletal
95. Triangular and pyriform apparatus like muscle present in the animal body?
cooked rice grain present in egg of : a. Diaphragm
(a) Moniezia sp. b. Bicepbrachii
(b) Hymenolepsis nana c. Popliteus

7
 d. Quadriceps femoris c) 20 to 25%
103. Nucleic acid not found in plasmids is: d) 15 to 20%
a) DNA 111. All domestic animal is definitive host for
b) RNA which of the following :
c) either DNA or RNA (a) Moniezia sp. .
d) Both DNA and RNA (b) Hymenolepsis nana
(c) Dipylidium sp
104. First Genome sequenced was of (d) Taenia sp.
a. Bacteriophage λ 112. The best suture material for peritoneum in
b. Bacteriophage φ X 174 dog is
c. Haemophilus influenza a. Catgut # 1
d. Homo sapiens b. Catgut # 1/0
105. Total contribution of poultry production to c. Catgut # 2
the National GDP of India is nearly d. Catgut # 3
a. 1.0 % 113. Programmed is the statement of situation ----
b. 0.1 % - problem and solution
c. 10 % (A) Physical resources
d. 8 % (B) Objectives
106. Which one of the following is a rate limiting (C) Planning
step in adrenaline synthesis? (D) Goal
a) Tyrosine to DOPA 114. Sellar‟s staining technique is used for
b) DOPA to Dopamine diagnosis of…..
c) Dopamine to Nor-adrenaline a) Rabies
d) None of the above b) Brucellosis
107. The synonym of Anjan grass is c) Listeriosis
a. Dhaman d) Tuberculosis
b. Shevari 115. Tympany of diaphragmatic hernia is
c. Ghamar a) Recurrent
d. Jinjavo b) Persistent
108. Slow and fast feathering trait in poultry is c) Both 1and 2
a) Sex linked d) None of the above
b) sex limited trait 116. All of the following conditions impair
c) sex influenced coagulation except:
d) autosomal a. Vascular spasm
109. Infectious Necrotic Hepatitis in sheep is b. Vitamin K deficiency
caused by- c. Severe hypocalcaemia
(A) Leptospira sp. d. Liver disease
(B) Fasciola hepatica 117. Spherical bodies, weighing 0.45 – 0.9 kg,
(C) Clostridium sp. attached to the placenta of a normal calf
(D) Heterakis gallinarum comprising of an outer skin enclosing a
110. Green fodder to be ensiled should have DM mass of adipose connective tissue is known
between as
a) 50 to 60% a) Perosomus elumbis
b) 30 to 35% b) Amorphus globosus

8
 c) Otter calf (C) Rabbit
d) Schistosomus reflexus (D) Poultry.
118. Which one of the following is the longest 126. Lucerne hay contains % TDN
nerve in the animal body? a) 10
a. Vagus b) 30
b. Sciatic c) 20
c. Femoral d) 50
d. Median 127. In which tape worm, uterus is long
119. Disposable articles are best sterilized by: transverse and dumble shape :
a) Hot air oven (a) Stilesia hepatica
b) Autoclave (b) Thysanosoma actinoides
c) Gamma radiation (c) Thysaneizia giardia
d) Alcohol (d) Anaplocephala magna
120. First bacterial genome sequenced was of 128. Which of the following is unpaired skeletal
a. Salmonella typimurium muscle present in the animal body?
b. Bacillus anthracis a. Diaphragm
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Bicepbrachii
e. Haemophilus influenza c. Popliteus
121. Female Hen has a following set of d. Quadriceps femoris
chromosomes 129. Which one of the following is the longest
a. Xx nerve in the animal body?
b. Xw a. Vagus
c. Zz b. Sciatic
d. Zy c. Femoral
122. Which of the following drugs is used in d. Median
treating digitalis arrhythmia? 130. Which of the following is the largest nerve
a) Lignocaine in the animal body?
b) Quinidine a. Radial
c) Procainamide b. Sciatic
d) None of the above c. Femoral
123. Medicago sativa is the botanical name of d. Median
a. Alfalfa 131 Which one of the following nerve supplying
b. Berseem to blood vessel?
c. Guar a. Vasomotar
d. Cowpea b. Sensory
124. Stage of cell division in which chiasmata c. Mixed
formation takes place is d. Motar
a) Metaphase I 132. Which of the following is a spindle shaped
b) Pachytene glandular stomach of the bird?
c) Diakinesis a. proventriculus
d) Anaphase b. fundic part
125. The animal resistant to Atherosclerosis is- c. Gizzard
(A) Cattle d. pyloric part
(B) Swine

9
133. In modern smoke house, we can control (b) Johannsen
(c) Mendel
a) Temperature (d) Weisman
140. Spherical bodies, weighing 0.45 – 0.9 kg,
b) Moisture
attached to the placenta of a normal calf
c) Flavour comprising of an outer skin enclosing a
mass of adipose connective tissue is known
d) None of the above as
a) Perosomus elumbis
134. Which of the following is a opening of b) Amorphus globosus
abomasum into the duodenum? c) Otter calf
a. Pylorus d) Schistosomus reflexus
b. cardia 141. Obturator paralysis is more common in
c. rima oris a) Mare
d. Isthmus faucium b) Cow
135. Stage of cell division in which chiasmata c) Bitch
formation takes place is d) ewe
a) Metaphase I 142. Early insemination during estrous leads to
b) Pachytene fertilization failure due to
c) Diakinesis a) Ageing of sperms
d) Anaphase b) Ageing of zygote
136. The Frequency for any class that is obtained c) Ageing of ovum
by dividing the frequency for d) none of above
that class by the total number of
observations is known as 143. The relations of the dorsum of the fetus to
(a) Class frequency the quandrants of the maternal pelvis is
(b) Relative frequency a) Presentation
(c) Cumulative frequency b) Position
(d) Grouped frequency c) Posture
137. The dose of a drug that kills 50 % of the d) None of the above
population is known as
(a) ED50 144. Sterno abdominal presentation is a
(b) LD50 a) Posterior longitudinal presentation
(c) KD50 b) Transverse ventral presentation
(d) Half life dose c) Anterior longitudinal presentation
138. Exchange of non homologous chromosome d) Transverse dorsal presentation
material is known as 145. Balwant Ray Mehta committee was
a) Translocation appointed by
b) Crossingover (A) Govt. of India
c) Duplication (B) planning commission
d) Synapsis (C) State govt.
139. The terms gene and genotype were coined (D) NGO
by 146. Post is example of --------aid.
(a) Wilson (A) Visual

10
 (B) Audio b. White
(C) A.V. c. Brown and white
(D) Projected d. All of above
147. Who is the architect of Indian modern dairy 155. American chicken breeds skin colour is
industry? a. Brown
(A) Dr. V.Kurian b. Yellow
(B) Dr. Amrita Patel c. White
(C) Shree Parthi Bhatol d. Black
(D) MansiBhai 156. Medusa head colonies are characteristic
148. Operation Flood III Was Launched during feature of…..
(A) 1986 a) Rickettsia spp.
(B) 1990 b) Bacillus anthracis
(C) 1992 c) Clostridium botulinm
(D) 1998 d) Listeria spp.
149. The synonym of Anjan grass is 157. Ring worm infection is caused by…..
a. Dhaman a) Nocardia spp.
b. Shevari b) Trichophyton spp.
c. Ghamar c) Candida spp.
d. Jinjavo d) Dermatophillus spp.
150. Medicago sativa is the botanical name of 158. Curdling without pronounced acid
a. Alfalfa production associated with milk and milk
b. Berseem products…..
c. Guar a) Sweet curdling
d. Cowpea b) Acid curdling
151. The nitrogen content (%) of urea fertilizer is c) Curdling
a. 38 d) Alkaline curdling
b. 42 159. Type of microbial association in which in
c. 46 which food chain i.e. the metabolic products
d. 50 of one are utilized by the other…..
152. Licking of wall is the vices observed in a) Metabolism
animal due to b) Symbiosis
a. Mineral deficiencies c) Fermentation
b. Internal parasites Which of the following breeds of class is
160.
c. Depraved appetite known for egg production
d. All of the above a. American breed
153. Wind sucking is the vice observed in the b. Asiatic breeds
species c. English breeds
a. Pig d. Mediterranean breeds
b. Cattle Which of the following breeds of class has
161
c. Horse feathered shank
d. None of above a. American breed
Mediterranean chicken breeds egg shell b. Asiatic breeds
154.
colour is c. English breeds
a. Brown d. Mediterranean breeds
11
162. Which of the following is smallest tape b. Boric acid
worm of poultry : c. Tr. iodine
(a) Ralleitina tetragona d. Zinc oxide
(b) Ralleitina echinobothridia 171. More than two fracture fragments with
(c) Davainea proglotina interconnecting fracture line in complete
(d) Hymenolepis nana fracture is known as
163. Indian liver fluke is which of the following : a. Multiple fracture
(a) Prosthogonimum sp. b. Comminuted fracture
(b) Paramphistomes sp. c. Depressed fracture
(c) Fasciola hepatica d. Fissure fracture
(d) Fasciola gigantica 172. Pathognomic signs of fracture is
164. Ovary much lobulated in which of the a. Crepitation
following : b. Pain
(a) Prosthogonimus sp. c. Swelling
(b) Paramphistomes sp. d. Loss of function
(c) Fasciola hepatica 173. Which of the following is a unicellular gland
(d) Fasciola gigantica that is typically found in mucosal
165. Haemoglobinuria is seen in- epithelium?
(A) Theileriosis a. Neuroepithelial cell
(B) Leptospirosis b. Myoepithelial cell
(C) Salmonellosis c. Goblet cell
(D) Pasturellosis. d. Friar cell
166. Who is the father of Cellular Pathology? 174. Which of the following cells is primarily
(A) John Hunter responsible for the production of collagen
(B) Robert Koch and the amorphous ground substance in
(C) Rudolph Virchow loose connective tissue?
(D) K.Cohnhiem. a. Adipocyte
167. Pseudo Rabies is caused by- b. Fibroblast
(A) Lyssa virus c. Mast cell
(B) Picorna virus d. Plasma cell
(C) Paramyxo virus 175. Which of the following describes a secretory
(D) Herpes virus. process in which no cell membrane
168. Pulpy Kidney Disease is caused by- components or cytosolic contents are lost?
(A) Clostridium perfringens a. Merocrine
(B) Clostridium septicum b. Apocrine
(C) Clostridium novyi c. Holocrine
(D) Clostridium tetani d. Endocrine
169. Turkey Egg Kidney is seen in- 176. The matrix of connective tissue is composed
(A) Swine Pox of:
(B) Swine Influenza a. Cells, fibers, and ground substance
(C) Swine Fever b. Cells and fibers
(D) Swine Erysipelas. c. Fibers and ground substance
170. Antiseptics used for cleaning of eye is d. Cells and ground substance
a. Dettol

12
177. Following is not an effect of the Ganglionic a. Bacteriophage λ
blockade b. Bacteriophage φ X 174
a) Dry mouth c. Haemophilus influenza
b) Anhydrosis d. Homo sapiens
c) Tachycardia 185. First bacterial genome sequenced was of
d) Vasoconstriction a. Salmonella typimurium
178. Magnesium sulphate has following effects b. Bacillus anthracis
except c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a) CNS depressant e. Haemophilus influenza
b) Purgative 186. First human protein produced in micro-
c) Muscle relaxant organism was:
d) Diuretic a. Somatostatin
179. Which one of the following is an osmotic b. Insulin
diuretic? c. Protopin
a) Magnesium sulphate d. None of the above
b) Ethacrynic acid 187. The intercalating dye used to visualize
c) Spironolactone double stranded DNA is
d) None of the above a. Ethidium bromide
180. What is the site of action of carbonic b. Methylene blue
anhydrase inhibitors? c. Carbol fuchsin
a) Throughout the length of the tubule d. None of the above
b) Loop of Henle 189. The concentration of double stranded DNA
c) PCT molecule which gives absorbance value of
d) DCT 1.0 at 260 nm is:
181. Viruses having Reverse transcriptase a. 33 µg/ ml
enzyme: b. 40 µg/ ml
a) Retro virus c. 50 µg/ ml
b) Reo virus d. Cannot be determined on the basis of
c) Rabies virus absorbance value
d) Rota virus 190. The concentration of single stranded DNA
182. Holoenzyme is a combination of: molecule which gives absorbance value of
a) enzyme and substrate 1.0 at 260 nm is:
b) Apoenzyme and substrate a. 33 µg/ ml
c) Apoenzyme and coenzyme b. 40 µg/ ml
d) None of the above c. 50 µg/ ml
183. Following statements are correct except. d. Cannot be determined on the basis of
a. Viruses multiply only in living cells. absorbance value
b. Viral nucleic acid directs cell metabolism 191. Which of the following cells lines the
to synthesize viral components ventricle of the brain?
c. Viruses are not able to perform their own a. Ependymal cell
metabolic activities. b. Simple squamous cell
d. Viral genetic information resides only in c.simple cuboidal cell
DNA not in RNA d. Simple columner cell
184. First Genome sequenced was of

13
 (b) Sex influenced
192. The bony demarcation between abdominal (c) Sex limited
and pelvic cavities is: (d) None
a. Pelvic outlet 200. The method of sex determination in birds is
b. Pelvic diaphragm (a) XO
c. Plevic brim (b) XY
d. Pelvic symphysis (c) ZW
193 In which part of the cloaca in birds, bursa of (d) XA
fabricus opens? 201. Linkage between either dominant or
a. Urodeum recessive alleles is called
b. Proctodeum (a) Coupling linkage
c. Coprodeum (b) Repulsion linkage
d. Vent (c) Complete linkage
194 Which is the space between right and left (d) Incomplete linkage
pleural sac in thoracic cavity? 202. The diploid chromosome number in chicken
a. Omentum is
b. Mediastinum (a) 38
c. Serous sac (b) 74
d. pleural sac (c) 78
195 Which of the following is the largest vein in (d) 60
the animal body? 203. Wry neck is mostly seen in
a. Saphenous vein a) Bovine
b. Posterior venacava b) Caprine
c. Anterior venacava c) Equine
d. Mammary vein d) Canine
196 Which of the following is the longest bone 204. Recommended fetotomy procedure in
in birds? perosomus elumbis is
a. Femur a) Amputation of fetal limbs
b. Humerus b) Bisection of pelvis
c. Tarsometatarsus c) Transverse division of fetal trunk
d. Tibiotarsus d) Amputation of head and neck
197. Mendel‟s work was rediscovered in the year 205. Generally stallion attains the puberty at the age
(a) 1895 of
b) 1900 a) 4 to 7 months
(c) 1905 b) 9 to 12 months
(d) 1913 c) 12 to 24 months
198. Holandric inheritance is characterized by d) 36 to 42 months
(a) Color blindness 206. Sertoli cell tumor of the testes in dog secretes
(b) Muscular atrophy a) Testosterone
(c) Hair in ear pinna b) Estrogen
(d) Baldness c) Androgen
199. Hemophilia is a condition which is inherited d) Prolactin
as 207. Dystrophia adiposogenitalis is observed in the
(a) Sex linked a) Dog

14
 b) Stallion b. Computer
c) Boar c. Radium number
d) Ram d. Electronic chip
208. Large number of primary sperm abnormalities 216.This measurement of body has close relation
are indicative of with body weight in animal
a) Ectopic testes a. Body length
b) Testicular degeneration b. Paunch girth
c) Testicular neoplasm c. Height at wither
d) Testicular fibrosis d. Heart girth
209. When arable farming is mixed with livestock 217.Blanketing is the practice utilize for
raising it is known as a. Brighter look to body coat
(A) Mixed farming b. To keep hide in good condition
(B) Sole farming c. Refard hair growth
(C) Co-operative farming d. All of above
(D) Slate farming 218.Wedge shaped body denotes
210. Villagesurpanch is elected through a. Beef character
(A) Secret ballot paper b. Draught character
(B) Member c. Dairy character
(C) Co-operative d. None of above
(D) Nominated 219.Colostrum feeding in the calf should be done at
211. AMUL system of milk marketing follows the a. Within two hours after calving
principle of b. Within three days of calving
(A) Co-operative c. Within twelve hours after calving
(B) Mutual work d. None of above
(C) Subsidy purpose 220.Age at first kidding in mehsani goat breed is
(D) Service a. 18 to 24 months
212. GCMMF has made turnover of Rs. b. 24 to 30 months
(A) 5500 crore c. 12 to 18 months
(B) 6700 crore d. 30 to 36 months
(C) 5000 crore 221. Which state rank first in duck population
(D) 8000 crore a. West Bangal
213. Who is the chairman of GCMMF? b. Assam
(A) Amrita patel c. Orissa
(B) Vipul chaudhary d. Karala
(C) Parthi Bhatol
(D) Dr. Kurian 222. Project Directorate on Poultry (PDP) is located
214. Rural dairy extension programmed was the at
part and parcel of a. Izzatnagar
(A) ICDP b. Banglore
(B) DPAP c. Hyderabad
(C) IRDP d. Anand
(D) JRY
215. Electronic identity is made in animal by 223. Central Avian Research Institute (CARI) is
a. Electron microscope located at

15
 a. Izzatnagar d) Activated chlorinate
b. Banglore 230. The following acid producing bacteria convert
c. Hyderabad lactose into lactic acid in milk…..
d. Anand a) Streptococcus cremoris
224. Normally which ovary & oviduct is functional b) Staphylococcus aureus
in chicken c) Bacillus cereus
a. Right ovary and Right oviduct d) Clostridium botulinm
b. Left ovary and Left oviduct
c. Right ovary and Left oviduct 231. The most common bacterium causing joint
d. Left ovary and right oviduct pain…..
a) Brucella
225. Complete Parts of Oviduct in chronological b) Shigella
order are c) Salmonella
a. Infundibulum-Isthumus-Magnum-Uterus- d) Clostridia
Vagina
b. Infundibulum-Magnum-Isthumus-Uterus- 232. Galacto toxins in milk are produced by…..
Vagina a) Streptococci spp.
c. Infundibulum-Magnum-Isthumus-Uterus b) Contact of milk with steel vessels
d. Infundibulum-Magnum-Isthumus-Vagina- c) Contact of milk with copper vessel
Uterus d) Serratia spp.
226. Fertilization is take place in which part of 233. . Praziquental and tartar emetic is drug of
reproductive tract choice for :
a. Ovary (a) Schistosoma sp.
b. Isthumus (b) Eurytrema sp.
c. Infundibulum (c) Notocotylus sp.
d. Uterus (d) All of the above
227. . Chloramphenicol residues and milk products 234. In schistosoma which of the following
causes in consumers….. statement is true :
a) Arthritis (a) Male is longer than female
b) Aplastic anemia (b) Female is longer than male
c) Blindness (c) Female & Male are of same size
d) Anorexia (d) None of the above
228. Well established protozoan disease transmitted 235. Flame cell is excretory system of which of the
through milk….. following :
a) Cysticercosis (a) Trematodes
b) Toxoplasmosis (b) Cestodes
c) Giardiasis (c) Nematodes
d) Salmonellosis (d) Acanthocephala
229. Insecticides of group that constitute the 236. Normally eggs are operculated in which of the
principal health hazard to consumers of milk and following :
milk products….. (a) Round worm
a) Organic sulphates (b) Trematode
b) Organic phosphates (c) Both of the above
c) Chlorinated hydrocarbons (d) None of the above

16
237. Out of which of the following are unsegmented 245. The water used for moistening of POP cast
: should range between
(a)Round worm a. 30-35 C
(b) Trematode b.10-20 C
(c) Both of the above c. 20-25 C
(d) None of the above d. 40-45 C
238. 'Gape worm' of poultry is : 246. The best procedure for complete diaphyseal
(a) Ascaridia galli fracture of tibia in bullock is
(b) Heterakis gallinarum a. POP
(c) Syngamus trachea b. Hanging pin cast
(d) Subulura brumpti c. Walking cast
239. Poll evil in Horse is caused by- d. Thomas splint
(A) Clostridium tetani 247. If fracture is stabilized with rigid fixation
(B) Actinomyces bovis the clinical union occur at
(C) Brucella abortus a. 15-20 days
(D) Both (B) and (C). b.20-30 days
240. Nutritional roup in Poultry is caused due to c.40-50 days
deficiency of- d.80-100 days
(A) Vitamin B 248. Typical radiographic sign of osteo-arthritis
(B) Vitamin C is
(C) Vitamin E a. Increased joint space
(D) Vitamin A. b. Decreased joint space
241. Epithelial Pearls are seen in- c. Irregular joint space
(A) Sebaceous cell Adenoma d. Irregular joint space with new bony
(B) Squamous cell carcinoma growth
(C) Melanoma 249. The radiographic signs of non union is
(D) Venereal granuloma. a. Radiolucency between fragments
242. Blue Tongue in sheep is caused by- b. Increased radio density of either
(A) Herpes virus fragments
(B) Birna virus c. Placement of fragments side by side
(C) Picorna virus d. Rounding of both fragments
(D) Orbi virus. 250. The radiographic diagnosis of intestinal
243. Most common Serotype of FMD virus in India obstruction is done by using
is- a. Barium sulphate
(A) A b. Conray -420
(B) C c. Urographin
(C) Asia-1 d. Ipamidol
(D) O. 251. . Holocrine secretion:
244. In which disease post mortem of carcass is a. Occurs in sebaceous glands
prohibited? b. Occurs in endocrine glands
(A) Haemorragic septicemia c. Involves little or no loss of cytoplasm
(B) Rinder pest d. All of the above
(C) Anthrax 252. The site of production of cholecystokinin and
(D) Brucellosis. secretin is the:

17
 a. Stomach 259. In which of the following animals emetics
b. Pancreas are not used?
c. Small Intestine a) Rats
d. Large Intestine b) Cattle
253. Alkaline mucous glands are found in the c) Horse
submucosa of the: d) All of the above
a. Ileum 260. Which of the following drugs produces only
b. Jejunum laxative effect even with increase in dose?
c. Duodenum a) Magnesium sulphate
d. Cardiac region of the stomach b) Anthraquinone
254. The gallbladder: c) Castor oil
a. Produces bile d) Liquid paraffin
b. Is attached to the pancreas 261. One of the following is not a salt of
c. Stores and concentrates bile bunamidine used against cestodial infestation in
d. Produces cholecystokinin animals.
255. Which of the following sphincters is under a) Bunamidine P-toluene sulphonate
voluntary control? b) Bunamidine hydrochloride
a. Pyloric c) Bunamide sodium
b. Hepatopancreatic d) Bunamidine hydroxynaphthoate
c. Internal anal 262. Source of bacitracin is
d. External anal a) Streptomycin rimosus
256. At the junction between the esophagus and the b) Bacillus subtilis
stomach, the epithelial lining changes abruptly from c) Streptomyces aureqfaciens
__________________ to _________________. d) Bacillus polymyxa
a. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous; simple 263. The most effective chemical disinfectant to
columnar kill FMD virus is:
b. Simple columnar; nonkeratinized stratified a. 2 % formalin
squamous b. 70 % alcohol
c. Nonkeratinized simple squamous; stratified c. 2 % Sodium hydroxide
columnar d. 0.5 % phenol
d. Stratified columnar; nonkeratinized simple 264. Hendra and Nipah viruses belong to the
squamous family:
257. Which one of the following has maximum a. Paramyxoviridae
natriuretic effect? b. Orthromyxoviridae
a) Spironolactone c. Picornaviridae
b) Frusemide d. Parvoviridae
c) Mannitol 265. Clinical manifestation of canine parvovirus
d) Acetazolamide infection is/are:
258. The following is not an indication of PGF2 alpha a. Mycocarditis in pups
a) Synchronization of oestrus b. Haemorrhagic diarrhea
b) Cystic ovaries c. Leukopenia
c) Persistent corpus luteum d. All of above
d) Induction of abortion 266. Bluetongue virus has:
a. 20 serotypes

18
 b. 24 serotypes
c. 7 serotypes 273. Oligo dT attached to resin is used for the
d. 9 serotypes column based isolation of
267. Find the wrong match: a. Prokaryotic DNA
a. Borrel bodies- Fowl pox b. Eukaryotic DNA
b. Guarneri bodies- small pox c. Prokaryotic m-RNA
c. Negribodies- Rabies d. Eukaryotic m-RNA
d. All are correct 274. The chemical that can be used for precipitation
268. Bovine diarrhea virus belongs to the family of DNA is:
a. Flaviviridae a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Reoviridae b. Isoamyl alcohol
c.Togaviridae c. Phenol
d.Rhabdoviridae d. None
269. Viral triad include 275. The chemical method of DNA sequencing is:
a. Rinder pest virus, Measles virus a. Maxam Gilbert method
and Canine distemper virus b. Sanger method
b. Rinder pest virus, Mumps virus, c. Both
Measles virus d. None
c. Measles, mumps and Rubella 276. Which of the following is a oval articular
viruses projection?
d. Rinder pest virus, Reo virus and a. Condyle
Rhabdo virus b. Trochlea
270. The concentration of single stranded RNA c. Head
molecule which gives absorbance value d. Facet
of 1.0 at 260 nm is: 277. Which of the following is a ventricle of hind
a. 33 µg/ ml brain?
b. 40 µg/ ml a. Third ventricle
c. 50 µg/ ml b. Fourth ventricle
d. Cannot be determined on the basis of c. Lateral ventricle
absorbance value d. None of above
271. The 260/280 nm ratio of pure DNA sample 278. Which of the following is a spherical
should be: shallow articular depression?
a. Less than 1.8 a. Glenoid cavity
b. 1.8 b. Cotyloid cavity
c. More than 1.8 c. Articular groove
d. 3.0 d. Semilunar notch
272. The 260/280 nm ratio less than 1.8 for a DNA 279. The cell membranes is mainly composed of
sample reflects: a. a single layer of protein molecules
a. Protein contamination b. a protein bilayer
b. RNA contamination c. a phospholipids bilayer
c. Both d. a polysaccharide bilayer
d. None
280. Which organelles is the site for ATP
production?

19
 a. nucleoli (a) High heritability
b. mitochondria (b) Low heritability
c. gogli complex (c) Medium heritability
d. ribosomes (d) Both b) and c)
281. During which stage mitosis do the
chromosomes line up in the middle of cell 288 „Operation Flood‟ scheme was operated by
a. prophase (a) NDDB, Anand
b. anaphase (b) NDRI, Karnal
c. metaphase (c) IVRI, Izatnagar
d. telophase (d) NDRI, Bangalore
282. Which of the following is not a connective 289. Inbreeding would more severely affect
tissue? (a) Pre weaning gain in sheep
a. bone (b) Litter size in pig
b. cartilage (c) Fat % in cow
c. muscle (d) Mature body weight in doe
d. blood
283. The point of crossover is known as 290. Smooth muscle around spermatic cord to help
(a) Tetrad in thermoregulation of testes is
(b) Chiasma a) Tunica dartos
(c) Synapsis b) Cremester muscle
(d) Recombination c) Pampiniform plexus
284. The The maximum probability of making d) Gubernaculum
Type-I error is known as 291. Mitochondria concentrates close to the
(a) Confidence interval axoneme and forms the
a) End piece of the tail
(b) Test of significance b) Neck of the sperm
(c) Level of significance c) Mid piece of the tail
d) Annulus
(d) Rejection region 292. Unnatural tactile stimulation and ejaculation is
285. Which of the following traits will show known as
higher rate of genetic improvement under a) Onanism
mass selection programme b) Coolidge effect
a) Service period in cattle c) Pederasty
b) Body weight at 8 week in d) Balling up
poultry 293. A complete series of cellular associations
c) Litter size in pig along a seminiferous tubule
d) Twinning rate in goat a) Spermatogenic wave
286. Diallele crossing is usually practiced in b) Spermiostasis
(a) Cattle c) Spermiogenesis
(b) Sheep d) Cycle of seminiferous epithelium
(c) Race horse 294. Terminology used for the high per cent of
(d) Poultry abnormal sperms
287. Marker assisted selection is more effective a) Teratozoospermia
for traits of b) Aspermia

20
 c) Asthenozoospermia (B) 50%
d) Necrozoospermia (C) 60%
295. Inability to withdraw the penis back in to the (D) 70%
prepuce 302. NDDB was established in the year
a) Paraphimosis (A) 1965
b) Posthitis (B) 1955
c) Phimosis (C) 1975
d) Preputial prolapse (D) 1985
296. Effect of novelty of stimulus females reduces 303. Crone is the synonym of the
refractory period in males is known as a. Young sow
a) Balling up effect b. Broken mouth sow
b) Coolidge effect c. Old aged ewe
c) Bruce effect d. Ewe with loss of teat
d) Pederasty 304.The average life span of horse is ( Years )
297. Sabarmati Ashram gosala founded in a. 2.5 to 18 Years
(A) 1815 b. 3 to 16 Years
(B) 1925 c. 3 to 15 Years
(C) 1915 d. 3 to 12 Years
(D) 1945 305.Sunandini is the cross bred developed from
a. Local cattle Kerala
297. Central council of Gosamverdhan was started b. Local cattle Karnataka
(A) 1952 c. Sahiwal
(B) 1955 d. Tharparkar
(C) 1958 306.Simmental is the breed of cow belong to breed
(D) 1960 a. Exotic dairy cow
298. State farming is managed by b. Exotic beef cow
(A) NGO c. Indigenous dairy cow
(B) Govt. d. Indigenous beef cow
(C) People 307.This breed not belong to mysore type cattle
(D) Middlemen group
a. Burgur
299. NDRI is located at b. Alambadi
(A) Jaipur c. Khillari
(B) Kernel d. Nimari
(C) Jabalpur 308.Buffalo in philipines is known as
(D) Cochin a. Kerban
300. CSWRI is located at b. Shin nive
(A) Avikanagar c. Arana
(B) Izzatnagar d. Carabao
(C) Modinagar 309. This buffalo breed is come under endangered
(D) Mathura categories
301. In mixed farming income from main enterprise a. Bhadawari
is b. Jafarabadi
(A) 49% c. Banni

21
 d. Jerangi c. Five
310. The inner surface of which section of oviduct d. Two
is lined with goblet cell that secrete albumen 317. Immediate test to judge the quality of
a. Isthumus milk…..
b. Magnum a) Electro impedance method
c. Uterus b) Alcohol test
d. Infundibulum c) Organoleptic tests
311. Doubled yolked egg is more common in d) Sediment test
a. Older birds 318. Psychrophils of significance in milk
b. Pullet hygiene is/are…..
c. Both a and b a) Pseudomonas
d. None of above b) Listeria monocytogenes
Hens usually moult in the which following c) Both a and b
312
order d) None of the above
a. Head-Neck-Body-Wing-Tail 319. Cold sterilization means…..
b. Head- Neck-Wing-Body-Tail a) Sterilization at low temperature
c. Tail-Wing-Neck-Head-Body b) Sterilization by radiations
d. Tail-Wing-Body-Neck-Head c) Flash pasteurization
The order of disappearance of pigment d) None of the above
313
(bleaching) from body in 320. Anthrax is also called as…..
a. Vent-Eye ring-Ear lobes-Beak- a) Splenic fever
Shanks b) Desert fever
b. Vent- Beak- Eye ring-Ear lobes- c) Undulant fever
Shanks d) All of the above
c. Shanks-Beak-Ear lobes-Eye ring- 321. Trichinella cyst can be destroyed by…..
Vent a) Salting
d. Vent-Shanks-Beak-Ear lobes-Eye b) Smoking
ring c) Both of the above
The pigment fist leaves those structures d) None of the above
314
having 322. Scrapie is a…..
a. Poor blood circulation a) Progressive fatal disease of CNS
b. Best blood circulation b) Disease of young animals
c. No correlation with blood circulation c) The causal agent is antigenic
d. Both a and b d) All of the above
The urophygial gland is located on dorsal 323. Knott‟s technique is a concentration method
315
area of for detection of following parasite in
a. Tail blood
b. Back (a) Trichomonas spp.
c. Head (b) Trypanosoma evansi
d. Neck (c) Microfilariae
Most chicken breeds have how many number (d) All above
316
of toes on each foot 324. Which parasite cause destruction of host
a. Four tissue by breakage of lymph vessels :
b. Three (a) Chiggers

22
 (b) Filarids 332. Wooden Tongue in cattle is seen in-
(c) Strongylus (A) Actinomycosis
(d) Ascarids (B) Botriomycosis
325. Oxyuris equi in horse found in which of the (C) Haemorrhagic Septicemia
following : (D) Actinobacillosis.
(a) Small intestine 333. Mode of transmission of IBR virus is-
(b) Caecum, colon (A) Venereal
(c) Oesphagus (B) Inhalation
(d) Caecum, colon, rectum (C) Both
326. Presence of eggs of the Oxyuris equi can be (D) None of the above.
diagnosed by which of the following : 334. Maedi is primarily a disease of-
(a) Faeces (A) Sheep affecting respiratory system
(b) Perianal swab (B) Cattle affecting reproductive system
(c) Both of the above (C) Sheep affecting nervous system
(d) None of the above (D) Cattle affecting nervous system.
327. Alimentary canal present in which of the 335. Equine Plague is also called as-
following : (A) Equine viral arteritis
(a) Trematodes (B) Glanders
(b) Cestodes (C) Strangles
(c) Nematodes (D) African Horse sickness.
(d) Acanthocephala 336. Sore mouth in cattle is seen in-
328. Which of the following is the kidney worm (A) Blue tongue
of dog : (B) Bovine malignant catarrh
(a) Trichuris sp. (C) Rinder pest
(b) Capillaria sp. (D) Vesicular Stomatitis
(c) Seteria digitata 337. Protective wears for radiography are made
(d) Dioctophyma renale up of
329. In which egg are lemon shaped and with a. Lead
plug on both side of egg : b. Iron
(a) Trichuris sp. c. Zinc
(b) Capillaria sp. d. Tungste
(c) Seteria digitata 338. The best treatment of long bone fracture is
(d) Dioctophyma renale a. POP bandages
330. Mad itch is mostly a disease of- b. Intramadulary pinning
(A) Caprine c. Intramadulary nailing
(B) Bovine d. Bone plating
(C) Swine 339. Suturing of lacerated nostril is performed
(D) Ovine under nerve block
331. Tigroid Heart is seen in cattle affected with- a. Infra-orbital
(A) Bovine malignant catarrhal b. Retro bulbar
(B) Botulism c. Mandibular
(C) Bovine viral diarrhea d. Supra-orbital
(D) Foot and mouth disease. 340. Extirpation of incisor tooth in cattle is
performed under nerve block

23
 a. Infra-orbital c. Pharynx
b. Mandibular d. Esophagus
c. Retro bulbar 348. The entry of bile into the duodenum is
d. Cornual controlled by the:
341. The best anaesthetic technique for a. Liver sinusoids
laparotomy in cattle is b. Common pancreatic duct
a. Local infiltration c. Pyloric sphincter
b. Paravertebral d. None of the above
c. Field block 349. A major function of the large intestine is to:
d. Anterior caudal epidural a. Secrete digestive enzymes
342. Docking in adult dog is performed under b. Remove waste materials
a. Epidural c. Regulate the release of bile
b. Local infiltration d. Secrete water in order to regulate blood
c. Ring block volume
d. General anaesthesia 350. Which of the following is not produced by
343. General anesthesia of equine is performed an enteroendocrine cell?
now a days by using a. Pepsin
a. Chloral hydrate b. Cholecystokinin
b. Xylazine c. Gastrin
c. Xylazine + Ketamine d. Secretin
d. Chlormag 351. An anti-estrogen used in advanced breast
344. Histologically, the stomach wall is unique cancer is
because it contains: a) Tamoxifen
a. No lamina propria b) Precarbazine
b. 1 extra layer in its muscularis mucosae c) Mitotane
c. 1 extra layer in its muscularis externa d) Cisplatin
d. An adventitia in addition to a double- 352. A semi synthetic derivative of diterpene is
membraned serosa a) Clindamycin
345. The gastric gland cell whose absence could b) Ticarbiciliin
lead to pernicious anemia is the: c) Tiamulin
a. Chief cell d) Lincomycin
b. Goblet cell 353. Drug used as anthelmentic by producing
c. Mucous neck cell its effect by GABA mediated hyper polarization is
d. Parietal cell a) Albendazole
346. The layer of the digestive tube wall which b) Mebendazole
contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodules, and a c) Fenbendazole
rich supply of elastic fibers is the: d) Ivermectin
a. Mucosa 354. Kanamycin derivate is
b. Submucosa a) Amikacin
c. Muscularis Externa b) Spectinomycin
d. Serosa c) Atramycin
347. Mechanical digestion occurs in the: d) Spiramycin
a. Stomach 355. Polymixin E is also called as
b. Cecum a) Novobiocin

24
 b) Bacitracin c. M.tuberculosis
c) Colistin d. M.phlei
d) Kanamycin. 364. Satellite growth on blood agar plate in
356. An agent used against anaerobic bacteria as well presence of Staph. aureus is
as protozoa is characteristic of
a) Mebendazole a. Pasteurella
b) Metronidazole b. Haemophillus
c) Methicillin c. Actinobacillus
d) Marbofloxacin d. Mycoplasma
357. Neomycin B is also called as 365. The di-deoxy chain termination method of
a) Kanamycin DNA sequencing is:
b) Amikacin a. Maxam gilbert method
c) Tobramycin b. Sanger‟s method
d) Gentamicin c. Pyrosequencing method
358. Flaviviridae is d. Nanopore sequencing method
a. dsDNA 366. The pH of Tris saturated phenol used for the
b.ds RNA purpose of DNA isolation should
c.ss DNA be:
d. ssRNA a. 5.0
359. Following are the morbilli viruses except b. 6.0
a. Mumps virus c. 7.0
b. Measles virus d. 8.0
c.PPRV 367. DNA molecule as big as 10 MB can be
d.Rinderpest virus separated by:
360. Following is/are the character(s ) of a. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
Streptococcus b. Agrose gel electrophoresis
a. Gram positive cocci c. Pulse Field electrophoresis
b. Catalase –Ve d. None
c. Arranged in chain 368. The blotting technique used for the detection
d. All of these of DNA molecule is called:
361. Cold enrichment is required for the isolation a. Southern blot
of b. Northern blot
a. Listeria monocytogenes c. Western blot
b. Erysipelothrix d. Eastern blot
c. Staph.aureus 369. The blotting technique used for the detection
d. Clostridium tetani of RNA molecule is called:
362. Bacteria responsible for food poisoning a. Southern blot
a. Staph.aureus b. Northern blot
b. Clostridium botulinum c. Western blot
c. Bacillus cereus d. Eastern blot
d. All of these 370. The blotting technique used for the detection
363. Dysgonic species of Mycobacterium is of protein is called:
a. M.bovis a. Southern blot
b. M.avium b. Northern blot

25
 c. Western blot d. superficial digital flexor
d. Eastern blot 378. Which of the following structures is not part
371. In southern blot, the labeled nucleic acid of the peripheral nervous system?
used to detect complementary sequence is a. cranial nerve V
called: b. spinal nerves supplying the intercostal
a. Template muscles c.
b. Primer hypothalamus
c. Probe d. a neuromuscular junction
d. None of the above 379. The pons, medulla and cerebellum together
372. Which type of tissue covers the external and form the
internal surfaces of the body? a. forebrain
a. connective b. midbrain
b. skin c. hindbrain
c. areolar d. cerebral hemispheres
d. epithelial 380. Testosterone is secreted by which cell?
373. What is found within the peritoneal cavity? a. islets cells
a. pleural fluid b. sertoli cells
b. the pericardium c. Brunner‟s glands
c. peritoneal fluid d. cells of Leydig
d. liquor pericardi 381. In the foetal circulation, the shunt that
374. Which of the following is a splanchnic connects the pulmonary artery and aorta is
bone? called as
a. sternum a. ductus venosus
b. patella b. foremen ovale
c. os cardis c. ductus arteriosus
d. calcaneus d. falciform ligament
382. Genetic drift in small population is an
375. Which of the following joints is an example example of
of an amphiarthrosis? (a) Systematic process
a. the temporomandibular joint (b) Dispersive process
b. Sutures of the skull (c) Both
c. between the bodies of the vertebrae (d) None
d. ischiopubic symphysis 383. The maximum frequency of recombinant
376. What is the unit of contraction in a muscle? progeny is
a. motor unit (a) 50 %
b. sarcomere (b) 25 %
c. origin (c) 42 %
d. insertion (d) 63 %
377. Which of the following muscle is not a 384. The diploid number of chromosomes are
component of the Achilles tendon? equal in
a. semimembranosus (a) Sheep and goat
b. biceps femoris (b) Cattle and goat
(c) Buffalo and sheep
c. semiitendinosus (d) Man and rhesus monkey

26
385. A negative correlation coefficient between b) Cap phase
the two variables X and Y indicates that c) Acrosomal phase
(a) Large values of X are associated with d) Maturation phase
small values of Y 392. Infertility in a bull due to Inability to
(b) Large values of X are associated with fertilize
large values of Y a) Penile deviation
(c) Small values of X are associated with b) Penile franulum
small values of Y c) Testicular Hypoplasia
(d) None of the above answers are correct d) Penile Neoplasm
386. Which of the following chemical is used as a 393. The penile protrusion is followed by
mutagen? a) Erection
(a) Mustard gas b) Mounting
(b) Colchisine c) Intromission
(c) FCS d) Pelvic thrust
(d) All of these 394. The required number of progressive motile
387. Which of the following is sex linked trait in sperms at A.I. in cattle is
poultry? a) 50 millions
(a) Colour pattern of plumage b) 30 millions
(b) Brring pattern of plumage c) 10 millions
(c) Comb pattern d) 3 millions
(d) Abumin height 395. Presence of musculo membranous
388. The difference between mean phenotypic attachment on ventral aspect of glans penis
values of the progeny of to the preputial mucosa
selected parents and whole of the population a) Balanoposthitis
before selection is known as b) corkscrew penis
(a) Intensity of selection c) Penile tumor
(b) Standardized selection d) Penile frenulum
(c) Selection differential 396. Accentrically placed thickening of the
(d) None of the above acrosome is known as
389. Scent glands, source of pheromones located a) Diadem defect
dorsally and medially at the horns of b) Acrosomal cap
a) Ram c) Sterilizing tail stump
b) Buck d) Knobbed spermatozoa
c) Bull 397. Flehman‟s reaction is not observed in
d) Stallion a) Bull
390. Sertoli cell produces the protein hormone b) Boar
which suppresses the production of FSH c) Stallion
a) Androgen binding protein d) Ram
b) Inhibin 398. Bicornual transverse presentation is more
c) Luteinizing hormone common in
d) Estrogen a) Cows
391. Spreading of adherent acrosomal granule b) Buffalo
over the surface of spermatid nucleus c) Mare
a) Golgi phase d) Ewes

27
 408..Extreme elevation of leucocyte in peripheral
399. The first veterinary college was started in blood is known as
the year 1886 at (A).Shift to left
(B). Leukamoid reaction
(A) Kolkata
(C). Right shift
(B) Mumbai (D). Both (A) & (C)
(C) Madras 409.Blood in vomitus
(D) Ludhiyana (A). Haematamiasis
400. The first dairy co-operative was started in (B). Haemoptysis
the year 1913 at (C).Epistaxis
(A) Anand (D).Melena
410. Bleeding from the oviduct is designated as:
(B) Allahabad
a) Epitaxis
(C) Jaipur
(D) Pune b) Hemosalpinx
401. Toxic jaundis is also known as c) Hematocele
(A).Post haepatic jaundis
d) Hematemasis
(B).Haepatic jaundis
(C).Pre haepatjc jaundis 411. Condition which is hereditary and sex linked in
(D). Obstructive jaundis
which clotting is delayed:
402. Siderosis means
(A).Deposition of calcium in lung a) Apoplexy
(B). Deposition of iron in lung
b) Hemophilia
(C). Deposition of silicon in lung
(D). Deposition of silver particle in lung c) Brown induration
403. Van den Bergh test for obstructive jaundis
d) Epistaxis
(A). Direct
(B).Indirect 412. On the basis of rainfall, temperature, and
(C).Biphasic soil the country can be divided into ---
(D). Both (B) & (C) Animal husbandry region
404. In abscess which type of necrosis is seen?
(A) 5
(A). Coagulative necrosis
(B).Liquifective necrosis (B) 6
(C).Caseative necrosis (C) 7
(D).Fat necrosis (D) 8
405..First change after death is 413. Small scale farming also known as
(A). Alger mortis (A) Faimly farming
(B).Rigor mortis (B) Sole farming
(C).Formation of bloat
(C) Individual farming
(D).Both (B) & (C)
406. Inflammation of crop (D) Co-operative farming
(A). Blephritis 414. Secretary of Panchayat samity
(B).Ingluvitis (A) DDO
(C). Typhlitis (B) TDO
(D). Gonitis (C) Collector
407.Cart wheel appearance of nuclease found in
(D) Mamlatdar
(A).Plasma cell
(B). Basophils 415. National Institute of Rural Development is
(C). Eosinophils located at
(D). Monocyte (A) Hyderabad
(B) Chennai
28
 (C) Bangalore c. Pregnanacy
(D) Jaipur d. Parity of animal
416. Specialized farm income from main 424. Maize fodder (green) is comes under the
enterprise is grade in quality
(A) <50% a. Excellent
(B) >50% b. Good
(C) 50% c. Medium
(D) 60% d. Poor
417. The first Veterinary University was 425. This practice is not comes under milking
established in the year 1986 at method
(A) Hyderabad a. Intermittent milking
(B) Trichur b. Knuckling
(C) Bangalore c. Full hand
(D) Chennai d. Stripping
418. Contribution of sight in learning is
(A) 80% 426. This practice does not required for sexual
(B) 87% stimulation in bull
(C) 90% a. False mount
(D) 95% b. Changing teaser
419. Two forms of social stratification c. Changing semen collector
(A) Cast class d. Restraining mount
(B) Color race 427. The score points for cow graded “very
(C) Custom value good” are
(D) Norm belief a. 80 to 85
420. Tegur in Karnataka is the breeding farm for b. 85 to 90
a. Gir c. 90 to 95
b. Tharparkar d. 70 to 80
c. Khillar 428. The key village scheme was launched in
d. None of these India during the year
421. Malas are the professional breeder for a. First five year plan
a. Sahiwal b. Second five year plan
b. Red sindhi c. Fifth five year plan
c. Rathi d. Sixth five year plan
d. Ongole 429. Operation flood project received donation of
422. This breed produce the “Primium market butter oil and scheme milk from
milk” due to yellow color of milk a. European union
a. Jersey b. U. S. A.
b. Brown swiss c. European dairies
c. Guernsey d. European economic community
d. Ayreshire
423. Ration calculation for individual animal 430 In poultry true stomach is
does not require this thing a. Gizzard
a. Weight of animal b. Proventriculus
b. Lactation yield c. Crop

29
 d. Abomasums b. 65 ºF
c. 85 ºF
The end product of protein metabolism in d. 95 ºF
431
poultry is mainly 439 Position of hatching egg in setter is
a. Urea a. Narrow end up
b. Uric acid b. Broad end up
c. Ammonia c. Horizontal
d. Urates d. Vertical
Which type of egg producer molt late in the 440. Ematiation in meat is caused by…..
432
season and rapidly a) Inadequate intake of nutrients
a. Good egg producer b) Pathological conditions
b. Poor egg producer c) Advanced age of animal
c. Average egg producer d) Over eating
d. None of above 441. Clostridium botulinum secretes toxin
Which type of egg producer molt early in the under…..
433
season and slowly a) Aseptic condition
a. Good egg producer b) Aerobic condition
b. Poor egg producer c) Anaerobic condition
c. Average egg producer d) Aerobic as well as anaerobic condition
d. None of above 442. In sheep the normal arterial blood pressure
434 Forced molting is done by is…..
a. Withdrawal of Feed and Water a) 100-110 mm of mercury
b. Withdrawal of Light b) 120-145 mm of mercury
c. Increase level of dietary Zinc c) 146-165 mm of mercury
d. All of above d) 166-175 mm of mercury
Cold room temperature for hatching egg 443. Unconventional meat…..
435
storage is a) Beef
a. 48-52 ºF b) Mutton
b. 58-62 ºF c) Crocodile meat
c. 68-72 ºF 444. Booling test on meat detect…..
d. 78-82 ºF a) PH
436 Setter temperature for hatching egg is b) Colour
a. 92.5-93 ºF c) Odour
b. 99.5-100 ºF 445. Electrical stunning is widely used in…..
c. 102.5-103 ºF a) Cattle and poultry
d. 97.5-98 ºF b) Pigs and poultry
437 Hatcher temperature for hatching egg is c) Buffaloes and poultry
a. 94-95 ºF 446. Study of organism in relation to their
b. 99-100 ºF environment is Known as…
c. 98-99 ºF a)Ecology
d. 96-97 ºF b)Ecosystem
Physiological zero (0) temperature bellow c)Epornitic
438
which embryo growth is arrested in eggs d)Oncology
a. 75 ºF

30
447. Which disease is Ectoparasitic zoonosis 455. Which of the following is a non granular
a) Scabies WBC?
b) Taeniasis
a. Lymphocytes
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of above b. Neutrophil
448. How to control reservoir of infection c. Basophil
a) Treatment
d. Eosinophil
b) Health education
c) Both a) & b) 456. In Classification of helminthes the higher
d) None of above taxa platyhelminthes containing
449. Rabies also knokwn as…. helminthes of veterinary importance are :
a)Lyssa (a) Flat worm
b)Rage (b) Round worm
c)Tallwut (c) Thornyheaded worms
d)All of above (d) None
450. Spinose ear tick mainly pathogenic in which 457. In Filarial nematode, the life cycle is……
of the following stage : (a) Direct
(a) Larval stage (b) Direct and Indirect
(b) Nymphal stage (c) Indirect
(c) Adult stage (d) None
(d) All of the above 458. Morocco leather condition is caused by :
451. The chief cause of 'strike in the sheep' is (a) Hemonchus contortus
which of the following : (b) Ostertagia ostertagia
(a) Larvae of Musca sp. (c) Cooperia curtesi
(b) Larvae of Sarcopaga sp. (d) None
(c) Larvae of Lucilia sp. 459. Strongylus vulgaris is responsible for :
(d) All the above (a) Colic in ruminants
452. Second intermediate host of oviduct fluke (b) Paralysis in horse
are : (c) Colic in horse
(a) Dragon flies (d) None
(b) Water snail 460 Bunostomum trigonocephalum is hook
(c) Grasshopper worms of :
(d) None (a) Sheep and Goat
453. Insects which possess sponging mouth parts (b) Cattle
and do not bite are : (c) Dog
(a) Fleas (d) None
(b) House flies 461. Disease caused by Clostridium septicum is-
(c) Mosquitoes (A) Black Quarter
(d) Deer flies (B) Enterotoxaemia
454. Scientific name of horse fly is …… (C) Braxy
(a) Tabanus equinum (D) Tetanus
(b) Oestrus ovis 462. Sulphur granules in yellowish pus is seen
(c) Simulium sp in-
(d) None of the above (A) Glanders

31
 (B) Strangles 470. Brooder‟s pneumonia in poultry is caused
(C) Staphylococcosis by-
(D) Actinomycosis (A) Candida albicans
463. Toxins of organism causes peripheral nerve (B) Aspergillus fumigatus
paralysis in cattle- (C) Haemophilus paragallinarum
(A) Botulism (D) Pasturella multocida
(B) Tetanus 471. The best general anesthetic for canine is
(C) Both a. Xylazine
(D) None of the above b. Thiopental
464. Diamond skin disease is primarily a disease c. Acepromazine
of- d. Ketamine
(A) Horse 472. To deliver live pups, cesarean section is
(B) Lion performed under
(C) Sow a. Thiopentone
(D) Turkey b. Pentobarbitone
465. In Johne‟s disease, corrugation is not the c. Acepromazine
feature in- d. Diazepam + Local anesthesia
(A) Cattle 473. To capture wild elephant the anesthetic used
(B) Sheep is
(C) Horse a. Xylazine
(D) Both (B) and (C) b. Etorphine
466. Most susceptible species for Haemorrhagic c. Medazolam
septicemia- d. Morphin
(A) Sheep 474. The sedation in camel is performed by using
(B) Buffalo xylazine intravenously
(C) Cattle a. 2-3 ml
(D) Pig b. 8-10 ml
467. Erythritol sugar plays important role in c. 25 -30 ml.
pathogenesis of- d. 30-40 ml
(A) Clostridium spp. 475. The best inhalation anesthetic for closed
(B) Brucella spp. circuit is
(C) Bacillus spp. a. Cyclopropane
(D) Corynebacterium spp. b. Ether
468. Substance responsible for increase
penetration of Lyssa virus- c. Nitrous oxide
(A) Hyaluronidase d. Chloroform
(B) Erythriol 476. Deep chested dog is prone to following
(C) Protagen surgical condition
(D) Amylase a. Intestinal obstruction
469. Crop mycosis in poultry is caused by- b. Diaphragmatic hernia
(A) Bacteria c. Gastric dilatation and torsion
(B) Mycoplasma d. Gastric ulcer
(C) Fungi 477. Pathognomic sign of sharp molar is
(D) Virus a. Quidding

32
 b. Halitosis b. Thyroxine
c. Salivation c. hGH
d. All of above d. PTH
478. The development of pouch in lower neck 485. What hormone increases intestinal calcium
just after feeding in case of buffalo is absorption?
noticed in a. Calcitriol
a. Pyloric stenosis b. Calcitonin
b. Oesophageal ulcer c. Parathormone
c. Choke d. Pancreatic polypeptide
d. Oesophageal diverticulum 486. The ______ cells of the pancreas secrete
479. Continuous lacrimation in canine is insulin.
characteristic sign of a. Chief
a. Obstruction of lacrimal duct b. Principal
b. Entropion c. Alpha
c. Conjunctivitis d. Beta
d. Ectropion 487. Oxytocin is secreted by the:
480. Myringotomy in canine is performed for the a. Adenohypophysis
correction of b. Neurohypophysis
a. Otitis interna c. Zona glomerulosa
b. Otitis media d. Pars intermedia
c. Otitis externa 488. Hyposecretion of cortisol can cause:
d. Othaematoma a. Cretinism
481. Each of the following is an amino acid b. Diabetes mellitus
derivative EXCEPT: c. Diabetes insipidus
a. Epinephrine d. Addison's disease
b. Melatonin 489. The space in the middle of the thoracic
c. Thyroxine cavity where the heart resides is the:
d. TSH a. Pericardial cavity
482. Which of the following hormones does not b. Pericardium
act via a second messenger system? c. Pleural Cavity
a. Glucagon d. Mediastinum
b. Epinephrine 490. The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is
c. GH located in the:
d. Testosterone a. Right atrium
483. What hypophyseal structure receives signals b. Left atrium
from the hypothalamus via the hypophyseal c. Interventricular septum
portal system? d. Interatrial septum
a. Follicular medulla 491. In body netobimin is
b. Adenohypophysis converted into
c. Neurohypophysis a) Albendazole
d. Pars intermedia b) Mebendazole
484. Low blood glucose typically results in the c) Fenbendazole
secretion of all of the following EXCEPT: d) Lobendazole
a. Glucagon 492. Which one of the followings not an anaesthetic?

33
 a) Phencyclidine c) Thiopentone administered typically shows
b) Xylazine barbiturate apnoea.
c ) Ketamine d) Thiopentone is yellowish powder used as a
d) Cyclopropane sodium salt.
493. Diazepam does not possess the following 500. Which one of the following is an example of
action physical antagonism?
a) Sedative a) Administration of activated charcoal in
b) Anticonvulsant poisoning
c) Analgesic b) Relief of acidity using
d) Anxiolytic antacids
494. The full life of drug is usually approximately c) Administration of Atropine
a) Twice its half-life in organophosphate poisoning
b) Ten times its half- life d) None of the above
c) Five times its half- life 501. The body region of the sheep in which best
d) None of the above quality wool is found
495. The following is not a phenothiazine a. Breech
b. Shoulder
derivative
c. Head
a) Triflupromazine d. Tail
b) Chlorpromazine 502. A growing female sheep between sixth month
c) Promazine to maturity.
d) Reserpine a. Doeling
496. Xylazine does not have the following effect b. Wedder
a) Analgesic c. Hogget
d. Lamb
b) Muscle relaxant
503. Native place of sannem is
c) Sedative a. England
d) Antipyretic b. Switzerland
497. Which one of the following has high water to lipid c. U. S. A.
partition coefficient? d. China
a) Chlorpromazine 504. Major breeding season of Indian sheep is
b) Ether a. June to august
b. December to January
c) Halothane c. March to april
d) None of the above d. Year round
498. With which of the following anaesthetic 505. The term used for meat of rabbit is
is eructation reflex not affected. a. Mutton
a) Ketamine b. Pork
b) Xylazine c. Chevon
d. Venison
c) Phenobarbitone
506. Location of rabbit breeding farm in Gujarat
d) Equithesin a. Bhuj
499. Which of the following statements is false? b. Ankleshwar
a) Thiopentone is ultra short acting c. Morbid
barbiturate d. Mandvi
b) Thiopentone is administered by 507. India has total number of sheep breed
intramuscular route a. 40
b. 15
c. 20
34
 d. 28 d. Castaneda stain
516. Tuberculin test is based on
508. Gurej sheep breed found in a. Delayed hypersensitivity
a. J&K
b. Arthus reaction
b. Himachal Pradesh
c. Hariyana c. Anaphylactic reaction
d. Punjab d. All of above
509. Spiti is the horse breed found at
a. J & K 517. Calf hood vaccination is advisable for
b. Himachal Pradesh a. Brucellosis
c. Hariyana b. Salmonellosis
d. Punjab
c. Pasteurellosis
510. The disease found in sheep
during monsoon d. Neonatal calf diarrhoea
a. Foot rot 518. The germ tube production is characteristic of
b. F. M. D. a. Candida albicans
c. Enterotoxaemia b. Corynebacterium pyogenes
d. Rinderpest c. Cryptococcus neoformans
511. Bacteria which require living medium for d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
their growth is 519. Experimentally Mycobacterium leprae can
a. Mycoplasma and Leptospira be cultivated on
b. Chlamydia and Rickettsia a. Bacterial media with mycobactin.
c. Rickettsia and Mycoplasma b. Cell culture system.
d. None of these c. Nine banded armadillo
512. Pallisade arrangement is characteristic of d. None of the above
a. Corynebacterium 520. Viruses that exist in cells and cause
b. E.coli recurrent disease are considered
c. Campylobacter a. Oncogenic
d. Listeria b. Cytopathic
513. Mycoplasma organisms are pleomorphic in c. Latent
nature due to d. Resistant
a. Absence of cell wall 521. For transformation reactions competent E.
coli cells can be prepared by treating log phase
b. Absence of rigid cell wall E. coli cells with:
c. Small in size a. Calcium Chloride
d. Species specific in nature b. Magnesium Chloride
514. Periodic opthalmia in horses is a sequel of c. EDTA
a. Glanders d. None of the above
b. Mycoplasmosis 522. A DNA molecule from external source can
c. Equine leptospirosis be inserted into the host cells by following
d. Babesiosis methods:
515. Chlamydia can be stained with following a. Heat shock treatment
stains except: b. Electroporation
a. Gram‟s stain c. Lipofection
b. Macchiavello stain d. All of the above
c. Gimenez stain

35
523. In a PCR reaction two short oligonucleotide c. Random hexamers
used which flank the DNA sequence to be d. All of the above
amplified is called: 530. Isoschizomers are Restriction enzymes
a. Primer which:
b. Probe a. Recognize and cut the same sequence
c. Template b. Recognize the same sequence but cut
d. None of the above site vary
524. The source of Taq polymerase used in the c. Both
PCR reaction is: d. None
a. E. coli 531. What is the name of the main lymphatic duct
b. Thermus aquaticus that arises in the abdomen?
c. Both a. tracheal duct
d. None b. cisterna chyli
525. The source of “Reverse transcriptase” c. right lymphatic duct
enzyme used for c-DNA synthesis is: d. cisterna magna
a. Moloney murine leukemia virus (MuLV) 532. Which part of the respiratory system is also
b. Avian myeloblastosis virus (AMV) responsible for the production of sound?
c. Both a. hyoid apparatus
d. None b. eustachian tube
526. Quantitative studies using PCR technique c. pharynx
can be done with: d. larynx
a. RT-PCR 533. Which muscle is responsible for increasing
b. Real Time PCR the volume of the thoracic cavity during
c. Micro array inspiration?
d. None of the above a. diaphragm
527. Most type II restriction endonucleases b. hypxial
recognize and cleave DNA within particular c. external oblique
sequence of 4-8 nucleotides which have two d. epaxial
fold rotational symmetry. Such sequences are 534. The basin shaped structure in the center of
called: the kidney is called
a. Palindromes a. cortex
b. Short tandem repeats b. hilus
c. Both c. pelvis
d. None d. medulla
528. For restriction analysis of DNA molecule, 535. In which layer of the skin are the sensory
the type of “restriction endonucleases” used are: nerve endings found?
a. Type I RE a. hypodermis
b. Type II RE b. epidermis
c. Type III RE c. dermis
d. None d. subcutis
529. c-DNA can be synthesized on a RNA 536. Which is the most developed special sense
template using following primers: in the birds?
a. Sequence specific primers a. sight
b. Oligo dT b. touch

36
 c. smell a. Mesometrium
d. taste b. Mesosalphinx
537. The space between the incisors and the c. Mesoovarium
cheek teeth of rabbits and rodents is known d. Broad ligament
as the 545. Which of the following plays a part in
a. diastema thermoregulation?
b. philtrum a. Hair
c. dewlap b. Claws
d. acromion c. Sebaceous gland
538. Visceral skeleton present in camel d. Meibomian gland
a. Os penis 546. Which of the following is used for
b. Os phrenic predicting future performance of individuals
c. Os cardis (a) Heritability
d. Os rostrum (b) Repeatability
(c) Genetic correlation
539. Which is the type of placenta present in (d) None of the above
bitch? 547. The response to selection increases when
a. Zonary (a) Proportion of individuals selected
b. Diffuse decreases
c. Discoidal (b) Proportion of individuals selected
d. Cotyledonary increases
540. Total number of incissor teeth in ox (c) Heritability of the trait is low
a. Six (d) None of the above
b. Four 548. The heritability of a character in narrow
c. Eight sense will be more when it is
d. Ten controlled by
541. Outer covering of the nerve is (a) Genes with non-additive effects
a. Endoneurium (b) Genes with additive effects
b. Perineurim (c) Both (a) and (c)
c. Epineurium (d) None of the above
d. Epitendineum 549. The genotypic value of quantitative traits is
542. Which one of the following is a (a) Sum total of effects
exoskeleton? (b) sum total of gene effects
a. Hoof (c) Sum total of additive effects
b. Metacarpus (d) None of the above
c. Sternum 550. The specific combining ability of a line is
d. Ulna due to gene effects
543. Which one of the gland is a apocrine gland? (a) Epitasis
a. Mammary gland (b) Dominance
b. Testes (c) Over-dominance
c. Parotid salivary gland (d) All of above
d. Pancreas 551. The dry period in buffaloes can be reduced
544. Part of the peritoneum that covers the by
fallopian tube with abdominal cavity: (a) Individual selection

37
 (b) Better management
(c) Family selection
(d) Progeny testing
552. The change in the fat % when selection is
made for higher milk
is due to
(a) Natural selection
(b) (b) Direct selection
(c) Indirect selection
(d) None of these
553. The estimate of heritability of egg yield
cannot be obtained by
(a) Paternal half-sib correlation
(b) Regression of daughter on dam
(c) Regression of daughter on sire
(d) Maternal half-sib correlation
554. The precision of heritability estimate is
known by its
(a) Standard error
(b) Magnitude
(c) Method of estimation
(d) Deviation from
555. For selection of individuals for traits
measured after life, we will prefer
(a) Indirect selection
(b) Family selection
(c) Pedigree selection
(d) Any of these
556. The regression of offspring on mid parent
provides the estimate of
(a) ½ h2
(b) ¼ h2
(c) h2
(d)  h
557. The accuracy of estimating breeding value
of a sire increased by
(a) Decreasing the number of
sires under test
(b) Decreasing the number of
progeny of sire
(c) Increasing the number of
progeny of sire
(d) None of the above
558. The Osborne index for cockerel selection is
based on information from
(a) Individual performance and dam
and sire families.
yield (b) Dam and sire families
(c) Progeny and pedigree
(d) Individual performance and
pedigree
559. The generation interval can be reduced by
using
(a) Genetic markers
(b) Progeny information
(c) Life time information
(d) Multi-trait selection
560. Diploid number of chromosomes in sheep is
(a) 60
(b) 54
(c) 38
(d) 64
561. Both hind limbs retained in the uterus
beneath the body of the posteriorly
presented fetus
a) Dog sitting posture
b) Breech presentation
c) Poll presentation
d) Wry neck
562. Acute angulation of the vertebral column of
the fetus causing dorsal approximation of its
head and tail is a
a) Perosomus elumbis
b) Amorphus globosus
c) Otter calf
d) Schistosomus reflexus
563. The release of which hormone is associated
with the Fergusion‟s reflex .
a) Estroegn
b) Oxytocin
c) Progesterone
d) Relaxin
564. Penile Transmissible Neoplasia is observed
in the
a) Ram
b) Stallion
c) Dog
38
 d) Bull 572. In the mare, transition from the non-
565. Androgen Binding protein is secreted by breeding to the breeding season is caused by
a) Ley dig cells a. A decrease in melatonin.
b) Sertoli cells b. A decrease in the day length.
c) Spermatogonia c. A switch from positive to negative
d) Efferent ducts feedback by estradiol.
566. Eversion of galeacapitis and crater shaped d. The presence of progesterone
depressions in the nucleus coming from the corpus luteum.
a) Dag defect 573. Granulosa cells are similar to Sertoli Cells in
b) Diadem defect that both
c) Corck screw defect a. Have FSH receptors.
d) Abaxial defect b. Have LH receptors.
567. Effecting a change in the presentation is c. Produce testosterone.
known as d. Have very low levels of cAMP.
a) Rotation 574. The blood testis barrier is due to
b) Version a. The inhibition to growth of blood
c) Extension vessels in the seminiferous tubules.
d) Flexion b. The presence of gap junctions
568. Non dilation of cervix causing dystocia in between Sertoli cells.
ewes is known as c. The presence of tight junctions
a) Vertex between Sertoli cells.
b) Foot nape d. The basement membrane between
c) Ring womb the Sertoli cells and the interstitial space
d) wry neck where the Leydig cells are located.
569. Pattern assumed by the semen upon drying 575. It has been demonstrated that dogs can be
on a glass slide trained to detect estrus in cattle. Which of the
a) Fern pattern following senses is being used by the dog to
b) Crenellation pattern accomplish this task?
c) Cork screw pattern a. Smell
d) Zig Zag pattern b. Sight
570. Test used to know the functional integrity of c. Touch
sperm membrane d. Hearing
a) Sperm mucus penetration test 576. Intense educational activity for motivation
b) Hypo osmotic swelling test and mobilization of community to action Is
c) Hamster egg penetration test known as
d) High temperature viability test (A) Awareness
571. The end of the diestrus period is due to (B) Campaign
a. Recruitment of the ovulatory (C) Demonstration
follicular wave. (D) G.D.
b. A decrease in estradiol negative 577. Diagram presentation of facts or ideas is
feedback. known as
c. Regression of the corpus luteum. (A) Chart
d. An increase in estradiol levels (B) Poster
coming from the preovulatory follicle. (C) Diagram

39
 (D) Book 585. Combination of seeing, hearing, and doing
578. A statement of policy to guide decision and may help to retain----------in teaching
action in a consistent manner is Learning
(A) Principle (A) 50%
(B) Law (B) 60%
(C) Philosophy (C) 70%
(D) Hypothesis (D) 80%
579. Call mode by farmers at the veterinary 586. AMUL was established in
hospital for getting information is called (A) 1846
(A) Office call (B) 1848
(B) Personal call (C) 1850
(C) Community call (D) 1950
(D) Tall call 587. Air and water are nature of goods
580. A visual display which is never used alone (A) Material
for teaching programmed is (B) Nominated
(A) Chart (C) Free
(B) Flipchart (D) Consumable
(C) Poster 588. The demand is salt is
(D) Banner (A) Inelastic
(B) Elastic
581. Chepest, Oldest & most effective aids of (C) Prefect elastic
teaching is (D) Non elastic
(A) Black Board 589. AGMARK indicates
(B) White board (A) Quality & Purity
(C) Display board (B) Quality
(D) Interactive board (C) Quantity
582. A Statement of assumption validity of which (D) Purity
is yet to be tested is known as 590. Top level function is known as
(A) Hypothesis (A) Management
(B) Theory (B) Administration
(C) Principles (C) Bureaucracy
(D) Philosophy (D) Line of control
583. A miniature replica of an object is called 591. Herd registration scheme in Gujarat is
(A) Specimen running for the breed
(B) Model a. Mehasana buffalo
(C) Sample b. Gir cattle
(D) Picture c. Dangi cattle
584. A System of social relationship in and d. Banni buffalo
through which we live is known as 592. The number of calving pen required on dairy
(A) Society farm depends on
(B) Communication a. Breedable females
(C) Cast b. Fertility rate
(D) Creed c. Calving interval
d. All of above

40
593. Dehorning in calves can be done at 601. Tongue rolling is the type of behaviour in
a. 1 to 5 days cow
b. 7 to 0 days a. Detrimental
c. 11 to 20 days b. Stereotyped
d. More than 30 days c. Retired
594. The pulsation ratio in milking machine d. Apathetic
should be kept within the limit of 602. Pig farming is the most developed in
a. 1 : 1 a. Himachal Pradesh
b. 2.5 : 1 b. West Bengal
c. Both a & b c. Bihar
d. None d. Madhya Pradesh
603. Certification agency in organic farming is
595. The major input for maximum contribution a. IARI
to cost of milk production b. NDRI
a. Labour c. APEDA
b. Electricity d. NPDP
c. Feeding 604. Hissardale crossbred sheep breed developed
d. Breeding from
596. The buffalo population (Millions) in Gujarat a. Australian merino
state as per livestock census 2007 b. Bikaneri
a. 8.77 c. Both
b. 7.97 d. None of above
c. 2.01 605. Fat tailed sheep breed found in India is
d. 4.64 a. Macheri
597. Nilgai belong to the animal in category b. Chokla
a. Wild ruminant c. Bhakarwal
b. Wild non-ruminant d. Marwari
c. Domestic ruminant A narrow band surrounding the yolk that is
606
d. Domestic non-ruminant almost void of blood vessels is known as
598. The gestation period (days) of leopard is a. Stream
a. 62 – 65 b. Stigma
b. 92 – 95 c. Strake
c. 112 – 120 d. Strike
d. 150 -180 Chickens lay eggs on successive days is
607
599. The birth weight of piglet in kg is known as
a. 2 – 4 kg a. Pause
b. 3 – 6 kg b. Clutches
c. 1 – 2 kg c. Persistency
d. 0.5 – 1 kg d. Both b and c
600. Stag is the term utilize for Sometime the infundibulum loses power to
a. Castrated goat 608 pick up a yolks, and yolks accumulate in body
b. Castrated horse cavity. Such hen are known as
c. Castrated sheep a. Poor layer
d. Castrated pig b. External layer

41
 c. Internal layer
d. Faulty layer Pullets grown during the period when most of
616
Pigments responsible for egg shell colour is the days have decreasing light are known as
609
produced by a. In season flocks
a. Magnum b. Out season flocks
b. Vagina c. Mid season flocks
c. Uterus d. Odd season flocks
d. Isthmus
The brown colour of eggshell is due to which Pullets grown during the period when most of
610 617
pigments the days have increasing light are known as
a. Carotenoids a. In season flocks
b. Porphyrin b. Out season flocks
c. Xanthophylls c. Mid season flocks
d. None of above d. Odd season flocks
611 Preheating or pre-warming of egg is done
a. Before candling Birds were placed in the laying house just
b. Before Cold storage 618 before the onset of egg production is known
c. Before Setting as
d. Before Hatching a. Housing
Eggs of average size and quality incubated in b. Shifting
air with 50 to 60 % relative humidity, they c. Laying
612
will lose approximately _____ % of their d. None of above
initial weight in 19 days of incubation Replacing old males in a flock with a set of
a. 6 % 619 new and younger male after about two-thirds
b. 12 % of the egg production period is known as
c. 18 % a. Replacement of flock
d. 24 % b. Spiking the flock
Best time for artificial insemination to get c. Placement of flock
613
maximum fertility in poultry is d. All of above
a. Early morning Distance between the bulbs in poultry house
b. Before noon 620 should be _____times the distance from the
c. After Noon bulb to the bird level.
d. Late evening a. 0.5 times
The ammonia concentration in the poultry b. 5.0 times
614
house should not be more than c. 15 times
a. 2.5 ppm d. 1.5 times
b. 25 ppm 621. Herpes simplex seen in….
c. 50 ppm a) Cattle
d. 75 ppm b) Dog
615 Nitrogen fixation is poor in c) Elephant
a. Cage house d) None of above
b. Deep litter house 622. Volumetric method for determination of
c. Both A & B fat% of milk.
d. None of the above a. Waste fall balance

42
 b. Soxhlet method a) Mac Fadyean‟s reaction
c. Richmond sliding method b) Zeil Neelsen staining
d. Garber method. c) Ascoli‟s precipitation test
623. Which of the disinfectant is effective d) None of above
against wide range of micro organism in 631. Medium which is used in isolation of T.B.
floor,wall and equipments organism
a)quick time A )XLD agar
b)cresol 2-3% in hot water b) LJ medium
c)costic soda 5% c) EMJH medium
d)Nil d) blood agar
624. Coagulation of water by chemical is 632. Greenish colors of water is developed due
essential in to…
a)slow sand filter a) Iron
b)rapid sand filter b) Organic matter
c)boiling c) Algae flora
d)None d) None of above
625. The desirable limit for fluoride should 633. Ozone layer found at which height
be(mg/litre) a)10-20 km
a) 0.2 b)70-80km
b) 1.5 c)40-50km
c) 2.5 d)90-100km
d) 0.6-1.8 634. Optimum temperature range for adult pig
626. In strong sewage B.O.D. is (mg/litre) is between
a) 50 a) 0-3 0c
b) 100 b) 40-500c
c) 300 c) 4-300c
d) None d)30-350c
627. Who was first chief of VPH in WHO 635. Which is Iron bacterium
a) Dr.Guerin a)Crenothrix
b) Dr.Daniel E.Salmon b)Gellionella
c) Dr.Karl F.Meyer c)Klebsiella
d) Dr.Martin Kaplan d)Both a) & b)
628 Example of cyclozoonosis… 636. Incineration of carcass done by heating at
a) Toxoplasmosis which temperature
b) Taeniasis a)6000c
c) Echinococcosis b)8000c
d) Both b) & c) c)13000c
629. Example of algal zoonosis d)10000c
a) Scrub typhus 637. Oxyuris equi are commonly known as :
b) Actinomycosis (a) Pin worm
c) Fascioliasis (b) Caecal worm
d) Protothecosis (c) Stomach worm
630. In anthrax by which reaction Bacillus (d) None
organism detected in blood smear

43
638. The condition „Sweating blood‟ in horse is (d) None
caused by : 646. Smallest and most pathogenic tapeworm of
(a) Parafilaria equi poultry is :
(b) Dirofilaria immitis (a) Amoebotaenia
(c) Parafilaria multipapillosa (b) Davainea proglotina
(d) None (c) Raillietina echinobothrida
639. Seteria labiato-papillosa of cattle causing : (d) None
(a) Lumber paralysis in horse 647. A common term for myiasis caused by
(b) Lumber paralysis in sheep and goat members of the calliphoridae is :
(c) Lumber paralysis in cattle (a) Blow-fly Strike
(d) None (b) Pediculosis
640. The largest nematode of domestic animal is : (c) Mange
(a) Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus (d) None
(b) Dioctophyma renale 648. The larval of Oestrus ovis are commonly
(c) Ascaris sum referred to as :
(d) None (a) Gnats
641. Acute fasciolosis is common in : (b) Warble
(a) Cattle (c) Bots
(b) Sheep (d) None
(c) Buffalo 649. The condition „false gid‟ in sheep is caused
(d) Horse by :
642. Triclabendazole is a drug of choice for : (a) Multiceps multiceps
(a) Liver fluke (b) Oestrus ovis larva
(b) Haemonchus nematode (c) Setaria digitata
(c) Lung worm (d) None
(d) None 650. Ornithodorous moubata is :
643. The blood fluke are usually present in : (a) Hard tick
(a) Hepatic vein (b) Soft tick
(b) Portal vein (c) Mites
(c) Mesenteric vein (d) Flea
(d) None 651. Animal Protozoa are unicellular and they are
644. Taenia multiceps is tape worm of dog and :
it‟s larval stage present in sheep/cattle (a) Eukaryotic
is known as : (b) Prokaryotic
(a) Coenurus serialis (c) Monera
(b) Hydatid (d) None
(c) Coenurus cerebralis 652. Circling disease in cattle is caused by-
(d) None (A) Listeria monocytogenes
645. Sputum is a diagnostic material in two (B) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
infections of dog (C) Streptococcus equi
(a) Ancylostoma caninum and Dictophyma (D) Chlamydia psittacii
renale 653. Intranuclear inclusion bodies are seen in-
(b) Filaroides and Angiostrongylus (A) Pox diseases
(c) Schistosoma nasale and Stephanurus (B) Herpes virus infection

44
 (C) Adeno virus infection (C) Crazy chick disease
(D) Lyssa virus infection (D) Slipped Tendon
654. Negri bodies are seen in Rabies which are- 662. Phosphorous deficiency in soil will
(A) Intranuclear predispose the cattle to-
(B) Intracytoplasmic (A) Haemorrhagic septicemia
(C) Both (B) Botulism
(D) May be intranuclear or intracytoplasmic (C) Anthrax
655. Enlargement of Bursa of fabricius in poultry (D) Mucosal disease
is seen in- 663. Black head disease is predominately a
(A) CRD disease of-
(B) IB (A) Cattle caused by Parasite
(C) RD (B) Poultry caused by Parasite
(D) IBD (C) Horse caused by Virus
656. Zebra marking is predominant feature of- (D) Pig caused by Virus
(A) Johne‟s disease 664. Which of the following is correctly
(B) Tuberculosis matched-
(C) Rinder pest (A) Tubercular lesions are calcified-Buffalo
(D) Both (A) and (C) (B) Johne‟s disease-Foul smelling diarrhea
657. CBPP differs from CCPP in- (C) Avian spp.- Dry pus
(A) Both occur in same species (D) Lamb dysentery- Clostridium
(B) Sequestra formation perfringens type D
(C) Mode of transmission 665. Post mortem of chick shows foul smelling
(D) Pathogenesis yellow-brown watery Yolk, fibrinous
perihepatitis
658. Which bacterium is predisposed by Fasiola and pericarditis, suspect the disease
hepatica infestation- (A)Infectious Coryza
(A) Bacillus spp. (B) Fowl Typhoid
(B) Clostridium spp. (C) Coli Bacillosis
(C) Leptospira spp. (D) Infectious Bronchitis
(D) Pasturella spp. 666. Haemorrhages at the tip of the
659. Which is the most potent aflatoxin- proventricular gland is the pathognomic lesion s
(A) M1 seen in-
(B) M2 (A)Ranikhet disease
(C) B1 (B) Chronic respiratory disease
(D) B2 (C) Infectious bursal disease
660. Curled toe paralysis in chicken is due to (D) Avian influenza
deficiency of- 667. The non-invasive confirmative diagnosis of
(A) Vitamin B12 diaphragmatic hernia in buffalo is
(B) Vitamin B1 a. Auscultation
(C) Niacin b. Contrast radiography
(D) Vitamin B2 c. Rumenotomy
661. Mn deficiency is chicken will lead to- d. Plain radiography
(A) Pica
(B) Star grazing condition 668. Liptek test is performed for the diagnosis of

45
 a. LDA b. Thumb forceps
b. Vagal indigestion c. Allies tissue forcep
c. Ruminal acidosis d. Rat tooth forceps
d. Ruminal tympany 676. The best technique for making instruments
669. Metallic foreign bodies are mostly recovered germ free is
from a. Direct flame
a. Esophagus b. Boiling water
b. Reticulum c. Chemical
c. Rumen d. Autoclave
d. Abomasum 677. Sweeny is characterized by atrophy of
670. The basic cause of vagal indigestion in cattle a. All muscles
is b. Gastrocnemious muscle
a. Trauma c. Scapular muscle
b. Inflammatory conditions d. None of above
c. Ruminal impaction 678. Laminitis means that
d. Liver dysfunction a. Animal walks lame
671. Distal intestinal obstruction in bullock is b. Inflammation of joints
diagnosed by c. Inflammation of laminae
a. Clinical signs d. None of above
b. Hematology 679. Treatment of upward fixation of patella
c. Per rectal examination a, Planter tenotomy
d. History b. Medial patellar desmotomy
672. Common site for obstructive uroliths in c. Middle patellar desmotomy
bullock is d. Cunion tenotomy
a. Prescrotal 680. Inflammation of stifle joint is known as
b. Neck of bladder a. Laminitis
c. Pelvic urethra b. Omarthritis
d. Post scrotal c. Gonitis
673. The surgical correction of teat pea in cattle d. Joint mice
is performed by 681. Oozing of inflammatory exudates at
a. Teat slitter coronary band in horse hoof is known as
b. Hudson teat spider a. Arthritis
c. Teat tumour extractor b. Side bones
d. Teat dilator c. Quittor
d. Curb
682. Which blood vessel does NOT bring
674. Umbilical hernia is most commonly seen in deoxygenated blood directly to the heart?
a. Cattle a. Pulmonary vein
b. Dog b. Coronary Sinus
c. Pig c. Inferior Vena cava
d. Horse d. Superior Vena Cava
675. During surgery arterial bleeding is 683. If there is a blockage between the AV node
controlled by and the AV bundle, how will this affect the
a. Haemostat appearance of the EKG?

46
 a. PR interval would be smaller 690. How many T-tubules lie within a single
b. QRS interval would be shorter skeletal muscle sarcomere?
c. There would be more P waves than QRS a. 1
complexes b. 2
d. There would be more QRS complexes c. 3
than P waves d. 4
684. A valve damaged by rheumatic fever fails to 691. The connective tissue layer that bundles
open completely. This is known as: skeletal muscle fibers into fascicles is the:
a. Stenosis a. Perichondrium
b. Heart Block b. Perineurium
c. Ischemia c. Perimysium
d. MI d. Epimysium
685. Accodrding to the Frank-Starling Law of the 692. An overlap of actin and myosin filaments
heart, CO is directly related to: occurs in the:
a. Ventricular muscle mass a. A Band
b. Heart Rate b. I Band
c. Amount of blood returning to the heart c. Z Line
d. ESV d. H Band
686. The T Wave on an EKG represents: 693. Which of the following does not describe
a. Ventricular Depolarization skeletal muscle fibers?
b. Ventricular Repolarization a. Striated
c. Atrial Depolarization b. Typically voluntary
d. Atrial Repolarization c. Multinucleate
e. Ventricular Systole d. Branched
687. Cardiac output is equal to: 694. Which of the following cells is reponsible
a. HR x SV for myelin formation in the peripheral
b. HR/SV nervous system?
c. EDV - ESV a. Astrocyte
d. (EDV-SV) x HR b. Oligodendrocyte
688. Which of the following represents the c. Schwann cell
outermost layer of the heart? d. Microglial cell
a. Epicardium 695. The peripheral nervous system includes the:
b. Parietal pericardium a. Somatic nervous system
c. Myocardium b. Brain
d. Subendocardium c. Spinal cord
689. Which of the following cell types is d. Nuclei
responsible for skeletal muscle 696. A neuron with many short dendrites and a
regeneration? single long axon is a:
a. Myoepithelial cell a. Multipolar neuron
b. Myofibril b. Bipolar neuron
c. Satellite cell c. Unipolar neuron
d. Myofibroblast d. None of the above
697. Graded Dose- Response curve has

47
 a) Shape of hyperbola on simple graph paper 704. What is the site of action of carbonic
and 'S' shape on semi- log paper anhydrase inhibitors?
b) Shape of 'S' on both simple and semi-log a) Throughout the length of the tubule
graph paper b) Loop of Henle
c) Shape of 'S' on simple graph paper and c) PCT
shape of hyperbola on semi log paper. d) DCT
d) Shape of hyperbola on both simple and semi 705. In which of the following animals emetics
log graph paper. are not used?
698. Which of the following inhibits uptake of a) Rats
acetycholine in to vesicles b) Cattle
a) Vesamicol c) Horse
b) Cobra toxin d) All of the above
c) Bungaro toxin 706. Furosamide causes all except one
d) Botulinum toxin a) Metabolic alkalosis
699 Which of following is G-protein coupled
receptors? b) Hypocalcaemia
a) Muscurinic c) Hypokalemia
b) Nicotinic d) Oligouria
c) Alpha adrenergic receptors 707) Generally, which of the following is in the
d) a and b correct order as dosage is increased?
700. Which of following is used in the treatment of a) ED50 < LD50 < TD50
myasthenia gravis b) ED50 < TD50 < LD50
a) Dopamine c) LD50 < TD50 < ED50
b) Neostigmine d) LD50 < ED50 < TD50
c) Atropine e) TD50 < LD50 < ED50
d) Benzodiazepam 708) Which of the following is considered the
701. Which of following is used for relief of heaves in therapeutic index (or ratio)?
horse? a) T.I. = TD50 / ED50
a) Oxytocin b) T.I. = LD50 / ED50
b) Atropine c) T.I. = ED50 / TD50
c) Methanol d) T.I. = ED50 / LD50
d) Frusemide e) A & B
702. Which of following drug increases blood pressure, 709) Which of the following is considered the
heart rate and force of contractions. brand name?
a) Epinephrine a) Paracetmol
b) Atropine b) Crocin
c) Laetolol c) ß-blocker
d) Pindalol c) “off label” use
703. Which of followings is a not a saline diuretics. d) Antipyretics
a) Magnesium sulphate 710) Which of the following is NOT a protein
b) Mannitol target for drug binding?
c) Sorbitol a) Side of action (transport)
d) Acetazolemide b) Enzymes
c) Carrier molecules

48
 d) Ion channels 718. The viral agent produces diphagic fever,
711. The general steps in the viral multiplication respiratory distress, nervous symptoms and hard
cycle are: pad disease in dog is
a. Adsorption, penetration, replication, a. Canine distemper virus.
maturation and release. b. ICH virus
b. Endocytosis, penetration, replication, c. Rabies Virus
assembly and lysis. d. IBH virus
c. Adsorption, uncoating, replication, 719. Virus having RNA dependent DNA
assembly and budding. polymerase
d. Endocytosis, penetration, replication, a. Retrovirus
maturation and exocytosis. b. Reovirus
712. In dog canine adenovirus infection produces c. Rabies virus
a. Pink eye d. Rubella virus
b. Blue eye 720. Chicken pox in man is caused by
c. Pearly eye a. Pox virus
d. None b. Herpes virus
713. Choose the laboratory animal most suitable c. Adeno virus
for typing FMD virus d. Parvo virus
a. Guinea pig 721. Swine Influenza virus associated with
b. Hamster current pandemic in humans is
c. Weaned mice a. H1N1
d. Rat b. H2N2
c. H3N2
714. Biological vector of Bluetongue virus is d. H5N1
a. Aedes 722. Chief source of leptospira is
b. Culicoides a. Blood
c. Anopheles b. Urine
d. House fly c. Milk
715. Double stranded segmented RNA with 10- d. Faeces
12 segments is the features of family 723. Growth of brucella organisms is favored due
a. Reoviridae to
b. Retroviridae a. Erythritol
c. Orthomyxoviridae b. Sorbitol
d. Paramyxoviridae c. Glucose
716. First anti rabies vaccine was developed by d. Protein
a. Edward Jenner 724. E.coli
b. Louis Pasteur a. Grows at 15-400 C.
c. Robert Koch b. Lactose fermenter
d. Robert Hook c. Motile
717. Separation of RBCs from virus is called d. All of these
a. Elution 725. Spore forming bacteria
b. HA a. Bacillus
c. HI b. Clostridium
d. Eclipse c. Both a and b

49
 d. None d. None
726. Isoschizomers are Restriction enzymes 733. RNAs that catalyze biological reactions,
which: such as self-splicing introns, are known as:
a. Recognize and cut the same sequence a. Enzyme
b. Recognize the same sequence but cut b. Ribozyme
site vary c. Sliceosome
c. Both d. None
d. None 734. The 2 µm plasmid is found in:
727. Neoschizomers are Restriction enzymes a. Escherichia coli
which: b. Pneumococcus
a. Recognize and cut the same sequence c. Bacillus anthracis
b. Recognize the same sequence but cut d. Sacchromyces cerevisiae
site vary 735. Which of the following statement is true for
c. Both life cycle of Lysogenic phages:
d. None a. They immediately induce lysis of host
728. The enzymes used for joining two DNA cells for release of new virions
molecule is: b. Phage DNA is integrated with the host
a. DNA gyrase DNA and retained for several
b. DNA ligase generations
c. Topoisomerase c. Both the above depending upon the
d. Helicase environmental condition
729. Which of the following has the highest d. None of the above
density: 736. Genes cloned with M 13 based vector can be
a. Relaxed genomic DNA obtained in the form of:
b. Supercoiled DNA a. Single stranded DNA
c. Plasmid b. Double stranded DNA
d. RNA c. Single stranded RNA
730. Homo polymer tail can be added by using d. None of the above
enzyme: 737. At 600 nm, one unit optical density (OD) of
a. Ligase E. coli culture corresponds roughly to:
b. Phosphate kinase a. 1 X 106 cells/ml
c. Terminal deoxytransferase b. 1 X 107 cells/ml
d. None c. 1 X 108 cells/ml
731. The plasmid which is maintained in the host d. 1 X 109 cells/ml
cell in multiple copies are called: 738. EDTA present in lysis solution has
a. Relaxed following functions:
b. Stringent a. Chelates Mg++ ions and thus inhibits the
c. Conjugative activity of enzyme DNase
d. None b. Removes Mg++ ions that are essential
732. The plasmid which is maintained in the host for preserving the overall structure of
cell in limited number of copies are called: cell envelope
a. Relaxed c. Both of the above
b. Stringent d. None of the above
c. Conjugative 739. Which of the following match is incorrect:

50
 a. SDS: Cell Lysis
b. EDTA: Chelating Mg++ ions 746 The purkinjee cells are found in
c. Proteinase K: Degradation of Protein a. Heart
d. Isoamyl alcohol: precipitation of DNA b. Cerebrum
740. CTAB used is isolation of DNA forms c. Cerebellum
complexes with: d. Spinal cord
a. DNA 747 The tendon cell is
b. Proteins a. Fibroblast
c. Carbohydrates b. Myoblast
d. None of The above c. Osteoblast
741. Guanidinium thiocynate is useful in DNA d. Chondroblast
isolation because: 748 Which one of the following placenta found
a. It forms complexes with DNA molecule in mare?
b. It denatures and dissolves all a. Cotyledonary
biochemical substances other than b. Diffuse
nucleic acid c. Zonary
c. In its presence DNA binds tightly to d. Discoidal
silica particles 749 Which of the following nerve is the largest
d. Both b & c cranial nerve?
742. Which one of the following type of placenta a. Trigeminal
is found in goat? b. Vagus
a. Zonary c. Sciatic
b. Cotyledonary d. None of the above
c. Diffuse 750 Which one of the following contains
d. Discoidal cerebrospinal fluid?
743. The lymphatis are absent in a. Epidural space
a. Intestine b. Subdural space
b Uterus c. Subarachnoid space
c. Brain d. None of above
d. Udder 751 Which one of the following ligament is great
744 The pancreatic acinus is characterized by importance for treatment of upward fixation
presence of of patella in the bullock?
a. Hassal‟s corpusle a. Medial patellar ligament
b. Centro-acinar cells b. Middle patellar ligament
c. central artery
d. central vein c. Lateral patellar ligament
745 The accentric placed central artery is found d. Cruciate ligament
in 752 Which one of the following species presents
a. Hepatic lobule single occipital condyle in skull?
b. Osteon a. cattle
c. Spinal cord b. Horse
d. Spleen c. Dog
d. Poultry

51
753 Which one fo the following animal vomits a. Mixed type
only through nostril because of its very long b. Sensory type
and well developed soft palate? c. Motor type
a. Ox d. None of the above
b. Horse 761 Which one of the following foetal
c. Dog membrane encloses embryo in fluid sac?
d. Pig a. Chorion
754 Animal which walks on the hoof is called b. Amnion
as? c. Yolk sac
a. Plantigrade d. Allantois
b. Unguligrade 762 Down syndrome is an example of
c. Digitigrade (a) Monosomy
d. None of above (b) Trisomy
755 Which type of placenta present in cow? (c) Triploidy
a. Syndesmochorial (d) Polyploidy
b. Epi theleochorial 763 Outward expression of a trait is called
c. Endotheliochorial (a) Genotype
d. Haemochorial (b) Phenotype
756 Which of the following animal presents (c) Karyotype
ovulation fossa on its ovary? (d) all of these
a. Cow 764. Colour blindness in human is
b. Mare (a) Sex limited trait
c. Bitch (b) Sex linked trait
d. Doe (c) Sex influenced trait
757 Which of the following structure produces (d) None of above
voice in the fowl? 765 What should be the performance of progeny
a. Larynx above the herd average in order to declare
b. Pharynx the bull as a proven bull?
c. Syrinx (a) 20 %
d. None of the above (b) 5 %
758 Which is the space present between (c) 10 %
vertebral canal and spinal duramater? (d) 15 %
a. Subarachoid space 766 The nullisomy is an example of
b. Subdural space (a) Anuploidy
c. Epidural space (b) Euploidy
d. Dural space (c) Both
759 Which one of the following vein is called as (d) None
milk vein in cow? 767 The structural change in a chromosome in
a. External jugular vein which a segment is oriented in
b. Subcutaneous abdominal vein a reverse order is called as
(a) Tranlocation
c. Umbilical vein (b) Duplication
d. None of above (c) Deletion
760 All the spinal nerves are: (d) Inversion

52
768 The regression of offspring on mid-parent (a) 9:3:4
value estimates (b) 9:7
(a) ½ h2 (c) 12:3:1
(b) ¼ h2 (d) 15:1
(c) h2 776 The medium sized milch breed of buffalo
(d) None of these which requires less maintenance is
769 The criss cross pattern of inheritance is seen (a) Murrah
in (b) Jafarabadi
(a) Sex limited trait (c) Surti
(b) Sex linked trait (d) None
(c) Sex influence trait 777 Central Institute for research on goat is
(d) None of above located at
770 The sudden heritable changes in genetic (a) Karnal
material is called as (b) Izzatnagar
(a) Duplication (c) Makhdoom
(b) Mutation (d) Hissar
(c) Deletion
(d) None of these 778 Booroola gene in Garole sheep refers to
771 Mutation resulting from replacement of base (a) Fecundity
pair of purine with purine or (b) Wool production
pyrimidine with pyrimidine is called as (c) Body weight
(a) Transition (d) Milk production.
(b)Tansversion 779 The choice of exotic breed for improving
(c) Translocation milk production in cattle in
(d) None of these hilly areas is
772 The Coiling Pattern of Shell in Snail is an (a) HF
example of (b) Jersey
(a) Extra nuclear inheritance (c) both
(b) Maternal inheritance (d) none
(c) Cytoplasmic inheritance 780 Red Kandhari cattle belongs to
(d) all of above (a) U.P.
773 The sex index (X/A) value of 0.5 in (b) M.P.
Drosophila indicates (c) A.P.
(a) Nomal male (d) Maharastra
781 The exotic cattle breed of choice for
(b) Nomal female improving milk production is
(c) Super male (a) HF
(d) Super female (b) Jersey
774 Genotype of purebred Pea combed birds is (c) Brown Swiss
(a) RrPp (d) Guernsey
(b) RRpp 782 Vibriosis in a herd can best be diagnosed by
(c) rrPP a) Serum agglutination test
(d) rrpp b) Vaginal mucus agglutination test
775 The phenotypic ratio of recessive epistasis is c) Milk ring test

53
 d) Rose Bengal plate test b.) 28-32 days
783 Induction of estrus by premature regression c.) 45-50 days
of the corpus luteum can be done by using d.) 55-60 days
a) PRID 791 Which of the following vulval suture
b) GnRH technique has the least disadvantages for the
c) PGF2 α retention of prepartum cervicovaginal
d) HCG prolapse?
784 Under which of the following conditions a.) Caslicks operation
animal is acyclic b.) Matress suture
a) Delayed ovulation c.) Quill suture
b) Silent heat d.) Buhner`s suture
c) Anovulation 792 Cuboni test is done to detect the presence of
d) None of the above a.) Progesterone
785 Time of ovulation in a cow is b.) PMSG
a) 12-24 hrs before the end of estrum c.) Estrogen
b) 30-40 hrs after the end of estrum d.) None of the above
c) About the last day of estrum 793 Defective fetal deglutition is thought to be
d) 10-15 hrs after the end of estrum one of the causes of
786 Flehman‟s reaction is not observed in a.) Hydroallantois
a) Bull b.) Hydroamnios
b) Boar c.) Hydrocephalus
c) Stallion d.) Fetal ascitis
d) Ram 794 “Buller cow” is representing the
787 The condition in which fetal bones crepitate a.) Follicular cyst
within the uterus on rectal examination b.) Luteal cyst
a) Mummification c.) Cystic corpora lutea
b) Hydroallantois d.) Par ovarian cyst
c) Maceration 795 Yellowish or whitish, thick, opaque uterine
d) None of the above secretion nourishing the ovum and embryo
788 The true bacterial venereal disease is is called
a.) Brucellosis a.) Lochia
b.) Campylobacteriosis b.) Yolk sac
c.) Genital tuberculosis c.) Uterine milk
d.) Leptospirosis d.) Oviductal fluid
789 Endometrial cups secrete PMSG hormone 796 Length of diestrus period of estrus cycle in
during bovine is
a.) 20-60 days a) 10 days
b.) 100-180 days b) 13 days
c.) 40-120 days c) 18 days
d.) 180-250 days d) 15 days
790 In bitch the abdominal palpation can be best 797 Period of embryo in cattle is
performed for early pregnancy diagnosis a) 13- 45 days
during b) 18-50 days
a.) 15-20 days c) 10-12 days

54
 d) 45-280 days a. Tied bell on neck
798 Fremitus can be best felt earliest during b. Pass through ring of grasses
pregnancy in cattle c. Clipping of hair around neck
a) 30-40 days d. Clipping of hair around penis
b) 40-60 days 806. Milling is the process of wool related to
c) 150-170 days a. Removal of grease and dirt
d) 90-120 days b. Raises individual fibres on surface
799 Causative organism for contagious c. Marking at brisket with colour
equine metritis d. Process of removal of objectionable
a) Campylobacter fetus part
b) Trypenosoma equiperdum 807. Low burr content (LB) is graded in wool at
c) Herpes virus burr content level
d) Teylorella equigenitalis a. Below 2 %
800 Abortion storm is a characteristic sign of b. Below 3 %
a) Vibriosis c. 3 to 6 %
b) Trychomoniasis d. More than 6 %
c) Brucellosis 808. Vautha fair is famous for trading of
d) Leptospirosis a. Horse
801 The location of seminal vesicles in the b. Cow
bovine is c. Camel
a) On the floor of pelvis d. Donkey
b) Caudal to the bladder, around the 809. It is the location were disowned and orphan
neck of bladder animal are kept
c) On the either side of the pelvis a. Animal pound
urethra near ischiatic arch b. Gaushala
d) None of the above c. Panjarapole
802 Head office of Directorate of Marketing and d. None
inspection is located at 810. ndia ranks total milk production in the
(A) Delhi world.
(B) Ahmedabad a. Third
(C) Faridabad b. Second
(D) Jaipur c. Fifth
803 CACP headquarter is located at d. First
(A) Jaipur 811. Gujarat has total breeds of buffaloes.
(B) Pune a. Two
(C) Kolkata b. Four
(D) Delhi c. Three
804. It is the sheep breed with high fecundity trait d. Six
a. Nellore 812. First ring on a horn at the age in cattle.
b. Garole a. 2 years
c. Black Bengal b. 4 years
d. Nail c. 3years
805. Ringing is the practice followed by sheep d. 5years
owner as 813. Principle object of running dairy farm.

55
 a. Meat production c. Bharuch
b. Milk production d. Mehsanas
c. Sale of heifers 822. Khillar is the breed found at.
d. Fodder a. Gujarat
814. Sahiwal cow is breed pertaining to the b. Andhrapradesh
group. c. Maharashtra
a. Milch d. Karnataka
b. Dual 823. Calf starter is a feed
c. Draught a. liquid feed for calf
d. None b. liquid feed for heifer
815. Calf starter is a feed for. c. solid feed for calf
a. Calf d. solid feed for heifer
b. Heifer 824) Calcium requirement in layer poultry per day is
c. Cow about
d. Buffalo a. 0.5 %
816. Nose ring should be applied in bull at the b. 1.5 %
age. c. 3.5 %
a. 1.5 years d. 10 %
b. 2 years 825)
Incubation period if chicken egg
c. 2.5 years a. 19 days
d. 3 years b. 23 days
817. Hormone responsible for letdown of milk. c. 21 days
a. Oxytocin d. 18 days
b. Prolactine 826)
Nutritional roup in poultry is due to deficiency
c. Lactate of
d. Hyluronidase a. Vit A
818. Dehorning is done in the calf at the age. b. Vit B6
a. 4-10 days c. Vit K
b. 10-20 days d. Vit E
c. 3 months 827)
which of the fowl has a single medium wattle
d. 6 months a. red jungle fowl
819. Common chemical used for dehorning. b. ceylon jungle fowl
a. Sodium bromide c. grey jungle fowl
b. Potassium iodide d. javan jungle fowl
c. Caustic potash 828)
The best breed for using as male line in broiler
d. HCL production is
820. It is not a sexual behavior of bull. a. White rock
a. chin resting b. Cornish
b. libido c. New Hampshire
c. courtship d. Australorp
d. reactivity 829)
White leghorn are white because
821. Banas dairy is located at. a. No colour gene
a. Palanpur b. A dominant gene which inhibits color
b. Deesa c. Recessive white gene

56
 d. They have silver gene a. dwarfism
830)
The wild ............is the ancestor of all domestic b. nakedness
duck breeds c. Albinism
a. Mallard d. rapid feathering
b. Campbell 838)
Egg shell treatment is done to reduce the rate
c. Red fowl of ............loss
d. Both a & b a. Oxygen loss
831)
The black and white barring in barred b. Carbon dioxide loss
Plymouth rock is due to ............barring gene c. Both a and b
a. Sex linked gene d. Energy loss
b. Sex limited gene 839)
Shank length and width is a good indicator of
c. Sex influence gene ........
d. Dominant gene a. Egg production
832)
The wild ............is the ancestor of all domestic b. Meat production
duck breeds c. Skeleton size
e. Mallard d. Health of birds
f. Campbell 840)
Shank length and width is a good indicator of
g. Red fowl ........
h. Both a & b a. Egg production
833)
In a sex-linked cross involving barring, the b. Meat production
female parent is a ............... c. Skeleton size
a. Barred Plymouth Rock d. Health of birds
b. Non Barred Plymouth Rock 841)
Poultry need one more essential aminoacid
c. Both ........than cattle
d. None of above a. Lysine
834)
In a sex-linked cross involving silver and gold, b. Metheonin
the silver gene carrying ...........parent is used c. Glysine
a. Male d. Cystene
b. Female
c. Both 842)
Hens egg contains about.....grams of protein
d. None of above
835)
In a sex-linked cross involving silver and gold, a. 6-7
the gold gene carrying ........parent is used b. 12-13
a. Male c. 2-3
b. Female d. 21-22
c. Both 843)
A component of egg white having antibacterial
d. None of above activity
836)
In a sex-linked cross involving feathering gene, a. Lysozyme
a late feathering .......parent is used b. Avidine
a. Male c. Transferine
b. Female d. All of above
c. Both 844 Host which provides a medium for larval
e. None of above or asexual phase of life cycle of an
837)
Which one is sex linked infectious agent.

57
 a) Intermediate host d) Ammonia
b)Final host 853. Standard of ventilation
c)Obligatory host a) cubic space
d)None of the above b)air space
845 Zoonotic disease are perpetuated in nature c)floor space
by a single vertebrate species. d)all of the above
a) Cyclozoonosis 854 Type of transmission caused by physical
b) Direct zoonosis contact.
c) metazoonosis a) direct
d) Amphizoonosis b)indirect
846 These are the bacterial zoonosis. c)contect
a)brucellosis d)vehicle.
b)leptospirosis 855 Test use for diagnosis of brucellosis in
c)listeriosis cattle.
d)all of the above a) MRT
847 Yello fever is transmitted by. b) coagulation test
a)Ades aegypti c)hensa test
b)Argus d) gmelin test.
c)Ioxides 856 Yellow fever cause by which virus.
d)Simules a)flavi virus
848 Epedemic in bird population. b)lyssa virus
a)Epizootic c)hendra virus
b)Epidemic d)picorna virus.
c)Epornitics 857 Constant present of a disease or organism
d)all of the above in a community-
849 Zone comprises the ozone layer. a)Epidemic
a) Troposphere b)Sporadic
b) stratosphere c)Endemic
c) mesosphere d)Panzootic
d) thermosphere 858 Diseases transmitted from man to lower
850 Method of carcass disposal are vertebrate animals called as
a) cremation a) Zooanthropozoonosis
b) burial b)Anthropozoonosis
c) flamegium c) Amphixenosis
d) incineration d)Sporozoonosis
851 The term refers to smoke mixed with dust 859 Unit of radiation
a)smog a) Meds
b)smust b) Reds
c)soot c) calori
d)mist d)Joule
852 Rotten egg odour in water is due to 860 Who is the first chief of VPH in WHO?
a) Hyrogen sulfide a) Dr martin Kalpan
b) Algae b)Dr Smith
c) Cyanide c)Dr nayadu

58
 d)Dr B B Jack a) Arachnida
861 Test for residual chlorine b) Crustaecia
a)chlorine c) Insecta
b)florine d) Myriapoda
c)organoleptic 869 Formation of hairballs in the stomach of
d)orthitolidine calves may occur due to
862 The term reffered to mixture of smoke and a) Fly infestation
fog b) Lice infestation
a) smog c) By both of the above
b)must d) None of the above
c)sute 870 Which of the following is not a larviparous
d)mist fly
863 ozogase present in ozonlayer of a) Oestrus ovis
stratosphere b) Sarcophaga dux
a)0.5 to 1 mg/l c) Pseudolynchia canariensis
b)0.2 to 0.3 mg/l d) Gastrophillus intestinalis
c)4 to 5 mg/l 871 The following is known as wing louse of
d)2 to 3 mg/l poultry
864 Tick paralysis is mainly caused by ticks a) Lipeurus caponis
belonging to b) Goniodes gigas
a) Hyalomma c) Menopon gallinae
b) Ixodes spp. d) Menacanthus stramineus
c) Boophilus spp. 872 The budy of an arachnid is divided into two
d) Amblyomma spp. parts the anterior gnathosoma and posterior
865 Accidental myiasis causing fly a) Podosoma
a) Musca spp. b) Idiosoma
b) Chrysomia spp. c) Opisthosoma
c) Calliphora spp. d) Prosoma
d) Sarcophaga spp. 873 A key role in the transmission of artropod
borne diseases is played by the
866 „Flea collars‟ of dogs and cats are usually a) Circulatory system
impregnted with b) Excretory system
a) BHC c) Respiratory system
b) DDT d) Digestive system
c) Malathion 874 Hexagonal discal cell is present in the wings
d) Dichlorovas of
867 The condition „butchers jelly‟ is caused by a) Tabanus spp.
the larvae of b) Stomoxys spp.
a) Oestrus ovis c) Phlebotomus spp.
b) Gastrophillus intestinalis d) All the above
c) Hypoderma lineatum 875 wool-staining in sheep is caused by
d) Callitroga hominivorax a) Oestrus ovis
868 The two pairs of antennae are present in b) Damalinia ovis
artropodas belonging to the class c) Melophagas ovinus

59
 d) None of the above 883 Insects which posses sponging mouth parts
876 Brown-dog tick is and do not bite are
a) Rhipicephalus appendiculatus a) House flies
b) Rhipicephalus sanguineus b) Fleas
c) Haemaphysalis leachi c) Mosquitoes
d) None of the above d) Deer flies
877 „Gavac‟ vaccine is used against 884 Which of the following is not correctly
a) Hyalomma anatolicum matched-?
b) Dermacentor andersoni (A) Zn deficiency-Pig
c) Haemaphysalis leachi (B) Epidemic tremor-Virus
d) Boophilus microplus (C) Siderosis-silica dust
878 „Sweet itch‟ in horses is caused by (D) Alkali disease-Se
a) Simulium indicum 885 Pachymeningitis is inflammation of-
b) Phlebotomus sergenti (A) Piamater
c) Culicoides robertsi (B) Brain
d) Climex lecturalius (C) Duramater
879 How are hosts affected directly by (D) Spinal cord
arthropods? 886 Liquifactive necrosis is most commonly
a) Infestation seen in-
b) Bites (A) Kidney
c) Anaphylactic shock (B) Liver
d) All of the above (C) Heart
880 The term „entomophobia‟ means (D) Brain
a) A fear of insects 887 Which of the following is correctly
b) The science of insect classification matched-?
c) The study of insects (A) Picorna virus-Ranikhet disease
d) The study of insect behaviour (B) Lumpy skin disease- Pox virus
881 Which of the insects listed below could (C) Diamond skin disease-Herpes virus
cause myiasis? (D) Paramyxo virus-FMD
a) Dragon fly 888 Enlargement of Sciatic nerve is seen in-
b) Flea (A) Ranikhet disease
c) Screwworn fly (B) Marek‟s disease
d) Mite (C) Chronic respiratory disease
882 In insects, the body part which acts as a (D) Infectious Coryza
protective structure and which provides for 889 Apennosis is-
the attachment of muscles is known as the (A) Intracellular edema of epidermis
a) Endoskeleton (B) Congenital lack of feathers in fowl
b) Sclerites (C) Absence of pineal gland
c) Abdomon (D) Lack of cell differentiation during
d) Exoskeleton embryogenesis
890 Which is incorrect about avain tuberculosis-
?
(A) Calcification absent

60
 (B) Liver and bones are most commonly 897 Edema consisting of gelatinous material in
affected neck and brisket region seen in cattle in-
(C) Lungs are most commonly affected (A) Black Quarter
(D) Intradermal test is performed on wattle. (B) Deganala disease
(C) Botulism
891 Post mortem of cattle reveals too much (D) Haemorrhagic Septicemia
emaciated carcass,mucosa of intestine
thrown into corrugated folds, most probable 898 Which is the main chemical mediator of
cause will be- inflammation-?
(A) Rinder pest (A) Serotonin
(B) Johne‟s disease (B) Bradykinin
(C) Tuberculosis (C) Histamin
(D) Pasterellosis. (D) Interleukin-1
892 Spondylitis is inflammation of- 899 Big liver disease is also known as-
(A) Prepuce (A) IBD
(B) Vertebrae (B) CRD
(C) Bone (C) Fowl cholera
(D) Spermatic cord (D) Fowl typhoid
893 Which of the following is correct regarding 900 In Angara disease, the pathological finding
poultry diseases-? is-
(A) In pullorum disease, green constant (A) Haemopericardium
diarrhea is seen (B) Hydropericardium
(B) Face is swollen and edematous in (C) Myocarditis
Haemophilus infection (D) Pneumopericardium
(C) Bloody mucous expelled from trachea in 901 In Left side heart failure, the heart failure
Infectious Bronchitis cells are seen in-
(D) In pullorum disease, nervous signs are (A) Lungs
seen along with diarrhoea (B) Heart
894 In which outbreak at poultry farm maximum (C) Kidney
mortality of birds will be expected? (D) Spleen
(A) Ranikhet disease 902 Sway back condition is seen due to
(B) Infectious Bronchitis deficiency of-
(C) Infectious Lanyngiotracheitis (A) Cu
(D) Avain Encephalomyelitis (B) Co
895 Dohle‟s bodies are toxic granules of- (C) Mn
(A) Macrophages (D) Se
(B) Eosinophils 903 Most pathogenic species/disease affecting
(C) Neutrophils Snakes-
(D) Lymphocytes (A) Pasteurellosis
896 East coast fever is caused by- (B) Histomoniasis
(A) Theleria parva (C) Salmonellosis
(B) Theleria annulata (D) Listeriosis.
(C) Babesia bovis 904 Abnormal large amount of granulation tissue
(D) Anaplasma centrale is known as

61
 a. Proud flesh 912 Reaction of living tissue to injury is known
b. Callus as
c. Adenoma a. Infection
d. Wound b. Inflammation
905 Who introduced the basic principles of c. Infestation
surgery d. Sarcoma
a. W. S. Halsted 913 Irreducibility of hernia is a due to
b. Joseph Lister a. Adhesion
c. W. T. G. Morten b. Strangulation
d. Michal Harward c. Incarceration
906 Gangrene occurs most commonly in d. All of above
buffaloes at 914 One of the following is the congenital defect
a. Udder of eye
b. Ear pinna a. Dermoid cyst
c. Tail b. Hypopia
d. All of above c. Exophthalmos
907 Perineal hernia is common in d. Conrneal ulcer
a. Mares 915 Exposure factor for taking radiograph is
b. Castrated dogs a. mA
c. Spayed bitches b. kVp
d. Adult uncastrarted dogs c. Second
908 Peterson's block is practiced to anaesthetize d. All of above
a. Teeth 916 Amputation of horn can be done under
b. Eye a. Cornual nerve block
c. Flank b. Caudal epidural
d. Limb c. Anterior epidural
909 If the content of hernia is urinary bladder, d. Retrobulbar nerve block
then it is termed as 917 Adhesion of iris to cornea is known as
a. Enterocele a. Anterior synechia
b. Epiplocele b. Posterior synechia
c. Vesicocele c. Epiphora
d. Hysterocele d. Chemosis
910 Radical surgery is done to 918 Surgical operation for providing drainage
a. Conserve damaged tissue from middle ear is known as
b. Remove damaged tissue a. Zepps' operation
c. Eliminate root cause b. Bulla osteotomy
d. Correct malformations c. Hyovertebrotomy
911 Preanesthetic medication is employed to d. Ventriculectomy
make 919 FFD for taking diagnostic radiography
a. Induction of anaesthesia smooth should be
b. Recovery complication minimum a. Minimum
c. Animal more controllable b. 90 cm
d. All of above c. 36 inch
d. Maximum

62
920 Reflecting layer is present in 927 Which of the following organelles is
a. X-ray film responsible for the appearance of Nissl
b. X-ray tube bodies in the cell bodies of motor neurons?
c. Intensifying screen a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d. All the above b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
921 Frequency mainly used for the purpose of c. Golgi apparatus
diagnostic ultrasound d. Mitochondria
a. 1 to 10 MHz 928 Which of the following structures is a
b. More than 50 MHz component of a reflex arc?
c. Less than 20000Hz a. Afferent neuron
d. None of the above b. Efferent neuron
922 Barium sulphate is exclusively used for c. Effector organ
a. Outlining alimentary tract d. All of the above
b. Outlining urinary tract 929 The testosterone-producing cells of the
c. Outlining spinal canal testes are called:
d. Outlining abdominal cavity a. Sertoli cells
923 Reducing agent used in x-ray developer b. Granulosa cells
a. Metol c. Spermatogonia
b. Sodium carbonate d. Leydig cells
c. Potassium bromide 930 An oocyte surrounded by one layer of
d. Sodium sulphite squamous follicle-like cells is most likely a:
924 Cells found in the choroid plexus that a. Primordial follicle
secrete cerebrospinal fluid are: b. Primary follicle
a. Astrocytes c. Secondary follicle
b. Microglia d. Graafian follicle
c. Ependymal cells 931 Podocytes make up the:
d. Oligodendrocytes a. Visceral layer of the nephron
925 Action potentials are conducted more b. Visceral layer of the glomerulus
rapidly in: c. Visceral layer of the renal capsule
a. Small diameter axons than large d. Visceral layer of the Bowman's Capsule
diameter axons 932 Glucose is:
b. Large diameter axons than small a. Filtered, reabsorbed, and secreted
diameter axons b. Filtered, and reabsorbed, but not
c. Unmyelinated axons than myelinated secreted
axons c. Filtered, and secreted, but not
d. Axons that lack a wrapping of Schwann reabsorbed
cells d. Filtered, and neither secreted nor
926 Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles that reabsorbed
are located primarily in specialized portions 933 While the kidneys process about 180L of
of the: blood-derived fluids per day, the amount
a. Soma that actually leaves the body is:
b. Axon a. 50%, or 90L
c. Dendrite b. 100%, or 180L
d. Perikaryon c. 10%, or 18L

63
 d. 1%, or 1.8L c. pleural cavity
934 The fluid in the capsular space is similar to d) mediastinum
plasma except that it does not contain a 941 Blood returning from the lungs enters the
significant amount of: heart through the:
a. Glucose a. pulmonary semilunar valve
b. Sodium b. mitral valve
c. H+ c. right ventricle
d. Albumin d. left atrium
935 Aldosterone causes: 942 The precursor of ketone body is
a. Decreased K+ in the urine a. Acetyl CoA
b. Increased Na+ in the urine b.Acetoacetic acid
c. Increased urine output c. Betahydroxybutyric acid
d. Decreased urine output d. Cholesterol
936 Which of the following is not one of the 3 943) For intravenous (IV) dosages, what is the
external coverings of the kidney? bioavailability assumed to be?
a. Renal capsule a) 0%
b. Adipose capsule b) 25%
c. Renal fascia c) 75%
d. Renal adventitia d) 100%
937 The addition of a strong acid to the 944) Which of the following is NOT a
extracellular fluid would result in the pharmacokinetic process?
increased formation of: a) Alteration of the drug by liver enzymes
a. NaHCO3 - b) Drug metabolites are removed in the
b. H2CO3 urine
c. OH- c) Movement of drug from the gut into
d. All of the above general circulation
d) The drug causes dilation of coronary
938 Severe vomiting can result in: vessels
a. Septic shock 945) Which of the following has no side effects?
b. Anaphylactic shock a) Paracetamol
c. Hypovolemic shock b) Aspirin
d. All of the above c) Meloxicam
939 A patient with a hypothalamic tumor has d) None of above
hypersecretion of ADH. Which of the 946) Most drugs are either ____ acids or ____
following BP readings would be most likely bases.
for this patient? a) Strong; Strong
a. 95/65 b) Strong; Weak
b. 115/80 c) Weak; Weak
c. 120/60 d) All of above
d. 165/100 947) Which of the following enteral
940 The space in the middle of the thoracic administration routes has the largest first-pass
cavity where the heart resides is the: effect?
a. pericardial cavity a) SL (sublingual)
b. pericardium b) Buccal

64
 c) Rectal a) Metabolism of substances
d) Oral b) Detoxification of substances
948) Which of the following would receive drug c) Decreasing pH of compartments
slowly? containing substances
a) Liver d) A & B
b) Brain 956) Weak acids are excreted faster in ____ urine
c) Fat and weak bases are excreted faster in____
d) Muscle urine.
949) Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the ____ a) Acidic; Alkaline
and Pharmacodynamics is the effect of the b) Alkaline; Acidic
____. c) Acidic; Neutral
a) Drug on a drug; Body on the drug d) Alkaline; Neutral
b) Body on the drug; Drug on a drug 957) Which organ is responsible for metabolism
c) Drug on the body; Body on the drug in the “first pass effect”?
d) Body on the drug; Drug on the body a) Brain
950) Which of the following is NOT an action of b) Heart
the body on a drug? c) Kidney
a) Absorption d) Liver
b) Distribution 958) What determines the degree of movement of
c) Metabolism a) Partition constant
d) Side effects b) Degree of ionization
951) Which of the following is the amount of a c) Size
drug absorbed per amount administered? d) All of the above
a) Bioavailability 959 Following is responsible for agglutination of
b) Bioequivalence RBC in animal body.
c) Drug absorption a) Abrin
d) All of above b) Ricin
952) What type of drugs can cross the blood-rain c) Renin
a) Large and lipid-soluble d) Thiamine
b) Large and lipid-insoluble 960 Bovine Bunker is synonym to
c) Small and lipid-soluble a) Urea toxicity
d) Small and lipid-insoluble b) Salt toxicity
953) Which of the following is NOT a phase II e? c) Oxalates toxicity
a) Glucuronic acid d) Selenium toxicity
b) Sulfuric acid 961 Severe and acute pneumonia (Drowning
c) Acetic acid syndrome) indicates probability of poisoning
d) Amino acids due to
954) Which of the following reactions is phase II a) ANTU
a) Oxidations b) OCTP
b) Reductions c) MB
c) Conjugations d) OP
d) Deaminations 962 All of following except one is not used for
doping in animal
955) What is the goal of the Cytochrome-P450 ? a) Furasemide

65
 b) Phenylbutazone b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Steroids c.Rhinosporidium seeberi
d) Adrenaline d. Aspergillus flavus
963. The dry matter requirement of goat is 970. Which of the following is incorrect match.
a. 2 – 3 % a. Diene‟s stain: Mycoplasma
b. 6 – 8 % b. Fontana stain: Spirochaetes
c. 4 -5 %
c. Machiavello stain: Chlamydia
10 %
d. Acid fast stain: Staphylococci
964. Nagler‟s reaction with Cl.perfringens on 971. Strauss reaction is positive for
egg yolk agar is due to a. Brucella abortus
a. Haemolysin b. Pseudomonas mallei
b. Hyaluronidase c. Actinobacillus ligneresii
c. Lecithinase d. All of above
d. Leucocidin 972. The Weil-Felix test is an agglutination
965. Cytochemically Rickettssia are reaction between.
a. Weak gram positive a. Antibody against Rickettsia and antigen
b. weak gram negative from Pseudomonas
c. Acid fast b. Antibody against Rickettsia and antigen
d. None from Staphylococci.
966. Corynebacteria can be characterized as c. Antibody against Rickettsia and antigen
a. Non motile, non sporing, aerobic, gram from Brucella.
positive bacilli d. Antibody against Rickettsia and antigen
b. Motile, non sporing, aerobic, Gram from Proteus.
positive bacilli 973. IMViC pattern of Salmonella is
c. Motile, sporing, aerobic, Gram positive a. + + - -
bacilli b. + - + -
d. Non motile, sporing, anaerobic, Gram c. - - + +
positive bacilli d. - + - +
967. The cells parasitized in host by Rickettsia 974. Virus having criss cross pattern on its
are surface is
a. Erythrocytes a. Contagious pustular dermatitis virus
b. Vascular endothelial cells b. Fowl pox virus
c. Neutrophills c. Adeno virus
d. Monocytes d. Parvo virus
968. Dimorphic fungi produces 975. Virus having cyclic DNA is
a.Mold type growth at 370 C a. Papova virus
b. Yeast type growth at 220 C b. Parvovirus
c. Mold type growth at 370 C and Yeast type c. Pestivirus
growth at 220 C. d. Poxvirus
d. Yeast type growth at 370 C.and mold type 976. Diploid genome is the characteristic of virus
growth at 220 C family
969. The organism present in high concentration a. Retroviridae
in pigeon droppings is b. Rhabdoviridae
a . Candida albicans c. Reoviridae

66
 d. None of these 983. Which of the following showing buoyant
977. Bovine viral diarrhea virus belongs to density of DNA, RNA and Protein is
family correct:
a. Togaviridae a. RNA>DNA>Protein
b. Reoviridae b. Protein>RNA>DNA
c. Herpes viridae c. DNA> RNA>Protein
d. Flaviviridae d. Protein>DNA>RNA
978. Which animal is not susceptible to vesicular 984. Intercalation of ethidium bromide (etBr) in
exanthema virus. DNA molecule will:
a. Pig a. Increase the buoyant density of DNA
b. Horse molecule
c. Cow b. Decreases the buoyant density of DNA
d. All of above molecule
979. Samples suspected for Pox virus are c. Does not affect the buoyant density of
inoculated in embryonated eggs by the route of DNA molecule
a. Allantoic cavity d. None of the above
b. Amniotic cavity
c. CAM 985. Exonucleases:
d. Yolk sac a. Removes nucleotides one at a time from
980. Bovine ephemeral fever virus belongs to the the end of DNA molecule
family b. Break internal phospho-diester bonds
a. Herpes viridae within DNA molecule
b. Rhabdoviridae c. Removes nucleotides only in 3‟-5‟
c. Reoviridae direction
d. Togaviridae d. Removes nucleotides only in 5‟-3‟
981. EDS-76 is direction
a. Herpes virus
b. Corona virus 986. Endonucleases:
c. Adenovirus a. Removes nt one at a time from the end
d. Poxvirus of DNA molecule
982. Paired serum samples means b. Break internal phospho-diester bonds
a. Serum sample collected at two different within DNA molecule
stages of a disease from an animal c. Removes nts only in 3‟-5‟ direction
b. From two different animals. d. Removes nts only in 5‟-3‟ direction
c. Samples divided in two aliquots. 987. The enzyme used to remove phosphate
d. Samples collected from two parents. group at the 5‟ end of DNA molecule is:
f. Newcastle disease virus infection in a. Alkaline phosphatase
human can cause b. Polynucleotide kinase
a. Generalized infection c. Terminal deoxytransferase
b. Contagious respiratory infection. d. Topoisomerase
c. Contgious conjunctivitis and mild 988. The enzyme used to add phosphate group at
influenza like symptoms the free 5‟ end of DNA molecule is:
d. Encephalitis a. Alkaline phosphatase
b. Polynucleotide kinase

67
 c. Terminal deoxytransferase d. None of the above
d. Topoisomerase 996. The non coding sequence within genes that
989. The enzyme that changes the conformation do not translate into protein is:
of covalently closed circular DNA by a. Intron
introducing of removing supercoils is: b. Exon
a. Alkaline phosphatase c. Transposons
b. Polynucleotide kinase d. None of the above
c. Terminal deoxytransferase 997. The coding sequence within genes that
d. Topoisomerase translate into protein is:
990. Eco RI produces: a. Intron
a. Blunt end b. Exon
b. Sticky end c. Transposons
c. Both d. None of the above
d. None 998. The process of modification of RNA after
991. The specific position on a DNA molecule transcription in which introns are removed
where DNA replication begins is called: and exons are joined is called:
a. Replication fork a. Splicing
b. Origin of replication b. Recombination
c. Start Point of replication c. Translocation
d. None of the above d. Assortment
992. An algorithm used to search homology is: 999. A relatively short fragments of DNA
a. BLAST synthesized on the lagging strand during
b. CLAST DNA replication is called:
c. PUBSCAN a. Primer
d. HOMOSCAN b. Okazaki fragment
993. The fact that not all codons are used equal c. Klenow fragment
frequency in the genes of a particular d. None of the above
organism is called: 1000. Which of the following is not a stop codon:
a. Codon preference a. AUG
b. Codon bias b. UAA
c. Codon choice c. UGA
d. None of the above d. UAG
994. A technique that can be used to construct a 1001. Which of the following is a start codon:
clone contig by identifying overlapping a. AUG
fragments of cloned DNA: b. GUG
a. Gene walking c. Both
b. Chromosome walking d. None
c. Clone fingerprinting
d. None of the above 1002. Which of the following is incorrect about
995. The ability of two different types of plasmid genetic code:
to co-exist in same cell is called: a. It is non overlapping
a. Competence b. It is redundant
b. Compatibility c. It is ambiguous
c. Interference d. None of the above

68