MCQs for FPSC: 11-09-2012

1. Depend upon feed diet animal are categorized into diff groups which is correct
a) Herbivores can photosynthesize
b) Bulk feeding can be given to herbivores, omnivores and carnivores
c) Some herbivores such as aphids can also meet feeders
d) Fluid intake in which some food particle are go through with fluid
2. Which of the following species infects primates?
a) Tt. suis
b) Dt. ovis
c) P. hominis
d) T. buttey
e) Tt. rotunda
3. Which of the following species does not inhabit the gastro-intestinal tract?
a) T. gallinae
b) T. anatis
c) Tt. equi
d) T. tenax
e) Dt. ovis
4. Which of the following species is transmitted sexually?
a) Tt. rotunda
b) T. gallinea
c) T. foetus
d) Pt. hominis
e) Dt. ovis
5. Which of the following drugs is effective against Trichomonas vaginalis?
a) Penicillin
b) Streptomycin
c) Metronidazol
d) Pentamidine
e) Chloroquine
6. Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins is important in immunity to T. vaginalis?
a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IgE
d) IgM
e) All classes
7. How long after conception does Tritrichomonas foetus cause abortions in cattle?
a) One week
b) 2-3 weeks
c) 2-3 months
d) 4-6 months
e) After 6 months
8. Tritrichomonas foetus infections in cows usually self-heal within?
a) One week
b) 2 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 2 months
 e) 3 months
9. Trichomonads are members of which phylum of protozoa?
a) Sarcomastigophora
b) Apicomplexa
c) Cilliophora
d) Microspora
e) Acetospora
10. Trichomonas gallinae is transmitted by which of the following routes?
a) Sexually
b) Oral-faecal
c) Oral
d) Aerosol
e) Direct contact
11. How long after infection with Trichomonas vaginalis do clinical symptoms begin?
a) <24 hours
b) 1-5 days
c) 5-10 days
d) 1-4 weeks
e) More than a month
12. A goat is presented with corneal opacity, lacrimation, blephrospasm, unilateral deviation of head. Your
diagnosis is:
a) Listeriosis
b) MCF
c) PPR
d) Infectious kerato-conjunctivitis
13. A calf is presented with myocarditis (tiger heart) and also gastritis. Your Dx is
a) FMD
b) MCF
c) Paratuberculosis
d) Jhones disease
14. Disease showing high fever, 90-98% mortality, focal erosive lesion on alimentary tract in sheep, goat,
camel, cattle and buff:
a) FMD
b) MCF
c) Cattle plaque
d) Paratuberculosis
15. In Monday morning urine colour is brown due to:
a) Hburia
b) Hematuria
c) Proteinuria
d) Myoglobinuria
16. Which is not clinical sign of babesia?
a) Hematuria
b) Lymhadenopathy
c) Anemia
d) Jaundice
17. PCV is an indication of:
a) Degree of anemia
 b) Degree of dehydration

18. High lysine content in:

a) Rice
b) Wheat
c) Oat
d) Corn
19. Decarboxylation of L- Histidine gives in acute phase protein:
a) Leukotrien
b) Bradykinin
c) Serotonin
d) Histamine
20. Increased size with increased functional capacity
a) Atrophy
b) Aplasia
c) Hypertrophy
d) Hyperplasia
21. Movement of inflammatory cell toward chemical gradient:
a) Chemotaxis
b) Migration
c) Migration
d) Translation
22. Which type of cell present in chronic inflammation?
a) Neutrophil
b) Eiosinophil
c) Lymphocyte
d) Enterocyte
23. Main factor for cancerous growth is?
a) T cell
b) Angiogenesis
c) B cell
d) Monocyte
24. Anthrax caused by
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Cl. Chauvei
c) Cl.nouvei
d) Bacillus subtelis
25. Brucellosis is transmitted mainly via
a) Venereal
b) Ingestion
c) Placenta
d) Ingesta
26. Brucella ovis causes lesion in rams
a) Seminal vasiculitis
b) Orchitis
c) Epidydmitis
d) Blanoposthitis
27. In Brachyganthia effect on mandible is
a) Mandible is short
 b) M is long
c) M not affected
d) M becomes pointed
28. Newly born pup is effected with fatal glossopharyngeal abnormality cannot suck bitch teats
a) Hard tongue
b) Smooth tongue
c) Web shape tongue
d) Pointed tongue (bird tongue)
29. Following aseptic surgery wound infection may occurs due to
a) Patient’s skin
b) Gloves
c) Instruments
d) Nasopharynx
30. Brucellosis is zoonotic disease spread through
a) Unpasteurized milk
b) Handling of milk
31. Best germ theory was described by:
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Koch postulates
c) Ewan’s postulates
d) Lister
32. First bacteria was described by:
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Robert Hook
c) Robert Brown
d) Levan Hook
33. IBD is susceptible at which age?
a) Up to six weeks
b) At production
c) At any age
d) 8- 16 week
34. The specific lesion of ILT
a) Res rales
b) Bloody mucus discharge from nostrils
35. Highly spreading disease at farm level
a) IB
b) ILT
c) Mycoplasma gallisepticum
36. Avian encephalomyelitis susceptible at which age
a) Upto 1 week
b) 1-4 week
c) 3-4 week
d) At any age
37. AI virus has segments
a) 2
b) 16
c) 32
d) 8
38. Toxoplasma gondi is
a) Mucus secretion
b) Fecal secretion of canids
c) Oocyst resemble with isospora
d) It causes enteritis of macrovillous
39. Food promotes
a) Health
b) Formation of large molecule
c) Gives those nutrients which not synthesize in body
d) Breakdown of macromolecules in macromolecules
40. Vitamin C and biotin act as
a) Cofactor
b) Coenzyme
c) Enzyme
41. Vitamin C is essential for human diet but not essential in Rabbit due to

a) Human produce vitamin C

b) Rabbit does not produce
c) Rabbit intestinal microflora produces vitamin C

42. Accumulation of fluid out of cells or interstitial is

a) Inflammation
b) Edema
c) Ascities
d) Emphysema
43. Accumulation of gas in ruminants due to
a) Gastritis
b) Bloat
c) Torsion
d) Choking
44. Pigment present in epidermal cell and also in retina of eyes
a) Lipofuscin
b) Haemosidderin
c) Melanin
d) Bilirubin
45. IB at young ages
a) Acute
b) Subacute
c) Peracute
d) Chronic
46. Adaptive immunity comes from
a) T cell
b) B cell
c) Neutrophil
d) Lymphocytes
47. Ruminant bile colour is
a) Green
b) Golden yellow
c) Blue
 d) Red
48. Ruminal degradable protein content high for
a) Soybean meal
b) Fish meal
c) Ground nut cake
d) Coconut cake
49. Leg mange is caused by
a) Sarcoptic mange
b) Demodictic mange
c) Chorioptic mange
d) None
50. East coast fever is caused by
a) T. herci
b) T.parva
c) T.congolense
d) T.mutans
51. Theleria is transmitted by
a) Ixodes
b) Recephallus
c) Hyaloma
52. Detached thrombus is in vessels is known as
a) Thromboembolism
b) Embolus
53. In Monday morning disease Pyruvic acid is converted into
a) Lactic acid
b) Pyruvic acid
c) Formic acid
54. Hypovolumic shock may occur in blood loss
a) upto 10%
b) 20-40%
c) 50-60%
d) 80%
55. Class III hemorrhage occurs when blood loss
a) Less than 10%
b) 20-40%
c) 60%
d) More than 80%
56. In well manage dairy farm after 60 days of parturition how much animals should be in heat
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 100%
57. Ammonia and VFAs are more produced in
a) Sheep
b) Goat
c) Buff
d) Cattle
58. Urea is not added in feed when CP is more than
 a) 8%
b) 13%
c) 18%
d) 25%
59. Protozoa lacks
a) Smooth muscle fibers
b) Nucleus
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Mitochondria
60. Linear DNA is present in
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Algae
d) Protozoa
61. Fatty change affects mostly
a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Nucleolus
d) ER
62. Carbohydrate is sole precursor of energy in
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Brain
c) Kidney
d) Heart
63. Heat stroke or hyperthermia least contributing factor is
a) Fatty animal with heavy coat
b) Dehydration
c) Overcrowding with poor ventilation
d) Irradiation of head by sunlight
64. Cooked brain appearance with nutrient broth smell is
a) Glanders
b) Strangles
c) Paratuberculosis
d) BVD
65. Pregnant animal shows
a) Extra maternal cruncles
b) Foetal Membrane Slip Test
c) Middle uterine artery (fremitus)
d) Ipsilateral CL with Amniotic vesicle
66. Which one is not parasite of Ruminant?
a) Emirea bovis
b) Histomonas melegradis
c) Emirea zurrugi
d) Isospora
67. 1 Kcal is the heat that raises 1celsius of …….. water?
a) Gallon
b) Litter
c) Pound
1. Which of the following has no significant effect on changing gene frequency in large breeding
population?
a) Selection c) Random genetic drift
b) Muation d) Migration
2. Reduction of breeding value of a population when performing in environment other than those in which
were selected is termed as?
a) Genetic slippage c) Genetic equilibrium
b) Genetic drift d) Genetic death
3. The differences in reciprocal crosses in F1 generation could be due to?
a) Maternal effect c) Sex-linked inheritance
b) Cytoplasmic inheritance d) All above
4. The frequency of a recessive allele is 0.40 in a large random mating population. What is the frequency of
heterozygote?
a) 0.42 c) 0.60
b) 0.48 d) 0.24
5. Y –chromosomes of Bos indicus are usually
a) Small and acrocentric c) Metacentric
b) Small and sumetacentric d) None of the above
6. MHC gene in cattle and buffaloes is associated with
a) Fertility c) Milk proteins
b) Immunity d) All above
7. SRY gene is associated with
a) Fecundity c) Sex determination
b) Milk lactose d) All above
8. Genetic slippage term was coined by
a) J. L. Lush c) L. N. Hazel
b) G. E. Dickerson d) A. Robertson
9. The author of the book “Linear Models” is
a) S. R. Searle c) J. B. S. Hadane
b) J. L. Lush d) Alan Robertson
10. The chromosome number in Riverine x Swamp crossbred buffaloes is
a) 48 c) 50
b) 49 d) 52
1. The diploid chromosomal count of horse is:
a) 54 c) 64
b) 72 d) 50
2. R banding is:
a) Same as G banding c) Same as C banding
b) Reverse of G banding d) None of the above
3. Swamp buffalo has a diploid count of:
a) 64 Chromosomes c) 48 Chromosomes
b) 52 Chromosomes d) 60 Chromosomes
4. Down syndrome is trisomy:
 c) YO
a) 18
b) 13 d) 21
5. In swamp buffalo there is a fusion of chromosome:
a) 5 and 13 c) 4 and 10
b) 4and 12 d) none of the above
6. When organisms of dominant phenotype but unknown genotype are crossed with recessive individuals it
is called:
a) Up grading c) Test crossing
b) Back crossing d) Reciprocal crossing
7. Colchicine in cell cultures added because it:
a) Stops the growth of bacteria c) Acts as spindle poison
b) Maintains the temprature RNA ligase d) Helps in nutrition
8. Patau syndrome is:
a) Trisomy 13 c) Trisomy 8
b) Trisomy 18 d) Trisomy 21
9. T2 Bactriophage attaches to bacterial cell by:
a) Neck c) Tail
b) Back d) Head
10. The difference in Y chromosome of Bos indicus and Bos taurus a result of :
a) Translocation c) Endoreduplication
b) Inversion d) Pulvertzation