EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF HEALTH SCIENCES/UNZA

FINAL EXAMINATIONS FOR DIPLOMA IN ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES

FOR
ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH TECHNOLOGISTS

MIZ 332: MEAT INSPECTION AND ZOONOSIS III

DATE: 5 JUNE, 2015

TIME: 9:00 – 12:00 HOURS

Candidate’s Examination Number: …………………………………………………………………………………………………

Candidate’s NRC N umber: ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Examination Centre:……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Check that you have the correct examination paper in front of you.
2. There are FOUR (4) sections in this paper, ONE, TWO, THREE and FOUR
3. Read the instructions very carefully in each section before attempting to answer.
4. All questions must be answered on the examination answer booklet provided only.
5. Write down the number of the questions that you have answered on the cover of the examination answer
booklet.
6. No books, files or mechanical aids are permitted in the examination room.
7. There are shall be no form of communication between students during the examination. Any student
caught doing this will be disqualified

CELLPHONES & PROGRAMMABLE CALCULATORS ARE NOT ALLOWED IN THE EXAMINATION ROOM

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR
SECTION ONE: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
 There are fourty (40) questions in this section.
 Answer ALL questions in this section
 Write the best answer of your choice in the examination answer booklet provided
(Total marks = 40)

1. To which species of animals does the definitive host of Echinococcus granulosus belong
a) Canine
b) Feline
c) Equine
d) Porcine

2. What term is used to describe the larvae that hatches from an embryonated egg of a cestode
a) Metacercaria
b) Oncosphere
c) Proglottid
d) Cercaria

3. Which one is an intermediate host for Taenia pisiformis

a) Goat
b) Sheep
c) Cattle
d) Rabbit

4. One of the condition below is caused by Pasteurella pseudotuberculosis

a) Yersiniosis
b) Anaplasmosis
c) Cowdriosis
d) Bovine paratuberculosis

5. In which species of animals does Mycoplasma conjuntivae causes infectious keratoconjunctivitis

a) Bovine
b) Ovine
c) Caprine
d) Canine

6. Which one of the following condition is of occupational health importance for meat inspectors, farmers and
butchers?
a) African swine fever
b) Malignant oedema
c) Brucellosis
d) Tuberculosis

7. Which one of the conditions below is manifested by interstitial nephritis, anaemia, mastitis and abortion in
most species
a) Leptospirosis
b) Rabies
c) Listeriosis
d) Brucellosis
8. Abortion may occur in pregnant female animals presenting with….
a) Leptospirosis
b) Listeriosis
c) Brucellosis
d) All the above

9. Which one of the following parasites is found in blood plasma, various body tissues and fluid
a) Anaplasma species
b) Glossina species
c) Trypanosoma species
d) Babesia species

10. Malignant catarrhal of ovine is caused by one of the following

a) Virus
b) Bacteria
c) Fungal
d) Rickettsia

11. Which one of the following liver flukes live in the bile ducts of ruminants and other animals?
a) F. gigantica
b) F. hepatica
c) F. magna
d) None of the above

12. Which of the following is an infective stage in life cycle of liver flukes
a) Miracidae
b) Rediae
c) Metacercaria
d) Sporocysts

13. Cysticercus bovis is the larval stage of one of the following

a) Taenia saginata
b) Taenia solium
c) Babesia bigemina
d) All the above

14. One of the following is the Infective stage in porcine taeniosis

a) Cysticercus bovis
b) Cysticercus cellulose
c) Taenia solium
d) Taenia saginata

15. Which of the following conditions present with cutaneous diamond shaped skin lesions
a) Swine erysipelas
b) African swine fever
c) Contact dermatitis
 d) All the above

16. Which of the following conditions is also referred to as Corridor disease

a) Babesiosis
b) Anaplasmosis
c) Theileriosis
d) Cowdriosis

17. A disease of ruminants characterized by lameness, muzzle vesicles and drooling is..
a) ASF
b) BVD
c) Salmonellosis
d) FMD

18. Multi focal white fibrous lesions on pig liver is normally associated with which condition below
a) Taeniosis
b) Ascariasis
c) Ascaris suum
d) Ancylostomosis

19. Which of the following conditions in pigs present with blotchy rash in unpigmented skin, Vesicles on the
snout and in the mouth, walking on knees and lameness.
a) Swine vesicular disease
b) Vesicular exanthema
c) Swine erysipelas
d) Swine fever

20. In which condition would you find portion of large intestine and rectum haemorrhagic showing “tiger
stripping” of longitudinal folds and edematous lymph nodes
a) BVD
b) Rinderpest
c) Gastroenteritis
d) Colitis

21. Which one of the following is a soil borne disease

a) Tetanus
b) Salmonellosis
c) Dermatophytosis
d) Orf

22. Blue tongue in sheep is also referred to as

a) Sore muzzle disease
b) Sore tongue disease
c) Sore nose disease
d) None of the above
23. Pyrexia, Salivation and difficulties in swallowing, edematous swelling of throat, dewlap, brisket and
peritoneum are antemortem findings for which condition
a) Septicaemia
b) Haemorrhagic septicaemia
c) Tetanus
d) Salmonellosis

24. One of the following diseases typically presents with “bottle jaw”
a) Johne’s disease
b) Tuberculosis
c) Leptospirosis
d) Bacteraemia

25. Which of the following conditions is also called tetanus

a) Stiff masseter
b) Lumpy jaw
c) Lock jaw
d) Wooden tongue

26. Muscular tissue crepitation is the pathognomonic gross postmortem lesion associated with
a) Black quarter
b) Haemorrhagic septicaemia
c) Botulism
d) All the above

27. Which one of the following disease is also referred to as “Hardware disease”
a) Actinobacillosis
b) Traumatic reticulopericarditis
c) Endocarditis
d) Malignant oedema

28. A contagious disease of bovine characterized by abortion in late pregnancy and a high rate of infertility is
caused by…
a) Brucella melitensis
b) Brucella ovis
c) Brucella abortus
d) Babesia bigemina

29. Which condition presents is caused by bacterium Clostridium novyi and association with recent immature
fluke invasion of the liver.
a) Brucellosis
b) Hepatitis B
c) Fasciolasis
d) Black disease

30. Pasteurella multocida is the causative organism for one of the following
a) Botulism
b) Haemorrhagic septicaemia
c) Black quarter
 d) Black disease

31. Grit cutting consistency through the lymph nodes is characteristic of…
a) Tuberculosis
b) Brucellosis
c) Granulomatosis
d) Neutrophilia

32. In which condition does the animal presents with sternal recumbency and progressive muscular paralysis
a) Vesicular exanthema
b) Rabies
c) Botulism
d) Milk fever

33. Circling disease may be caused by one of the following organisms

a) Cowdria ruminantum
b) Bordetella pertussis
c) Listeria monocytogenes
d) Clostridium botulinum

34. Coughing on exercise, shallow rapid respiration, grunting and gurgling, extended neck, lowered head and
open mouth, arched back and outward rotated elbow are ante-mortem finding indicating
a) TRP
b) CBPP
c) Bronchitis
d) Laryngitis

35. One of the conditions below presents with rapid loss of body condition and fetid smelling watery diarrhea
a) Leptospirosis
b) Yersiniosis
c) Salmonellosis
d) Cryptosporidiosis

36. Queensland fever is caused by one of the following organism…

a) Rickettsia
b) Amblyoma
c) Coxiella burnetii
d) Babesia bigermina

37. Which of the following organisms has a predilection for muscles of the diaphragm
a) Trichinosis
b) Rabies
c) Stilesia hepatica
d) Paramphistomosis

38. Which one of the conditions below presents with foul putrid odour, dark-red muscle tissue with little or no
gas, as well as subcutaneous edema in the throat region.
 a) Calf diphtheria
b) Malignant oedema
c) Botryomycosis
d) Anaplasmosis

39. In which condition would you find hydropericardium

a) Trypanosomiasis
b) Babesiosis
c) Cowdriosis
d) Theileriosis

40. Which condition presenting with osteomyelitis affecting mostly bones of the lower jaw and shows
thickened and enlarged bones and on cross section has a honey comb appearance.
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Lumpy jaw
c) Osteomycosis
d) All the above

20. Myocardial lipofuscinosis is also known as:

A) Lymphoma B) Brown atrophy of the heart C) Icterus D) Septicaemia

21. Which breeds of cattle are normally associated with yellowish colorations of muscles which is a differential
diagnosis of jaundice
A) Fresians and borans B) Jersey and Guernsey C) Hereford D) Brahmans

22. Which of the following is an exogenous pigment;

A) Melanosis B) Anthracosis C) Lipofuscin D) Pink tooth

23. Appearance of small air bubbles due to air trapped in dilated alveoli of cattle is called;
A) Emphysema B) hematoma C) Alveolar emphysema D) none of the above
24. The presence of salmonella organisms in blood is called; A) septicemia B) Salmonellamia
C) Toxaemia D) none of the preceding answers

25. A change in the normal appearance of a lymph node can be attributed to; A) An infection in the drainage area or
local infection of the lymph node B) An infection in the drainage area
C) Local infection of the lymph node D) An infection outside the drainage area

26. What parasite is associated with measly pork?

A) Cysticercus bovis C) Taenia saginata B) Taenia solium D) None of the preceding answers

27. The most commonly involved organ in Hydatid Disease is the

A) liver C) kidney B) lungs D) brain

28. Which zoonotic is contracted by eating insufficiently cooked meat?

A) Trichinosis B) Anthrax C) Brucellosis D) Tuberculosis
29. During postmortem examination of a bovine carcass, you observe the following signs; Jaundiced carcass,
distended gall bladder containing thick, brown or yellow bile and marked splenomegally. Name the disease you
would be suspecting.
A) Anaplasmosis B) Babesiosis C) Cowdriosis D) Trypanosomiasis
30. The life cycle of Sarcocystis hirsuta involve----------as intermediate hosts.
A) Cats B) Dog, coyote, red fox aand racoon C) Dogs and Cats D) None of the above
31. Tapeworms are in which category of organisms involved in animal infection and disease?
A) ectoparasit B) Nematodes C) helminth D) protozoa
32. The term used to describe the speed and intensity with which a pathogen is likely to cause an infection is.
A) immunity B) susceptibility C)vector D)virulence
33. The principle lymph nodes of the carcass include;
A) Prescapular, Popliteal, Precrural and inguinal B)Prescapular and popliteal C) Prescapular, Precrural and
Popliteal D) Inguinal, Prescapular and Ischeatic
34. Emergency slaughter is usually done in order to;
A) Save the life of the animal B) Salvage the meat C) Reduce cross infection in the lairage D) None of the above
35. Which of the following conditions may lead to emergency slaughter;
A) Injuries, Milk fever, Bruises and anthrax B) Rabies, bruises and injuries C) Milk fever, bruises and injuries D)
Toxaemia, injuries, suffocation and poorness.
36. Fomites are;
A) Arthropod vectors B) inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens C) dried mucus harboring pathogens D)
arthropod vectors that parasitize rodent reservoirs of disease
37. A disease in pigs characterized by diamond skin lesions is called;
A) Swine fever B) Anthrax C) Swine erysipelas D) FMD
38. Which zoonotic disease is associated with undulant fever in man?
A) Trichnellosis B) Brucellosis C) Anthrax D) Tuberculosis
39. Which ones are intermediate hosts of Taenia solium;
A) Man and dogs B) Man and pigs C) Dogs and cats D) None of the preceding answers
40. Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system;
A) Immunity B) Transport of some nutrients C) Movement of damaged erythrocytes to the spleen D) Draining of
excess interstitial fluid

SECTION B: TRUE OR FALSE QUESTIONS

 There are ten (10) questions in this section.
 Answer ALL questions in this section
 Each question carries one (1) mark
 Indicate the best answer of your choice either TRUE or FALSE in the answer booklet
(Total marks = 10 marks)

1. Trichinosis is a cestode infection

a) True
b) False

2. Necrosis may be defined as programmed cell/tissue death.

a) True
b) False

3. Vesicular stomatitis, vesicular exanthema and swine erysipelas are differential diagnoses for FMD
a) True
b) False

4. Leptospirosis is a zoonotic condition

a) True
b) False

5. The causative organism for Actinomycosis is actinomyces lignieresi

a) True
b) False

6. Anaemia and icterus may also be postmortem findings associated with fascioliasis
a) True
b) False

7. Stilesia hepatica is a tape worm which occurs in the bile duct of rabbits, goats and wild ruminants.
a) True
b) False

8. Gall sickness is caused by mycoplasma species

a) True
b) False

9. Anaplasmosis is a haemoparasitic condition

a) True
b) False

10. Cysticercosis is a trematode parasitic infection

a) True
 b) False

SECTION THREE: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

 There are six (6) questions in this section
 Answer all questions in this section
 Each question carries 5 marks each
(Total marks = 30)

1. As an inspector briefly discuss how you would treat carcass presenting with each of the following
a) Emaciation
b) Mild icterus
c) Carotenoid and icterus
d) Poorness
2. What are the negative effects of hypostasis and congestion in the carcass?
3. Briefly explain how the condition presenting with an enlarged heart as well as cauliflower-like lesions on
tricuspid valve comes about. pelicaditis
4. Briefly explain the public health importance of porcine cysticercosis.
5. State differential diagnosis for circling in bovine
6. Classify Zoonotic conditions of meat origin and give appropriate examples
1. Identify lesions in the following diseses giving judgement in each case;
A) African swine fever (5 marks)
B) Contagious bovine pleurapneumonia (5 marks)
C) Cowdriosis (5 marks)
D) Black leg (5 marks)
2. Compare and contrast the following
A) Emaciation and poorness (5 marks)
1. B) Ante mortem signs of tuberculosis and johne’s disease (5 marks)

SECTION FOUR: ESSAY QUESTIONS

 There are FOUR (4) questions in this section.
 Answer two (2) questions only from this section
 Each question carries 10 marks
(Total marks = 20)
 1. Discus the condition in pigs and bovine which presents with tarry blood, absence of rigor mortis, wide
spread haemorrhages, enlarged spleen, severe haemorrhagic enteritis, degeneration of the liver and kidneys.

2. Name and discuss the viral condition in porcine which would present with the following postmortem
findings: blotchy skin cyanosis and haemorrhage, Enlarged spleen, Petechial haemorrhage on the kidneys,
Enlarged and haemorrhagic gastrohepatic and renal lymph nodes, haemorrhage in the heart, Hydrothorax,
hydropericardium and ascites as well as haemorrhage of the serous membranes.

3. Discuss Cysticercosis of Porcine: Incidence, Life cycle, Meat inspection, Public health significance and
Control measures.
4. Tabulate the categories of helminthic parasites of importance in meat inspection in Zambia, giving one
examples of each category given, stating one specific disease caused by each parasite named and two
significant postmortem findings for each pathology stated.
1. A. Discuss in details how you would go about handling the case of a dead animal found in the liarage.
(16 marks)
B. Mention four conditions that you would be suspecting for the above mentioned case.
(4 marks)
2. During your routine post-mortem inspection of a porcine carcass, you discover the following lesions; Cysts in the
heart, diaphragm, tongue, neck, shoulder, intercoastal and abdominal muscles.
A.Name the disease that you are suspecting (3 marks)
B.Describe the life cycle of a named disease in (A) (12 marks)
C. discuss it public health importance (3 marks)
D.What could be your judgement. (2 marks)
3. A. Briefly describe how the prevention of transmitting Foot and Mouth Disease from one place to another can be
achieved. (6 marks)
B. Discuss the importance of carrying out meat inspection (6 marks)
C. Mention 8 measures that one would put in place in order to reduce stress and injuries in food animals
during transportation