MyTutor247 Presents

75 Days Ultimate Crash Course

JEE 2020 New Pattern

(20 October 2019 – 1 January 2020)

1. 200 hrs of Live Classes with Interactive Pdf Notes of IITians and Quizzes.
2. 5 Part and 5 Full Test Based on Latest Pattern (Includes Numerical type).

Unlimited Doubt Solving + Mentoring One to One.

Buy Now: https://rzp.io/i/KgAUU12

1
Live Class Schedule:
1.We will go from Basic to advance.
2.Focus More on Important Chapters.

Date Physics ChemistryMath

20 oct. Vector Mole Concept
Logarithm
21 oct. NPC+MCQ – NPC+MCQ –
NPC-
Vector Mole Concept
Logarithm
22 oct. Kinematics 1 D Str. Of Atom
Sets and
Relation
23 oct. NPC + MCQ – NPC+MCQ – NPC+MCQ on
Kinematics 1D Structure of Atom Set and
Relation
24 oct. Kinematics 2d States of Matter Function
25 oct. NPC+ MCQ – NPC+MCQ – NPC+MCQ –
Kinematics States of matter Sets, relation
(2D) and Function
26 oct. Newton laws of Thermodynamics Trigonometric
Motion (1) -1 Function
27 oct. PART TEST 1
28 oct. Friction Thermodynamics Trigonometric
-2 Ratios
29 oct. NPC+MCQ NPC+MCQ

2
 (NLM + (Trig. Fun
Friction) +ratios)
30 oct. Work, Energy Thermochemistry- Trigonometric
and Power Equation
31 oct. Circular Quadratic
Motion equation
1 Nov. NPC+MCQ NPC+MCQ- NPC+MCQ
(WPE and Thermodynamics (Trig Equation
Circular) Thermochemistry +Qu.Equation)
2 Nov. Centre of Mass Complex
Number-1
3 Nov. Rotational Complex
Motion (1) Number -2
4 Nov. Rotational Redox Reaction -1 NPC+MCQ
Motion (2) (Complex
Number)

Date Physics Chemistry Math

3
5 Nov. NPC + MCQ Redox reaction Binomial
(COM Live Quiz Theorem
+Rotational
Motion)
6 Nov. Gravitation + Chemical NPC + MCQ-
Quiz Equilibrium Binomial
Theorem
7 Nov. Fluid Mechanics Ionic Sequence and
(1) Equilibrium Series -1
8 Nov. Fluid Mechanics NPC + MCQ- Sequence and
(2) Equilibrium Series -2
9 Nov. Simple Harmonic Hydrogen -1 NPC + MCQ-
Motion Sequence and
series
10 PART TEST 2
Nov.
11Nov. NPC + MCQ Co-ordinate
(SHM + Fluid) Geometry
12 Nov Thermal Hydrogen -2 Straight Line
Expansion (1)
13 Thermal S – Block 1 NPC + MCQ-
Nov. Expansion (2) Coordinate
+Straight Line

4
14 Calorimetry DPP Solving Circle -1
Nov.
15 Kinetic theory of S – Block 1 Circle-2
Nov. Gases
16 Thermodynamics GOC -1 NPC + MCQ-
Nov. (1) Circle
17 Thermodynamics DPP Solving Parabola-1
Nov. (2)
18 NPC + MCQ - GOC -2 Parabola-2
Nov. HEAT and
Thermo-1
19 NPC + MCQ - DPP Solving NPC + MCQ-
Nov. HEAT and Parabola
Thermo-2
20 Waves and GOC -3 Ellipse
Nov. Sound (1)
21Nov. Waves and sound DPP Solving Hyperbola
(2)
22 NPC+MCQ – GOC -4 NPC + MCQ-
Nov. waves and Ellipse+parabola
Sounds
23 HOLIDAY HOLIDAY HOLIDAY
Nov.

5
24 Electrostatics-1 Solid State Relation &
Nov. Function
25 Electrostatics-2 NPC+MCQ- NPC+MCQ -
Nov. Solid State Relation &
function
26 NPC+MCQ - Solutions Matrices
Nov. Electrostatic
27 Capacitor-1 NPC+MCQ- Determinants
Nov. Solutions
28 Capacitor-2 Electrochemistry NPC+MCQ –
Nov. matrices and
Determinants
29 NPC+MCQ – NPC+MCQ- AOD and
Nov. Capacitor Electrochemistry Continuity-1
30 Holiday Holiday Holiday
Nov.
1 Dec. Current Chemical AOD and
Electricity-1 Kinetics Continuity-2
2 Dec. Current NPC+MCQ- NPC+MCQ –
Electricity-2 Chemical AOD and
Kinetics Continuity
3 Dec. NPC+MCQ – Surface Indefinite
Current Chemistry Integration-1

6
 Electricity

4 Dec. Magnetism and P-Block with Indefinite

matter -1 Quiz -1 Integration-2
5 Dec. Magnetism and P-Block with NPC+MCQ-
matter -2 Quiz -2 Indefinite
Integration
6 Dec. NPC+MCQ – P-Block with Definite
Magn. And Quiz -3 Integration -1
matter
7 Dec. EMI And AC -1 D-Block with Definite
Quiz -1 Integration -2
8 Dec. HOLIDAY HOLIDAY HOLIDAY
9 Dec. EMI and AC -2 D-Block with NPC+MCQ-
Quiz -2 Definite
Integration
10 NPC+MCQ – F block with Application of
Dec. EMI and AC Quiz Integrals
11 Optics -1 Haloalkanes and NPC+MCQ-
Dec. haloarenes-1 Application of
Integrals
12 Optics-2 Haloalkanes and Differential
Dec. haloarenes-2 Equation-1
13 Optics-3 Alcohols with Differential
7
Dec. Quiz Equation-2
14 NPC+MCQ – Phenols with NPC+MCQ-
Dec. OPTICS Quiz Differential
Equation
15 Modern Physics - Ether with Quiz Vector Algebra
Dec. 1
16 Modern Physics - Aldehydes with NPC+MCQ-
Dec. 2 Quiz Vector Algebra
17 Modern Physics - Ketones with 3D – Geometry-
Dec. 3 Quiz 1
18 Modern Physics - Carb. Acid with 3D – Geometry-
Dec. 4 Quiz 2
19 NPC+MCQ –1 Amines -1 NPC+MCQ –1
Dec. Modern Physics 3D Geometry
20 NPC+MCQ –2 Amines -2 NPC+MCQ –2
Dec. Modern Physics 3D Geometry
21 Semiconductor Biomolecules Probability-1
Dec.
22 Communication Polymer Probability-2
Dec. System
23 NPC+MCQ –1 NPC+MCQ-
Dec. Semiconductor Probability
and

8
 Communication
24 NPC+MCQ –2 Mathematical
Dec. Semiconductor Reasoning
and
Communication

25 Dec 2019 - 1 JAN 2020

Full Test – Complete Syllabus with 25

MCQs and 5 Numerical Based Question.

9
 UNIT, DIMENSION & ERROR
1. A force F is given by F = at + bt 2, where t is time. The dimension of a and b are
(1) [M L T–3] and [M L T–4] (2) [M L T–4] and [M L T–3]
–1 –2
(3) [M L T ] and [M L T ] (4) [M L T–2] and [M L T0]

2. If the energy E = Gp hq cr where G is the universal gravitational constant, h is the Planck's

constant and c is the velocity of light, then the values of p, q and r are, respectively
(1) –1/2 , 1/2 and 5/2 (2) 1/2, –1/2 and –5/2
(3) –1/2, 1/2 and 3/2 (4) 1/2, 1/2 and – 3/2

3. Which of the following pairs does not have similar dimensions?

(1) Tension and surface tension (2) Stress and pressure
(3) Plank's constant and angular momentum (4) Angle and strain

4. Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and current (1) as fundamental quantities, the dimensions
of permeability are :
(1) [M–1LT–2A] (2) [ML–2T–2A–1] (3) [MLT–2A–2] (4) [MLT–1A–1]

5. The equation of state of some gases can be expressed as

 a 
 P + 2  (V − b) = RT , where P is the pressure, V is the volume, T is the absolute temperature
 V 
and a, b & R are constants. The dimensions of 'a' are
(1) [ML5 T–2] (2) [M L–1 T–2] (3) [L3] (4) [L6]

6. Which of the following does not have the same unit as others
(1) watt-sec (2) kilowatt-hour (3) eV (4) J-sec

7. 'Parsec' is the unit of –

(1) time (2) distance (3) frequenc (4) angular acceleration

10
8. The ratio of the dimension of Planck's constant and that of the moment of inertia is the
dimension of :-
(1) Velocity (2) Angular momentum (3) Time (4) Frequency
b
9. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + , where a, b and c are constants.
t+c
The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively :-
(1) LT–2, L and T (2) L2, T and LT2 (3) LT2, LT and L (4) L, LT and T2

10. Dimension of electrical resistance is :–

(1) [ML2 T–3 A–1] (2) [ML2 T–3 A–2] (3) ML3 T–3 A–2 (4) [ML–1 L3 T3 A2]

11. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions ?
(a) energy density (b) refractive index (c) dielectric constant
(d) Young's modulus (e) magnetic field
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (e) (3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (e)
1
12. The dimension of 0 E2 , where 0 is permittivity of free space and E is electric field, is :-
2
(1) [MLT–1] (2) [ML2T–2] (3) [ML–1T–2] (4) [ML2T–1]
1
−
13. The dimensions of ( 0 0 ) 2 are :-
1 1 1 1
− −
(1) [ L2 T 2 ] (2) [L–1T] (3) [LT–1] (4) [ L 2 T 2 ]

14. The Bernoulli's equation is given by

1
p + v2 + hg = k
2
Where p = pressure,  = density, v = speed, h = height of the liquid column, g = acceleration
due to gravity and k is constant. The dimensional formula for k is same as that for :
(1) Velocity gradient (2) Pressure gradient (3) Modulus of elasticity (4) Thrust

15. When a wave travells in a medium, the displacement of a particle located at distance x at time
t is given by y = a sin (bt – cx) where a, b and c are constants of the wave. The dimension of
b/c are same as that of :
(1) wave velocity (2) wave length (3) wave amplitude (4) wave frequency

16. The dimensional formula of wave number is

(1) M°L°T–1 (2) M–1L–1T° (3) M°L–1T° (4) M°L°T°

17. Which of the following is incorrect

(1) All derived quantities may be represented dimensionally in terms of the base quantities
(2) A base quantity cannot be represented dimensionally in terms of other base quantities
(3) The dimension of a derived quantity is never zero in any base quantity
(4) The dimension of a base quantity in other base quantities is always zero.

18. The fundamental unit which has same power in the dimensional formula of surface tension
and viscosity is
(1) Mass (2) Length (3) Time (4) None

19. The ratio of one micron to one nanometre is

(1) 103 (2) 10–3 (3) 10–6 (4) 10–1

11
 x 
20. The equation of a wave is given by Y = A sin   − k  where  is the angular velocity and  is
v 
the linear velocity. The dimension of k is
(1) LT (2) T (3) T–1 (4) T2

21. The time dependence of a physical quantity P is given by P = P0 exp (–  t2), where  is a
constant and t is time. The constant a
(1) dimensionless (2) has dimensions T–2
(3) has dimensions of P (4) has dimensions T2

22. Density of wood is 0.5 gm/ cc in the CGS system of units. The corresponding value in MKS
units is
(1) 500 (2) 5 (3) 0.5 (4) 5000

23. In a particular system the units of length mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1
s respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equal to
(1) 0.1 N (2) 1 N (3) 10 N (4) 100 N
24. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
(Item) (Units of length)
A. Distance between earth and stars 1. Micron
B. Inter atomic distance in a solid 2. Angstrom
C. Size of nucleus 3. Light year
D. Wavelength of Infrared Laser 4. Fermi
5. Kilometre
Codes A B C D
(1) 5 4 2 1
(2) 3 2 4 1
(3) 5 2 4 3
(4) 3 4 1 2

25. Which of the following is smallest unit

(1) Milimetre (2) Angstrom (3) Fermi (4) Metre

26. Which relation is wrong

(1) 1 Calorie = 4.18 Joules (2) 1 Å = 10–10 m
(3) 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10–13 Joules (4) 1 Newton = 10–5 Dynes

27. The dimensional formula of angular velocity is

(1) MOLOT–1 (2) MLT–1 (3) MOLOT1 (4) MLOT–2

28. The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the
length of the sides of the plate. If the maximum error in the measurement of force and length
are respectively 4% and 2%, the maximum error in the measurement of pressure is –
(1) 1% (2) 2% (3) 6% (4) 8%

29. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2 % then the error in the
determination of volume of the sphere will be :-
(1) 8% (2) 2 % (3) 4 % (4) 6%

30. A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given
time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum

12
 percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the
percentage error in the estimation of g is :-
(1) e1 + 2e2 (2) e1 + e2 (3) e1 – 2e2 (4) e2 – e1

31. A quantity is represented by X = Ma Lb Tc. The percentage error in measurement of M, L and T

are  %,  % and  % respectively. The percentage error in X would be
(1) (  a +  b +  c) % (2) (  a –  b +  c) % (3) (  a –  b–  c) % (4) None of these

32. An experiment measures quantities a, b and c, and X is calculated from X = ab 2/c3. If the
percentage error in a, b and c are 1%, 3% and 2% respectively, the percentage error in X will
be –
(1)  13% (2)  7% (3)  4% (4)  1%

33. Zero error of an instrument introduces

(1) Systematic errors (2) Random errors (3) Both (4) None
34. What is the fractional error in g calculated from T = 2 g ? Given that fractional errors in T
and are  x and  y respectively.
(1) x + y (2) x – y (3) 2x + y (4) 2x – y

35. A thin copper wire of length l metre increases in length by 2% when heated through 10°C.
What is the percentage increase in area when a square copper sheet of length metre is
heated through 10°C ?
(1) 4% (2) 8% (3) 16% (4) None of these

36. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in the experiment is recorded as 2.63s, 2.56s,
2.42s, 2.71s and 2.80s respectively. The average absolute error is
(1) 0.1s (2) 0.11s (3) 0.01s (4) 1.0s

V
37. The resistance is R = where V = 100  5 Volts and I = 10  0.2 amperes. What is the total
I
error in R ?
5
(1) 5 % (2) 7 % (3) 5.2 % (4)   %
2
38. If error in measuring diameter of a circle is 4 %, the error in circumference of the circle would
be :-
(1) 2 % (2) 8 % (3) 4 % (4) 1 %

39. The external and internal radius of a hollow cylinder are measured to be (4.23  0.01) cm and
(3.89  0.01)cm. The thickness of the wall of the cylinder is :-
(1) (0.34  0.02) cm (2) (0.17  0.02) cm
(3) (0.17  0.01) cm (4) (0.34  0.01) cm

40. Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass of a solid sphere are 2% & 1%
respectively. Then error in measurement of moment of inertia with respect to its diameter is :-
(1) 3 % (2) 6 % (3) 5 % (4) 4 %

41. In a vernier calliper, N divisions of vernier scale coincide with (N – 1) divisions of main scale
(in which 1 division represents 1mm). The least count of the instrument in cm. should be
1 1
(1) N (2) N – 1 (3) (4)
10N N −1

13
42. The heat generated in a circuit is dependent upon the resistance, current and time for which
the current is flown. If the error in measuring the above are as 1%, 2% and 1% the maximum
error in measuring heat will be
(1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 6% (4) 1%

43. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively.
How much will be the maximum error in the estimate of kinetic energy obtained by measuring
mass and speed ?
(1) 11 % (2) 8 % (3) 5 % (4) 1 %
44. While measuring acceleration due to gravity by a simple pendulum a student makes a positive
error of 1% in the length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the value of the time
period. His percentage error in the measurement of the value of g will be -
(1) 2 % (2) 4 % (3) 7 % (4) 10 %
45. A student measured the diameter of a wire using a screw gauge with least count 0.001 cm
and listed the measurements. The correct measurement is –
(1) 5.3 cm (2) 5.32 cm (3) 5.320 cm (4) 5.3200 cm

KINEMATICS
1. Two vector A and B have equal magnitudes. Then the vector A + B is perpendicular to -
(1) A × B (2) A – B (3) 3A – 3B (4) all of these

2. A runner completes one round of a circular path of radius r in 40 seconds. His displacement
after 2 minutes 20 seconds will be -
(1) Zero (2) 2r (3) 2r (4) 7r

3. A car travels a distance of 2000 m. If the first half distance is covered at 40 km/hour and the
second half at velocity v and if the average velocity is 48 km/hour, then the value of v is -
(1) 56 km/hour (2) 60 km/hour (3) 50 km/hour (4) 48 km/hour

4. A car travels first 1/3 of the distance AB at 30 km/hr, next 1/3 of the distance at 40 km/hr,
last 1/3 of the distance at 24 km/hr. Its average speed in km/hr for the whole journey is -
(1) 40 (2) 35 (3) 30 (4) 28

5. A particle is moving so that its displacement s is given as s = t 3– 6t2 + 3t + 4 meter. Its

velocity at the instant when its acceleration is zero will be -

(1) 3 m/s (2) –12 m/s (3) 42 m/s (4) –9 m/s

6. The displacement x of a particle moving along a straight line is related to time by the relation
t = x + 3. The displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero is given by-
(1) 0 (2) – 2 (3) 2 (4) 1

7. From figure the distance travelled in 5 second is -

20
Velocity m/sec

10
0 1 2 3 4
5
–10
–20
Time (sec.)
(1) 10m (2) 30m (3) 50m (4) 0

14
8. In the following velocity-time graph of a body, the displacement and distance travelled by the
body in 5 second in meters will be -
40
30
20
10 60 4 5
0 t
–10 1 2 3 sec
–20
–30
(1) 75,105 (2) 110, 70 (3) 40, 70 (4) 90, 50

9. A body sliding on a smooth inclined plane requires 4sec to reach the bottom after starting
from rest at the top. How much time does it take to cover one fourth the distance starting
from the top
(1) 1sec (2) 2 sec (3) 0.4sec (4) 1.6 sec
10. A body starts from rest, the ratio of distances travelled by the body during 3 rd and 4th seconds
is :
(1) 7/5 (2) 5/7 (3) 7/3 (4) 3/7
11. A rocket is launched from the earth surface so that it has an acceleration of 19.6m/s2. If its
engine is switched off after 5 seconds of its launch, then the maximum height attained by the
rocket will be
(1) 245 m (2) 490 m (3) 980 m (4) 735 m
12. A thief is running away on a straight road on a jeep moving with a speed of 9 m/s. A police
man chases him on a motor cycle moving at a speed of 10 m/s. If the instantaneous
separation of jeep from the motor cycle is 100 m, how long will it take for the policemen to
catch the thief ?
(1) 1 second (2) 19 second (3) 90 second (4) 100 second

13. A particle moves with constant speed v along a regular hexagon ABCDEF in same order (i.e. A
to B , B to C, C to D, D to E, E to F, F to A...). Then magnitude of average velocity for its
motion from A to C is –
(1) v (2) v/2 (3) 3 v/2 (4) None of these

14. The velocity of a particle moving in the positive direction of x-axis varies as v =  x , where 
is positive constant. Assuming that at the moment t = 0, the particle was located at
x = 0 the value of time dependence of the velocity and the acceleration of the particle -
t 1 2t 2 2t 2
(1) , (2) , (3) , (4) None of these
22 22 2 2 2 2

15. If the displacement of a particle varies with time as x = t + 7, the -

(1) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t
(2) velocity of the particle is proportional to t
(3) velocity of the particle is proportional to t
(4) the particle moves with a constant acceleration

16. A bus starts from rest with an acceleration of 1 m/sec 2. A man who is 48 m behind the bus
starts with a uniform velocity of 10 m/sec, then the minimum time after which the man will
catch the bus is -
(1) 12 sec (2) 8 sec (3) 10 sec (4) 4.8 sec

15
17. Between two stations a train accelerates uniformly at first, then moves with constant speed
and finally retards uniformly. If the ratios of time taken are 1 : 8 : 1 and the greatest speed is
60 km/hour . Then the average speed over the whole journey -
(1) 45 km/hr (2) 54 km/hr (3) 35 km/hr (4) 53 km/hr
18. A body travelling with uniform acceleration crosses two points A and B with velocities
20 m/sec and 30 m/sec respectively. Then the speed of the body at mid-point of A and B is -
(1) 25 m/sec (2) 25.5 m/sec (3) 24 m/sec (4) 10 6 m/sec
19. Which one of the following represents the time-displacement graph of two objects A and B
moving with zero relative speed ?
A
Displacement

Displacement

Displacement

Displacement
A A A
B
(1) (2) (3) B (4) B
B

→ Time → Time → Time → Time

20. The speed v of a particle moving along a straight line, when it is at a distance x from a fixed
point on the line is given by v 2 = 108x – 9x2. Then magnitude of its acceleration when it is at
distance 3 meter from the fixed point is –
(1) 9 m/s2 (2) 18 m/s2 (3) 27 m/s2 (4) None of these

21. A body dropped from the top of a tower covers 7/16 of the total height in the last second of its
fall. The time of fall is
 50 
(1) 2 sec (2) 4 sec (3) 1 sec (4)   sec
 7 
22. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower with a velocity of 10 m/sec. If the
ball falls on the ground after 5 seconds, the height of the tower will be –
(1) 25 m (2) 50 m (3) 75 m (4) 100 m

23. A train starting from rest travels the first part of its journey with constant acceleration a,
second part with constant velocity  and third part with constant retardation a, being brought
7v
to rest. The average speed for the whole journey is . The train travels with constant velocity
8
for ...of the total time -
3 7 5 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 6 7

24. A body moves with uniform velocity of u = 7 m/s from t = 0 to t = 1.5 sec. For t > 1.5 s, it
starts moving with an acceleration of 10 m/s 2. The distance travelled between t = 0 to
t = 3 sec will be –
(1) 47.75 m (2) 32.25 m (3) 16.75 m (4) 27.50 m

25. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the
ground. What is the position of the ball at T/3 second –
(1) h/9 meters from the ground (2) 7h/9 meters from the ground
(3) 8h/9 meters from the ground (4) 17h/18 meters from the ground

26. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower of height h. After 1 second another stone is
dropped from the balcony 20 m below the top. Both reach the bottom simultaneously. What
is the value of h ? Take g = 10 ms−2.

16
 (1) 3125 m (2) 312.5 m (3) 31.25 m (4) 25.31 m

27. Two bodies are thrown vertically upwards, with their initial velocities in the ratio 2:3. The
ratio of maximum heights attained will be
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 9
(3) 2 : 3 (4) Data is insufficient

28. Equation of motion of a projectile are given by x=36.t meter and 2y=(96 t – 9.8 t2) meter. The
angle of projection is-
4 3 4 3
(1) sin−1   (2) sin−1   (3) sin−1   (4) sin−1  
5 5 3 4

29. A particle is projected with a velocity v, so that its range on a horizontal plane is twice the
greatest height attained. If g is acceleration due to gravity, then its range is:
4v2 4g 4v3 4v
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5g 5v2 5g 2 5g 2
30. A body is moving with uniform velocity of 8m/s. When the body just crosses another body the
second one starts & moves with uniform acceleration of 4m/s2. After how much time will they
meet together?
(1) 2 sec (2) 4 sec (3) 6 sec (4) 8 sec
31. A man standing in a lift moving upward with constant speed 10 m/s throws a stone vertically
upwards at a speed of 30 m/s w.r.t himself. The time after which he will catch the stone is
(1) 4sec (2) 6sec (3) 8sec (4) 10sec
32. A car A is going north-east at 80 km/hr and another car B is going south-east at 60 km/hr.
Then the direction of the velocity of A relative to B makes with the north an angle  such that
tan  is -
(1) 1/7 (2) 3/4 (3) 4/3 (4) 3/5
33. A man wishes to swim across a river 0.5 km. wide. If he can swim at the rate of 2 km/h. in
still water and the river flows at the rate of 1 km/h. The angle (w.r.t. the flow of the river)
along which he should swim so as to reach a point exactly opposite his starting point, should
be :–
(1) 60° (2) 120° (3) 145° (4) 90°
34. A swimmer crosses a flowing stream of breadth b to and fro in time T 1. The time taken to
cover the same distance up and down the stream is T2. If T3 is the time the swimmer would
take to swim a distance 2b in still water, then :
(1) T3 = T1 + T2 (2) T12 = T2 T3 (3) T22 = T1 T3 (4) T32 = T1 T2

35. Rain is falling with a velocity (− 4iˆ + 8ˆj − 10k)

ˆ . A person is moving with a velocity of (6iˆ + 8ˆj) on
the ground. Find the velocity of rain with respect to man
(1) (10iˆ + 10k)
ˆ (2) (−10iˆ − 10k)
ˆ (3) (− 4iˆ + 8ˆj − 10k)
ˆ (4) none

36. A particle is falling freely under gravity. In first t second it covers s1 and in the next t second it
covers s 2 , then t is given by

17
 s2 + s1 s2 − s1 s2s1 s2 2
2 − s1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2g g g g
37. A cricket ball is hit with a velocity of 25 m s −1 at angle of 60° above the horizontal. How far
above the ground, ball passes over a fielder 50 m from the bat (consider the ball is struck very
close to the ground) take 3 = 1.73 and g = 10 ms −2.
(1) 6.8m (2) 7 m (3) 6.5 m (4) 10m
38. The x – t graph shown in figure represents

Displaceme
(1) Constant velocity
(2) Velocity of the body is continuous changing
(3) Instantaneous velocity

nt
(4) The body travels with constant speed upto time t1 and then stops t1 time ( t )

39. A particle starts from the origin of coordinates at time t = 0 and moves in the xy plane with a
constant acceleration  in the y-direction. Its equation of motion is y = x 2. Its velocity
component in the x-direction is
2  
(1) Variable (2) (3) (4)
 2 2
40. A projectile is given an initial velocity of ( i + 2j) m/s. The Cartesian equation of its path is

(g = 10 m/s2 ) here i & j are the unit vectors along horizontal and vertical direction)
(1) y = 2x − 5x 2 (2) y = x − 5x2 (3) 4y = 2x − 5x2 (4) y = 2x − 25x2

41. A man can swim in still water at 6 km/hr. He want to reach a point just opposite to his
starting point. In which direction he should swim, if the river is flowing at 3 km/hr?
(1) 120° with the river flow (2) 150° with the river flow
(3) 90° with the river flow (4) None

42. A shot is fired from a gun with a muzzle velocity of 98 m/s at an angle of elevation 45° from
the ground. Its range is found to be 900 m. The range decreased by air resistance is
(1) 8m (2) 80 m (3) 98 m (4) 9.8 m

43. The velocity-time graph of a body moving along a straight line is as follows:

The displacement of the body in 5 s is

(1) 5 m (2) 2 m (3) 4 m (4) 3 m
1 2
44. If a particle is projected from origin and its follows trajectory y = x − x , then the time of
2
flight is ( g = acceleration due to gravity)

18
 1 2 3 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
g g g g
45. A particle moves with constant acceleration for 6 seconds after start from rest. The distances
travelled during the consecutive two second intervals are in the ratio
(1) 1:1:1 (2) 1:2:3 (3) 1:3:5 (4) 1:5:9

NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION

1. A block of mass m1 = 2 kg on a smooth inclined plane at angle 30º is
connected to a second block of mass m2 = 3 kg by a cord passing over a
frictionless pulley as shown in figure. The acceleration of each block is-
(Assume g = 10 m/sec2)
(1) 2 m/sec2 (2) 4 m/sec2
(3) 6 m/sec2 (4) 8 m/sec2
2. Two blocks are connected by a cord passing over a small frictionless
pulley and resting on frictionless planes as shown in the figure The
acceleration of the blocks is-
(1) 0.33 m/s2 (2) 0.66 m/s2
(3) 1 m/s 2 (4) 1.32 m/s2
3. In the figure a smooth pulley of negligible weight is suspended by a spring balance.
Weights of 1kg and 5 kg are attached to the opposite ends of a string passing over the
pulley and move with acceleration because of gravity. During the motion, the spring
balance reads a weight of –
(1) 6 kg (2) less than 6 kg
(3) more than 6 kg (4) may be more or less than 6 kg

4. A rope of length L is pulled by a constant force F. What is the tension in the rope at a distance
x from the end where the force is applied ?
Fx L
(1) (2) F (3) FL/x (4) F(L – x)/L
L−x L−x
5. A weight W is tied to two strings passing over the frictionless pulleys A  
and B as shown in the figure. If weights P and Q move downwards with A B
speed v, the weight W at any instant rises with the speed-
(1) v cos  (2) 2v cos 
(3) v/cos  (4) 2v/cos  P Q

W
6. Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table one has a mass m and
the other 2m. A force F is applied on 2m as shown is Figure. Now the same
force F is applied on m. In the two cases respectively the ratio of force of
contact between the two blocks will be-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 4
7. Two blocks of 7 kg and 5 kg are connected by a heavy rope of mass 4 kg. An upward 200N

force of 200N is applied as shown in the diagram. The tension at the top of heavy rope
at point P is: (g = 10 m/s2)
7kg

(1) 2.27 N P

(2) 112.5 N 4kg

(3) 87.5 N 5kg

19
 (4) 360 N

8. Body A is placed on frictionless wedge making an angle  with the horizon.

The horizontal acceleration towards left to be imparted to the wedge for the
body A to freely fall vertically, is-
(1) g sin  (2) g cos 
(3) g tan  (4) g cot 

9. In the given figure, pulleys and strings are massless. For equilibrium of the
system, the value of  is -
(1) 60° (2) 30°
(3) 90° (4) 120°

10. In the figure, the blocks A, B and C each of mass m have accelerations a1, a2
and a3 respectively. F1 and F2 are external forces of magnitude 2 mg and mg
respectively. Then -
(1) a1 = a2 = a3 (2) a1 > a3 > a2
(3) a1 = a2 , a2 > a3 (4) a1 > a2 , a2 = a3

11. The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected by a

massless spring as shown in fig. A force of 200 Newtons acts on the 20
kg mass. At the instant shown the 10 kg mass has acceleration of 12
m/sec2. What is the acceleration of 20 kg mass?
(1) 12 m/sec2 (2) 4 m/sec2 (3) 10 m/sec2 (4) zero
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\

12. In the system shown if the inextensible string connecting 2m and m is cut, the
accelerations of mass m and 2m are
g g g
(1) , (2) g,
2 2 2 2m
g
(3) , g (4) g, g m
2 string

13. A chain is lying on a rough table with a fraction 1/n of its length hanging down from the edge
of the table. if it is just on the point of sliding down from the table, then the coefficient of
friction between the table and the chain is -
1 1 1 n −1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
n ( n − 1) ( n + 1) ( n + 1)
14. In the arrangement shown mass of A = 1 kg, mass of B = 2 kg coefficient of friction between A
and B is 0.2. There is no friction between B and ground. The frictional force
between A and B is: (g = 9.8 ms–2)
(1) 0 N (2) 2 N
(3) 1.96 N (4) 1 N
15. A 40 kg slab rests on a frictionless floor. A 10 kg block rests on
top of the slab. The static coefficient of friction between the block
and slab is 0.60 while the kinetic coefficient is 0.40. The 10 kg
block is acted upon by a horizontal force 100 N. If g = 9.8 m/s 2, the resulting acceleration of
the slab will be -
(1) 0.98 m/s2 (2) 1.47 m/s2 (3) 1.52 m/s2 (4) 6.1 m/s2

20
16. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45º inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide
down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body
and the inclined plane is -
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.80

17. Two blocks of masses M = 3 kg and m = 2 kg, are in contact on a

horizontal table. A constant horizontal force F = 5 N is applied to block M
as shown. There is a constant frictional force of 2 N between the table
and the block m but no frictional force between the table and the first
block M, then the acceleration of the two blocks is-
(1) 0.4 ms–2 (2) 0.6 ms–2 (3) 0.8 ms–2 (4) 1 ms–2

18. In the given figure the wedge is fixed, pulley is frictionless and string is light.
Surface AB is frictionless whereas AC is rough. If the block of mass 3m slides
down with constant velocity, then the coefficient of friction between surface AC
and the block is -
1 2 1 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 2 3
19. Mass of upper block and lower block kept over the table is 2 kg and 1 kg
respectively and coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1. Table
surface is smooth. The maximum mass M for which all the three blocks
move with same acceleration is (g = 10 m/s2) -
(1) 1 kg (2) 2/3 kg (3) 1/3 kg
(4) 3/4 kg

20. Figure shows two blocks in contact sliding down an inclined surface of inclination 2 kg
30º. The friction coefficient between the block of mass 2.0 kg and the incline is µ 1, 4 kg
and that between the block of mass 4.0 kg and the incline is µ 2. Calculate the
30º
acceleration of the 2.0 kg block if µ 1 = 0.30 and µ2 = 0.20, Take g = 10 m/s2
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 2.7 m/s2 (3) 4 m/s2 (4) 2.4 m/s2

21. A box of mass 8 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination . Its downward motion
can be prevented by applying an upward pull F and it can be made to slide upwards by
applying a force 2F. The coefficient of friction between the box and the inclined plane is -
1 1
(1) tan  (2) 3 tan  (3) tan  (4) 2 tan 
3 2
22. In the arrangement shown, by what acceleration the boy must go up so
that 100 kg block remains stationary on the wedge. The wedge is fixed and
friction is absent everywhere. (Take g = 10 m/s 2
(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

23. Mass m shown in the figure is in equilibrium. If it is displaced further by x and

relaxed find its acceleration just after it is released. Take pulleys to be light and
smooth and strings light.

21
 4kx 2kx
(1) (2)
5m 5m
4kx
(3) (4) none of these
m
24. A bead of mass m is located on a parabolic wire with its axis vertical and vertex
directed towards downward as in figure and whose equation is x 2 = ay. If the
coefficient of friction is , the highest distance above the x-axis at which the
particle will be in equilibrium is
1 2
(1) a (2) 2a (3) μa (4)
4
1
μa
2
25. The two blocks, m = 10 kg and M = 50 kg are free to move as shown. The
coefficient of static friction between the blocks is 0.5 and there is no
friction between M and the ground. A minimum horizontal force F is
applied to hold m against M that is equal to:
(1) 100 N (2) 50 N
(3) 240 N (4) 180 N
26. In the following figure, find the direction of friction on the blocks and
ground respectively
(1) Block A (left), block B (right due to block A, right due to ground)
(2) Block A (right), block B (left due to block A, left due to ground)
(3) Block A (right), block B (left due to block A, right due to ground)
(4) Block A (left), block B (left due to block A, left due to ground)
27. With what minimum acceleration can a fireman slide down a rope whose breaking strength is
two third of his weight?
(1) g/2 (2) 2g/3 (3) g/3 (4) 3g/4
28. A body of mass 60 kg is dragged with just enough force to start moving on a rough surface
with coefficients of static and kinetic frictions 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. On continuing the
same force what is the acceleration (g = 9.8 m/s 2)?
(1) 0.98 m/s2 (2) 9.8 m/s2 (3) 0.54 m/s2 (4) 5.292 m/s2 .
29. A trolley is being pulled up an inclined plane by a man sitting on it (as
shown in figure). He applies a force of 250 N. If the combined mass of the
man and trolley is 100 kg, the acceleration of the trolley will be [sin15° =
0.26] :
(1) 2.4 m/s2 (2) 9.4 m/s2
(3) 6.9 m/s 2 (4) 4.9 m/s2
30. Consider a block pressed against a vertical wall as shown. The magnitude of
acceleration of the block is
(1) zero (2) 10/3 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s 2 (4) 40/3 m/s2

31. Block A of mass 35 kg is resting on a frictionless floor. Another block B of mass 7kg F
7 kg is resting on it as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the B
35kg
A

22
 blocks is 0.5 while kinetic friction is 0.4. If a force of 100 N is applied to block B, the
acceleration of the block A will be :(g = 10m/s2)
(1) 0.8 m/s2 (2) 2.4 m/s2 (3) 0.4 m/s2 (4) 4.4 m/s2

32. In the above question, the minimum value of force that causes block B to move with respect to
block A is
(1) 72 N (2) 42 N (3) 35 N (4) 60 N
33. In the above question, if mA = 10 kg, mB = 40 kg and applied force is 40 N, the acceleration of
the block B with respect to block A will be :
(1) zero (2) 0.5 m/s2 (3) 2.5 m/s2 (4) 0.8 m/s2

34. A dynamometer D is attached to two bodies of masses M = 6 kg and F D

m = 4 kg. Forces F = 20 N and f = 10 N are applied to the masses as 20N
M m
f = 10N
shown. When both blocks have same acceleration, reading of
dynamometer will be :
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N (3) 6 N (4) 14 N
35. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected by a massless
m1
spring as shown in the figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass at the
instant when the 10 kg mass has an acceleration of 12 m/s2 towards right, the
m2
acceleration of the 20 kg is : F

(1) 2 ms–2 (2) 4 ms–2

(3) 10 ms –2 (4) 20 ms–2
36. A trolley of mass 8 kg is standing on a frictionless surface inside which an
object of mass 2 kg is suspended. A constant force F starts acting on the 2kg
37º

trolley as a result of which the string stood at an angle of 37º from the F 8kg
vertical. Then :
(1) acceleration of the trolley is 40/3 m/s2 (2) force applied is 60 N
(3) force applied is 75N (4) tension in the string is 25 N

37. A heavy spherical ball is constrained in a frame as in the figure. The inclined
surface is smooth. The maximum acceleration with which the frame can move
without causing the ball to leave the frame is :
30º
(1) g / 2 (2) g 3
(3) g / 3 (4) g / 2

38. The velocities of A and B are marked in the figure. The velocity of block C
is (Assume that the pulleys are ideal and string inextensible) : 1m/s C
(1) 5 m/s (2) 2 m/s B

(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s A

39. For the arrangement shown in the figure, if the horizontal speed of the ball A
is 10 m/s, the vertical speed of the ball B will be :
(1) 20 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 5 m/s (4) 5 3 m/s

40. In the figure shown, the velocity of platform while string is winding on the motor shaft with
velocity 5 m/s will be :

23
 (1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s (3) 5 m/s (4) 5/2 m/s
41. An inclined plane makes an angle 30° with the horizontal. A groove OA = 5 m
cut in the plane makes an angle 30° with OX as shown in the figure. A short
smooth cylinder is free to slide down the influence of gravity. The time taken
by the cylinder to reach from A to O is :
(1) 4 s (2) 2 s (3) 2 2 s (4) 1 s
42. What should be the minimum force P to be applied to the string so that block of mass ‘m’ just
begins to move up the frictionless plane?

Mg cos 
(1) Mg tan  /2 (2) Mg cot  /2 (3) (4) none
1 + sin 
43. In the figure shown acceleration of monkey relative to the rope if it exerts a force
of 80 N on string will be :

(1) 2 m/s2 downwards (2) 4 m/s2 upwards

(3) 4 m/s2 downwards (4) 8 m/s2 downwards
44. In the figure shown A remains in contact with the ground .If velocity
of A is 10 m/s, then velocity of B in the figure shown is :
(1) 5 3
20
(2)
3
(3) 5
(4) none of these
45. A rod of length l slides down along the inclined wall as shown in the figure .
At the instant shown in figure the speed of end A is v, then at that instant
speed of end B will be :
v cos  v cos 
(1) (2)
cos  cos 
v sin  v sin 
(3) (4)
sin  sin 

CIRCULAR MOTION
1. Starting from rest, a particle rotates in a circle of radius R = 2 m with an angular
acceleration  = 4 rad/s2.The magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the time it
rotates quarter circle is:
(1) 1.5 m/s (2) 2.0 m/s (3) 1.0 m/s (4) 0.5 m/s
2. The angular velocity of earth about its axis of rotation is-

24
 2 2
(1) rad/sec (2) rad/sec
(60  60  24) (60  60)
2 2
(3) rad/sec (4) rad/sec
60 (365  24  60  60)

3. The earth, radius 6400 km, makes one revolution about its own axis in 24 hours. The
centripetal acceleration of a point on its equator is nearly -
cm cm cm cm
(1) 340 2
(2) 3.4 2
(3) 34 2
(4) 0.34
sec sec sec sec2
4. A wheel starts rotating at initial angular velocity 10 rad/sec and attains the angular velocity
of 100 rad/sec in 15 seconds. What is the angular acceleration in rad/sec 2?
(1) 10 (2) 110/15 (3) 100/15 (4) 6
5. A wheel having a diameter of 3 m starts from rest and accelerates uniformly to an angular
velocity of 210 r.p.m. in 5 seconds. Angular acceleration of the wheel is-
rad rad rad rad
(1) 1.4 2 (2) 3.3 2 (3) 2.2 2 (4) 1.1 2
s s s s
2 2
6. The linear and angular acceleration of a particle are 10 m/sec and 5 rad/sec respectively.
Distance of particle from the axis of rotation is-
(1) 50 m (2) 1/2 m (3) 1 m (4) 2 m
7. A grinding wheel attains angular velocity 20 rad/sec in 5 sec starting from rest. Find the
number of revolutions made by the wheel-
 1
(1) revolutions (2) revolutions
25 
25
(3) revolutions (4) None

8. Two bodies are moving on concentric orbits of radii R and r, such that their periods of
revolution are same. The ratio of their centripetal accelerations is-
R r R2 r2
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 2
r R r R
9. In uniform circular motion-
(1) both velocity and acceleration are constant
(2) acceleration and speed are constant but velocity changes
(3) both acceleration and velocity change
(4) both acceleration and speed are constant
10. What happens to the centripetal acceleration of a revolving body if you double the orbital
speed v and halve the angular velocity ?
(1) the centripetal acceleration remains unchanged
(2) the centripetal acceleration is halved
(3) the centripetal acceleration is doubled
(4) the centripetal acceleration is quadrupled
11. In circular motion, the centripetal acceleration is given by- (all quantities are vector)
(1) a × r (2)  × v (3) a × v (4)  × r
12. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at two revolutions per second. The acceleration of
particle in m/s2 is -
(1) 2 (2) 82 (3) 42 (4) 22

25
13. Particle is moving along a circular path of radius 6 m with uniform speed of 8 ms–1. The
average acceleration when the particle completes one half of the revolution is -
16 32 64
(1) m/s2 (2) m/s2 (3) m/s2 (4) None of these
3 3 3
14. The velocity and acceleration vectors of a particle undergoing circular motion are v = 2iˆ m/s
and a = 2iˆ + ˆj m/s2 respectively at an instant of time. The radius of the circle is
(1) 1m (2) 2m (3) 3m (4) 4m
15. A particle completes 3 revolutions per second on a circular path of radius 8 cm. Find the
values of angular velocity and centripetal acceleration of the particle -
rad cm rad cm
(1) 6 ; 2882 (2)  ; 2752
s s 2 s s2
rad cm
(3) 6 ; 288 (4) None
s s2
16. A car is moving with speed 30 m/s on a circular path of radius 500 m. Its speed is increasing
at the rate of 2 m/s2. The net acceleration of the car is-
(1) 3.7 m/s2 (2) 2.7 m/s2 (3) 1.8 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
17. A particle is moving along a circular path of radius 3 meter in such a way that the distance
t2 t3
travelled measured along the circumference is given by S = + . The acceleration of particle
2 3
when t = 2 sec is-
(1) 15 m/s2 (2) 13 m/s2 (3) 12 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2

18. A ball attached with massless rope of the length swings in vertical circle as
shown in figure. The total acceleration of the ball is −aiˆ + bjˆ m/sec2 when it is at
angle  = 37º; (where a and b are positive constant). Find the magnitude of
centripetal acceleration of the ball at the instant shown. The axis system is
shown in figure.
3a 4b 3a 4b
(1) + (2) −
5 5 5 5
2a 4b 6a 4b
(3) + (4) −
5 5 5 5
19. Centrifugal force is considered as pseudo force when
(1) An observer at the centre of circular motion
(2) An outside observer
(3) An observer who is moving with the particle which is experiencing the force
(4) None of the above
20. A stone of mass m is tied to a string of length l and rotated in a circle with a constant speed v.
If the string is released, the stone flies-
(1) radially outward (2) radially inward
(3) tangentially outward (4) with an acceleration mv2/l
21. A particle of mass m is executing uniform circular motion on a path of radius r. If p is the
magnitude of its linear momentum. The radial force acting on the particle is
rm mp2 p2
(1) pmr (2) (3) (4)
p r rm

26
22. The breaking tension of a string is 10 N. A particle of mass 0.1 kg tied to it is rotated along a
horizontal circle of radius 0.5 meter. The maximum speed with which the particle can be
rotated without breaking the string is-
(1) 5m/sec (2) (50)m/sec (3) (500)m/sec (4) (1000)m/sec
23. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at
both ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform
angular velocity  . The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is:
(1) ML2 /2 (2) ML2 (3) ML2 /4 (4) ML22 /2
24. A person with a mass of M kg stands in contact against the wall of the cylindrical drum of
radius r rotating with an angular velocity . The coefficient of friction between the wall and
the clothing is . The minimum rotational speed of the cylinder which enables the person to
remain stuck to the wall when the floor is suddenly removed is -
g r 2g gr
(1) min = (2) min = (3) min = (4) min =
r g r 

25. A coin placed on a rotating turn table just slips if it is at a distance of 40 cm from the centre if
the angular velocity of the turntable is doubled, it will just slip at a distance of
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 80 cm
26. A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity . A coin is placed at a distance r
from the center of the record. The static coefficient of friction is . The coin will revolve with
the record if-
(1) r > g 2 (2) r = g /2 only (3) r < g/2 only (4) r  g/2
27. A circular turn table of radius 0.5 m has a smooth groove as shown in
fig. A ball of mass 50 g is placed inside the groove along with a spring of
spring constant 102 N/cm. The ball is at a distance of 0.1 m from the O
centre when the turn table is at rest. On rotating the turn table with a
constant angular velocity of 10 rad-sec–1 the ball moves away from the
initial position by a distance nearly equal to- 0.1m

(1) 10–1 m (2) 10–2 m

–3
(3) 10 m (4) 2 × 10–1 m
28. A smooth table is placed horizontally and an ideal spring of spring constant k= 1000 N/m and
un-extended length of 0.5 m has one end fixed to its centre. The other end is attached to a
mass of 5 kg which is moving in a circle with constant speed 10 m/s. Then the tension in the
spring and the extension of this spring beyond its normal length are-
(1) 500 N, 0.5 m (2) 600 N, 0.6 m (3) 700 N, 0.7 m (4) 800 N, 0.8 m
29. The maximum speed with which a car can cross a convex bridge over a river with radius of
curvature 9 m is: (given that the center of gravity of car is 1m above the road)
(1) 50 m/s (2) 30 m/s (3) 20 m/s (4) 10 m/s
30. The roadway of a bridge over a canal is in the form of a circular arc of radius 18 m. What is
the greatest speed with which a motor cycle can cross the bridge without leaving bridge?
(1) 98 m/s (2) 18  9.8 m /s (3) 18 × 9.8 m/s (4) 18/9.8 m/s
31. A car while travelling at a speed of 72 km/hr. Passes through a curved portion of road in the
form of an arc of a radius 10 m. If the mass of the car is 500 kg the reaction on the car at the
lowest point P is-
(1) 25 KN (2) 50 KN
(3) 75 KN (4) None of these
32. A string of length 1 m is fixed at one end and carries a mass of 100 gm

27
 at the other end. The string makes (2/ ) revolutions per second around vertical axis through
the fixed end. Calculate the tension in the string-
(1) 1.0 N (2) 1.6 N (3) 2 N (4) 4 N
33. Two particles tied to different strings are whirled in a
horizontal circle as shown in figure. The ratio of lengths of the
strings so that they complete their circular path with equal
time period is:
3 2
(1) (2)
2 3
(3) 1 (4) None of these

34. A large mass M hangs stationary at the end of a light string that passes through a smooth
fixed tube to a small mass m that moves around in a horizontal circular path. If is the length
of the string from m to the top end of the tube and  is angle between this part and vertical
part of the string as shown in the figure, then time taken by m to complete one circle is equal
to

(1) 2 (2) 2
g sin  g cos 

35. A disc of radius R has a light pole fixed perpendicular to the disc at the circumference which
in turn has a pendulum of length R attached to its other end as shown in figure. The disc is
rotated with a constant angular velocity . The string is making an angle 30° with the rod.
Then the angular velocity  of disc is:
1/2 1/2
 3g   3g 
(1)  (2) 
 R   2R 
   
1/2 1/2
 g   2g 
(3)   (4)  
 3R   3 3R 
36. Two identical particles are attached at the ends of alight string
which passes through a hole at the center of a table. One of the
particles is made to move in a circle on the table with angular
velocity 1 and the other is made to move in a horizontal circle
as a conical pendulum with angular velocity 2 . If 1 and 2 are
the lengths of the string over under the table, then in order that
the particle under the table neither moves down nor moves up,
the ratio 1 / 2 is-
(1) 1 / 2 (2) 2 / 1
(3) 12 / 22 (4) 22 / 12

37. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius 10 m with a constant speed of
10 m/s. A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid rod of length 1.0 m.
The angle made by the rod with the track is approximately–
(1) Zero (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 60º

28
38. A smooth wire is bent into a vertical circle of radius a. A bead P can slide
smoothly on the wire. The circle is rotated about diameter AB as axis with a
speed  as shown in figure. The bead P is at rest with respect to the circular
ring in the position shown. Then 2 is equal to-
(1) 2g/a (2) 2g/(a 3 )
(3) g 3 /a (4) 2a/(g 3 )
39. A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a string of length l while the other end is fixed
to a point h above the horizontal table. The particle is made to revolve in a circle on the table
so as to make p revolutions per second. The maximum value of p if the particle is to be in
contact with the table will be-
1
(1) 2 gh (2) (g /h) (3) 2 (h /g) (4) (g /h)
2
40. A car of mass m is taking a circular turn of radius 'r' on a rough level road with a speed v. ''
is coefficient of friction between road and tires of the car. In order that the car does not skid-
mv2 mv2 mv2 v
(1)  mg (2)  mg (3) = mg (4) = mg
r r r r
41. When the road is dry and the coefficient of friction is , the maximum speed of a car in a
circular path is 10 m/s, if the road becomes wet and ’ = /2. What is the maximum speed
permitted?
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s (3) 10 2 m/s (4) 5 2 m/s
42. A cyclist taking turn bends inwards while a car passenger take the same turn is thrown
outwards. The reason is-
(1) car is heavier then cycle
(2) car has four wheels while cycle has only two
(3) difference in the speed of the two
(4) cyclist has to counteract the centrifugal force while in the case of car only the passenger is
thrown by this force
43. A cyclist is moving on a circular track of radius 80 m with a velocity of 72 km/hr. He has to
lean from the vertical approximately through an angle
(1) tan–1 (1/4) (2) tan–1 (1) (3) tan–1 (1/2) (4) tan–1 (2)
44. A motor cyclist moving with a velocity of 72 km per hour on a flat road takes a turn on the
road at a point where the radius of curvature of the road is 20 meters. The acceleration due to
gravity is 10 m/s2. In order to avoid skidding, he must not bend with respect to the vertical
plane by an angle greater than-
(1)  = tan–1 6 (2)  = tan–1 2 (3)  = tan–1 25.92 (4)  = tan–1 4

45. Keeping the banking angle same to increase the maximum speed with which a vehicle can
travel on a curved road by 10%, the radius of curvature of road has to be changed from 20 m
to-
(1) 16 m (2) 18 m (3) 24.25 m (4) 30.5 m

WORK, POWER & ENERGY

1. A force F = (3x î + 4 ˆj ) Newton (where x is in metres) acts on a particle which moves from a
position (2m, 3m) to (3m, 0m). Then the work done is
(1) 7.5J (2) –12J (3) –4.5 J (4) +4.5 J

29
2. A chain of mass M is placed on a smooth table with 1/n of its length L hanging over the edge.
The work done in pulling the hanging portion of the chain back to the surface of the table is -
(1) MgL/n (2) MgL/2n (3) MgL/n2 (4) MgL/2n2
3. A pump ejects 12000 kg of water at speed of 4 m/s in 40 second. Find the average rate at
which the pump is working
(1) 0.24 KW (2) 2.4 W (3) 2.4 KW (4) 24 W
4. A body of mass m accelerates uniformly form rest to 1 in time t1. As a function of t, the
instantaneous power delivered to the body is-
m1t m12t m1t2 m12t
(1) (2) (3) (4)
t1 t1 t1 t12
5. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power. The distance
moved by the body in time t is proportional to-
(1) t1/2 (2) t3/4 (3) t3/2 (4) t2
6. A body of mass 2 kg fall vertically, passing through two points A and B. The speeds of the
body as it passes A and B are 1 m/s and 4m/s respectively. The resistance against which the
body falls is 9.6N. What is the distance AB?
(1) 2m (2) 3m (3) 6m (4) 1.5 m
7. A force 'F' stops a body of mass 'm' moving with a velocity 'u' in a distance 's'. The force
required to stop a body of double the mass moving with double the velocity in the same
distance is-
(1) 2F (2) 4F (3) 6F (4) 8F
8. A sphere is suspended by a thread of length . What minimum horizontal velocity is to be
imparted to the sphere for it to reach the height of suspension ?
(1) 8 (2) g l (3) 2g (4) /g
9. A body of mass m kg is rotating in a vertical circle at the end of a string of length r metre. The
difference in the K.E. at the top and bottom of the circle is-
mg 2mg
(1) mgr (2) 2mgr (3) (4)
r r
10. A block of mass 2kg slipped up a slant plane requires 300J of work. If height of slant is 10m
the work done against friction is -
(1) 100J (2) 200J (3) 300J (4) zero
11. A chain of mass m and length is placed on a table with one-sixth of it hanging freely from
the table edge. The amount of work. done to pull the chain on the table is
(1) mg /4 (2) mg /6 (3) mg /72 (4) mg /36
12. The force required to row a boat over the sea is proportional to the speed of the boat. It is
found that it takes 24 h.p. to row a certain boat at a speed of 8km/hr, the horse power
required when speed is doubled -
(1) 12 h.p. (2) 6 h.p. (3) 48 h.p. (4) 96h.p.
13. A 50 kg girl is swinging on a swing from rest. Then the power delivered when moving with a
velocity of 2m/sec upwards in a direction making an angle 60º with the vertical is
(1) 980W (2) 490W (3) 490 3 W (4) 245W

30
14. Under the action of a force a 2kg mass moves such that its position x as a function of time is
given by x = t3/3 where x is in metres and t in seconds. The work done by the force in first
two seconds is
(1) 1600 joules (2) 160joules (3) 16joules (4) 1.6 joules
15. A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that its velocity varies according to the law
v = k s where k is constant and s is the distance covered. Find the total work performed by
all the forces which are acting on the locomotive during the first t seconds after the beginning
of motion.
1 1 1 1
(1) W = mk 4t2 (2) W = m2k 4t2 (3) W = mk 4t 4 (4) W = mk 4t 4
8 4 4 8

16. An object of mass m slides down a hill of height h and of arbitrary shape and stops at the
bottom because of friction. The coefficient of friction may be different for different segments of
the path. Work required to return the object to its position along the same path by a
tangential force is
(1) mgh (2) 2 mgh
(3) – mgh (4) it can not be calculated
17. A light rod of length l is pivoted at the upper end. Two masses (each m), are
attached to the rod, one at the middle and the other at the free end. What
horizontal velocity must be imparted to the lower end mass, so that the rod
may just take up the horizontal position ?
(1) 6 g /5 (2) g /5
(3) 12 g /5 (4) 2 g /5

18. A machine, which is 72 percent efficient, uses 36 joules of energy in lifting up 1kg mass
through a certain distance. The mass is the allowed to fall through that distance. The velocity
at the end of its fall is
(1) 6.6 ms–1 (2) 7.2 ms–1 (3) 8.1 ms–1 (4) 9.2 ms–1
19. In the figure the block A is released from rest when the spring is at its natural length.
For the block B of mass M to leave contact with the ground at some stage, the
minimum mass of A must be –
(1) 2 M m A
(2) M
M
(3) B M
2
(4) a function of M and the force constant of the spring

20. The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as
shown in the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at -
(1) x = x1
(2) x = x2
(3) Both x1 and x2
(4) Neither x1 nor x2
21. A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from a height of 4 m on a
curved smooth surface. On the horizontal surface, path AB is

31
 smooth and path BC offers coefficient of friction
 = 0.1. If the impact of block with the vertical wall at C be perfectly elastic, the total distance
covered by the block on the horizontal surface before coming to rest will be (take g = 10 ms –2)
-
(1) 29 m (2) 49 m (3) 59 m (4) 109 m

22. A force F = (2 ˆi + 5 ˆj + k)
ˆ is acting on a particle. The particle is first displaced from (0, 0, 0) to
(2m, 2m, 0) along the path x = y and then from (2m, 2m, 0) to (2m, 2m, 2m) along the path x =
2m, y = 2m. The total work done in the complete path is -
(1) 12 J (2) 8 J (3) 16 J (4) 10 J
23. A uniform flexible chain of mass m and length 2 hangs in equilibrium over a smooth
horizontal pin of negligible diameter. One end of the chain is given a small vertical
displacement so that the chain slips over the pin. The speed of chain when it leaves pin is-
(1) 2g (2) g (3) 4g (4) 3g

24. A body of mass 2 kg is moved from a point A to a point B by an external agent in a

conservative force field. It the velocity of the body at the points A and B are 5 m/s and 3 m/s
respectively and the work done by the external agents is –10 J, then the change in potential
energy between points A and B is-
(1) 6 J (2) 36 J (3) 16 J (4) None of these
25. A block of mass M is hanging over a smooth and light pulley through a light string. The other
end of the string is pulled by a constant force F. The kinetic energy of the block increases by
20 J in 1s.
(1) The tension in the string is Mg
(2) The tension in the string is F
(3) The work done by the tension on the block is 20 J in the above 1s
(4) The work done by the force of gravity is –20 J in the above 1s

26. Force acting on a particle is (2iˆ + 3ˆj) N. Work done by this force is zero when a particle is
moved on the line 3y + kx = 5. Here value of k is:
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
Passage Based Questions -
The system is released from rest with both the springs in unstretched
positions. Mass of each block is 1 kg and force constant of each spring is 10
N/m.
27. Extension of horizontal spring in equilibrium is:
(1) 0.2 m (2) 0.4 m
(3) 0.6 m (4) 0.8 m
28. Maximum speed of the block placed horizontally is:
(1) 3.21 m/s (2) 2.21 m/s (3) 1.93 m/s (4) 1.26 m/s
29. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it
from 5 cm to 15 cm is –
(1) 16 J (2) 8 J (3) 32 J (4) 24 J

32
30. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move along the x-axis is given by V(x) =
 x4 x2 
 −  J. The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J. Then, the maximum speed (in
 4 2 
m/s) is –
(1) 1/ 2 (2) 2 (3) 3/ 2 (4) 2

31. A stone tied to a string of length L is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string
at the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone it at its lowest position, and has a speed
u. The magnitude of the change in its velocity as it reaches a position where the string is
horizontal is –
(1) u2 − 2gL (2) 2gL (3) u2 − gL (4) 2(u2 − gL)

32. If the unit of force and length be each increased by four times, then the unit of work is
increased by-
(1) 16 times (2) 8 times (3) 2 times (4) 4 times

33. The work done in slowly pushing a block of mass 10 kg from bottom to the top of a rough
inclined plane of coefficient of friction =0.25, length 5m and height 3m, is- (g=9.8 m/sec2)
(1) 392 J (2) 294 J (3) 196 J (4) 98 J

34. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward
acceleration g/4. Work done by the cord on the block is-
d d d
(1) Mg (2) 3Mg (3) −3Mg (4)Mgd
4 4 4
35. A force of 5 N acts on a 15 kg body initially at rest. The work done by the force during the first
second of motion of the body is
5
(1) 5 J (2) J (3) 6 J (4) 75 J
6
36. Force F= (x.i+ y.j) N; where x and y are in meter, acts on a particle and displaces it from point
P (1m, 1m) to point Q (2m, 4m). Work done by the force is-
(1) 15J (2) 10J (3) 9J (4) 7J
37. Force F= (y.i+ x.j) N; where x and y are in meter, acts on a particle and displaces it from point
P (1m, 1m) to point Q (2m, 4m) along path y=2x. Work done by the force is-
(1) 15J (2) 10J (3) 9J (4) 7J
38. A spring is fixed at one end. A gradually increasing force is applied at free end. When the force
is 20N extension in spring is 5cm. Additional energy stored in the spring, if the extension is
slowly increased from 5cm to 10cm, is-
(1) 0.15 J (2) 1.5 J (3) 15.0 J (4) 150 J

39. A light spring is hung vertically from a fixed support and a heavy mass is attached to its lower
end. The mass is then slowly lowered to its equilibrium position. This stretches the spring by
an amount x1. If the same body is permitted to fall instead, the maximum extension in spring
is x2. Value of x1 and x2, respectively, are-
mg mg mg 2mg 2mg mg 2mg 2mg
(1) , (2) , (3) , (4) ,
k k k k k k k k

33
40. A small block is given a gentle push on top of a fixed smooth hemisphere of radius R. The
angle at which block leaves contact with hemisphere is-
4 3
(1) cos −1 (2) cos −1
5 4
2 −1 3
(3) cos −1 (4) cos
3 5
41. An object of mass m slides down a hill of height h and of arbitrary shape and stops at the
bottom because of friction. The coefficient of friction may be different for different segments of
the path. Work required to return the object slowly to its initial position along the same path
by a suitable tangential force is-
(1) mgh (2) 2mgh
(3) –mgh (4) it cannot be calculated
42. A block of mass 50 kg is projected horizontally on a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the floor is 0.1. The block strikes a light spring of stiffness
k=100 N/m with a velocity 2m/s. The maximum compression of the spring is:
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) 4 m
2
3t
43. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies with time as P = watt. Here t is in second.
2
If velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0. The velocity of particle at time t = 2 s will be :
(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m/s

44. A running man has half the kinetic energy of a boy of half his mass. The man speeds up by 1
m/sec and then has the same kinetic energy as the boy. The original speed of the boy was:
(1) 2m/s (2) 9.6m/s (3) 4.8m/s (4) 7.2m/s

45. A particle of mass m is whirled in a vertical circle with the help of a thread. If the maximum
tension in the thread is double its minimum value then the value of minimum tension in the
thread will be
(1) 6mg (2) zero
(3) 3mg (4) can’t be found

CENTRE OF MASS
1. Two particles of mass 2kg and 1kg are kept at x=1m and x=4m respectively. The particles are
interchanged. The shift in centre of mass is-
(1) 2m (2) 1m (3) 0m (4) -1m
2. Masses of 1g, 2g, 3g, .... 100g are suspended from the 1cm, 2cm, 3cm .... 100cm marks of a
light metre scale. The system will be supported in equilibrium at:
(1) 60 cm (2) 67 cm (3) 55 cm (4) 72 cm
3. Distance of center of mass of a uniform semicircular disc of radius R, from center will be-
3R 4R R  2R 
(1) (2) (3) (4)  
π 3π 4  2+ 
4. A thin uniform wire is bent to form the two equal sides AB and AC of triangle ABC, where AB
= AC = 5cm. The third side BC of length 6 cm is made from uniform wire of twice the density
of the first. The distance of centre of mass from A is :
34 11 34 11
(1) cm (2) cm (3) cm (4) cm
11 34 9 45

34
5. A man of mass m moves with a constant speed on a plank of mass 'M' and length 'L' kept
initially at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface, from one end to the other in time 't'. The
speed of the plank relative to ground while man is moving, is -
L M L  m  L  m 
(1)   (2)   (3) (4) None of these
t m t M+m t  M − m 

6. Two particles of equal mass have initial velocities 2iˆ m/s and 2jm/sˆ . First particle has an
acceleration ( ˆi + ˆj ) m/s2, while the acceleration of the second particle is zero. The centre of
mass of the two particles moves in:
(1) circle (2) parabola (3) ellipse (4) straight line
7. A 40-kg boy is stationary on a 30-kg plank that is sliding at 5.00 m/s to the right across a
frictionless pond. The boy then turns and starts walking on the plank at a rate of 4.00 m/s to
the left, relative to the plank. What is the speed of the plank relative to the pond now?
(1) 6.08 m/s (2) 7.29 m/s (3) 8.00 m/s (4) 10.00 m/s
8. A gun is mounted on a trolley free to move on horizontal tacks. Mass of gun and trolley is
25kg. Gun fires a two shells of mass 5kg each one after other. Velocity of shells with respect
to gun is 60m/s. Velocity of first shell with respect to ground is-
(1) 12 m/s (2) 18 m/s (3) 50 m/s (4) 60 m/s
9. Small beads of mass 4.5 g each are dropped from height h= 20m on to a floor at a constant
rate of 1000 beads per second. Assuming beads come to rest after striking floor, the force
acting on the floor due to the beads at t=10 second is- (g = 10m/s2)
(1) 450 N (2) 90 N (3) 540 N (4) 630 N
10. A particle of mass m, initially at rest, is acted upon by a variable force F for a brief interval of
time T . It begins to move with a velocity u after the force stops acting. F is shown in the
graph as a function of time. The curve is a semicircle, then
F 2 T 2
(1) u = o (2) u =
2m 8m
F T FT
(3) u = o (4) u = o
4m 2m
11. A rocket is ejecting 1kg of gases per sec and at a velocity of 60 km/s. The
accelerating force on the rocket is:
(1) 60 N (2) 600 N (3) 6000 N (4) 60000 N
12. Two small bodies of masses 'm' and '2m' are placed in a fixed smooth horizontal circular
hollow tube of mean radius 'r' as shown. The mass 'm' is moving with speed 'u' and the mass
'2m' is stationary. After their first collision, the time elapsed for next collision is:
[coefficient of restitution e=1/2]
2r 4r
(1) (2)
u u
3r 12  r
(3) (4)
u u
13. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 2 kg move towards each other in mutually perpendicular
direction with the velocities 3 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. If the bodies stick together after
collision the heat liberated will be
(1) 13J (2) 13/3J (3) 8J (4) 7J

35
14. The velocities of two steel balls before impact are shown. If after head
on impact the velocity of ball B is observed to be 3 m/s to the right, A B
the coefficient of restitution is 4 m/s 2 m/s
0.6 kg 0.4 kg
(1) 7/18 (2) 6/7
(3) 5/18 (4) None of these
15. A shell is fired from a cannon with a velocity V at an angle  with the horizontal direction. At
the highest point in its path, it explodes into two pieces of equal masses. One of the pieces
retraces to the cannon. The speed of the other piece immediately after the explosion is
(1) 3V.cos (2) 2V.cos (3) (3/2)V.cos (4) V.cos
16. Two balls with masses in the ratio of 1:2 moving in opposite direction have a head a head-on
elastic collision. If their speeds before impact were in the ratio of 3:1 respectively, then speeds
after impact will have the ratio:
(1) 5:3 (2) 7:5 (3) 4:5 (4) None
17. A ball collides elastically with another ball of the same mass. The collision is oblique and
initially other ball was at rest. After the collision, the two balls move with same speeds. What
will be the angle between the velocity of the balls after the collision?
(1) 30º (2) 45º (3) 60º (4) 90º
18. A bullet is fired from the gun. The gun recoils, the kinetic energy of the recoil shall be-
(1) equal to the kinetic energy of the bullet
(2) less than the kinetic energy of the bullet
(3) greater than the kinetic energy of the bullet
(4) double that of the kinetic energy of the bullet
19. A bomb at rest explodes into two parts of masses m1 and m2 . If the momentums of the two
parts be p1 and p2, then their kinetic energies will be in the ratio of-
(1) m1 / m2 (2) m2 / m1 (3) p1 / p2 (4) p2 / p1

20. A bomb initially at rest explodes by it self into three equal mass fragments. The velocities of
two fragments are (3 î + 2 ˆj ) m/s and (– î – 4 ˆj ) m/s. The velocity of the third fragment is (in
m/s)-
(1) 2 î + 2 ˆj (2) 2 î – 2 ˆj (3) – 2 î + 2 ˆj (4) –2 î – 2 ˆj

21. A stone of mass m1 moving with a uniform speed v suddenly explodes on its own into two
fragments. If the fragment of mass m2 is at rest, the speed of the other fragment is-
m1v m2 v m1v mv
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
( m1 − m2 ) ( m1 − m2 ) ( m1 + m2 ) m2
22. A nucleus of mass number A originally at rest emits -particle with speed v. The recoil speed
of daughter nucleus is :
4v 4v v v
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A−4 A+4 A−4 A+4
23. Two particles A and B which are initially at rest move towards each other under the mutual
force of attraction. At the instant when the speed of A is v and the speed of B is 2v. The speed
of the centre of mass of the system is -
(1) v (2) 1.5v (3) 3v (4) zero
24. Two balls A and B of masses 100gm and 250 gm respectively are connected by a stretched
spring of negligible mass and placed on a smooth table. When the balls are released

36
 simultaneously the initial acceleration of B is 10 cm/sec2 west ward. What is the magnitude
and direction of initial acceleration of the ball A-
(1) 25 cm/sec2 Eastward (2) 25 cm/sec2 North ward
(3) 25 cm/sec2 West ward (4) 25 cm/sec2 South ward
25. In an inelastic collision-
(1) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not
(2) momentum is not conserved but kinetic energy is conserved
(3) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved
(4) both the momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
26. Consider the elastic collision of two bodies A and B of equal mass. Initially B is at rest and A
moves with velocity . After the collision-
(1) the body A traces, its path back with the same speed
(2) the body A comes to rest and B moves aways in the direction of A' s approach with the
velocity 
(3) both the bodies stick together and are at rest
(4) B moves along with velocity /2 and A retraces its path with velocity /2
27. Six steel balls of identical size are lined up long a straight frictionless
groove. Two similar balls moving with a speed V along the groove collide
with this row on the extreme left hand then-
(1) all the balls will start moving to the right with speed 1/8 each
(2) all the six balls initially at rest will move on with speed V/6 each and two identical balls
will come to rest
(3) two balls from the extreme right end will move on with speed V each and the remaining
balls will remain at rest
(4) one ball from the right end will move on with speed 2V, the remaining balls will be at rest.
28. A body of mass 2kg moving with a velocity of 3m/sec towards left collides head-on with a body
of mass 3kg moving in opposite direction with a velocity 2m/sec. After collision the two
bodies stick together and move with a common velocity which is-
(1) 5m/sec towards left (2) 12 m/sec. towards right
(3) 12/5 m/sec. towards left (4) zero
29. If one sphere collides head on with another sphere of the same mass at rest inelastically. The
ratio of their speeds after collision shall be-
(1) (1 – e)/(1 + e). (2) 2e/(1 + e). (3) (1 + e)/(1 – e). (4) e.

30. An object of mass 5 kg and speed 10 ms-1 explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One piece
comes to rest. The kinetic energy added to the system during the explosion is-
(1) Zero. (2) 50 J. (3) 250 J. (4) 500 J.
31. A 1.0 kg ball drops vertically into a floor from a height of 25cm. It rebounds to a height of
4cm. The coefficient of restitution for the collision is-
(1) 0.16 (2) 0.32 (3) 0.40 (4) 0.56
32. A ball of mass m moving with a speed  undergoes a head-on elastic collision with a ball of
mass nm initially at rest. The fraction of the incident energy transferred to the heavier ball is-
n n 2n 4n
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1+ n (1 + n ) 2
(1 + n ) 2
(1 + n )2

37
33. A body of mass m kg collides elastically with another body at rest and then continues to move in
the original direction with one half of its original speed. what is the mass of the target body ?
(1) m kg (2) 2/3 m kg (3) m/3 kg (4) m/2 kg
34. A ball after falling a distance of 5 metre from rest hits elastically the floor of a lift and
rebounds. At the time of impact the lift was moving up with a velocity of 1m/sec. The velocity
with which the ball rebounds just after impact is (g = 10m/sec2)
(1) 10 m/sec. (2) 11m/sec. (3) 12 m/sec (4) 13 m/sec.
35. A particle of mass m collides perfectly elastically with another particle of mass
M = 2m. If the incident particle is deflected by 90º. The heavy mass will make an angle with
the initial direction of m equal to -
(1) 15º (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 60º
36. A ball collides elastically with another ball of the same mass. The collision is oblique and
initially one of the ball was at rest. After the collision, the two balls move with same speeds.
What will be the angle between the velocity of the balls after the collision?
(1) 30º (2) 45º (3) 60º (4) 90º
37. An explosion blows a rock into three paths. Two pieces go off at right angles. to each other.
1.00kg piece with a velocity 12m/sec and the other 2.00 kg piece with a velocity 8m/sec. If
the third piece flies off with a velocity 40m/sec. Then the mass of the third piece is -
(1) 0.2kg (2) 0.3 kg (3) 0.4 kg (4) 0.5 kg
38. Three particles each of mass m are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC. They
start moving with equal speeds  each along the medians of the triangle and collide at its
centroid G. If after collision, A comes to rest and B retraces its path along GB, then C
(1) also comes to rest (2) moves with a speed  along CG
(3) moves with a speed  along BG (4) moves with a speed along AG
39. The ring R in the arrangement shown can slide along a smooth, fixed, horizontal rod XY. It is
attached to the block B by a light string. The block is released from rest, with the string
horizontal. X R Y
(1) One point in the string will have only vertical motion
(2) R and B will always have momenta of the same magnitude. B

(3) When the string becomes vertical, the speed of R and B will be inversely proportionaly to
their masses
(4) R will lose contact with the rod at some point

40. A smooth sphere is moving on a horizontal surface with velocity vector 2iˆ + 2jˆ immediately
before it hits a vertical wall. The wall is parallel to ˆj vector and the coefficient of restitution
1
between the sphere and the wall is e = . The velocity vector of the sphere after it hits the
2
wall is:
(1) ˆi − ˆj (2) −ˆi + 2jˆ (3) −ˆi − ˆj (4) 2iˆ − ˆj
→ →
41. Two particles having position vectors r1 = (3iˆ + 5ˆj) metres and r2 = (−5iˆ − 3ˆj) metres are moving
→ →
with velocities 1 = (4iˆ + 3ˆj) m/s and 2 = (aiˆ + 7ˆj) m/s. If they collide after 2 seconds the value
of a is:
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

38
42. A light spring of spring constant k is kept compressed between two blocks of k
masses m and M on a smooth horizontal surface (figure) When released, the m M
blocks acquire velocities in opposite directions. The spring loses contact with
the blocks when it acquires natural length. If the spring was initially compressed through a
distance x, find the final speed of mass m.
KM Km KM Km
(1) x (2) x (3) x (4) x
m(M + m) M(m + M) m(M − m) M(M − m)

43. A body A of mass M while falling vertically downwards under gravity breaks into two parts, a
1 2
body B of mass M and a body C of mass M. The centre of mass of bodies B and C taken
3 3
together shifts compared to that of body A towards
(1) depends on height of breaking (2) does not shift
(3) body C (4) body B
44. A mass 'm' moves with a velocity 'v' and collides in elastically with another
v
identical mass. After collision the Ist mass moves with velocity in a
3
direction perpendicular to the initial direction of motion. Find the speed of the
2nd mass after collision.
2 v
(1) v (2) 3 v (3) v (4)
3 3
45. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 4 kg are connected by a spring of negligible mass and placed
on a frictionless horizontal surface. An impulse gives a velocity of 14 m/s to the heavier block
in the direction of the lighter block. The velocity of the centre of mass is
(1) 30 m/s (2) 20 m/s (3) 10 m/s (4) 5 m/s

ROTATIONAL MECHANICS
1. A chain couples and rotates two wheels in a bicycle. The radii of bigger and smaller wheels in
a bicycle. The radii of bigger and smaller wheels are 0.5m and 0.1 respectively. The bigger
wheel rotates at the rate of 200 rotations per minute, then the rate of rotation of smaller wheel
will be -
(1) 1000 rpm (2) 50/3 rpm (3) 200 rmp (4) 40 rpm
2. If the position vector of a particle is r̂ = (3 î + 4 ˆj ) metre and its angular velocity is
 = ( ˆj + 2 k̂ ) rad/sec then its linear velocity is (in m/s)
(1) –(8 î –6 ˆj + 3 k̂ ) (2) (3 î + 6 ˆj + 8 k̂ ) (3) –(3 î + 6 ˆj + 6 k̂ ) (4) (6 î + 8 ˆj + 3 k̂ )
3. A particle moves by 1 cm in 1 sec in a path of radius 10cm. Its angular speed would be
(1) 10º/sec (2) 10 rad/sec (3) 0.1 rad/sec (4) 1 rad/sec
4. Two spheres of same mass and radius are in contact with each other. If the moment of inertia
of a sphere about its diameter is I, then the moment of inertia of both the spheres about the
tangent at their common point would be -
(1) 3I (2) 7I (3) 4I (4) 5I
5. The moment of inertia of a sphere of radius R about an axis passing through its centre is
proportional to -
(1) R2 (2) R3 (3) R4 (4) R5

39
6. The M.I. of a disc about its diameter is 2 units. Its M.I. about axis through a point on its rim
and in the plane of the disc is
(1) 4 units. (2) 6 units (3) 8 units (4) 10 units
7. Two discs have same mass and thickness. Their materials are of densities 1 and 2 . The
ratio of their moment of inertia about central axis will be -
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 2 (4) 2 : 1

8. Three rings, each of mass P and radius Q are arranged as shown in the figure.
The moment of inertia of the arrangement about YY’ axis will be
7 2
(1) PQ2 (2) PQ2
2 7
2 5
(3) PQ2 (4) PQ2
5 2
9. Three thin uniform rods each of mass M and length L and placed along the three axis of a
Cartesian coordinate system with one end of each rod at the origin. The M.I. of the system
about z-axis is
ML2 2ML2 ML2
(1) (2) (3) (4) ML2
3 3 6
10. A wheel of moment of inertia 5 x 10 –3 kg-m2 is making 20rev/s. The torque required to stop it
in 10 sec is -
(1) 2 × 10–2 N-m (2) 2 × 102 N-m (3)  × 10–2 N-m (4) 4 × 10–2 N-m
11. An automobile engine develops 100H.P. when rotating at a speed of 1800 rad/min. The torque
it delivers is
(1) 3.33 W-s (2) 200W-s (3) 248.7 W-s (4) 2487 W-s

12. A force of (2 î – 4 ˆj + 2 k̂ ) Newton acts at a point (3 î + 2 ˆj – 4 k̂ ) metre from the origin. The
magnitude of torque is
(1) zero (2) 24.4 N-m (3) 0.244 N-m (4) 2.444 N-m

13. The angular velocity of a body is  = 2 î + 3 ˆj + 4 k̂ and a torque  = î + 2 ˆj + 3 k̂ acts on it.

The rotational power will be
(1) 20 watt (2) 15 watt (3) 17 watt (4) 14 watt
14. A particle is at a distance r from the axis of rotation. A given torque  produces some angular
acceleration in it. If the mass of the particle is doubled and its distance from the axis is
halved, the value of torque to produce the same angular acceleration is
(1) /2 (2)  (3) 2 (4) 4
15. The rotational kinetic energy of a rigid body of moment of inertia 5 kg-m2 is 10 joules. The
angular momentum about the axis of rotation would be -
(1) 100 joule-sec (2) 50 joule-sec (3) 10 joule-sec (4) 2 joule -sec
16. The angular velocity of a body changes from one revolution per 9 second to 1 revolution per
second without applying any torque. The ratio of its radius of gyration in the two cases is
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
17. A disc rolls on a table. The ratio of its K.E. of rotation to the total K.E. is -
(1) 2/5 (2) 1/3 (3) 5/6 (4) 2/3

40
18. A ring takes time t1 in slipping down an inclined plane of length L, whereas it takes time t 2 in
rolling down the same plane. The ratio of t 1 and t2 is -
(1) (2)1/2 : 1 (2) 1 : (2)1/2 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 21/4
19. A sphere rolls down an inclined plane through a height h. Its velocity at the bottom would be
7 10  10 
(1) 2gh (2) gh (3) gh (4)   gh
10 7  7 
20. A string of negligible mass is wrapped on a cylindrical pulley of mass M and radius R. The
other end of string is tied to a bucket of mass m. If the pulley rotates about a horizontal axis
then the tension in the string is -
Mmg 2mg
(1) mg (2) (M + m) g (3) (4)
(M + 2m) (M + 2m)
21. In the above problem the linear acceleration of the bucket would be -
2Mg 2mg
(1) mg/(M + m) (2) Mg/(M + m) (3) (4)
(M + 2m) (M + 2m)
22. A smooth uniform rod of length L and mass M has identical beads of negligible size, each of
mass m, which can slide freely along the rod. Initially the two beads are at the centre of the
rod and the system is rotating with angular velocity 0 about an axis perpendicular to the
rod and passing through the mid-point of the rod., There are no external forces. When the
beads reach the ends of the rod, the angular velocity of the rod would be -
M0 M0 M0 M0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
M + 2m M + 4m M + 6m M + 8m
23. In the figure a = 6 cm and b = 20 cm. If the moment of inertia of the system is
3200 kg-m2, its angular acceleration would be –
(1) 10-1rad/s2 (2) 10-2rad/s2
(3) 10-3rad/s2 (4) 10-4rad/s2
24. A thin rod of mass 3kg and length 3m is bent in the form of an equilateral
triangle. The moment of inertia of the triangle about an axis passing through its centre of
mass and perpendicular to its plane would be -
(in kg-m2)
(1) 1/6 (2) 1/3 (3) 5/12 (4) 1/2
25. Two circular discs A and B are of equal masses and thickness but made of metals with
densities dA and dB (dA > dB). If their moments of inertia about an axis passing through
centres and normal to the circular faces be IA and IB , then
(1) IA = IB (2) IA > IB (3) IA < IB (4) IA > = < IB

26. A solid sphere is placed on a horizontal plane. A horizontal impulse I is applied at a distance h
above the central line as shown in the figure. Soon after giving the impulse the sphere starts
h
rolling. The ratio would be
R
1 2
(1) (2)
2 5
1 1
(3) (4)
4 5
27. A disc of mass 25kg and diameter 0.4m is rotating about its axis at 240rev/min. The
tangential force needed to stop it in 20 sec would be -

41
 (1)  (2) 2 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.5
28. Two bodies with moments of inertia I1 and I2 (I1 > I2) have equal angular momenta. If kinetic
energy of rotation are E1 and E2
(1) E1 = E2 (2) E1 > E2 (3) E1 < E2 (4) E1 > = < E2
29. A particle, moving along a circular path has equal magnitudes of linear and angular
acceleration. The diameter of the path is (in metre) :
(1) 1 (2)  (3) 2 (4) 2
30. A ring of mass m and radius R has three particles attached to the ring as shown in the figure.
The centre of the ring has a speed v0. The kinetic energy of the system is : (Slipping is absent.)

(1) 6 mv02 (2) 12 mv02 (3) 4 mv02 (4) 8 mv02

31. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a ring are released from top of an inclined plane
(frictionless) so that they slide down the plane. Then maximum acceleration down the plane is
for (no rolling)
(1) Solid sphere (2) Hollow-sphere (3) Ring (4) All same
32. A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. If its angular
frequency is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, then the new angular momentum is –
(1) 2 L (2) 4 L (3) L / 2 (4) L / 4
33. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of same mass and same outer radii. Their
moment of inertia about their diameters are respectively A and B such that –
 dA
(1) A = B (2) A > B (3) A < B (4) A =
B dB
34. The moment of inertia of uniform semicircular disc of mass M and radius r about a line
perpendicular to the plane of the disc through the centre is
1 2 1
(1) Mr2 (2) Mr2 (3) Mr2 (4) Mr2
4 5 2
35. A cubical block of mass m and edge a slides down a rough inclinded plane of inclination 
with a uniform speed. Find the torque of the normal force acting on the block about its centre
1 1 1
(1) mga sin (2) mga sin (3) mga sin (4) mga sin
3 4 2
36. A force of – F k̂ acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (1, –
1) is – z
ˆ ˆ
(1) F ( i + j )
(2) –F ( ˆi − ˆj )
(3) F ( ˆi − ˆj ) O y
(4) –F ( ˆi + ˆj ) x
37. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity v. It reaches
3v 2
up to a maximum height of with respect to the initial position. The object is
4g

42
 V

(1) ring (2) solid sphere (3) hollow sphere (4) disc

38. A horizontal turntable is rotating with angular velocity ‘ ’ about a vertical axis passing
through its center. A boy is sitting at the centre of the table. The moment of inertia of the
system is I and the kinetic energy is K. The boy spreads his hand and the moment of inertia of
the system becomes 2I. Then kinetic energy of system becomes
(1) K (2) 2K (3) K/2 (4) K/4
39. A thin circular ring of mass m and radius R is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity . Two objects each of mass M are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter
of the ring. The ring now rotates with an angular velocity ' =
m m (m + 2M) (m − 2M)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(m + M) (m + 2M) m (m + 2M)

40. A disc of radius r rolls on without slipping on a rough horizontal floor. If velocity of its centre
of mass is v then velocity of point p, as shown in the figure (OP = r/2 and QOP = 60º) is

v0 v v
(1) v0 (2) (3) 0 7 (4) 0 3
2 2 2
41. Two men each of mass m stand on the rim of a horizontal circular disc, diametrically opposite
to each other. The disc has a mass M and is free to rotate about a vertical axis passing
through its centre of mass. Each mass start simultaneously along the rim clockwise and
reaches their original starting points on the disc. The angle turned through by the disc with
respect to the ground (in radian) is –
8m 2m m 4m
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4m + M 4m + M M+m 2M + m
42. A sphere of mass M rolls without slipping on the inclined plane of inclination . What should
be the minimum coefficient of friction, so that the sphere rolls down without slipping?
2 2 5
(1) tan (2) tan (3) tan (4) tan
5 7 7
43. A solid sphere of mass m is situated on a horizontal surface and a tangential force acts at the
top of the sphere. If the sphere rolls without slipping then the acceleration of the centre of the
sphere would be -
5 F 3F 10F 7F
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 m 5m 7m 10m
44. A solid iron sphere A rolls down an inclined plane, while another hollow sphere B with the
same mass and external radius also rolls down the inclined plane. If V A and VB are their
velocities at the bottom of the inclined plane, then
(1) VA > VB (2) VA = VB (3) VA < VB (4) VA > = < VB
45. In the above question if EA and EB be the total kinetic energies of A and B, then
(1) EA > EB (2) EA = EB (3) EA < EB (4) EA > = < EB

GRAVITATION

43
1. The weight of an object in the coal mine, sea level, at the top of the mountain are W 1, W2 and
W3 respectively, then
(1) W1 < W2 > W3 (2) W1 = W2 = W3 (3) W1 < W2 < W3 (4)W1 > W2 > W3

2. The height above surface of earth where the value of gravitational acceleration is one fourth of
that at surface, will be
(1) Re/4 (2) Re/2 (3) 3Re/4 (4) Re
R
3. The decrease in the value of g on going to a height above the earth's surface will be -
2
5g 4g g
(1) g/2 (2) (3) (4)
9 9 3

4. If the earth suddenly stops rotating, the value of g at any place will -
(1) remain same (2) decrease (3) increase (4) none of these

5. If 'R' is the radius of earth and 'g' the acceleration due to gravity then mass of earth will be :
gR 2 g 2R Rg GR 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
G G G g
6. The dimensions of G are -
(1) ML3T–2 (2) M–1LT–2 (3) M–1L3T–2 (4) M–1L3T–2

7. Which of the following formula is correct- (d is the density of earth)

4 4 4 4 dG
(1) g = Gd (2) g = RGd (3) g = (4) g =
3 3 3 3 R2

8. The value of g on the surface of earth is 9.8 m/s2 and the radius of earth is 6400km. The
average density of earth in kg/m3 will be -
(1) 5.29 × 103 (2) 2.64 × 103 (3) 7.60 × 103 (4) 1.46 × 103
9. The acceleration due to gravity of that planet whose mass and radius are half those of earth,
will be (g is acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface)
(1) 2g (2) g (3) g/2 (4) g/4
10. A body of mass m rises to height h = R/5 from the earth's surface, where R is earth's radius. If
g is acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface, the increase in potential energy is
5 3 6
(1) mg/h (2) mgh (3) mgh (4) mgh
6 5 7
11. A body of mass m is taken to a height h from the surface of the earth (radius R) The gain in its
gravitational potential energy is
 R  R + h
(1) mgR (2) mgh (3) mgh   (4) mgh  
R + h  R 
12. A planet has mass 1/10 of that of earth, while radius is 1/3 that of earth. If a person can
throw a stone on earth surface to a height of 90m, then he will be able to throw the stone on
that planet to a height
(1) 90m (2) 40 m (3) 100 m (4) 45 m
13. Work done in taking a body of mass m to a height nR above surface of earth will be :
(R = radius of earth)

44
 (1) mgnR (2) mgR (n/n + 1) (3) mgR
( n + 1) (4)
mgR
n n ( n + 1)
14. A particle falls on earth : (i) from infinity (ii) from a height 10 times the radius of earth. The
ratio of the velocities gained on reaching at the earth's surface is
(1) 11 : 10 (2) 10 : 11 (3) 10 : 11 (4) 11 : 10

15. The relation between the escape velocity from the earth and the velocity of a satellite orbiting
near the earth's surface is
(1) ve = v (2) ve = v 2 (3) ve = 2v (4) ve = v/ 2
16. The escape velocity from the earth does not depend upon -
(1) mass of earth (2) mass of the body
(3) radius of earth (4) acceleration due to gravity
17. The escape velocity from a planet is v0. The escape velocity from a planet having twice the
radius but same density will be -
(1) 0.5 v0 (2) v0 (3) 2v0 (4) 4v0
18. The potential energy of a body of mass 3kg on the surface of a planet is 54 joule. The escape
velocity will be -
(1) 18m/s (2) 162 m/s (3) 36 m/s (4) 6 m/s
19. A body of mass m is situated at a distance 4R e above the earth's surface, where Re is the
radius of earth. How much minimum energy be given to the body so that it may escape -
mgR e mgR e
(1) mgRe (2) 2mgRe (3) (4)
5 16
20. If the radius of earth is to decrease by 4% and its density remains same, then its escape
velocity will
(1) remain same (2) increase by 4% (3) decrease by 4% (4) increase by 2%
21. A satellite is moving in a circular orbit around earth with a speed v. If its mass is m, then its
total energy will be -
3 1 1
(1) mv2 (2) mv2 (3) mv2 (4) – mv2
4 2 2
22. The ratio of kinetic energy of a body orbiting near the earth's surface and the kinetic energy of
the same body escaping the earth's gravitational field is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 0.5
23. The ratio of distances of satellites A and B above the earth's surface is 1.4 :1, then the ratio of
energies of satellites B and A will be -
(1) 1.4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 1
24. An earth satellite is moved from one stable circular orbit to another higher stable circular
orbit. Which one of the following quantities increases for the satellite as a result of this change
(1) gravitational force (2) gravitational potential energy
(3) centripetal acceleration (4) Linear orbital speed
25. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the earth's surface is
. For a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the earth's radius, the orbital velocity is –

3 3 2 2
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
2 2 3 3

45
26. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving round the earth in circular orbits
of radius r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. Which of the following statements is true regarding
their speed 1 and 2?
 
(1) 1 = 2 (2) 1 < 2 (3) 1 > 2 (4) 1 = 2
r1 r2
27. Orbital velocity of earth's satellite near the surface is 7 Km/sec. When the radius of the orbit
is 4 times than that of earth's radius then orbital velocity in that orbit is
(1) 3.5 Km/sec (2) 7 Km/sec (3) 14 Km/sec (4) 72 Km/sec

28. If the earth-sun distance is held constant and the mass of the sun is doubled, then the period
of revolution of the earth around the sun will change to-
1 1
(1) 2 years (2) years (3) years (4) 2 years
2 2
29. A satellite moves in a path of radius r with a velocity v, the mass of earth will be -
vr v 2r Gr G
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4)
G G v vr2
30. The escape velocity of a body at earth is 11.2 km/s, the escape velocity of the body thrown at
an angle 45º with the horizontal will be -
11.2
(1) 11.2 km/s (2) 22.4 km/s (3) km/s (4) 11.2 2 km/s
2
31. The loss in weight of a body taken from earth's surface to a height h is 1%. The change in
weight taken into a mine of depth h will be -
(1) 1% loss (2) 1% gain (3) 0.5% gain (4) 0.5 loss
32. Two satellites A and B (each of mass m) of earth are put in circular orbits around the centre of
earth. The height of satellite A above the earth's surface is equal to the radius R of earth and
that of satellite B is 3R. The ratio of potential energies of satellites A and B is -
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
33. If the angular speed of earth is increased so much that the objects start flying from the
equator, then the length of the day will be nearly -
1
(1) 1 hours (2) 8 hours (3) 18 hours (4) 24 hours
2
34. The acceleration due to gravity of that planet whose mass and radius are half those of earth,
will be (g is acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface)
(1) 2g (2) g (3) g/2 (4) g/4
35. Assuming earth as a sphere of radius R, the weight of mass 1 kg at a distance 2R from the
centre of earth is 2.5N. The weight of same mass at a distance 3R will be -
(1) 4.75N (2) 3.75N (3) 2.5N (4) 1.1 N
36. If a body is taken up to a height of 1600km from the earth's surface, then the percentage loss
of gravitational force acting on that body will be- (Radius of earth Re =6400 km)
(1) 50% (2) 36% (3) 25% (4) 10%
37. A body of mass m is taken from the surface of earth to a height R/4 above the surface. The
change in its potential energy is -
5mgR 3mgR mgR mgR
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 4 4 5

46
38. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic +
potential) energy E0. Its potential energy is -
(1) –E0 (2) 5E0 (3) 2E0 (4) E0
1 1
39. The mass of moon is of the mass of earth and the acceleration due to gravity is th of
81 6
acceleration due to gravity on earth. The ratio of radii of moon and earth is -
(1) 6/81 (2) 4/729 (3) 2/27 (4) 2/48
40. There are two bodies of masses 100 kg and 10000kg separated by a distance 1m. At what
distance from the smaller body, the intensity of gravitational field will be zero?
1 1 1 10
(1) m (2) m (3) m (4) m
9 10 11 11
41. In the figure, motion of a planet around the sun in elliptical path is shown with sun at one of
its foci. Two shaded areas shown in figure are equal. If the times taken by the planet to move
from A to B and from C to D are t1 and t2 respectively, then

(1) t1 < t2 (2) t1 > t2

(3) t1 = t2 (4) there is no relation between t 1 and t2
42. A particle is carried from A to B along different paths in a gravitational field as shown in
figure, then

(1) Work done along path IV will be maximum

(2) Work done along path I will be maximum.
(3) Work done along all paths will be same
(4) Work done along path III will be minimum
43. Two satellites of same mass m are revolving round the earth E(mass M) in the same orbit of
radius r. Rotational directions of the two are opposite therefore, they can collide and stick
with each other. Total mechanical energy of the system (both satellites and earths) is - (m < <
M)
GMm 2GMm GMm
(1) – (2) – (3) – (4) zero
r r 2r
44. Assuming earth as a sphere of radius R, the weight of mass 1 kg at a distance 2R from the
centre of earth is 2.5N. The weight of same mass at a distance 3R will be -
(1) 4.75N (2) 3.75N (3) 2.5N (4) 1.1 N

45. The escape speed for a projectile in the case of earth is 11.2 km/sec. A body is projected from
the surface of the earth with a velocity which is equal to twice the escape speed. The velocity
of the body when at infinite distance from the centre of the earth is :
(1) 11.2 km/sec (2) 22.4 km/sec (3) 11.2 3 km/sec (4) 11.2 2 km/sec

MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS & FLUIDS

47
1. After suspending a body of mass 1 kg from a wire of negligible mass, length 1 m and radius 1
mm it is made to oscillate along the length in a vertical plane. Its frequency is found to be 100
per s. Young's modulus of elasticity of the material of wire is-
(1) 1.05 × 1011 N/m2 (2) 1.26 × 1011 N/ m2
11
(3) 2. 12 × 10 N/ m 2 (4) 2.84 × 1011 N/m2
2. On stretching some substances, permanent elongation is caused, because–
(1) they are perfectly elastic (2) they are perfectly plastic
(3) more stress acts on them (4) their strain is infinite

3. A cable that can support a load W is cut into two equal parts. The maximum load that can be
supported by either part is–
W W
(1) (2) (3) W (4) 2 W
4 2
4. When a wire is stretched, an amount of work is done. What is the amount of work done in
stretching a wire through 0.1 mm, if its length is 2m and area of cross-section,
10–6m2 (Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2)
(1) 5 × 10–1 J (2) 5 × 10–2 J (3) 5 × 10–3 J (4) 5 × 10–4 J
5. A small spherical solid ball is dropped in a viscous liquid. Its journey in the
liquid is best described in the figure by –
(1) Curve A (2) Curve B
(3) Curve C (4) Curve D
6. A spherical ball contracts in volume by 0.01% when subjected to a normal
uniform pressure of 100 atmospheres. The bulk modulus of its material in dynes/ cm2 is-
(1) 10 × 1012 (2) 100 × 1012 (3) 1 × 1012 (4) 2.0 × 1011
7. Two wires, one of copper and the other of steel, are of same length and cross section. They are
welded together to from a long wire. On suspending a weight at its one end, increment in
length is found to be 3 cms. If Young's modulus of steel is double that of copper, the
increment in steel wire will be-
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm (3) 1.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm
8. The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.1 × 108 N/ m2. To what depth a rubber ball be taken in a
lake so that its volume is decreased by 0.1%?
(1) 1 km (2) 25 m (3) 100 m (4) 200 m
9. On applying the load, the increment in length of a wire is 1 mm. On applying the same load
on another wire of same length and material, but having half the radius, the increment will
be:
(1) 0.25 mm (2) 4.0 mm (3) 0.5 mm (4) 2.0 mm
10. The compressibility of water is 4 × 10–5 per unit atmospheric pressure. The decreased volume
of 100 cm3 of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be-
(1) 0.4 cm3 (2) 4 × 10–5 cm3 (3) 0.025 m3 (4) 0.004 cm3
11. If a stretching force F1 is applied on a vertical metal wire then its length is L1 and if force F2 is
applied on it then its length becomes L2. The real length of wire is-
F L + F2L1 F L − F1L 2 L + L2
(1) 1 2 (2) 2 1 (3) 1 (4) L1L 2
F2 + F1 F2 − F1 2

12. Poisson's ratio of a certain material is 0.2 . If a longitudinal strain of 4 × 10 –3 is produced in a

uniform rod or this material, the percentage change in its volume will be-

48
 (1) 0.24% (2) 0.32% (3) 0.48% (4) 0.56%
13. After suspending a body of mass 1 kg from a wire of negligible mass, length 1 m and radius 1
mm it is made to oscillate along the length in a vertical plane. Its frequency is found to be 100
per s. Young's modulus of elasticity of the material of wire is-
(1) 1.05 × 1011 N/m2 (2) 1.26 × 1011 N/ m2
11
(3) 2. 12 × 10 N/ m 2 (4) 2.84 × 1011 N/m2
14. Velocity of flow of water in a horizontal pipe is 10.0 m/s. Find the velocity- head or water
(g = 10.00 m/s2)
(1) 9.00 m (2) 5.00 m (3) 3.00 m (4) None of these
15. Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe of non- uniform cross- section. The speed of water
is 30 cm/s at a place where pressure is 10 cm(of water). Calculate the speed of water at the
other place where the pressure is half of that of the first place-
(1) 100.4 cm/s (2) 101.4 cm/s (3) 102.4 cm/s (4) 103.4 cm/s
16. If an oil drop of density 0.95 × 103 kg/ m3 and radius 10–4 cm is falling in air whose density
is 1.3 km/m3 and coefficient of viscosity is 18 × 10 –6 kg/(m–s). Calculate the terminal speed
of the drop.
(1) 0.00015 cm/s (2) 0.0005 cm/s (3) 0.0115 cm/s (4) None of these
17. A large tank is filled with water (density = 103 kg/m3). A small hole is made
at a depth 10m below water surface. The range of water issuing out of the
hole is R on ground. What extra pressure must be applied on the water
surface so that the range becomes 2R
(take 1 atm = 105 Pa and g = 10 m/s2) :
(1) 9 atm (2) 4 atm (3) 5 atm
(4) 3 atm
18. A ball of relative density 0.8 falls into water from a height of 2m. The depth to which the ball
will sink is (neglect viscous forces) –
(1) 8m (2) 2 m (3) 6m (4) 4 m
19. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the
lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J (3) 0.1 J (4) 0.2J
20. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However wire 1 has
cross-section area A and wire 2 has cross-section area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by
x on applying force F, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount ?

(1) F (2) 4 F (3) 6 F (4) 9 F

21. A weight W is suspended through a rope of length 1 m and cross-sectional area
10-6 m2 from a rigid support. The relation between change in length of rope l
& W is shown in the graph. The young’s Modulus of elasticity is :
(1) 2×10-5 (2) 2×1011
(3) 5×10 4 (4) 5×1010
22. A horizontal pipeline carries water in a streamline flow. At a point along the
pipe where the cross-sectional area is 10 cm2, the water velocity is 1 m s–1 and the pressure
is 2000 Pa. The pressure of water at another point where the cross-sectional area is 5 cm2 is
(Density of water = 103 kg m–3)
(1) 500 Pa (2) 1000 Pa (3) 250 Pa (4) 750 Pa

49
23. The soap and the detergent make water suitable for washing clothes because they-
(1) make it rich in lather (2) increase its density
(3) reduce its hardness (4) reduce its surface tension
24. W is the work done in forming a bubble of radius r, the work done in forming a bubble of
radius 2r will be -
(1) 4W (2) 3W (3) 2W (4) W
25. If W is the amount of work done in forming a soap bubble of volume V, then the amount of
work done in forming a bubble of volume 2V from the same solution will be -
(1) W/2 (2) 2W (3) 2 W (4) 41/3 W
26. A big drop of water whose diameter is 0.2 cm, is broken into 27000 small drops of equal
volume. Work done in this process will be - (surface tension of water is 7 × 10 –2 N/m).
(1) 5 × 105 joule (2) 2.9 × 10–5 joule (3) 2.55 × 10–5 joule (4) zero
27. Several spherical drops of a liquid each of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R.
If T is the surface tension, then the energy liberated will be -
1 1  1 1 1 1  1 1
(1) 4R3T  −  (2) 2R3T  − (3) r2T  − (4) 2RT  − 
r R
  r R  r R  R r
28. The work done in blowing a spherical soap bubble of diameter 2cm will be if the surface
tension of soap solution is 2 x 10-2-
(1) 50.2 x 10-6 Joule (2) 50.2 Joule. (3) 50.2 x 10-6 erg. (4) zero
29. Suppose that 64 raindrops combine into a single drop. The ratio of the total surface energy of
the 64 drops to that of a single drop is- (For water T = 0.72 N/m = 0.072 Joule/m2.)
(1) 4 (2) 10 (3) 2 (4) 8
30. The volume of two soap bubbles are in the ratio 8 : 1. Then ratio of excess pressure inside the
soap bubbles is-
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 1 : 8 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
31. If r, V and P are respectively the radius, volume and excess of pressure, for a bubble (or drop)
then-
(1) PV  r (2) PV  1/r (3) PV  r2 (4) PV  1/r2
32. The radius of curvature of common surface formed by contact of two soap bubbles of radii
3cm and 4cm respectively, will be-
(1) 7cm (2) 1cm (3) 5cm (4) 12 cm
33. If a liquid neither rises nor falls in a capillary, its angle of contact is -
(1) 0º (2) 180º (3) 90º (4) 45º
34. Water rises to a height of 30 mm in a capillary tube. If the radius of the capillary tube is made
(3/4)th of its previous value, the height to which the water will rise in the tube is-
(1) 30 mm (2) 20 mm (3) 40 mm (4) 10 mm
35. Water rises to a height of 5 cm in a glass capillary tube. If the area of cross section of the tube
is reduced to (1/16)th of the former value, the water rises to a height of-
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
36. If a capillary tube is tilted to 45º and 60º from the vertical then the ratio of length l1 and l2 of
liquid columns in it will be-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
37. If the work done in blowing a bubble of volume V is W then the work done in blowing a soap
bubble of volume 2V will be-

50
 (1) W (2) 2W (3) 3 2 W (4) 3 4 W
38. A 6 cm long toothpick is floating on the surface of water the surface tension on one side of it is
50 dynes/cm and some camphor placed on the other reduces the surface tension to 45
dynes/cm. The resultant force acting on the toothpick will be (in dynes)
(1) zero (2) 10 (3) 30 (4) 90
39. A straight capillary tube is immersed in water and the water rises to 5 cm. If the capillary is
bent as shown in figure then the height of water column will be-
h

(1) 5 cm (2) less than 5 cm (3) greater than 5 cm (4) 4 cos 

40. When water rises in capillary tube of radius r to height h, then its potential energy is U1. If
capillary tube of radius 2r is dipped in same water then potential energy of water is U 2. The
ratio U1:U2 will be-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
41. What is the height to which a liquid rises between two long parallel plates, a distance d apart
(Surface tension of liquid is T and density is ) ?
4T 2T T T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
gd gd gd 2gd
42. In the bottom of a vessel with mercury of density  there is a round hole of radius r. At what
maximum height of the mercury layer will the liquid still not flow out through this hole.
(Surface tension = T) –
T T 2T 4T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
rg 2rg rg rg
43. To what height should a rectangular cylinder having square base of length 10 cm be filled so
that the total force on the bottom is equal to that on the sides -
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 20 cm (4) 6.67 cm
44. A metallic sphere with an internal cavity weighs 40 gm in air and 20 gm in water.
If the density of the material with the cavity = 2 gm/c.c., then the volume of the cavity is -
(1) 15 c.c. (2) 20 c.c. (3) 25 c.c. (4) 30 c.c.
45. A piece of steel floats in mercury. The specific gravity of mercury and steel are 13.6 and 7.8
respectively. For covering the whole piece some water is filled above the mercury. What part of
the piece is inside the mercury -
(1) 0.54 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.47 (4) 0.62

46. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in figure. The distance
and h are shown there. After some time the coin falls into the water. Then -

(1) decreases and h increases (2) yincreases and h decreases

(3) both and h increase (4) both and h decrease

51
47. An incompressible fluid flows steadily through a cylindrical pipe which has radius 2R at point
A and radius R at point B further along the flow direction. If the velocity at point A is v, its
velocity at point B will be –
(1) 2v (2) v (3)v/2 (4) 4v

48. Water is flowing in a tube of non-uniform radius. The ratio of the radii at entrance and exit
ends of tube is 3 : 2. The ratio of the velocities of water entering in and exiting from the tube
will be –
(1) 8 : 27 (2) 4 : 9 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 9 : 4

49. Water from a tap emerges vertically downward with an initial speed of 1.0 ms –1. The cross-
section area of the tap is 10 –4m2. Assumed at the pressure is constant throughout the stream
of water and that the flow is steady. The cross-sectional areal of the stream 0.15 m below the
tap is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 5.0 × 10–4 m2 (2) 1.0 × 10–5 m2 (3) 5.0 × 10–5 m2 (4) 2.0 × 10–5 m2

50. A tank has an orifice near its bottom. The volume of the liquid flowing per second out of the
orifice does not depend upon –
(1) Area of the orifice (2) Height of the liquid level above the orifice
(3) Density of liquid (4) Acceleration due to gravity

SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

1. A particle is moving with constant angular velocity along the circumference of a circle. Choose
incorrect statement-
(1) motion of projection on a diameter is oscillatory
(2) motion of projection on a diameter is simple harmonic
(3) motion of particle is oscillatory
(4) motion of particle is periodic

2. Which of the following graph represents the displacement, velocity and

acceleration of the particle respectively are-
(1) A, B, C
(2) B, A, C
(3) B, C, A
(4) A, C, B
3. The phase difference between velocity and displacement of particle executing SHM is-
(1) 0 (2) /2 (3) /4 (4) /6
4. A particle starting from the mean position performs simple harmonic oscillation with
amplitude 5cm and period 2sec. Equation of motion is–
(1) y=5.sin t (2) y=2.sin (2t/5) (3) y=5.cos t (4) y=5.sin(2t/5)
5. The amplitude and the time period in a S.H.M. is 0.5 cm and 0.4 sec respectively. If the initial
phase is  /2 radian, then the equation of S.H.M. will be-
(1) y = 0.5sin5t (2) y = 0.5sin 4t (3) y = 0.5sin2.5t (4) y = 0.5 cos 5t

52
6. A particle executing S.H.M. has maximum velocity '' and maximum acceleration , the period
of oscillation shall be-
(1) 2 () (2) 2 () (3) 2 (/)1/2 (4) 2 (/)1/2

7. The displacement x (in centimeters) of an oscillating particle varies with time t (in second) as
 
x = 2cos  0.5t +  The magnitude of the maximum acceleration of the particle is-
 3
  2 2
(1) cms −2 (2) cms −2 (3) cms −2 (4) cms −2
2 4 2 4
8. Which of the following equation does not represent a simple harmonic motion
(1) y = a sin  t (2) y = a cos  t (3) y = a sin  t + bcos  t (4) y = a tan  t
A A
9. Both the equations y1=A.sin t and y2= .sint+ .cos t; represent S.H.M. The ratio of the
2 2
amplitudes of the two motions is-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0.5 (4) 2
10. The function sin2 (t) represents-
(1) simple harmonic motion with a period 2 / 
(2) simple harmonic motion with a period  / 
(3) periodic but not simple harmonic motion with a period 2 / 
(4) periodic but not simple harmonic, motion with a period
11. The displacement of a particle varies with time as x=12sinωt-16sin3ωt cm . Choose incorrect-
(1) periodic but not oscillatory
(2) periodic, oscillatory and simple harmonic
(3) Amplitude of the particle 4cm
(4) Maximum acceleration is 362
12. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x=-A and x=+A . The ratio of average
velocity of particle between x=0 and x=A/2 with maximum particle velocity is-
1 2 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4 
13. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency 2rad /s and
amplitude 60mm. The velocity of the body at 20 mm displacement is-
(1) 40 mm /s (2) 60mm /s (3) 113mm /s (4) 120mm /s

3
14. A particle performing S.H.M. having amplitude 'a' possesses velocity times the velocity at
2
the mean position. The displacement of the particle shall be-
a 3 a
(1) a/2 (2) (3) (4) a 2
2 2
15. A particle of mass 0.1 kg executes SHM under a force F=(–10x) N. Speed of particle at mean
position is 6 m/s. Then amplitude of oscillations is:
(1) 0.6 m (2) 0.2 m (3) 0.4 m (4) 0.1 m
16. A particle executing simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 0.1 m. At a certain instant when
its displacement is 0.02 m, its acceleration is 0.5 m/s2. Maximum particle velocity is (in m/s)-

53
 (1) 0.01 (2) 0.05 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.25

17. The displacement equation of a particle is x=(3sin2t+4cos2t) unit. The amplitude and
maximum velocity will be respectively-
(1) 5 unit, 10 unit (2) 3 unit, 2 unit (3) 4 unit, 2 unit (4) 3 unit, 4 unit

18. A particle in S.H.M. is described by the displacement function x(t) = a cos(t + ) . If the initial
(t = 0) position of the particle is 1 cm and its initial velocity is  cm/s . The angular frequency
of the particle is  rad /s , then it’s amplitude is -
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm (3) 2 cm (4) 2.5 cm

19. A body of mass 0.01 kg executes simple harmonic motion (S.H.M.) F(N)
about x = 0 under the influence of a force shown below. The period of
8.0
the S.H.M. is- + 2.0 x(m)
(1) 1.05 s (2) 0.52 s
– 2.0
(3) 0.25 s (4) 0.30 s – 8.0

20. The time-period of a particle undergoing S.H.M. is 16 sec. It starts its

motion from the mean position and after 2 sec its velocity 0.4 m/s. The amplitude is-
(1) 1.44 m (2) 0.72 m (3) 2.88 m (4) 0.66 m
21. The time-period of a particle undergoing S.H.M. is 16 sec. It starts its motion from the mean
position and after 2 sec, its velocity 0.4 m/s. The amplitude is-
(1) 1.44 m (2) 0.72 m (3) 2.88 m (4) 0.66 m
22. If the displacement (x) and velocity (v) of a particle executing simple harmonic motion are
related through the expression 4v 2 =(25-x 2 ) ; then its time period is
(1)  (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
23. For a particle executing SHM, which of the following statements does not hold good?
(1) the total energy of the particle always remains the same
(2) the restoring force is always directed towards a fixed point
(3) the restoring force is maximum at the extreme positions
(4) the velocity of the particle is minimum at the centre of motion of the particle
24. If the frequency of SHM is f, then the frequency with which the kinetic energy oscillates is
(1) f/2 (2) f (3) 2f (4) zero
25. A particle is vibrating in a simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 4 cm. Displacement
from the equilibrium position, when its energy is half potential and half kinetic, is-
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm (3) 3 cm (4) 2 2 cm

26. If the displacement of a particle in a SHM is half the amplitude, then its kinetic energy will be
what fraction of its total energy?
(1) 1/4 (2) 3/4 (3) 1/2 (4) 2/3
27. The total energy of the body executing S.H.M. is E. Then the kinetic energy, when the
displacement is half of the amplitude, is :
3
(1) E/2 (2) E/4 (3) 3E/4 (4) E
4
28. A body executes SHM with amplitude A. At what displacement from mean position is the
potential energy of the body becomes one fourth of its total energy?
(1) A/4 (2) A/2 (3) 3A/4 (4) none

54
29. A body is executing simple harmonic motion. At a displacement x, its potential energy is
E1and at a displacement y, its potential energy is E2. The potential energy E at a displacement
(x + y) is
(1) E1 + E2 (2) E12 + E22 (3) E1 + E2 + 2 E1 E2 (4) E1 E2
30. An object of mass 0.2 kg executes simple harmonic motion along x-axis with frequency of 25
Hz. At the position x = 0.04 m, the object has a kinetic energy of 0.5 J and potential energy of
0.4J. The amplitude of oscillations is equal to:
(1) 0.05 m (2) 0.06 m (3) 0.07 m (4) 0.08 m
31. Two particles executes S.H.M. of same amplitude and frequency along the same straight line.
They pass one another when going in opposite directions, and each time their displacement is
half of their amplitude. The phase difference between them is
(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 120°
32. Two springs of the same material but of length L and 2L are suspended with masses M and
2M attached at their lower ends. Their time periods when they are allowed to oscillate will be
in the ratio
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
33. A force of 6.4 N produces an extension of 0.1m in a spring. If the time period of SHM
produced by the load is /4, the mass is-
(1) 1 kg (2) 4/ kg (3) /8 kg (4) 10 kg
34. Two identical spring of constant K are connected in series and parallel as shown in figure. A
mass m is suspended from them. The ratio of their frequencies of vertical oscillations will be
(1) 2 : 1

K
(2) 1 : 1
K K

(3) 1 : 2
K

(4) 4 : 1 m
m
(2)
(1)
35. A mass m is suspended separately by two different springs of spring constant K1
and K2 gives the time-period t1 and t 2 respectively. If same mass m is connected
by both springs as shown in figure then time-period t is given by the relation
t .t
(1) t = t1 + t2 (2) t = 1 2
t1 + t 2
m
(3) t2 = t12 + t22 (4) t −2 = t1−2 + t2−2

36. A weightless spring of length 60 cm and force constant 200 N/m is kept straight and
unstretched on a smooth horizontal table and its ends are rigidly fixed. A mass of 0.25 kg is
attached at the middle of the spring and is slightly displaced along the length. The time period
of the oscillation of the mass is
   
(1) s (2) s (3) s (4) s
20 10 5 200

37. Due to some force F1 a body oscillates with period 4/5 sec and due to other force F 2 oscillates
with period 3/5 sec. If both forces act simultaneously, the new period will be

55
 (1) 0.72 sec (2) 0.64 sec (3) 0.48 sec (4) 0.36 sec

38. A block of mass M1 resting on a frictionless horizontal surface connected

to a spring of spring constant k that is anchored to a wall. A block of mass
M2
M2 =  M1 is placed on the top of the first block. The two bodies move as a k
unit with S.H.M. What is the maximum amplitude of oscillation so that the Ml
two bodies move as a unit ? The coefficient of friction between two bodies
is µ.
(1)
(1 +  ) gµM1
(2)
(1 +  ) gµM2
(3)
M1gµ
(4)
 M1M1 gµ
k k k k

39. A particle of mass m is attached to three identical springs A, B and C each of force constant k
as shown in figure. If the particle of mass m is pushed slightly against the spring A and
released, then the time period of oscillation is
B C
2m m
(1) 2 (2) 2 120º
k 2k

(
O m
2m m
(3) 2 (4) 2
3k 3k
A
40. In fig the spring has a force constant k. The pulley is light and smooth, the
spring and the string are light. The suspended block has a mass m kg. If the block is slightly
displaced vertically down from its equilibrium position and released then the period of its
vertical oscillations.
m m
(1) T = 2 (2) T = 4
k k
k k
(3) T = 2 (4) T = 4
m m
41. A U-tube of uniform bore of cross-sectional area 'a' has been set up vertically with open ends
facing up. Now m gm of a liquid of density d is poured into it. The column of liquid in this
tube will oscillate with a period T such that
(1) T = 2 m/g
(2) T = 2 ma /gd
(3) T = 2 m/2adg
(4) T = 2 m/gda

42. A rectangular wood block of dimension abc and density x is partially submerged and
floating in a fluid of density y. Vertical edge of block is c. Period of oscillation is-
c.x a.x c.y a.y
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 2
g.y g.y g.x g.x

43. A uniform disc of radius R is pivoted at point O on its circumference. The time period of small
oscillations about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to plane of disc will be:
R 2R 2R 3R
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 2
g 3g g 2g

56
44. A disc of radius R and mass M is pivoted at the rim and is set for small oscillations. If a
simple pendulum has to have the same period as that of the disc, the length of the simple
pendulum should be :
5R 2R 3R 3R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 3 4 2
45. A disc of radius R and mass M is pivoted at the rim and is set for small oscillations. If simple
pendulum has to have the same period as that of the disc, the length of the simple pendulum
should be-
5 2 3 3
(1) R (2) R (3) R (4) R
4 3 4 2

THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER

1. The temperature at which the reading of Fahrenheit scale and Kelvin scale are equal is
(1) 32 o F (2) 212 o F (3) 574 o F (4) 608 o F

2. A Celsius scale and a Fahrenheit scale are dipped in boiling water. The water is cooled till the
Fahrenheit scale registers 140 o F . The fall in temperature in the Celsius scale is
(1) 40 o (2) 60 o (2) 80 o (4) 81 o
3. A constant volume gas thermometer shows pressure reading of 50 cm and 90cm of mercury at
0o C and 100 o C respectively. The temperature on this gas scale when pressure reading is
60 cm mercury is-
(1) 5o C (2) 15 o C (3) 25 o C (4) 35 o C
4. In a certain scale FP & BP of water are taken to be 10 o C and 80o C respectively. What is
temperature in Celsius scale when reading in above mentioned scale is 38 o C.
(1) 40 o C (2) 1/40 0 C (3) 72 o C (4) 8 o C
5. The liquid of a liquid-thermometer should have the following properties:
(1) high specific heat, high coefficient of the thermal expansion and high boiling point
(2) low specific heat, high coefficient of the thermal expansion and high boiling point
(3) low specific heat, low coefficient of the thermal expansion and high boiling point
(4) low specific heat, low coefficient of the thermal expansion and low boiling point

6. Two rods of length l1 and l2 are made of materials whose coefficients of linear expansion are 1
and 2. If difference between two lengths is independent of temperature-
l  l  12 22
(1) 1 = 1 (2) 1 = 2 (3) l221 = l122 (4) =
l2  2 l2 1 l1 l2

7. If two rods of length L and 2L having coefficients of linear expansion  and 2 respectively are
connected so that total length becomes 3L, the average coefficient of linear expansion of the
composite rod equals:
3 5 5
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) none of these
2 2 3

8. A clock pendulum made of invar has a period of 0.5 sec at 20°C. If the clock is used in a
climate where average temperature is 30°C, approximately how much fast or slow will the
clock run in 106 sec. [invar=1×10–6/°C]
(1) 5 sec fast (2) 10 sec fast (3) 10 sec slow (4) 5 sec slow

57
9. When the temperature of a body increases from T to T + T its moment of inertia increases
I
from I to I+I. The coefficient of linear expansion of the body is . The ratio is equal to:
I
t 2t
(1) (2) (3) t (4) 2 t
t t
10. A thin copper wire of length l increases in length by 1% when heated from 20°C to 70°C. If a
thin copper plate of length 3l and breadth 2l is heated from 20°C to 70°C, the percentage
increase in its area will be:
(1) 3% (2) 2% (3) 7% (4) 5%
11. Two holes of unequal diameters d1 & d2 (d1>d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated,
(1) Both d1 & d2 will decrease (2) Both d1 & d2 will increase
(3) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease (4) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase
12. When a copper sphere is heated, percentage change is :
(1) maximum in radius (2) maximum in volume
(3) maximum in density (4) equal in radius, volume and density

13. A crystal has a coefficient of expansion 13 × 10 −9 in one direction and 231 × 10 −9 in every
direction at right angles to it. Then the cubical coefficient of expansion is:
(1) 4.62 × 10−7 (2) 2.44 × 10−7 (3) 4.75 × 10−7 (4) 2.57 × 10−7 s
14. A metal ball immersed in water weighs w 1 at 0°C and w2 at 50°C. The coefficient of cubical
expansion of metal is less than that of water. Then:
(1) w1>w2 (2) w1 < w2
(3) w1 = w2 (4) data is insufficient
15. There are two spheres of same radius and of same material maintained at same temperature
with one being solid and other being hollow. If equal amount of heat is supplied to both then:
(1) Radius of solid sphere is more than that of hollow sphere.
(2) Radius of solid sphere is less than that of hollow sphere.
(3) Radius of both the sphere will be equal.
(4) Change in radius is dependent upon temperature range.

16. The top of a lake is frozen. Air in contact is at −15 o C . The maximum temperatures of water in
contact with the lower surface of ice and at the bottom of the lake respectively, are:
(1) 4 o C , 4o C (2) −15 o C,4o C (3) 0 o C,0o C (4) 0 o C,4o C

17. A beaker is filled with water at 4o C ; the temperature of the beaker is decreased by few
degrees in one case and increased by few degrees in another case: (neglect expansion of
beaker)
(1) The level remains constant in each case
(2) In case I water over flows and in case II the level come down
(3) In case II water over flows and in case I the level comes down
(4) Over flows in both the cases
18. The volume thermal expansion coefficient of an ideal gas at constant pressure is :
(1) T (2) T2 (3) 1/T (4) 1/T2

19. The heat capacity of a body depends on-

(1) temperature change (2) material of body
(3) mass of body (4) material and mass of body

58
20. The ratio of specific heat to molar heat capacity of a body
(1) is a universal constant (2) depends on the mass of the body
(3) depends on the molecular weight of the body (4) is dimensionless.
21. The temperature of an object is observed to be constant during a period. In this period
(1) heat may have been supplied to the body
(2) heat may have been extracted from the body
(3) no heat is supplied to the body
(4) all of the above are possible
22. The temperature of an object is observed to rise in a period. In this period
(1) heat may have been supplied to it (2) work may have been done it
(3) either heat is supplied or work is done (4) heat is certainly not supplied to it
23. A block of ice of mass 50 kg is pushed out on a horizontal plane with a velocity of 5 m/s. Due
to friction it comes to rest after covering a distance of 25 metre. How much ice will melt?
(assume complete heat is given to ice)
(1) 0.86 gm (2) 1.86 gm C) 35 gm (4) 10 gm
24. Steam is passed into 22 gm of water at 20°C. The mass of water that will be present when the
water acquires a temperature of 90°C (Latent heat of steam is 540 cal/gm) is :
(1) 24.8 gm (2) 24 gm (3) 36.6 gm (4) 30.0 gm
25. Two liquids A and B are at 30oC and 20oC. When mixed in equal masses the temperature of
the mixture is found to be 26 oC. The ratio of specific heats of A and B is
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 3

26. The ratio of densities of 2 bodies is 3:4 and ratio of their specific heats is 4 : 3. Then ratio of
their heat capacity per unit volume is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 4 (3) 9 : 16 (4) 16 : 9
27. The density of a uniform rod with cross-section A is d, its specific heat capacity is c and the
coefficient of its linear expansion is . Calculate the amount of heat that should be added in
order to increase the length of the rod by l.
dAcl Acl dcl cld
(1) (2) (3) (4)
 d A A
28. In which group of metals, does the thermal conductivity increase from left to right-
(1) Al, Cu, Ag (2) Ag, Cu, Al
(3) Cu, Ag, Al (4) Al, Ag, Cu
29. A material is to be used as to prepare cooking utensils, the material must have-
(1) High conductivity and high specific heat (2) Low conductivity and high specific heat
(3) Low conductivity and low specific heat (4) High conductivity and low specific heat
30. Four spheres A, B, C and D of different metals but of same radius are kept at same
temperature. The ratio of their densities and specific heats are 2:3:5:1 and 3:6:2:4. Which
sphere will show the fastest rate of cooling (initially):
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

31. Rate of heat flow through two conducting rods of identical dimensions having thermal
conductivities K1 and K2 are Q1 and Q2 when their ends are maintained at the same difference
of temperature individually. When the two rods are joined in series with their ends maintained
at the same temperature difference, the rate of heat flow will be:
Q + Q2 K Q + K 2Q2 Q1Q2
(1) 1 (2) (K1Q1 + K2Q2) (3) 1 1 (4)
2 K1 + K 2 Q1 + Q2

59
32. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper, mercury and glass are respectively Kc, Km
and Kg such that Kc>Km>Kg. If the same quantity of heat is to flow per second per unit area
of each and the corresponding temperature gradients are Xc, Xm and Xg, then-
(1) Xc = Xm = Xg (2) Xc > Xm > Xg (3) Xc < Xm < Xg (4) Xm < Xc <Xg

33. 100 g of water is heated from 30°C to 50°C. Ignoring the slight expansion of the water, the
change in its internal energy is (specific heat of water is 4148 J/kg/K)
(1) 8.4 kJ (2) 84 kJ (3) 2.1 kJ (4) 4.2 kJ

34. The power radiated by a black body is P, and it radiates maximum energy around the
wavelength  0 . If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates
maximum energy around a wavelength 30/4, the power radiated by it will increase by a
factor of
(1) 4 / 3 (2) 16 / 9 (3) 64 / 27 (4) 256 / 81
35. The temperature of a body is increased from 27°C to 127°C. The radiation emitted by it
increases by a factor of:
(1) (256/81) (2) (15/9) (3) (4/3) (4) (12/27)

36. If the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity in the spectrum of moon light is 14
m and Wien’s constant 2.88  10−3 mK, the temperature of the surface of moon is-
(1) 220 K (2) 175 K (3) 250 K (4) 206 K

37. Two bodies A and B having equal surface areas are maintained at temperatures 10°C and
20°C. The thermal radiation emitted in a given time by A and B are in the ratio
(1) 1 : 1.15 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 16

38. A body cools down from 65°C to 60°C in 5 minutes. It will cool down from 60°C to 55°C in-
(1) 5 minutes
(2) less than 5 minutes
(3) more than 5 minutes
(4) less than or more than 5 minutes depending on whether its mass is more than or less
than 1 kg.

39. Three very large plates of same area are kept parallel and close to each other. They are
considered as ideal black surfaces and have very high thermal conductivity. The first and
third plates are maintained at temperature 2T and 3T respectively. The temperature of the
middle (i.e. second) plate under steady state condition is
1 1 1

(1)  65  T (2)  97  T (3)  97  T

4 4 4 1
(4) ( 97 ) 4 T
 2   4   2 
40. An ideal gas is expanding such that pT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of
volume expansion of the gas is
(1) 1/T (2) 2/T (3) 3/T (4) 4/T

41. A wooden wheel of radius R is made of two semicircular parts (see figure); The two parts are
held together by a ring made of a metal strip of cross sectional area S and length L. L is
slightly less than 2R . To fit the ring on the wheel, it is heated so that its temperature rises
by T and it just steps over the wheel. As it cools down to surrounding temperature, it
presses the semicircular parts together. If the coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is  ,
and its Young’s modulus is Y, the force that one part of the wheel applies on the other part is :

60
 (1) 2SYT (2) SYT (3) πSYα ∆T (4) 2SYα ∆T

42. Two rectangular blocks, having identical dimensions, can be arranged either in configuration I
or in configuration II as shown in the figure. One of the blocks has thermal conductivity K and
the other 2K. The temperature difference between the ends along the x-axis is the same in
both the configuration. It takes 9s to transport a certain amount of heat from the hot end to
the cold end in the configuration I. The time to transport the same amount of heat in the
configuration II is:
(1) 2.0 s (2) 3.0 s (2) 4.5 s (4) 6.0 s

43. If a piece of metal is heated to temperature  and then allowed to cool in a room which is at
temperature 0 . The graph between the temperature T of the metal and time t will be closed to

(1) (2) (3) (4)

44. A body cools down from 65°C to 60°C in 5 minutes. It will cool down from 60°C to 55°C in-
(1) 5 minutes
(2) less than 5 minutes
(3) more than 5 minutes
(4) less than or more than 5 minutes depending on whether its mass is more than or less
than 1 kg.

45. Two identical square rods of metal are welded end to end as shown in fig (1). 20 cal of heat
flows through it in 4 min. If the rods are welded as shown in fig. (2), the same amount of heat
will flow through the rods in

(1) 1 min (2) 2 min (3) 4 min (4) 16 min

THERMODYNAMICS & KINETIC THEORY OF GASES

1. Which of the following quantities is zero on an average for the molecules of an ideal gas in
equilibrium?
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Momentum (3) Density (4) Speed
2. Three closed vessels A, B and C are at the same temperature T and contain gases, which obey
Maxwellian distribution of velocities. Vessel A contains O 2, B only N2 and C mixture of equal
quantities of O2 and N2. If the average speed of the oxygen molecules in vessel A is v1, that of
N2 molecules in the vessel B is v2. Then the average speed of the O2 molecules in vessel C is:
(1) ( v1 + v2 ) /2 (2) v 1 (3) 4v2 (4) 3kT /m

61
3. The rms speed of oxygen molecules in a gas is v. If the temperature is doubled and the oxygen
molecules dissociate in to oxygen atoms, the rms speed will become
(1) v (2) v 2 (3) 2v (4) 4v
4. Let V,Vrms and V p respectively denote the mean speed, root mean square speed, and most
probable speed of the molecules in an ideal monatomic gas at absolute temperature T. The
mass of molecule is m. Then The average kinetic energy of a molecule is-
3 3 3 3
(1) mVp2 (2) mVp2 (3) mVp2 (4) mVp2
4 4 4 4

5. Four particles have speeds 2, 3, 4 and 5 cm/s respectively. Their rms speed is:
(1) 3.5 cm/s (2) (27/2) cm/s (3) 54 cm/s (4) ( 54/2) cm/s

6. In a certain region of space there are n molecules per unit volume. The temperature of the gas
is T. The pressure of the gas will be: (k=Boltzmann’s constant; R=universal gas constant)
nT nT
(1) nRT (2) nkT (3) (4)
k R
7. A gas at pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and
their speeds doubled, the resulting pressure would be:
(1) 4P0 (2) 2P0 (3) P0 (4) P0/2
8. The pressure P of a gas and its mean translational KE per unit volume are related as:
(1) P=(1/2)E (2) P=E (3) P=(3/2)E (4) P=(2/3)E
9. Average kinetic energy due to translational motion of molecules of an ideal gas at absolute
temperature T is:
(1) kT (2) 3/2 kT (3) 2kT (4) 5/2 kT
10. In a jar having a mixture of H2 and He:
(1) Hydrogen has more mean KE per mol (2) Helium has more mean KE per mol
(3) Both have same mean KE per mol (4) Both have same internal energy per mol

11. A vessel contains 1 mole of O2 gas (molar mass 32) at temperature T. The pressure of the gas
is P. An identical vessel containing one mole of He gas (molar mass 4) at a temperature 2T has
a pressure of
(1) P/8 (2) P (3) 2P (4) 8P

12. If n denotes the number of degrees of Freedom of the molecule of an ideal gas. Choose
incorrect: (R denotes universal gas constant)
nR
(1) molar heat capacity at constant volume is
2
(2) n cannot be less than three
nR
(3) molar heat capacity at constant pressure is
2
 2
(4) adiabatic exponent of the gas is 1 + 
 n

13. A classical model of a diatomic molecule is a springy dumbbell, as shown, where the dumbbell
is free to rotate about axes perpendicular to the spring. At high temperature when vibrational
degree of freedom is excited, the specific heat per mole at constant volume, is

62
 3 5 7 9
(1) R (2) R (3) R (4) R
2 2 2 2
14. N moles of a diatomic gas present in a vessel has molar heat capacity at constant volume
equal to 5R/2. Now if 20% molecules dissociate into mono-atoms then what will be the new
value of molar heat capacity at constant volume?
13R 13R 13R
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2.6R
3 4 6

15. If one mole of monoatomic gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic gas, the value of  for the
mixture is
(1) 1.40 (2) 1.50 (3) 1.53 (4) 3.07
16. If 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at temperature T0 is mixed at constant volume with 4
moles of another ideal monoatomic gas at temperature 2T0, then the temperature of the
mixture is:
5 3 4 5
(1) T0 (2) T0 (3) T0 (4) T0
3 2 3 4
17. Three moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at 400 K are mixed at constant volume with 2 moles
of helium at 600 K in an insulated vessel. The temperature of the resulting mixture is:
(1) 480 K (2) 400 K (3) 600 K (4) 520 K
18. How much heat must be supplied to a mixture of 10 gm hydrogen and 40 gm of He to increase
the temperature by 50° if they are kept in a closed vessel
(1) 2500 cal (2) 2750 cal (3) 2000 cal (4) None

19. An ideal gas undergoes through two processes 1 and 2. If V1 and V2 the volume
in the process 1 and 2, then
(1) V1 = V2 (2) V2 > V1
(3) V1 > V2 (4) none of these
20. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas at constant volume V is
shown by the straight line A. Now mass of the gas is doubled and the volume is
halved, then the corresponding pressure versus temperature graph will be
shown by the line:
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) none of these
21. During adiabatic process pressure (P) versus density () equation is:
(1) P = constant (2) P− = constant
(3) P1 +  = constant (4) P1/ = constant
22. Ideal gas is compressed. Its isothermal and adiabatic compressibility, respectively, are-
(1) 1/p, 1/p (2) 1/p, /p (3) /p, 1/p (4) 1/p, 1/p

23. In the figure two isothermal processes are sketched for a gas at two different
temperatures, where P is pressure and  is density. Then:
(1) T2  T1 (2) T2  T1
(3) T 2 = T1 (4) any of the three possible

24. During a process an ideal gas of fixed mass found to obey additional law PV 2 = constant. If
initial temperature is T and volume is V then temperature of the gas when volume of the gas
is 2V is-

63
 (1) T (2) 2T (3) T/2 (4) T 2 / 2

25. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its

(1) pressure and temperature are both high (2) pressure and temperature are both low
(3) pressure is high and temperature is low (4) pressure is low and temperature is high
26. 5.6 L of helium gas at STP is adiabatically compressed to 0.7 L. Taking the initial temperature
to be T1, the work done in the process is
9 3 15 9
(1) RT1 (2) RT1 (3) RT1 (4) RT1
8 2 8 2
27. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic mass = 4 amu) and 1 mole of argon gas (atomic
v
mass = 40 amu) is kept at 300 K in a container. The ratio of the rms speeds  rms
( helium )  is

 v rms ( argon ) 
(1) 0.32 (2) 0.45 (3) 2.24 (4) 3.16
28. Two moles of ideal helium gas are in a rubber balloon at 30°C. The balloon is fully expandable
and can be assumed to require no energy in its expansion. The temperature of the gas in the
balloon is slowly changed to 35°C. The amount of heat required in raising the temperature is
nearly (take R = 8.31 J/mol-K)
(1) 62 J (2) 104 J (3) 124 J (4) 208 J

29. The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain temperature is 460 ms-1. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be (assume both gases to be ideal)
(1) 460 ms-1 (2) 500 ms-1 (3) 650 ms-1 (4) 330 ms-1

30. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a car engine as the working substance. If during the adiabatic
expansion part of the cycle, volume of the gas increases from V to 32V the efficiency of the
engine is
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.75 (3) 0.99 (4) 0.25
1
31. A Carnot engine operating between temperatures T1 and T2 has efficiency . When T2 is
6
1
lowered by 62 K, its efficiency increases to . Then T1 and T2 are, respectively :
3
(1) 372 K and 310 K (2) 372 K and 330 K
(3) 330 K and 268 K (4) 310 K and 248 K
32. A Carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40%, takes in heat from a source maintained at a
temperature of 500 K It is desired to have an engine of efficiency 60%. Then, the intake
temperature for the same exhaust (sink) temperature must be
(1) efficiency of Carnot engine cannot be made larger than 50%
(2) 1200 K
(3) 750 K
(4) 600 K

33. Cp and Cv are specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume respectively. It is
observed that It is observed that
Cp – Cv = a for hydrogen gas
Cp – Cv = b for nitrogen gas
The correct relation between a and b is
1
(1) a = 28 b (2) a = b (3) a = b (4) a = 14b
14

64
34. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas occupies a volume V at 27°C. The gas expands
adiabatically to a volume 2V. Calculate (A) the final temperature of the gas and (B) change in
its internal energy.
(1) (A) 195 K (B) 2.7 kJ (2) (A) 189 K (B) 2.7 kJ
(3) (A) 195 K (B) –2.7 kJ (4) (A) 189 K (B) –2.7 Kj

35. A gas of fixed mass is found to obey the law P2V=constant. The initial temperature and
volume are T0 and V0. If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, its final temperature becomes:
(1) 3 T0 (2) T0 / 3 (3) 3 T0 (4) T0 /3

36. ‘n’ moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process A→B as shown in the figure. The maximum
temperature of the gas during the process will be

9P0 V0 9P0 V0 3P0 V0 9P0 V0

(1) (2) (3) (4)
nR 4nR 2nR 2nR

37. The pressure and density of a gas (=1.5) changes for (P,) to (P',') during adiabatic changes.
If '/=32, then P'/P will be-
(1) 128 (2) 1/128 (3) 32 (4) 128.2
38. One mole of a monoatomic gas undergoes the process PT=constant. Then the molar heat
capacity of the gas during the process will be equal to:
(1) 4R (2) 2.5R (3) 3.5 R (4) 8R/3

39. A closed system receives 200 kJ of heat at constant volume. It then rejects 100 kJ of heat
while it has 50 kJ of work done on it at constant pressure. If an adiabatic process can be
found which will restore the system to its initial state, the work done by the system during the
process is:
(1) 100 kJ (2) 50 kJ (3) 150 kJ (4) 200 kJ

40. A diatomic ideal gas is heated at constant volume until its pressure is doubled. It is again
heated at constant pressure until its volume is doubled. The molar heat capacity for the whole
process is kR where k is:
(1) 23/5 (2) 19/5 (3) 19/6 (4) 13/4
41. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCA as shown in the
figure. The ratio of heat absorbed during AB to the work done on the gas during
BC is:
2 5 5 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 n2 3 4 n2 6
42. Three moles of an ideal monoatomic gas performs a cycle 1→2→3→4→1 as
shown. The gas temperatures in different states are, T1=400K, T2=800 K,
T3=2400 K and T4=1200 K. The work done by the gas during the cycle is:
(1) 1200 R (2) 3600 R
(3) 2400 R (4) 2000R

65
43. Three samples of the same gas A, B and C (=3/2) have initially equal volume. Now the
volume of each sample is doubled. The process is adiabatic for A isobaric for B and
isothermal for C. If the final pressures are equal for all three samples, the ratio of initial
pressures is-
(1) 2 2 : 2 : 1 (2) 2 2 : 1 : 2 (3) 2 :1:2 (4) 2 : 1 : 2

44. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 8104 Nm-2. The density of the gas is 4 kgm-3.
What is the energy of the gas due to its thermal motion?
(1) 3104 J (2) 5104 J (3) 6104 J (4) 7104 J
45. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in figure corresponding density
() versus volume (V) graph will be:

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

WAVE & SOUND

1. The figure shows displacement of particles of medium due to two progressive waves A and B
at a given time. Then
 
(1) A leads B by (2) B leads A by
2 2
 
(3) A leads B by (3) B leads A by
3 3

2. A progressive wave is passing through a medium. A particle of medium passes its mean
position after an interval of 0.01 s. Two particles in phase are 1.2 m away. Velocity of
propagation is
(1) 1.2 m/s (2) 1500 m/s (3) 60 m/s (4) 120 m/s

3. The velocity of a wave propagating along a stretched string is 10m/s and its frequency is 100
Hz. The phase difference between the particles situated at a distance of 2.5 cm on the string
will be -
(1) /8 (2) /4 (3) 3/8 (4) 2

4. Two points lie on a ray emerging from a source of simple harmonic oscillation having period
0.045. The wave speed is 300 m/s and points are at 10 m and 16 m from the source. They
differ in phase by:
(1)  (2) /2 (3) 0 or 2 (4)none of these

5. If the frequency of a sound wave is increased by 25% then the change in its wavelength will be
(1) 25% Decrease (2) 20% Decrease (3) 20% Increase (4)20% Increase

6. Two sound waves are represented by the following equations :

y1= 10 sin (3 t – 0.03x) and y2=5{sin(3 t–0.03x)+ cos (3t– 0.03x)}
Then the ratio of their amplitudes is given by -

66
 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 :1 (4) 2 : 5

7. A transverse wave, whose amplitude is 0.5 m wavelength is 1 m and frequency is 2Hz. is

travelling along positive x direction. The equation of this wave will be-
(1) y = 0.5 cos (2x – 4t) (2) y = 0.5 cos (2x + 4t)
(3) y = 0.5 sin (x – 2t) (4) y = 0.5 cos (2x + 2t)

8. Incorrect statement about progressive wave represented by-

 t x 1 
y = 3  10−3.sin 2.  − +  m. is
 0.002 1.2 12 
(1) wavelength is 1.2 m
(2) the frequency of the source is 500 Hz
(3) the velocity of propagation of the wave is 500 m/s
(4) the maximum velocity of particles of the media is 3.  m/s

9. If the intensity ratio of two waves is 4:1, the ratio of their amplitudes is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

10. A heavy oscillator is suspended with help of two identical uniform string of negligible mass as
shown in figure. The strings make angles  and , respectively with the horizontal. The ratio
of velocity of progressive waves in the two strings is
cos  tan 
(1) (2)
cos  tan 
cos  sin 
(3) (4)
cos  sin 

11. Two waves of same frequency and of intensity I0 and 9I0 produce interference. If at a certain
point the resultant intensity is 7I0 then the minimum phase difference between the two sound
waves will be-
(1) 90º (2) 100º (3) 120º (4) 110º

12. For stationary wave, which of the following statement is correct

(1) All the particles vibrate in same phase
(2) All the particles between an antinode and node vibrate in phase
(3) Particles between any two consecutive nodes vibrate in phase
(4) All the particles vibrate in different phases.

13. Stationary wave is represented by :

y = A sin (100t ) cos (0.01x) where y and A are in mm, t in sec, and x in m. The velocity of the
constituent waves in medium are:
(1) 1 m/s (2) 102 m/s (3) 104 m/s (4) none

14. Particle displacement (in cm) in a standing wave are given by- y (x,t) = 2sin(0.1x)cos(100t).
The distance between a node and the next antinode is
(1) 2.5 cm (2) 5.0 cm (3) 7.5 cm (4) 10.0 cm

15. The length of a copper wire is 5 m and its radius is 1 mm. A force of 31.4 N is applied at each
end of the wire. The density of copper is 8900 Kg/m3 . The velocity of transverse waves in the
wire is -
(1) 33.5 m/s (2) 82 m/s (3) 123 m/s (4) 164 m/s

67
16. When a body of mass 25Kg is suspended from a sonometer wire then it vibrates with
frequency 200 Hz. If the volume of the body is 0.009 m 3 and it is immersed in water then the
frequency of vibration of the wire will be -
(1) 220 Hz (2) 160 Hz (3) 240 Hz (4) 180 Hz
–3
17. A wire of linear mass density 9 x 10 kg /m is stretched between two rigid supports under a
tension of 360 N. The wire resonates at frequency 210 Hz. The next higher frequency at which
the same wire resonates is 280 Hz. The number of loops produced in first case will be -
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

18. A 110 cm long wire is to be divided into three segments by two bridges. The ratio of
frequencies of three segments is 1 : 2 : 3 . The positions of the bridges will be -
(1) 20 cm from one end 60 cm from another end
(2) 60 cm from one end and 20 cm from another end
(3) 30 cm from one end and 70 cm from another end
(4) 40 cm from one end and 50 cm from another end

19. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a
frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced then required length of the string is
(1) 62.5cm (2) 50 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 37.5 cm

20. The vibrations of a string of length 60 cm fixed at both ends are represented by the equation
y = 4 sin (x/15) cos(96t); where x and y are in cm and t in seconds. The maximum
displacement at x = 5 cm is–
(1) 2 3 cm (2) 3 2 cm (3) 2 cm (4) 3 cm

21. If the air pressure is doubled at constant temperature, then the speed of sound will be become
(1) Double (2) Three times
(3) Four times (4) Equal to its initial value

22. Velocity of sound in a diatomic gas at certain temperature is 300 m/s. The rms velocity of
molecules of the gas is
(1) 356 m/s (2) 387 m/s (3) 402 m/s (4) 439 m/s

23. Of the following gases velocity of sound at 27°C will be least through
(1) N2 (2) O2 (3) SO2 (4) CO2

24. The intensity of sound at a distance of 4m from a 100 W loud speaker considering it a point
source, will be
(1) 2.00 W/m2 (2) 1.00 W/m2 (3) 0.50 W/m2 (4) 0.25 W/m2

25. Two sound waves have intensities of 10 and 500 W / cm2 . How many decibels is the louder
sound then the other?
(1) 7 dB (2) 17 dB (3) 2.7 dB (4) 3.7 dB

26. In a stationary sound waves in air, all air molecules-

(1) At rest at the same time twice in every period of oscillation
(2) At rest at the same time once in every period of oscillation
(3) Never at r est at the same time
(4) Never at rest at all

68
27. The length of an open pipe is 48 cm and its fundamental frequency is 320 Hz. If one of the
ends of the pipe is closed then its fundamental frequency will be- (V = 330m/s) –
(1) 160 Hz (2) 320 Hz (3) 200 Hz (4) 240 Hz

28. An air column in a pipe, which is closed at one end. Will be in resonance with a vibrating
tuning fork of frequency 264 Hz if the length of the column in cm is
(1) 31.25 (2) 62.50 (3) 93.75 (4) 125
29. An open organ pipe sounds a fundamental note of frequency of 230 Hz. If the speed of sound
in air is 330 m/s., then the length of the pipe is nearly
(1) 0.25 m (2) 0.50 m (3) 0.75 m (4) 2.00 m

30. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P 2 open at
both ends vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio
of the length of P1 to that of P2 is
(1) 8/3 (2) 1/6 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/3

31. Two organ pipes have equal lengths but first organ pipe is open at both ends and the second
organ pipe is closed at one end. Ratio of frequency of the nth overtones of the organ pipes, is
(1) 2n : (2n – 1) (2) (2n – 1) : 2n (3) (2n – 1) : (2n + 1) (4) 2 (n+1) : (2n + 1)

32. Two organ pipes have equal lengths but first organ pipe is open at both ends and the second
organ pipe is closed at one end. Ratio of nth natural frequency of the two organ pipes is
(1) 2n : (2n – 1) (2) (2n – 1) : 2n (3) (2n – 1) : (2n + 1) (4) 2 (n+1) : (2n + 1)

33. Organ pipe open at both ends is divided in two parts. The two parts have fundamental f 1 and
f2 respectively. The frequency of undivided organ pipe must have been
f .f 2f .f f .f f .f
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 2 (3) 1 2 (4) 1 2
f1 + f2 f1 + f2 2f1 + f2 f1 + 2f2

34. Organ pipe open at one end and closed at other end is divided in two parts. The two parts
have fundamental frequency f1 and f2 respectively. Frequency of undivided organ pipe must
have been
f .f 2f .f f .f f .f
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 2 (3) 1 2 (4) 1 2
f1 + f2 f1 + f2 2f1 + f2 f1 + 2f2

35. In a resonance tube of radius 0.8 cm, first resonance occurs when the length of air column is
12.0 cm. The second resonance will occur for length
(1) 24.0 cm (2) 36.0 cm (3) 37.0 cm (4) 38.0 cm

36. The fork A of frequency 100 is sounded with another tuning fork B. The number of beats
produced is 2. On putting some wax on the prong of B, the number of beats reduces to 1. The
frequency of the fork B is
(1) 101 (2) 99 (3) 102 (4) 98

37. Two sources A and B are sounding notes of frequency 680 Hz. A listener moves from A to B
with a constant velocity u. If the speed of sound is 340 ms –1, what must be the value of u so
that he hears 10 beats per second?
(1) 2.0 ms −1 (2) 2.5 ms −1 (3) 3.0 ms −1 (4) 3.5 ms −1

69
38. Apparent frequency of train A is heard by observer in train B as 3/4 of the true frequency.
Find the value of velocity of train B in m/sec. taking train A to be stationary. If the sound
velocity is 332 m/sec. -
(1) 110 (2) 108 (3) 75 (4) 83
39. If an observer is moving with uniform velocity v towards a stationary source of frequency n,
and if the velocity of sound in the medium is V, then the apparent change in the frequency of
the sound, heard by the observer, is -
vn vn Vn  V+v 
(1) (2) (3) (4)   n
V−v V V−v  v 

40. A man stands at rest in front of a large smooth wall. Directly infront of him, between him and
the wall he holds a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 400Hz. He now moves the fork towards
the wall with a speed of 1m/s. How many beats/s will he hear between the sound waves
reaching him directly from the fork, and those reaching him after being reflected from the
wall?
(1) 1.15 beats/s (2) 2.30 beats/s (3) 4.60 beats/s (4) 9.20 beats/s

41. Two whistles A and B produce notes of frequencies 660 Hz and 596 Hz respectively. There is a
listener at the midpoint of the line joining them. Both the whistle B and the listener start
moving with speed 30 m/s away from whistle A. If speed of sound be 330 m/s, how many
beats will be heard by the listener ?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

42. An engine giving whistle is moving towards a stationary observer with 110 m/s speed. What
will be the ratio of the frequency of the whistle heard when the engine is approaching and
receding from the observer (the speed of sound is 330 m/s) ?
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 5 : 2

43. The apparent frequency of a note is 200 Hz. When a listener is moving with a velocity of 40
ms–1 towards a stationary source. When he moves away from the same source, the apparent
frequency of the same note is 160Hz. the velocity of sound in air in m/s is:
(1) 340 (2) 330 (3) 360 (4) 320

44. A car moving at 20 m/s with its horn blowing (n = 1200 Hz) is chasing another car going at 15
m/s. What is the apparent frequency of the horn as heard by the driver being chased? Take
the speed of the sound to be 340 m/s:
(1) 1219 Hz (2) 1183 Hz (3) 1275 Hz (4) 1083 Hz
45. A whistle emitting a sound of frequency 440Hz is tied to a string of 1.5 m length and rotated
with an angular velocity of 20 rad/sec in the horizontal plane. Then the range of frequencies
heard by an observer stationed at a large distance from the whistle will be: ( = 330 m/s):
(1) 400.0 Hz to 484.0 Hz (2) 403.3 Hz to 480.0 Hz
(3) 400.0 Hz to 480.0 Hz (4) 403.3 Hz to 484.0 Hz

ELECTROSTATICS
1. Choose incorrect option
(1) A body can be negatively charged by giving excess of electrons to it
(2) When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it gives electrons to silk
(3) Solid and hollow metallic spheres of same radii cannot be given equal charge
(4) Isolated body connected to earth always gets negative charge
2. Assuming that the charge on two oil drops in Millikan’s experiment is found to be
4.03  10−18 C and 7.13  10−18 C , the quantum of charge will be-

70
 (1) 1.6  10−19 C (2) 2.1  10−19 C (3) 3.1  10−19 C (4) 3.2  10−19 C
3. Two equal point charges of 1 C each are located at points ( i + j − k ) m and ( 2i + 3 j + k ) m.
What is the magnitude of electrostatic force between them?
(1) 10-3 N (2) 10-6 N (3) 10-9 N (4) 10-12 N
4. A point charge +Q is placed at the centroid of an equilateral triangle. When a second charge
+Q is placed at a vertex of the triangle, the magnitude of the electrostatic force on the central
charge is 8N. The magnitude of the net force on the force on the central charge when a third
charge +Q is placed at another vertex of the triangle is:
(1) zero (2) 4N (3) 4 2 N (4) 8N
5. Four charges –q, –q, +q and +q are placed at the circumference of dial clock at 3, 6, 9 and 12
marks respectively. If the clock has only hour hand, then the resultant force on a charge Q
placed at center of clock, points in the direction which shows the time as
(1) 7 :30 (2) 9:30 (3) 1 : 30 (4) 4:30
6. A charged particle is in equilibrium in a uniform vertical electric field of intensity 20 kV/m. If
mass of particle is 9.6 10−16 kg , excess number of electrons on particle is- (g = 10 m/s2 )
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
−6 −8
7. A pendulum bob of mass 30.7  10 kg and carrying a charge 2  10 C is at rest in a
horizontal uniform electric field of 20000 V/m. The tension in the thread of the pendulum is
(g = 9.8 m/s2 )
(1) 3  10−4 N (2) 4  10−4 N (3) 5  10−4 N (4) 6  10−4 N
8. A wheel having mass m has charges +q and –q on diametrically opposite points. It remains in
equilibrium on a rough inclined plane in the presence of uniform vertical electric field E.
Magnitude of E is:
mg mg
(1) (2)
q 2q
mg tan 
(3) (4) none
2q
9. A point charge q = 50C is located in the x-y plane at the point r = (2iˆ + 3ˆj)m ). What is the
o
magnitude of electric field at the point r = (8iˆ − 5ˆj)m ?
(1) 1200 V/m (2) 400 V/m (3) 900 V/m (4) 4500 V/m
10. Four charges +q, +q, –q and –q are placed respectively at the corners A, B, C and D of a
square of side (1), arranged in the given order. Calculate the intensity at (O) the center of the
square.
40 .a 2 4 2q 0 .a 2 4 2q
(1) (2) 2
(3) (4)
4 2q 40 .a 4 2q 0 .a 2
11. A solid metallic sphere has a charge +3Q. Concentric with this sphere is a conducting
spherical shell having charge –Q. The radius of the sphere is a and that of the spherical shell
is b (b > a). What is the electric field at a distance R (a < R < b) from the center?
Q 2Q 3Q 4Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
20 R 2 2 2
40 R 40 R 40 R
12. Uniformly charged non conducting ring of radius R each carries charge +q. Electric field at a
point on axis at distance 3R from center of ring is-

71
 kq kq 3kq kq
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3R 2 4R 2 8R2 8R 2
13. The charge per unit length of the four quadrant of the ring is 2, – 2,  and –  respectively.
The electric field at the center is
  ˆj
(1) – î (2)
20 R 20 R

2 
(3) î (4) None
40 R

14. The semicircular non−conducting ring of radius R containing +ve and negative charge as
shown are joined in two perpendicular planes. The magnitude of linear charge 0densities is .
The electric field at O will be:
 2
(1) (2)
20R 0R

(3) (4) zero
20R
15. A 4C charge is brought from infinite to a point P by performing 0.03J work. The potential at
point P is-
(1) 2.5 kV (2) 3.75 kV (3) 7.5 kV (4) 12.5 kV
16. A charge of 5 C is given a displacement of 0.5 m . The work done in the process is 10 J . The
potential difference between the two points will be
(1) 2 V (2) 0.25 V (3)1V (4) 25 V
17. A charged particle of charge Q is held fixed and another charged particle of mass m and
charge q (of the same sign) is released from a distance r. The impulse of the force exerted by
the external agent on the fixed charge by the time distance between Q and q becomes 2r is
Qq Qqm Qqm Qqm
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 0 mr 4 0 r  0 r 2 0 r

18. In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a distance r from the center. Identical
charges are placed at (n – 1) corners. At the center, the intensity is E and the potential is V.
The ratio V/E has magnitude.
(1) r n (2) r (n – 1) (3) (n – 1)/r (4) r(n – 1)/n

19. A spherical droplet having a potential of 2.5 volt is obtained as a result of merging of 125
identical droplets. Find the potential of the constituent droplet :
(1) 0.4 V (2) 0.5V (3) 0.2 V (4) 0.1 V
20. field of magnitude 100 V/m in space is directed along the line y = 3 + x. Find the potential
difference between point A (3, 1) & B (1, 3)
(1) 100 V (2) 200 2 V (3) 200 V (4) 0
21. The equation of an equi-potential line in an electric field is y = 2x, then the electric field
strength vector at (1, 2) may be
(1) 4iˆ + 3ˆj (2) 4iˆ + 8ˆj (3) 8iˆ + 4ˆj (4) − 8iˆ + 4ˆj
22. A uniform electric field pointing in +ve x-direction exists in a region. Let A be the origin, B be
the point on the x-axis at x=+1cm & C be the point on the y-axis at y =+1cm. Then the
potentials at the points A, B & C satisfy:

72
 (1) VA < VB (2) VA > VB (3) VA < VC (4) VA > VC
23. In a uniform electric field, the potential is 10 V at the origin of coordinates, and 8V at each of
the points (1,0,0),(0,1,0) and (0,0,1). The potential at the point (1,1,1) will be :
(1) 0 (2) 4V (3) 8V (4) 10 V
24. The electric field intensity at a point at distance 2m from charge q is E. The amount of work
done in bringing a 2 coulomb charge from infinity to this point will be:
(1) 2E Joules (2) 4E Joules (3) E/2 Joules (4) E/4 Joules
25. A solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly. At what distance from its surface is the
electrostatic potential half of the potential at the center?
(1) R (2) R/2 (3) R/3 (4) 2R
26. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has potential V at a point distance 5 cm from
its center, then the potential at a point distant 15 cm from the center will be :
1 2 3
(1) V (2) V (3) V (4) 3 V
3 3 2
27. Potential difference between two points at distance R and 2R from the surface of a uniformly
charged sphere is V. Potential difference between point on surface and point at distance 2R
from center of sphere is-
(1) V (2) 2V (3) 3V (4) 6V
28. Figure shows a solid hemisphere with charge of 5 nC distributed uniformly
throughout its volume. The hemisphere lies on a plane and point P is
located on the plane, along a radial line from the center of base at distance
15 cm. The electric potential at point P due to the hemisphere is-
(1) 150 V (2) 300 V (3) 340 V (4) 600 V
29. A ring of radius R is having two charges q and 2q distributed on its two half parts. The
electric potential at a point on its axis at a distance 22R from its center is:
(1) 3kq/R (2) kq/3R (3) kq/R (4) kq/ 3 R

30. Electric field on the axis of a small electric dipole at a distance r is E1 and E2 at a distance of
2r on a line of perpendicular bisector. Then
−E1 E E E
(1) E2 = (2) E2 = − 1 (3) E2 = − 1 (4) E2 = 1
8 16 4 8
31. A dipole kept at distance d from a point charge experiences force of magnitude F. Magnitude
of force if dipole is moved to distance 2d from point charge is-
(1) F/2 (2) F/4 (3) F/8 (4) F/16
p
32. Two point dipoles p.k and .k are located at points (0, 0, 0) and (1m, 0, 2m) respectively. The
2
resultant electric field due to the dipoles at the point (1m, 0, 0) is
9p −7p 7p
(1) k (2) k (3) k (4) none
32πε 0 32πε 0 32πε 0

33. Two electric dipoles of moment P and 64 P are placed in opposite direction on a line at a
distance of 25 cm. The electric field will be zero at point between the dipoles whose distance
from the dipole of moment P is
25 4
(1) 5 cm (2) cm (3)10 cm (4) cm
9 13

73
34. Electric flux through a surface of area 100 m2 lying in the xy plane is (in V-m) if
E = ˆi + 2jˆ + 3k
ˆ
(1) 100 (2) 141.4 (3) 173.2 (4) 200
35. Figure shows a closed surface which intersects a conducting sphere. If a positive charge is
placed at the point P, the flux of the electric field through the closed surface
(1) will remain zero
(2) will become positive P

(3) will become negative

conducting
(4) will become undefined closed
surface
sphere

36. A point charge q is placed very close to one corner of a cube of side a. Choose incorrect
statement-
(1) If the charge is exactly on corner point flux, through adjacent face of cube is zero
7q
(2) If charge is just inside corner point flux through adjacent face of cube is
24ε 0
q
(3) If charge is just outside the cube flux through adjacent face of cube is
8ε 0
q
(4) If charge is very close to corner flux through distance face of cube is
24ε 0
37. A sphere of unit radius concentrically encloses a unit point charge 1C. A cylinder of unit
radius coaxially encloses a line charge distribution of 1C/m. The area of curved surface of
cylinder is equal to area of curved surface of sphere. Ratio of flux coming out of cylinder and
flux coming out of sphere is-
(1) 0.5 (2) 1.0 (3) 1.5 (4) 2.0
38. A sphere of radius 1cm has potential of 8000 V , then energy density near its surface will be
(1) 64  105 J /m3 (2) 8  103 J /m3 (3) 32 J /m3 (4) 2.83 J /m3
39. Energy stored in a small cube at distance d from a point charge is E. Energy stored in an
identical cube at distance 2d from the point charge is-
(1) E/4 (2) E/8 (3) E/16 (4) E/32
40. An infinite sheet of charge has a surface charge density of  C /m2 . The separation between
two equi-potential surfaces, whose potential differs by V volt is:
V 2 o V  V 2 o
(1) (2) (3) o (4)
o   V
41. An uncharged conducting sphere of radius 2R is joined to a charged conducting sphere of
radius R carrying a charge Q. The charge which flows between them is-
(1) Q/3 (2) Q/4 (3) 2Q/3 (4) Q/2
42. A solid conducting sphere of radius 10cm is enclosed by a thin metallic shell of radius 20cm.
A charge q = 20C is given to the inner sphere. If the inner sphere is connected to the shell by
a conducting wire, find the heat generated in the process
(1) 12J (2) 9J (3) 24J (4) zero

43. A charged particle having some mass is resting in equilibrium at a height H above the center
of a uniformly charged non-conducting horizontal ring of radius R. The force of gravity acts
downwards. The equilibrium of the particle will be stable

74
 R
(1) for all values of H (2) only if H 
2
R R
(3) only if H  (4) only if H =
2 2
44. A ring with charge Q uniformly distributed over it, is fixed in y−z plane
with its center at origin. A charge particle is projected from x = 3 R
along x−axis. When the particle reached Q, its minimum possible speed
will be:
Qq Qq 3Qq 3Qq
(1) (2) (3) (4)
0 mR 40 mR 40 mR 0 mR
45. Two identical particles of mass m carry a charge Q each. Initially one is at rest on a smooth
horizontal plane and the other is projected along the plane directly towards first particle from
a large distance with speed v. The closest distance of approach be
2 2 2 2
1 Q 1 4Q 1 2Q 1 3Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
40 m 40 m 2 40 m 2 40 m 2

CAPACITANCE
1. A parallel-plate capacitor is connected to a battery. A metal sheet of negligible thickness is
placed between the plates. The sheet remains parallel to the plates of the capacitor.
(1) The battery will supply more charge.
(2) The capacitance will increase.
(3) The potential difference between the plates will increase.
(4) Equal and opposite charges will appear on the two faces of the metal plate.
2. The capacitance of capacitor of plate areas A1 and A2 (A1<A2) at a distance d is
o A1 o A2
(1) (2)
d d
o (A1 + A2 ) o A1A 2
(3) (4)
2d d
3. The plates S and T of an uncharged parallel plate capacitor are connected across a battery.
The battery is then disconnected and the charged plates are now connected in a system as
shown in the figure. The system shown is in equilibrium. All the strings are insulating and
massless. The magnitude of charge on one of the capacitor plates is: [Area of plates = A]
4mgA 0
(1) 2mgA 0 (2)
k
2mgA 0
(3) mgA 0 (4)
k
4. The distance between plates of the parallel plate capacitor is increased
by an external agent then-
(1) Force by external agent will be constant
(2) Force by external agent will go on increasing
(3) Force by external agent will go on decreasing
(4) None
5. In above question,
(1) No charge will flow through cell (2) Cell will do positive work
(3) Cell will do negative work (4) Cell will do zero work

75
6. A charge particle is at rest between plates of a parallel plate capacitor. If
plates are brought closer, the particle will
(1) remain at same position
(2) move upwards
(3) move downwards
(4) may move up a down depending on emf of cell.
7. Two conducting plates are given charge +Q and −Q. What will happen if the
negative plates is slowly removed from the shown position.
(1)stored energy will increase
(2)stored energy will decrease
(3)stored energy will remain same
(4)nothing can be said
8. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference V from a cell and then
disconnected from it. A charge +Q is now given to its positive plate. The potential difference
across the capacitor is now
Q Q Q
(1) V (2) V + (3) V + (4) V – , if V < CV
C 2C C
9. The charge supplied by the battery in the circuit shown in the figure:
300
(1) μC (2) 60 C
11
(3) 50 C (4) 110 C

10. In the circuit shown in figure, the ratio of charges on 5F and 4F
capacitor is:
(1) 4/5 (2) 3/5
(3) 3/8 (4) 1/2

11. What is the equivalent capacitance of the system of capacitors between

A&B
7
(1) C (2) 1.6 C
6
(3) C (4) None
12. Find the equivalent capacitance across A & B
28 15
(1) f (2) F
3 2
(3) 15 F (4) none
13. The minimum number of capacitors each of 3 F required to make a circuit with an equivalent
capacitance 2.25 F is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
14. A series combination of three capacitors of capacities 1 F,2  F and 8 F is connected to a
battery of e.m.f. 13 volts. Potential difference across the plates of 2  F capacitor will be-
13
(1)1V (2) 8V (3) 4V (4) V
3
15. In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 60V is applied across AB.
The potential difference between the point M and N is
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V
(3) 20 V (4) 30 V

76
16. If charge on left plate of the 5F capacitor in the circuit segment shown in the figure is –20C,
the charge on the right plate of 3F capacitor is-
(1) +8.57 C (2) –8.57 C
(3) +11.42 C (4) –11.42 C

17. In the circuit shown, if the charge on the 6F capacitor is 10C, then the
charge on the 4F capacitor will be-
(1) 40C (2) 10C
(3) 20C (4) 30C

18. A capacitor of 20F is charged to 500 volts and connected in parallel with another capacitor
of 10F and charged to 200 volts . The common potential is-
(1) 200 volts (2) 300 volts (3) 400 volts (4) 500 volts

19. Five conducting parallel plates having area A and separation between them
d, are placed as shown in the figure. Plate number 2 and 4 are connected by
wire and between point A and B, a cell of emf E is connected. The charge
flown through the cell is-
3 0 AE 2 0 AE
(1) (2)
4 d 3 d
40 AE  AE
(3) (4) 0
d 2d

20. Five identical capacitor plates are arranged such that they make capacitors
each of 2 F. The plates are connected to a source of emf 10 V. The charge
on plate C is
(1) + 20 C (2) + 40 C
(3) + 60 C (4) + 80 C

21. A capacitor of capacity C has charge Q and stored energy W. If the charge is increased to 2Q
, the stored energy will increase by-
(1) 2W (2) 3W (3) 4W (4) 5W

22. Three plates A, B and C each of area 0.1 m2 are separated by 0.885 mm
from each other as shown in the figure. A 10 V battery is used to charge the
system. The energy stored in the system is
(1) 1 J (2) 10–1 J
(3) 10–2 J (4) 10–3 J

23. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a battery and is charged to a

potential difference V. Another capacitor of capacitance 2C is similarly charged to a potential
difference 2V. The charging battery is now disconnected and the capacitors are connected in
parallel to each other in such a way that the positive terminal of one is connected to the
negative terminal of the other. The final energy of the configuration is-
3 25 9
(1) zero (2) CV2 (3) CV2 (4) CV2
2 6 2

77
24. A 2 F capacitor is charged to a potential 10V. Another 4F capacitor is charged to a potential
20V. The two capacitors are then connected in a single loop, with the positive plate of one
connected with negative plate of the other. What heat is evolved in the circuit?
(1) 300 J (2) 600 J (3) 900 J (4) 450 J

25. A capacitor having capacitance ‘C’ is charged by a battery having e.m.f. 2V

(Battery is disconnected after charging). Now this charged capacitor is connected
to another battery having e.m.f. V. The positive plate of capacitor is connected
with negative terminal of battery & vice-versa. The amount of heat produced
after connecting it with battery is-
(1) 4.5 CV2 (2) 3.5 CV2
(3) 2.5 CV2 (4) 1.5 CV2

26. Charges Q0 and 2Q0 are given to parallel plates A and B respectively and they are separated by
a small distance. The capacitance of the given arrangement is C. Now plates A
and B are connected to positive and negative terminals of battery of potential
difference V = 2Q0/C respectively as shown, then the work done by the battery
is
2Q2
0 4Q2
0
(1) (2)
C C

5Q2
0 6Q2
0
(3) (4)
C C
27. Four identical plates 1, 2, 3 and 4 are placed parallel to each other at
equal distance as shown in the figure. Plates 1 and 4 are joined
together and the space between 2 and 3 is filled with a dielectric of
dielectric constant k = 2. The capacitance of the system between
1 and 3 & 2 and 4 are C1 and C2 respectively. The ratio C1/C2 is :
(1) 5/3 (2) 1 (3) 3/5 (4) 5/7

28. A capacitor stores 60C charge when connected across a battery. When the gap between the
plates is filled with a dielectric; 120C charge flows through the battery. The dielectric
constant of the material inserted is-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) none

29. A parallel plate condenser is connected with the terminals of a battery. The distance between
the plates is 6mm . If a glass plate (dielectric constant K = 9 ) of 4.5mm is introduced between
them, then the capacity will become
(1) 2 times (2) The same (3) 3 times (4) 4 times

30. The plates of parallel plate capacitor are charged upto 100 V . A 2mm thick plate is inserted
between the plates. Then to maintain the same potential difference, the distance between the
plates is increased by1.6 mm . The dielectric constant of the plate is
(1) 5 (2) 1.25 (3) 4 (4) 2.5

31. In the adjoining figure, capacitor (1) and (2) have a capacitance ‘C’ each. When the dielectric of
dielectric constant K is inserted between the plates of one of the capacitor, the total charge
flowing through battery is

78
 KCE KCE
(1) from B to C (2) from C to B
K +1 K +1
(K − 1)CE (K − 1)CE
(3) from B to C (4) from C to B
2(K + 1) 2(K + 1)
32. Two identical capacitors 1 and 2 are connected in series to a battery as shown in figure.
Capacitor 2 contains a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K as shown in
figure. Q1 and Q2 are the charges stored in the capacitors. Now the dielectric
slab is removed and the corresponding charges are Q'1 and Q'2, then
Q1' K +1 Q'2 K + 1 Q'2 K + 1 Q1' K
(1) = (2) = (3) = (4) =
Q1 K Q2 2 Q2 2K Q1 2
33. Two plates of a parallel plate are held fixed and are given equal and opposite charge. A
dielectric slab is released at the one end as shown at t = 0. As dielectric move into capacitor
(1) velocity and acceleration both will increase
(2) velocity increases but acceleration decreases
(3) velocity increases but acceleration remains constant
(4) velocity and acceleration both remains constant
34. If in above question, a cell of constant emf is connected across the plates, then as the
dielectric moves into the capacitor
(1) velocity and acceleration both will increase
(2) velocity increases but acceleration decreases
(3) velocity increases but acceleration remains constant
(4) velocity and acceleration both remains constant
35. A dielectric which can just fill the entire space between two parallel plate
capacitor of capacity C, is introduced slowly by an external agent. The
work done by external agent is
1 2 1
(1) + CE (2) − CE 2 (3) +CE2 (4)
2 2
−CE2
36. The dielectric strength of a medium is 2k V mm−1. What is the maximum potential difference
that can be set up across a 50 µm specimen without puncturing it?
(1) 10 V (2) 100 V (3) 1000 V (4) 10,000 V
37. Two capacitor having capacitances 8 F and 16 F have breaking voltages 20 V and 80 V.
They are combined in series. The maximum charge they can store individually in the
combination is
(1) 160 C (2) 200 C (3) 1280 C (4) none of these
38. Find the maximum potential which can be applied across point A and B if
breakdown potential of each capacitor is V0.
(1) V0 (2) 1.5 V0
(3) 2V0 (4) 2.5 V0
39. An insulator plate is passed between the plates of a capacitor. Then current
(1) Always flows from A to B
(2) Always flows from B to A
(3)First flows from A to B and then from B to A
(4) First flows from B to A and then from A to B

79
40. A capacitor filled with dielectric K = 3 and disconnected from battery has charge Q0 , voltage
V0 and field E0 . If the dielectric is replaced with another one having K = 9 the new values of
charge, voltage and field will be respectively-
V V E
(1) 3Q0 , 3V0 , 3E0 (2) Q0 , 3V0 , 3E0 (3) Q0 , 0 , 3E0 (4) Q0 , 0 , 0
3 3 3

80
 EXCLUSIVE PROBLEMS ON COMBINATION OF CAPACITORS
Find the equivalent capacitance between A and B in each of the following circuits. Each capacitor
is of capacitance C.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

28. 29. 30. 31. 32.

33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38.

39. 40. 41. 42.

43. 44. 45.

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

81
1. At a given cross section in a conductor, 10 15 electrons pass in in one mili-second. The current
flowing in the conductor is-
(1) 16 mA (2) 160 mA (3) 1.6 A (4) 16 A
2. The plot represents the flow of current through a wire at three 2
different time intervals. The ratio of charges flowing through the 1
wire at different time intervals is:
(1) 2 : 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 : 3 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(3) 2 : 3 : 3 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 1
Time in seconds
2

3. Total charge flown in a circuit time by time ‘t’ is given by Q= (a.t –b.t2); where a= 7.2
coulomb/s and b= 1.2 coulomb/s2. The current in the circuit at t=2s is-
(1) 1.2 A (2) 2.4 A (3) 3.6 A (4) 4.8 A

4. When there is an electric current through a conducting wire along its length, then an electric
field must exist:
(1) outside the wire but normal to it (2) outside the wire but around it
(3) inside the wire but parallel to it (4) inside the wire but normal to it

5. A source of constant potential difference is connected across a A

B
conductor having irregular cross-section as shown in figure. Then : P Q
(1) electric field intensity at P is greater than that at Q.
(2) rate of electrons crossing per unit area of cross-section at P is less than that at Q.
(3) the rate of generation of heat per unit length at P is greater than that at Q.
(4) Mean kinetic energy of free electrons at P is greater than that at Q.

6. There is 20A current in a copper wire of cross-section area 10−6 m2. If there are 1029 free
electrons/m3, then the drift velocity is-
(1)125  10−3 m/ sec (2)12.5  10−3 m/ sec
(3)1.25  10−3 m/ sec (4)1.25  10−4 m/ sec

7. Dimension of a block is 1cm  1cm  100cm and Specific resistance of its material is
3  10−7 ohm − m .The resistance between the opposite rectangular faces is-
(1) 3  10−9 ohm (2) 3  10−7 ohm (3) 3  10−5 ohm (4) 3  10−3 ohm

8. A conductor of length L consists of two parts of length L/2 each but radii r and 2r made up of
same material and attached coaxially. Potential difference across the conductor is V. Potential
difference across first part is-
(1) V/2 (2) 3V/5 (3) 3V/4 (4) 4V/5
9. In order to increase the resistance of a given wire of uniform cross section to four times its
3
value, a fraction of its length is stretched uniformly till the full length of the wire becomes
2
times the original length what is the value of this fraction?
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 16 6
10. When a resistance of 2ohm is connected across the terminals of a cell, the current is 0.5
amperes. When the resistance is increased to 5 ohm, the current is 0.25 amperes. The internal
resistance of the cell is

82
 (1) 0.5 ohm (2)1.0ohm (3)1.5ohm (4) 2.0 ohm

11. The potential difference across the terminal of the battery is 10V when there is a current of 3A
in the battery from negative to positive terminal. When the current is 2A in the reverse
direction, the potential difference becomes 15V. The internal resistance of the battery is
(1) 2.5  (2) 5  (3) 2.83 (4) 1

12. As the switch S is closed in the circuit as shown in the figure, current passed through it is
(1) 4.5 A
(2) 6 A
(3) 3 A
(4) zero

13. The potential of the point O is-

(1) 3.5 V
(2) 6.5 V
(3) 3 V
(4) 15 V

14. Current in 3 resistance is-

(1) 1 A
1
(2) A
7
5
(3) A
7
15
(4) A
7

15. For the circuit shown in the figure, potential difference V B – VA is

(1) 4 V
(2) – 4 V
(3) 12 V
(4) – 12 V

16. In the given network, the equivalent resistance between A and B is

(1) 6 
(2) 16 
(3) 7 
(4) 5 

17. A current of 2 A flows in a system of conductors as shown. The potential difference (VA − VB )
A
will be
(1) +2 V 2 3
(2) +1V 2A
D C
(3) −1V
3 2

B
83
 (4) −2 V

18. The resistor in which maximum heat will be produced is

(1) 6 
(2) 2 
(3) 5 
(4) 4 

19. Two 500W heaters when connected in series across a source of constant voltage V supply Q
joules of heat in a certain time t. When the heaters are connected in parallel across the same
source, the amount of heat energy, supplied in the same time t will be:
Q Q
(1) (2) (3) 2Q (4) 4Q
4 2

20. A wire of resistance 20 is covered with ice and a voltage of 210V is applied across the wire.
The rate of melting of ice is:
(1) 0.85 g/s (2) 1.92 g/s (3) 6.56 g/s (4) none
21. ‘n’ identical light bulbs, each designed to draw P power from a certain voltage supply are
joined in series and that combination is connected across that supply. The power consumed
by one bulb will be
(1) nP (2) P (3) P/n (4) P/n2
22. Two electric lamps are rated 220 volts, 60 watts and 220 volt 40 watts. Heat generated in each
lamp per second when connected in series across 220 volt, respectively, are:
(1) 9.60 watts, 14.4 watts (2) 14.4 watts, 9.60 watts
(3) 6.60 watts,12.4 watts (4) 8.20 watts, 12.4 watts

23. The potential difference between the points A and B is

(1) 2V (2) 6V
(3) 4V (4) 3V

24. Two cells having the same emf of 10 V but different internal resistances 3 and 2  are
connected to an external resistance R. What is the value of R that makes the potential
difference across the terminals of one of the cells, zero?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) 1.5
25. Two batteries one of the emf 3V, internal resistance 1 ohm and the other of emf 15 V, internal
resistance 2 ohm are connected in series with a resistance R as shown. If the potential
difference between a and b is zero the resistance of R in ohm is
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 1

26. Maximum power developed across variable resistance R in the circuit shown in figure is
(1) 50 watt
(2) 75 watt
(3) 25 watt
(4) 100 watt

84
27. In the circuit shown in figure E1= 3V, E2= 2V, E3= 1V and r1= r2= r3= 1. The potential
difference between the points A and B is-
(1) 2V
(2) 3V
(3) 4V
(4) 5V

28. In the circuit shown, each resistances is 2. The potential V1 as indicates
in the circuit, is equal to
(1) 11 V (2) – 11 V
(3) 9 V (4)–9 V

29. Calculate the current through 5 V cell of the figure-

(1) 0.5 A
(2) 1 A
(3) 1.5 A
(4) 0.6 A

30. Consider N = n1n2 identical cells, each of emf E and internal resistance r. Suppose n 1 cells
are joined in series to form a line and n2 such lines are connected in an external
resistance R. The current in the external resistance is-
nn E n1E n2E n1E
(1) 1 2 (2) (3) (4)
R+r n1 n2 n
R+ r R+ r R+ 2r
n2 n1 n1

31. Twenty four identical cells of emf 1.8V and internal resistance 0.3  are connected in mixed
combination to run a load of resistance 0.8. To delivering maximum power to load, n cells
are connected in a row and m such rows are connected in parallel. Then-
(1) n=12, m=2 (2) n=8, m=3 (3) n=6, m=4 (4) n=4, m=6

32. The current through the 10  resistor shown in figure is

(1) 0.1 A
(2) 0.2 A
(3) 0.3 A
(4) zero

33. In the circuit shown in the figure, when switch S1 is closed and S2 is open, the ideal voltmeter
shows a reading of 18V. When switch S2 is closed and S1is open, the reading of the voltmeter
is 24 V. When both S1 and S2 are closed, the reading of voltmeter will be
(1) 14.4 V
(2) 20.6 V
(3) 24.2 V
(4) 10.8 V
34. Choose incorrect-
(1) ammeter has low resistance and is connected in series

85
 (2) voltmeter has high resistance and connected in parallel
(3) galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting low resistance in parallel
(4) galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting low resistance in parallel

35. In the shown circuit, the reading of the voltmeter is V 1 when only S1 is
closed, reading of voltmeter is V2 when only S2 is closed and its
reading is V3 when both S1 and S2 are closed. Then
(1) V3> V2> V1 (2) V2> V1> V3
(3) V3> V1> V2 (4) V1> V2> V3

36. In the circuit shown in figure, the reading of ammeter A is

(1) 0.1 A
(2) 0.2 A
(3) 0.3 A
(4) 0.4 A

37. Choose incorrect-

(1) on interchanging cell and galvanometer in Wheatstone's bridge experiment, position of
balance pointdoes not change
(2) Sensitivity of potentiometer increaseson increasing the length of wire
(3) Wheatstone bridge is most sensitive when all resistances are of the same order
(4) Kirchhoff's laws cannot be applied to meter bridge and potentiometer
38. The length of the potentiometer wire is L. A cell of emf E is balanced at a length L/3 from the
positive end of the wire. The length of the wire is increased by L/2. At what distance will the
same cell give a balance point.
2L L L 4L
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 6 3
39. A Daniel cell is balanced on 125 cm length of a potentiometer wire. Now the cell is short-
circuited by a resistance 2 ohm and the balance is obtained at 100 cm . The internal
resistance of the Daniel cell is-
(1) 0.5 ohm (2) 1.5 ohm (3) 1.25 ohm (4) 4/5 ohm
40. The time constant of charging of the circuit shown in the figure is
2RC
(1) (2) 2RC
3
3RC
(3) 3RC (4)
2
41. A battery of emf 0= 5V and internal resistance 5  is connected across a
5V
long uniform wire AB of length 1 m and resistance per unit length 5 m–1. 5

Two cells of 1= 1V and 2= 2V are connected as shown in the figure.
P
(1) The null point is at A A B
(2) If the Jockey is touched to point B the current in the galvanometer will
be going towards B A
1
1V G
(3) When Jockey is connected to point A no current is flowing through 1 V
battery
2V 2
(4) The null point is at distance of 8/15 m from A.
42. The diagram shows a modified meter bridge, which is used for measuring two unknown
resistance at the same time. When only the first galvanometer is used, for obtaining the

86
 balance point, it is found at point C. Now the first galvanometer is removed and the second
galvanometer is used, which gives balance point at D. Using the details given in the diagram,
find out the value of R1 and R2.
(1) R1 = 5R/3
(2) R2= 4R/3
(3) R1 = 4R/3
(4) R2 = 5R/3
43. In the circuit shown in the figure switch S is closed at time t=0. Let i 1& i2 be the currents at
any time t then the ratio i1/ i2
(1) is constant
(2) increases with time
(3) decreases with time
(4) first increases and then decreases
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT TWO QUESTIONS:
The following two questions refer to the circuit shown. Assume that the
capacitors are initially uncharged.

44. At time t = 0, the switch S in the circuit is closed. At that instant,

what is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?
(1) 9.00  (2) 1.20 
(3) 1.80  (4) 0.92 
45. After the switch has been closed for a long time, how much charge is on the positive plate of
the 3 F capacitor?
(1) 24 C (2) 32 C (3) 56 C (4) 72 C

MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT

1. The acceleration of an electron at a certain moment in a magnetic field B = 2iˆ + 3ˆj + 4k
ˆ is
a = xiˆ + ˆj − k
ˆ . The value of x is-
(1) 0.5 (2) 1 (3) 2.5 (4) 1.5
2. A charged particle enters in a magnetic field at right angles to the magnetic field. The field
exists only for a width equal to half the radius of the circular path of the particle. The particle
will get deviated by
(1) 60° (2) 45° (3) 30° (4) 90°
3. A charged particle enters a magnetic field at right angles to the magnetic field. The field exists
for a length equal to 1.5 times the radius of the circular path of the particle. The particle will
be deviated from its path by
(1) 90o (2) sin−1 ( 2/3) (3) 30o (4) 180o
(
4. A charge q moves with a velocity 2m/s along X-axis in a uniform magnetic field B = ˆi + 2ˆj + 3kˆ )
tesla
(1) Charge will experience a force in z-y plane
(2) Charge will experience a force along – y-axis
(3) Charge will experience a force along + z-axis
(4) Charge will experience a force along – z-axis
5. A uniform magnetic field B = B0ˆj exists in space. A particle of mass m and charge q is
projected towards negative x-axis with speed v from a point (d, 0, 0). The maximum value of v
for which the particle does not hit the y-z plane is

87
 2Bq Bqd Bq Bqd
(1) (2) (3) (4)
dm m 2dm 2m
6. Uniform magnetic field B exists in a circular region of radius R a particle having specific
q
charge enters the region with velocity vo as shown. Find v0 such that the particle passes
m
through the center O of the region.
 2q  q
(1)   BR sin  (2)   BR sin 
m m
 q  BR q
(3)   (4)   BR cos 
 2m  sin  m
7. The figure shows a particle (carrying charge +q) at the origin. A uniform
magnetic field is directed into the plane of the paper. The particle can be
projected only in the plane of paper and along positive or negative x- or
y-axis. The particle moves with constant speed and has to hit a target
located in the third quadrant. There are two directions of projection,
which can make it possible, these directions are-
(1) +x and +y (2) +x and –y
(3) –x and +y (4) –x and –y
8. A mass spectrometer is a device which select particle of equal mass. An
iron with electric charge q> 0 starts at rest from a source S and is
accelerated through a potential difference V. It passes through a hole into
a region of constant magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the paper
as shown in the figure. The particle is deflected by the magnetic field and
emerges through the bottom hole at a distance d from the top hole. The
mass of the particle is
qBd qBd2 qB2d2 q 2B2d2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
V 2V 8V 16V
9. A proton accelerated by a potential difference 500 KV moves though a v

transverse magnetic field of 0.51 T as shown in figure. The angle  × × × 

through which the proton deviates from the initial direction of its motion ×
→
B ×
is
× × ×
(1) 15° (2) 30° +e
× × ×
(3) 45° (4) 60°
d = 10 cm
10. A particle with charge twice that of an electron moves in a uniform
perpendicular magnetic field. The field has strength of  tesla and is perpendicular to the
velocity of the particle. What is the particle's mass if frequency of its circular motion is1600
hertz?
(1) 2.5 × 10–23 kg (2) 1.2 × 10–22 kg (3) 2.5 × 10–16 kg (4) 5.0 × 10–21 kg
11. The frequency of a cyclotron oscillator is 10 7Hz. The cyclotron is accelerating protons
(mp = 1.67 × 10–27kg). If the radius of the Dees of the cyclotron be 0.6 m, the kinetic energy of
the proton beam produced by the accelerator will be nearly
(1) 1.2 × 10–13 J (2) 1.2 ×10–12 J (3) 2.4 ×10–12 J (4) 4.8 × 10–12 J
12. A particle having charge of 1 C, mass 1 kg and speed 1 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field,
having magnetic induction of 1 T, at an angle = 30° between velocity vector and magnetic
induction. The pitch of its helical path is (in meters)-
3 
(1) (2) 3 (3) (4) 
2 2

88
13. A charged particle is fired at an angle  to a uniform magnetic field directed along the x–axis.
During its motion along a helical path, if the pitch of the helical path is equal to the maximum
distance of the particle from the x–axis
1 1 1
(1) cos = (2) sin= (3) tan= (4) tan=
  
14. A charged particle is released from rest in a region of steady and uniform electric and
magnetic fields, which are parallel to each other. The particle will move in a:
(1) straight line (2) circle (3) helix (4) cycloid
15. A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric
field E = E0ˆi and magnetic field B = B0ˆi with a velocity v = v 0 ˆj . The speed of the particle will
become 2v0 after a time-
2mv0 2Bq 3Bq 3mv0
(1) t = (2) t = (3) t = (4) t =
qE mv0 mv0 qE
16. A conducting wire bent in the form of a parabola y 2 = 2x carries a current i = 2A as shown in
figure. This wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field B = −4kˆ tesla. The magnetic force on
the wire is (in newton):
(1) −16ˆi
(2) 32iˆ
(3) −32ˆi
(4) 16iˆ
17. A conductor of length is placed perpendicular to a horizontal uniform magnetic field B.
Suddenly a certain amount of charge is passed through it, when it is found to jump to a
height h. The amount of charge that passes through the conductor is
m gh 2m gh m 2gh
(1) (2) (3) (4) none of these
B 3B B
18. In the figure shown a semicircular wire loop is placed in a uniform magnetic
field B= 1.0T. The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
Current i= 2A flows in the loop in the direction shown. The magnitude of the
magnetic force is. (The radius of the loop is 1.0 m)
(1) 4 N (2) 2 N (3) 8 N (4) zero
19. A metal ring of radius r= 0.5 m with its plane normal to a uniform magnetic field B of
induction 0.2 T carries a current I= 100 A. Tension (in Newton) developed in the ring is:
(1) 100 (2) 50 (3) 25 (4) 10
20. Radially outward magnetic field of constant magnitude B0 exists in a region as shown in
figure. Net force experienced by the given current carrying loop is:
(1) zero
(2) 2 i0 B0 a
(3) 2i0 B0 a
(4) i0 B0 a
21. A circular current loop of radius a is placed in a radial field B as shown. The net force acting
on the loop is -
(1) zero
(2) 2BIa
(3) 2aIBsin
(4) aIB

89
22. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side is suspended between the pole pieces of a
permanent magnet such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a
torque  acts on it, the side of the triangle is-
1/ 2
2       2   
1/ 2
1 
(1)   (2) 2   (3)   (4)
3  Bi   3 Bi  3  Bi  3 Bi

23. A rod of length L is carrying uniformly distributed charge q. Rod is rotating abound
perpendicular axis passing through one end with angular velocity . Magnetic dipole moment
of the rod is-
qω2L2 qω2L2 qω2L2 qω2L2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 4 3 2
24. A circular coil of 100 turns and effective diameter 20 cm carries a current of 0.5 A. It is to be
turned in a magnetic field B= 2T from a position in which  equals zero to  equals 180°. The
work performed in this process is-
(1) J (2) 2J (3) 4J (4) 8J
25. A circular loop and a square loop are made from two wires of same length. Loops are carrying
same current and kept in uniform perpendicular magnetic field. Ratio of torque on loops is-
1 3 4 
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2   4
26. Two long parallel straight conductors carry current i 1 and i2 (i1>i2). When the currents are in
the same direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is 20µT. If the
direction of i2 is reversed, the field becomes 50µT. The ratio of the currents i 1/i2 is:
(1) 5/2 (2) 7/3 (3) 4/3 (4) 5/3
27. In the figure two long parallel wires P and Q are carrying P Q
R X
currents 2.5 amperes and  amperes respectively in the same
direction (directed into the plane of the paper). An electron 2m
5m
moving with a velocity of 4×10 5 m/s along the positive X-
direction experiences a force of 3.2×10–20 N at the point R. The current  is-
(1) 3A (2) 3.5A (3) 4A A
(4) Zero
28. Equal current i is flowing in two parallel conductors, distance 2a, r
in mutually opposite directions as shown in the figure. The  P
magnetic induction at a point P equidistant r=2a from both the 2a
conductors will be-
r
μ .i 3μ0 .i
(1) 0 (2)
4a 4a B
μ .i 3μ0 .i
(3) 0 (4)
2a 2a
29. Distances between three long parallel conductors is a each. Two conductors carry
current i in same direction and third conductor carries current i in opposite
direction. Magnetic field at point at equal distance from the conductors is-
μ .i 3μ0 .i μ .i 3μ0 .i
(1) 0 (2) (3) 0 (4)
4a 4a 2a a
30. Four long conductors are placed parallel to each other. Distance between adjacent
conductors is a. Two adjacent conductors carry current i in one direction and rest

90
 two carry same current but in opposite direction. Magnetic field at point at equal distance
from conductors is-
μ .i μ0 .i 2μ0 .i 2μ0 .i
(1) 0 (2) (3) (4)
2a 2a a a
31. In given figure, X and Y are two long straight parallel conductors each carrying a
current of 2 A. The force on each conductor is F Newton. When the current in
each conductor is changed to 1A and reversed in direction, the force will be-
(1) F/4 and unchanged in direction (2) F/2 and reversed in direction
(3) F/2 and unchanged in direction (4) F/4 and reversed in direction
32. A wire AB of length b carrying current I is kept in plane of long straight conductor carrying
current I. Wire is perpendicular to long conductor and its nearest end is at distance a from
conductor. Force on the wire is-
μo .I2 a 2 μo .I2 a μo .I2 a μo .I2 a 
(1) . (2) . (3) . (4) .ln  
2 b 2 2 b 2 b 2 b 
33. A square loop ABCD, carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long
straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be
20Ii  Ii 20Iil  Iil
(1) (2) 0 (3) (4) 0
3 2 3 2

34. Two positive charges move toward the origin as represented in the figure.
At the instant shown, in what direction is the magnetic force of q 2 on q1?
(1) +x
(2) –x
(3) +y
(4) –y
35. A straight wire carrying a current i1 runs along the axis of a circular current i2 . Then the
force of interaction between the two current carrying conductors is
 2i i 2i i
(1)  (2) zero (3) 0 1 2 N / m (4) 1 2 N /m
4 r r
36. Radius of the two semicircular sections of loop are r and 2r respectively. If current
in loop is I, magnetic field at the center is-
μ .I μ .I
(1) o (2) o
12R 8R
μo .I 3μo .I
(3) (4)
6R 8R
37. Radius of the two semicircular sections of loop are r and 2r respectively. If current in
loop is I, magnetic field at the center is-
μ .I μ .I μ .I 3μo .I
(1) o (2) o (3) o (4)
12R 8R 6R 8R
38. Shown in the figure is a conductor carrying a current I. The magnetic field intensity at
the point O(common centre of all the three arcs ) is :
I
5µ0I
(1)
24r r
µ 0 I
(2)
24r r


r
(

O 91
 11µ0I
(3)
24r
(4) zero
39. A conductor carrying current i is bent in the form of concentric semicircles as shown in the
figure. The magnetic field at the centre O is:
μ .I
(1) o
8a
μ .I i
(2) o
6a
μo .I
(3)
4a upto 
O a 4a
2a 8a
y
μ .I
(4) o
3a
I
40. A non-planar circular loop consists of two semi-circles one of which x
lies in yz-plane & the other is in xz-plane as shown. The magnetic z
force experienced by positive charge of value q moving with velocity
v along x direction when it is at the origin is-
μ .I μo .I μ .I μo .I
(1) o q.v (2) q.v (3) o q.v (4) q.v
4R 2. 2R 2R 2R
41. A particle carrying a charge equal to 100 times the charge on an electron is rotating per
second in a circular path of radius 0.8m. The value of the magnetic field produced at the
centre will be (o=permeability for vacuum)
10−7
(1) (2) 10−17 0 (3) 10−6 0 (4) 10−7 0
0
42. Constant current I is flowing through a circular coil of radius R. At what distance from the
centre will the magnetic field (on the axis) be maximum:
R R R
(1) (2) (3) (4) zero
2 3 2
43. The radius of a coil is R. At what distance from the centre of the coil on the axis the magnetic
1
field will be of magnetic field at the centre-
27
(1) 2R (2) R (3) R (4) R

44. The coils C1 and C2 have same number of turns and carry equal
currents in the same sense. They subtend the same angle  to P. If the
magnetic field produced by C1 at P is B then that produced by C2 will
be
(1) B (2) 2B
(3) (4) None

45. Due to flow of current in a circular loop of radius R, the magnetic induction produced at the
centre of the loop is B. The magnetic moment of the loop is [ = Permeability of vacuum]

92
 BR 3 2BR 3 BR 2 2BR 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2µ0 µ0 2µ0 µ0
46. The ratio of the magnetic field at the centre of current carrying circular wire and the magnetic
field at the centre of a square coil made from the same length of wire will be-
2 2  
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 8 2 2 2 4 2
47. A current i ampere flows along an infinitely long straight thin walled tube, then the magnetic
induction at any point inside the tube is:
µ 2i 2i
(1) infinite (2) zero (3) 0 tesla (4) tesla
4 r r
48. A coaxial cable consists of a thin inner conductor fixed along the axis of a hollow outer
conductor. The two conductors carry equal current in opposite directions. Let B1 and B2 be
the magnetic field in the region between the conductors, and outside the conductor,
respectively -
(1) B1  0, B2  0 (2) B1 = B2 = 0
(3) B1  0, B2 = 0 (4) B1 = 0, B2  0

49. A wire of radius R carries a current I uniformly distributed throughout its interior. Which plot
best represents the magnitude of the magnetic field as a function of r, the distance from the
center of the wire?
Field Field Field Field

r r r r
(1) O R 2R (2) O R 2R (3) O R 2R (4) O R 2R

50. A large metal sheet carries an electric current along its surface. Current per unit length is  .
Magnetic field near the metal sheet is
0  0
(1) (2)
2 2

(3) 0 (4) 0
2
51. A long straight metal rod has a very long hole of radius ‘a’ drilled parallel to the rod axis as
shown in the figure. If the rod carries a current ‘i’ find the value of magnetic induction on the
axis of the hole, where OC = c
o ic o ic
(1) (2)
(
 b −a 2 2
) (
2 b2 − a 2 )
(3)
(
o i b − a 2 2
) (4)
o ic
2c 2a 2b2
52. There are 50 turns of a wire in every cm length of a long solenoid. If 4 ampere current is
flowing in the solenoid, the approximate value of magnetic field along its axis at an internal
point and at one end will be respectively-
(1) 12 .6  10 −3 Weber / m 2 , 6 .3  10 −3 Weber / m 2 (2) 12 .6  10 −3 Weber / m 2 , 25 .1  10 −3 Weber / m 2
(3) 25 .1  10 −3 Weber / m 2 , 12 .6  10 −3 Weber / m 2 (4) 25 .1  10 −5 Weber / m 2 , 12 .6  10 −5 Weber / m 2

93
53. A closely wound flat circular coil of 25 turns of wire has diameter of 10 cm and carries a
current of 4 ampere. Determine the flux density at the centre of a coil
(1) 1.679  10 −5 tesla (2) 2.028  10 −4 tesla (3) 1.257  10 −3 tesla (4) 1.512  10 −6 tesla

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The radius of the
coil changes as shown in figure. The induced emf in the coil is-
e e
r

t(s)
0
1 2
t t(s)
0 1 2 0 1 2
(1) (a) (2) (b)
e e

t(s) t(s)
0 1 2
(3) (c) (4) (d)

2. A horizontal loop abcd is moved across the pole pieces of a magnet as shown in fig. with a
constant speed v. When the edge ab of the loop enters the pole pieces at time t = 0 sec. Which
one of the following graphs represents correctly the induced emf in the coil-
e e
N
(1) (2) c b
v

O d a
t t
O S
e
e

(3) (4)
O t
3. A straight
O rod of length
t is rotating about an axis passing through Q, as shown in figure. In
the space, a uniform magnetic field of induction B exists normal to the axis of rotation.
Potential difference between ends a and b is equal to :
8 7
(1) B 2 (2) B 2
25 25
3
(3) B 2 (4) zero
10

4. At the moment t = 0, a connector starts sliding from the apex of a

parabola with a constant acceleration . If the equation of the parabola is
y = ax2 and it is located in a uniform, perpendicular magnetic field B, the
emf induced in the loop as a function of y is -
8 2
(1) e = By (2) e = By
a a

(3) e = By (4) none of these
2a

94
5. A connector ‘ab’ of length l and resistance R slides freely on two × × × a× × ×
horizontally placed rods, the ends of which are connected by
resistances R1 and R2. The magnetic field B is downwards and the × × × × × ×
velocity of the connector is v. Then the current in the connector is-
R1 R R2
B v
(1) Zero (2) × × × × × ×
R
B v B v (R1 + R 2 ) × × × b× × ×
(3) (4)
R + R1 + R 2 RR1 + RR 2 + R1R 2

6. A conducting rod of length is placed in a cylindrical region of radius R in which a uniform

 dB 
magnetic field exists. The field increases with time at constant rate k  =k  . The potential
 dt 
difference across the ends of rod is-
kR 2
(1) (2) kR2
2
(3) 2kR2 (4) zero
7. The length of an air cored solenoid is 10cm and it has 100 turns. If the area of cross-section
of the coil is 5 cm², then its self inductance will be-
(1) 5 µH (2) 6.28 µH (3) 50 µH (4) 62.8 µH
8. The inductance of a solenoid is 5 Henry and its resistance is 5 . If it is connected to a 10 volt
battery then time taken by the current to reach (9/10)th of its maximum value will be-
(1) 4.0 sec. (2) 2.3 sec. (3) 1.4 sec. (4) 1.2 sec.
9. A current is flowing through a thin cylindrical shell of radius R. If energy density in the
medium, due to magnetic field, at a distance r from axis of the shell is equal to U then which
of the following graphs is correct?
U U U
U

r r r r
(1) O (2) O R (3) O (4) O
10. Maximum possible mutual inductance between two coils of self inductances L 1 and L2 will be-
L1 1
(1) (2) L1L 2 (3) (4) L1L2
L2 L1L 2

11. A small coil of radius r is placed at the centre of a large coil of radius R, where R >> r. The
two coils are coplanar. The mutual induction between the coils is proportional to :
(1) r/R (2) r2/R (3) r2/R2 (4) r/R2

12. In the figure magnetic energy stored in the coil is-

(1) Zero 2H
(2) Infinite
10 V 2
(3) 25 joules
(4) None of the above
3
13. The current in a LR circuit builds up to th of its steady state value in 4s . The time constant
4
of this circuit is

95
 1 2 3 4
(1) s (2) s (3) s (4) s
ln2 ln2 ln2 ln2

14. Figure shows a conducting loop being pulled out of a magnetic field with a speed v. Which of
the four plots shown in figure may represents the power delivered by the pulling agent as a
function of the speed

(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d

15. A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0m is moving with a uniform speed v = 2.0m/s in a
uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 T directed into the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10F is
connected as shown in figure. Then
(1) q A = + 80 C & q B = −80 C
(2) q A = − 80 C & q B = + 80 C
(3) q A = 0 = q B
(4) charge stored in the capacitor increases exponentially with timer

16. An equilateral triangular loop ADC having some resistance is pulled with a constant velocity v
out of a uniform magnetic field directed into the paper. At time t = 0 , side DC of the loop is at
edge of the magnetic field. The induced current ( i ) versus time ( t ) graph will be as
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

17. A conducting rod AB of length = 1 m is moving at a velocity v = 4m/s making an angle 30o
with its length. A uniform magnetic field B = 2T exists in a direction perpendicular to the
plane of motion. Then
(1) VA − VB = 8V (2) VA − VB = 4V
(3) VB − VA = 8V (4) VB − VA = 4V

18. A cylindrical space of radius R is filled with a uniform magnetic induction B parallel to the
axis of the cylinder. If B changes at a constant rate, the graph showing the variation of
induced electric field with distance r from the axis of cylinder is
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

96
19. Two conducting rings P and Q of radius r and 3r move in opposite
directions with velocities 2v and v respectively on a conducting surface S.
There is a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B perpendicular to the
plane of the rings. The potential difference between the highest points of
the two rings is:
(1) zero (2) 2Brv (3) 6Brv (4) 10Brv

20. A rod of length 10cm made up of conducting and non-conducting material (shaded part is
non-conducting). The rod is rotated with constant angular velocity 10 rad/sec about point O,
in constant magnetic field of 2 tesla as shown in the figure. The induced emf between the
point A and B of rod will be
(1) 0.029 volt
(2) 0.1 volt
(3) 0.051 volt
(4) 0.064 volt

21. In the circuit shown in figure. The steady state currents i1 and i2 in the coils after the switch
S is closed are
EL 2 EL1
(1) i1 = (2) i1 =
R ( L1 + L 2 ) R ( L1 + L 2 )
EL 2 E L1L 2
(3) i2 = (4) i2 =
R L1L 2 RL 2

22. A uniformly wound long solenoid of inductance L and resistance R is broken into two equal
parts, which are then joined in parallel. This combination is then joined to a cell of emf .
The time constant of the circuit is :
(1) L/R (2) L/2R (3) 2L/R (4) L/4R

23. The radius of the circular-conducting loop shown in figure is R. Magnetic field is decreasing at
a constant rate . Resistance per unit length of the loop is  . Then current in wire AB is (AB
is one of the diameters)
R R
(1) from A to B (2) from B to A
2 2
2R
(3) from A to B (4) zero
2
24. A horizontal wire is free to slide on the vertical rails of a conducting frame as shown in figure.
The wire has a mass m and length . Resistance of the circuit is R. If a uniform magnetic field
B is directed perpendicular to the frame, the terminal speed of the wire as it falls under the
force of gravity is
mgR mg
(1) (2)
B BR
2 2
B mgR
(3) (4) 2 2
mgR B

25. A non-conducting ring having charge q uniformly distributed over its circumference is placed
on a rough horizontal surface. A vertical time varying magnetic field B = 4t2 is switched on at

97
 time t = 0 . Mass of the ring is m and radius is R: The ring starts rotating after 2 seconds. The
coefficient of friction between the ring and the table is
4qmR 2qmR 8qR qR
(1) (2) (3) (4)
g g mg 2mg
26. In the circuit shown in figure, a conducting wire HE is moved with a constant speed v towards
left. The complete circuit is placed in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of
circuit inwards. The current in HKDE is
(1) Clockwise
(2) anticlockwise
(3) alternating
(4) zero
27. A copper rod of mass m slides under gravity on two smooth parallel rails distance apart and
set at an angle  to the horizontal. At the bottom, the rails are joined by a resistance R. There
is a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the rails. The terminal velocity of the
rod is
mgR cos  mgR sin 
(1) 2 2
(2)
B B2 2
mgR tan  mgR cot 
(3) 2 2
(4)
B B2 2
28. Rod PQ having mass m, length ' ' moves on smooth resistance-less conducting rails. Pulley
is massless and a uniform magnetic field B exist perpendicular to plane of rails. The
acceleration of block of mass m will be :
P
mg mg
(1) (2)
2m + CB2 2 2m − CB2 2
2m + CB2 2 Q
(3) (4) None of these
m
29. If mass of slider EF in above question is ‘m’ then which of following statement is/are correct ?
m
(1) The motion of slider is SHM with T = 2
k
m
(2) The motion of slider is oscillatory but not SHM with T = 2
k
(3) The slider will compress the spring and will then remain at rest in that position
(4) None

30. A square metal loop of side 10 cm and resistance 1  is moved with a

constant velocity partly inside a magnetic field of 2 Wbm –2, directed into
the paper, as shown in the figure. This loop is connected to a network of
five resistors each of value 3 . If a steady current of 1 mA flows in the
loop, then find the speed of the loop in cm/s.
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
31. A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal
magnetic induction B . At the position MNQ the speed of the ring is V, and the potential
difference developed across the ring is
(A) Zero
(2) BVR 2 /2 and M is at higher potential
(3) RBV and Q is at higher potential

98
 (4) 2RBV and Q is at higher potential.

32. A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a direction perpendicular to its length. A constant,
uniform magnetic field exists in space in a direction perpendicular to the rod as well as its
velocity. Select the correct statement(s) from the following:
(1) The entire rod is at the same electric potential.
(2) There is an electric field in the rod.
(3) The electric potential is highest at the centre of the rod and decreases towards its ends.
(4) The electric potential is lowest at the centre of the rod, and increases towards its ends.

33. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a table without touching each other.
Loop – A carries a current which increases with time. In response, the loop-B
(1) remains stationary (2) is attracted by the loop-A
(3) is repelled by the loop-A (4) rotates about its CM, with CM fixed

34. A circular loop of radius R, carrying current I, lies in x-y plane with its centre at origin. The
total magnetic flux through x-y plane is
(1) directly proportional to I (2) directly proportional to R
(3) inversely proportional to R (4) zero

35. A uniform but time-varying magnetic field B(t) exists in a circular region of radius a and is
directed into the plane of the paper as shown. The magnitude of the induced electric field at
point P at a distance r from the centre of the circular region
(1) is zero
(2) decreases as 1/r
(3) increases as r
(4) decreases as 1/r2
36. The variation of induced emf E with time ( t ) in a coil if a short bar magnet
is moved along its axis with a constant velocity is best represented as
(1) (2) (3) (4)

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS:

The capacitor of capacitance C can be charged (with help of a resistance R) by a voltage source V,
by closing switch S1 while keeping switch S2 open. The capacitor can be connected in series with
an inductor ‘L’ by closing switch S2 and opening S1.
37. Initially, the capacitor was uncharged. Now, switch S 1 is closed and S2 is kept open. If time
constant of this circuit is , then
(1) After time interval , charge on the capacitor is CV/2
(2) after time interval 2, charge on the capacitor is CV (1−e−2)
(3) the work done by the voltage source will be half of the heat
dissipated when the capacitor is fully charged.
(4) after time  capacitor is fully charged.

38. After the capacitor gets fully charged, S1 is opened and S2 is closed so that the inductor is
connected in series with the capacitor. Then,
(1) at t = 0, energy stored in the circuit is purely in the form of magnetic energy
(2) at any time t > 0, current in the circuit is in the same direction

99
 (3) at t > 0, there is no exchange of energy between the inductor and capacitor
C
(4) at any time t > 0, instantaneous current in the circuit may V
L

39. If the total charge stored in the LC circuit is Q 0, then for t  0

 t 
(1) the charge on the capacitor is Q = Q0 cos  + 
2 LC 
 t 
(2) the charge on the capacitor is Q = Q 0 cos  − 
 2 LC 
d 2Q
(3) the charge on the capacitor is Q = LC
dt2
1 d2Q
(4) the charge on the capacitor is Q = −
LC dt2
40. A rectangular loop has a sliding connector PQ of length l and resistance R and is moving with
a speed v as shown in figure. The set up is placed in a uniform field going into the plane of the
paper. The three currents are:
B v B v B v 2B v
(1) I1 = I2 = ;I= (2) I1 = −I2 = ;I=
6R 3R R R
B v 2B v B v
(3) I1 = I2 = ;I= (4) I1 = I2 = I =
3R 3R R
41. A metallic rod of length ‘ ’ is tied to a string of length 2 and made to rotate with angular
speed  on a horizontal table with one end of the string fixed. If there is a vertical
magnetic field ‘B’ in the region, the e.m.f. induced across the ends of the rod is:
2B 3 3B 3
(1) (2)
2 2
3
4B 5B 3
(3) (4)
2 2

42. In a coil of resistances 100 , a current is induced by changing the magnetic flux through it
as shown in the figure. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil is

(1) 275 Wb (2) 200 Wb (3) 225 Wb (4) 250 Wb

43. The figure shows four wire loops, with edge lengths of either L or 2L. All four loops will move
through a region of uniform magnetic field B (directed out of the page) at the same constant
velocity. Rank the four loops according to the maximum magnitude of the e.m.f. induced as
they move through the field, greatest first
• • • • •
B
• • • • •

• • • • •
a b
• • • • •
100 c d
 (1) (ec = ed )  (ea = eb ) (2) (ec = ed )  (ea = eb )
(3) ec  ed  eb  ea (4) ec  ed  eb  ea
44. A pair of parallel conducting rails lie at right angle to a uniform magnetic
B 
field of 2.0 T as shown in the fig. Two resistors 10  and 5  are to slide
without friction along the rail. The distance between the conducting rails is 5 10
0.1 m. Then
1
(1) Induced current = A directed clockwise if 10  resistor is pulled to
150
the right with speed 0.5 ms–1 and 5 resistor is held fixed
1
(2) Induced current = A directed anti-clockwise if 10  resistor is pulled to the right with
300
speed 0.5 ms–1 and 5 resistor is held fixed
1
(3) Induced current = A directed clockwise if 5  resistor is pulled to the left at 0.5 ms–1
300
and 10  resistor is held at rest
1
(4) Induced current = A directed anti-clockwise if 5  resistor is pulled to the left at 0.5
150
ms–1 and 10  resistor is held at rest

45. The magnetic field in the cylindrical region shown in figure increases at a constant rate of 20
mT/sec. Each side of the square loop ABCD has a length of 1 cm and resistance of 4. Find
the current in the wire AB if the switch S is closed
(1) 1.25  10−7 A , (anti-clockwise) 
C   
B 

(2) 1.25  10−7 A (clockwise)     

(3) 2.5  10−7 A (anti clockwise) 

S    
−7
(4) 2.5  10 A (clockwise)  D   
A


ALTERNATING CURRENT
1. In an ac circuit, the current is given by i = 4 sin (100 t + 30º) ampere. The current becomes
maximum first time (after t = 0) at t equal to –
(1) (1/200) sec (2) (1/300) sec
(3) (1/50) sec (4) None of the above
2. The instantaneous value of current in an ac circuit is  = 2 sin (100t + /3) A. The current at
the beginning (t = 0) will be –
3
(1) 2 3 A (2) 3A (3) A (4) Zero
2
3. The r.m.s. value of potential due to superposition of given two alternating potentials E 1 = E0
sin t and E2 = E0 cos t will be –
(1) E0 (2) 2E0 (3) E0 2 (4) 0
4. n a circuit an a.c. current and a d, c. current are supplied together. The expression of the
instantaneous current is given as i = 3 + 6 sin t. Then the rms value of the current is –
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 3 2 (4) 3 3
5. The emf and the current in a circuit are E = 12 sin (100 t) ;  = 4 sin (100t +  / 3) then –
(1) The current leads the emf by 60º

101
 (2) The current lags the emf by 60º
(3) The emf leads the current by 60º
(4) The phase difference between the current and the emf is zero
6. If the frequency of alternating potential is 50Hz then the direction of potential, changes in one
second by–
(1) 50 times (2) 100 times (3) 200 times (4) 500 times
7. The sinusoidal voltage wave changes from 0 to maximum value of 100 volt. The voltage when
the phase angle is 30º will be –
(1) 70.7 volt (2) 50 volt (3) 109 volt (4) – 100 volt
8. RMS value of ac i = i1 cos t + i2 sin t will be –
1 1 1 1 2
(1) (i1 + i2) (2) (i1 + i2)2 (3) (i12 + i22)½ (4) (i1 + i22)½
2 2 2 2

9. The voltage time (V − t ) graph for a triangular wave having peak value V0 is as shown in figure.
The rms value of V is:
V0 V0
(1) (2)
3 2
V0 V0
(3) (4)
2 3
10. The inductive reactance of a coil is 1000. If its self inductance and frequency both are
increased two times then inductive reactance will be –
(1) 1000 (2) 2000 (3) 4000 (4) 16000
11. n an L.C.R series circuit R = 1 , XL = 1000 and XC = 1000. A source of 100 m.volt is
connected in the circuit the current in the circuit is –
(1) 100 A (2) 1 A (3) 0.1 A (4) 10 A
12. A coil of inductance 0.1 H is connected to an alternating voltage generator of voltage
E = 100 sin (100t) volt. The current flowing through the coil will be –
(1)  = 10 sin (100t) A (2)  = 10 cos (100t) A
(3)  = – 10 sin (100t) A (4)  = – 10 cos (100t) A
13. In pure capacitive circuit if the frequency of A.C. is doubled, then the value of capacitive
reactance will become –
1 1
(1) Two times (2) times (3) No change (4) times
2 4
14. The potential difference between the ends of a resistance R is V R between the ends of
capacitor is VC = 2VR and between the ends of inductance is VL = 3VR, then the alternating
potential of the source in terms of VR will be –
(1) 2 VR (2) VR (3) VR/ 2 (4) 5VR
15. n an electric circuit the applied alternating emf is given by E = 100 sin (314 t) volt, and
current flowing  = sin (314t +  / 3). Then the impedance of the circuit is (in ohm) –
(1) 100 / 2 (2) 100
(3) 100 2 (4) None of the above
16. n a series resonant L–C–R circuit, if L is increased by 25% and C is decreased by 20%, then
the resonant frequency will –
(1) Increase by 10% (2) Decrease by 10%
(3) Remain unchanged (4) Increase by 2.5%

102
17. n an LCR circuit, the resonating frequency is 500 kHz. If the value of L is increased two times
1
and value of C is decreased times, then the new resonating frequency in kHz will be –
8
(1) 250 (2) 500 (3) 1000 (4) 2000
18. n resonating circuit values of inductance and capacitance is 0.1H and 200 F. For same
resonating frequency if value of inductance is 100H then necessary value of capacitance in F
will be –
(1) 4 (2) 0.2 (3) 2 (4) 0.3
19. The electric resonance is sharp in L-C-R circuit if in the circuit –
(1) R is greater (2) R is smaller
(3) R = XL or XC (4) Does not depend on R
20. n an ac circuit 6 ohm resistor, an inductor of 4 ohm and a capacitor of 12 ohm are connected in
series with an ac source of 100 volt (rms). The average power dissipated in the circuit will be
(1) 600 W (2) 500 W (3) 400 W (4) 200 W
21. In the circuit shown in figure value of VR is:
(1) 400 V
(2) 200 V
(3) 300 V
(4) zero
22. In the circuit shown in figure current in the circuit is:
(1) 1.27A
(2) 2.23A
(3) 4.26A
(4) 3.87A

23. The power factor of the circuit shown in the figure is

(A) 0.4
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.8
(4) 0.6
24. What will the reading of the voltmeter across the resistance and ammeter in the circuit shown
in the figure?
(1) 300V, 2.2A
(2) 800V, 2.2A
(3)100V, 2.2A
(4) 220V, 2.2A
25. n an ac circuit emf and current are E = 5 cos t volt and  = 2 sin t ampere respectively. The
average power dissipated in this circuit will be –
(1) 10 W (2) 2.5 W (3) 5 W (4) Zero
26. The series combination of resistance R and inductance L is connected to an alternating source
of e.m.f. e = 311 sin (100 t). If the value of wattless current is 0.5A and the impedance of the
circuit is 311, the power factor will be –
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 3 5
27. n an ac circuit the readings of an ammeter and a voltmeter are 10 A and 25 volt respectively,
the power in the circuit will be –
(1) More than 250 W (2) Always less than 250 W
(3) 250 W (4) Less than 250 W or 250 W

103
28. A choke coil of 100 ohm and 1 H is connected to a generator of E = 200 sin (100t) volt. The
average power dissipated will be –
(1) Zero (2) 200 W (3) 141 W (4) 100 W
29. In an A.C. circuit, i = 5 sin (100t–  / 2 ) ampere and, V = 200 sin (100 t) volt. The power loss in
the circuit will be –
(1) 20 volt (2) 40 volt (3) 1000 watt (4) 0 watt
30. Alternating current can not be measured by direct current meters, because –
(1) alternating current can not pass through an ammeter
(2) the average value of current for complete cycle is zero
(3) some amount of alternating current is destroyed in the ammeter.
(4) None of these
31. n a series LCR circuit with R = 11 ohm, the instantaneous value of the current i in the circuit
and instantaneous value of the appled ac emf e, are respecitvely – i = 200 mA, e = 110 volt. If
the phase difference between the current and voltage is /3, then the instantaneous ac power
in the circuit is –
(1) 22W (2) 0.44W
(3) 0.22W (4) None of the above
32. A coil has an inductance of 0.7 H and is joined in series with a resistance of 220 . When an
alternating e.m.f. of 220 V at 50 cps is applied to it, then the wattless component of the
current in the circuit is-
(1) 5 ampere (2) 0.5 ampere (3) 0.7 ampere (4) 7 ampere

33. Choose the wrong statement.

L
(1) The dimensions of are same as that of strain
R
1
(2) The dimension of are same as that of angular velocity
LC
(3) The dimension of LCR are same as that of time.
(4) None of the above
34. When 100V, d.c. is applied across a solenoid a current of 1A flows in it. When 100V, a.c. is
applied across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5A. The frequency of the a.c. is 50Hz. The
impendence and inductance of the solenoid are:
(1) 100,0.75H (2) 100,0.60H (3) 200, 0.55H (4) 200,0.75H

35. A series circuit has an impendence of 50.0 and a power factor of 0.63 at 60Hz. The voltage
lags the current. To raise the power factor of the circuit:
(1) an inductor should be placed in series
(2) a capacitor should be placed in series
(3) a resistance should be placed in series
(4) an inductor or a resistance should be placed in series
XC
36. In the circuit shown in figure X L = = R , the peak value current i 0 is:
2
5V0 V0
(1) (2)
2R 2 2R
V V0
(3) 0 (4)
2R 2 3R
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

104
In a pure L-C circuit there is no energy loss but energy is transferred from inductor to capacitor
1
and vice-versa , with angular frequency =
LC
In one such system, L = 3.0  , C = 2.7 μ F . At t = 0, charge on the capacitor is zero and current
is 2.0 A.
37. What is the maximum charge that wil appear on the capacitor ?
(1) 60 μc (2) 135 μc (3) 180 μc (4) 210 μc

38. At what time ‘t’ is the enrgy stored in the capacitor is increasing at its greatest rate?
(1)  55 μc (2)  70 μs (3)  95 μc (4)  110 μs
39. What is this greatest rate at which the energy flows into the capacitor?
(1)  50/3 ω (2)  110/3 ω (3)  160/3 ω (4)  200/3 ω
40. Power factor of the series LR circuit is –
R R R
(1) (2) (3) (4) none of these
L R 2 + 2L2 R + 2L2
2

41. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to –

(1) Make it light weight
(2) Make it robust and strong
(3) Increase the secondary voltage
(4) Reduce the energy loss due to eddy current

42. In a series LCR circuit R = 200  and the voltage and the frequency of the main supply is 220
V and 50 Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current lags
behind the voltage by 30°. On taking out the inductor from the circuit the current leads the
voltage by 30°. The power dissipated in the LCR circuit is
(1) 305 W (2) 210 W (3) Zero W (4) 242 W

43. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q0 is connected to a coil of self inductance L at t
t = 0. The time at which the energy is stored equally between the electric and the magnetic
fields is:

(1)  / LC (2) LC (3)  LC (4) LC
4
44. An LCR circuit is equivalent to a damped pendulum. In an LCR circuit the capacitor is
charged to Q0 and then connected to the L and R as shown below:
If a student plots graphs of the square of maximum charge (Q2Max ) on the capacitor with
time(t) for two different values L1 and L 2 ( L1  L 2 ) of L then which of the following represents
this graph correctly? (plots are schematic and not drawn to scale)

(1) (2)

105
 (3) (4)

45. An arc lamp required a direct current of 10 A at 80 V to function. If it is connected to a 220 V

(rms), 50 Hz AC supply, the series inductor needed for it to work is close to
(1) 0.065 H (2) 80 H (3) 0.08 H (4) 0.044 H

RAY OPTICS
1. If an object is placed unsymmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 72 0,
then the total number of images formed is :
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) Infinity
2. A plane mirror is placed at origin parallel to y-axis, facing the positive x-axis. An object starts
( )
from (2m, 0, 0) with a velocity of 2iˆ + 2ˆj m / s . The relative velocity of image with respect to
object is along
(1) positive x-axis (2) negative x-axis
(3) positive y-axis (4) negative y-axis
 4
3. A convex mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in water   =  . The focal length of the
 3
mirror in water will be -
4 3 7
(1) f (2)   f (3)   f (4)   f
3
  4  3
4. Image formed by a concave mirror radius of curvature 40 cm is half the size of the object.
Then distance of object and its image from the mirror will be -
(1) 30 cm and 60 cm (2) 60 cm and 120 cm
(3) 60 cm and 30 cm (4) 120 cm and 60 cm
5. When a ray of light enters a medium of refractive index , it is observed that the angle of
refraction is half the angle of incidence is than angle of incidence is
(1) 2 cos–1 (/2) (2) cos –1 ( /2) (3) 2 cos–1 () (4) 2 sin–1 (/2)

6. White light is passed through a prism whose angle is 5º. If the refractive indices for rays of red
and blue colour are respectively 1.64 and1.66, the angle of deviation between the two colours
will be
(1) 0.1º (2) 0.2º (3) 0.3º (4) 0.4º

7. The refractive indices of violet and red light are 1.54 and 1.52 respectively. It the angle of
prism is 10º, the angular dispersion is
(1) 0.02º (2) 0.2º (3) 3.06º (4) 30.6º

8. The maximum value of index of refraction of a material of a prism which allows the passage of
light through it when the refracting angle of the prism is A is

(1) A
1 + sin  (2) 1 + cos  
A
(3) 1 + tan2  
A
(4) 1 + cot 2  
A

2 2 2 2
9. The refractive index of a prism is 2. The prism can have a maximum refracting angle of
(1) 90o (2) 60o (3) 45o (4) 30o

106
10. A beam of light, consisting of red, green and blue colours, is incident on a right-angled prism,
as shown. The refractive indices of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue
wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. The prism will
(1) separate the red colour from the green and blue colours

(
45º
(2) separate the blue colour from the red and green colours
(3) separate all the three colours from one another
90º 45º(
(4) not separate even partially any colour from the other two colours

11. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm (in a medium of µ = 1) from the pole of a spherical
refracting surface bounding a medium of µ = 1.5. If the image formed is virtual and at a
distance of 40 cm, then the spherical surface is –
(1) concave with radius of curvature = 8 cm
(2) convex with radius of curvature = 8 cm
(3) concave with radius of curvature = 3.6 cm
(4) convex with radius of curvature = 3.6 cm
12. Two lenses whose powers are + 2D and − 4D respectively. The focal of combination is:
(1) − 50cm (2) + 50cm (3) − 100cm (4) + 25cm

13. A biconvex lens can form a virtual image if the object is placed
(1) between the lens and its focus (2) at the focus of the lens
(3) between f and 2 f (4) at infinity
1
14. Two convex lenses of powers 4 D and 6 D are separated by a distance of m. The power of
6
the optical system so formed is
(1) –6 D (2) +6 D (3) 10 D (4) 2 D
15. If 1 and 2 be the sizes of the images respectively for the two positions of the lens in the
displacement method, then the size of the object is given by
(1) 1 2 (2) (  2 ) (3) ( I1 /I2 ) (4) ( I2 /I1 )

16. A point object O is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm at a
distance of 40 cm to the left of it. The diameter of the lens is 10 cm. If the eye is placed 60
cm to the right of the lens at a distance h below the principal axis, then the maximum value of
h to see the image will be
(1) 0 (2) 5 cm (3) 2.5 cm (4) 10 cm
17. In the displacement method, a convex lens is placed in between an object and a screen. If the
mangnifications in the two positions are m1 and m2 and the displacement of the lens between
the two positions is x, the focal length of the lens is
x x x x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(m1 + m2 ) (m1 − m2 ) (m1 + m2 )2
(m1 − m2 )2
18. An object is placed at a point distant x from the focus of a convex lens and its image is formed
at I as shown in the figure. The distance x, x’ satisfy the relation
x + x'
(1) =f (2) f = x x’
2 O F F I
(3) x + x’  2f (4) x + x’  2f x x
19. A 9 cm high image of an object is formed on a screen by a convex lens.
When the lens is displaced towards the screen, again a 4 cm high image is formed on the
screen. The height of the object is -
(1) 6 cm (2) 6.25 cm (3) 6.5 cm (4) None of these

107
20. A plane convex lens is made of material of refractive index 1.6. The radius of curvature of the
curved surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is -
(1) 100 cm (2) 400 cm (3) 50 cm (4) 200 cm
21. A double convex lens, made of glass of refractive index 1.5, has focal length 6 cm. The radius
of curvature of one surface is double than that of other surface. The small radius of curvature
has value -
(1) 4.5 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 9 cm
22. A boy of height 1.5 m with his eye level at 1.4 m stands before a plane mirror of length 0.75 m
fixed on the wall. The height of the lower edge of the mirror above the floor is 0.8m. Then :
(1) the boy will see his full image
(2) the boy can not see his hair.
(3) the boy can not see his feet
(4) the boy can neither see his hair nor his feet
23. A thin rod of length f/3 is placed along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length ‘f’
such that its image which is real and elongated , just touches the rod. So, the linear
magnification is :
(1) 3/2 (2) 2/3 (3) 2 (4) 5/2
24. A plane mirror is inclined at an angle  with the horizontal surface. At t = 0 a particle is
projected from point P as shown in figure with a velocity v at an angle  with the horizontal.
Path of the image as observed from the frame of the particle is
(1) parabola
(2) straight line
(3) circle
(4) none of these
25. A ray of light incident on a plane mirror at an angle 10º with horizontal.
After reflection from mirror the reflected ray becomes vertical as shown. The angle ‘’ made by
the plane mirror with horizontal is
(1) 30º
///
(2) 40º /
/
////
////
//
(3) 50º ////
////
/
/////
(4) 60º 10º( ////) 
////
/

26. In the given figure, the angle of reflection is

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) none of these

27. A man observes a coin placed at the bottom of a beaker which contains two immiscible liquids
of refractive index 1.2 and 1.4 as shown in the fig. The depth of the coin below the surface, as
observed from above, is –
(1) 1.6 cm
(2) 7.5 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) none of these

108
28. An achromatic convergent doublet of two lens in contact has a power of + 2D. The power of
the convex lens is +5D. What is the ratio of the dispersive powers of the convergent and
divergent lenses?
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 3 : 5
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 5 : 3
29. A plane mirror is placed at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid of
refractive index . P is a small object at a height h above the mirror. An
observer O, vertically above P, outside the liquid, observe P and its image in
the mirror. The apparent distance between these two will be:
2h
(1) 2g (2)

2h  1
(3) (4) h 1 + 
 −1  
30. The plane surface of a planoconvex lens of focal length f is silvered. It will behave as :
(1) plane mirror (2) convex mirror of focal lengths 2f
(3) concave mirror of focal length f/2 (4) none of the above
31. A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere with centre at C as shown in figure. The ray
emerges from the sphere parallel to line AB. The refractive index of the sphere is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 3 / 2
(4) 1/ 2
32. A point object O is placed at a distance of 20cm from a convex lens of focal length 10cm as
shown in figure. At what distance x from the lens should a convex mirror of focal length 60cm,
be placed so that final image coincides with the object
(1) 10cm
(2) 40cm
(3) 20cm
(4) final image can never coincide with the object in the given conditions

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

A tank of cross sectional area A has a hole at the bottom of area of cross section
A1 = A/1000. Bottom of the tank is a plane mirror. The tank contains water of
refractive index 4/3. At the instant, when height of the water in the tank is 5m,
a fish is rising vertically in the tank with a velocity 3 cm/sec toward the surface.

33. The velocity with which surface is falling down inside container is
(1) 1 cm/s (2) 2 cm/s
(3) 3 cm/s (4) 4 cm/s

34. The velocity of the fish as observed by the observer looking directly at the fish is
(1) 2 cm/s (2) 3 cm/s (3) 4 cm/s (4) 1 cm/s

35. The speed of the image of fish formed by the mirror as observed by the same observer is
(1) 2.5 cm/s (2) 1 cm/s (3) 3 cm/s (4) 1.5 cm/s

36. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P. Additional prism Q
and R of identical shape and of the same material as P are now added as shown in the figure.
The ray will suffer:

109
 (1) greater deviation (2) no deviation
(3) same deviation as before (4) total internal reflection
37. White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is
just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains:
(1) yellow, orange, red
(2) violet, indigo, blue
(3) all colours
(4) all colours except green

38. A container is filled with water (=1.33) upto a height of 33.25cm. A

concave mirror is placed 15cm above the water surface and the image of an
object placed at the bottom is formed 25cm below the water level. The focal
length of the mirror is
(1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm
(3) 20 cm (4) 25 cm
39. The image of an object, formed by a plano-convex lens at a distance of 8 m behind the lens, is
2
real and is one-third the size of the object. The wavelength of light inside the lens is times
3
the wavelength in free space. The radius of the curved surface of the lens is
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) 4 m
40. An Astronomical telescope has a large aperture to
(1) reduce spherical aberration (2) have high resolution
(3) increase span of observation (4) have low dispersion
o o
41. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are 1 = 4000 A and 2 = 5000 A , then the ratio of
the respective resolving powers (corresponding to 1 and 2) are
(1) 16 : 25 (2) 9 : 1 (3) 4 : 5 (4) 5 : 4
42. A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a refractive index
2
of . It is surrounded by air. A light ray is incident at
3
the mid point of one end of the rod as shown in the
figure. The incident angle  for which the light ray grazes
along the wall of the rod is
1  3  2   1 
(1) sin−1   (2) sin−1   (3) sin−1   (4) sin−1  
2  2   3  3
43. A car is fitted with a convex side-view mirror of focal length 20 cm. A second car 2.8m behind the
first car is overtaking the first car at a relative speed of 15 m/s. The speed of the image of the
second car as seen in the mirror of the first one is
1 1
(1) m/s (2) m/s (3) 10 m/s (4) 15 m/s
10 15
44. The graph between angle of deviation (  ) and angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is
represented by

(1) (2) (3) (4)

110
45. In an experiment for determination of refractive index of glass of a prism by i − , plot, it was
found that a ray incident at angle 35°, suffers a deviation of 40° and that it emerges at angle
79°. In that case which of the following is closest to the maximum possible value of the
refractive index ?
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.5 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.7

WAVE OPTICS
1. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The
maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are :
(1) 5I and I (2) 5I and 3I (3) 9I and I (4) 9I and 3I

2. Figure, shows wave fronts in still water, moving in the direction of the arrow towards the
interface PQ between a shallow region and a deep(denser) region. Which of the lines shown
may represent one of the wave fronts in the deep region?

(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

3. Figure shown plane waves refracted for air to water using Huygen's principle a, b, c, d, e are
lengths on the diagram. The refractive index of water wrt air is the ratio.

(1) a/e (2) b/e (3) b/d (4) d/b

4. When light is refracted into a denser medium,

(1) its wavelength and frequency both increases
(2) its wavelength increase but frequency remains unchanged
(3) its wavelength decrease but frequency remains unchanged
(4) its wavelength and frequency both decrease.

5. Two point source separated by d = 5 m emit light of wavelength  = 2 m in phase. A

circular wire of radius 20 m is placed around the source as shown in figure.

(1) Point A and B are dark and points C and D are bright.
(2) Points A and B are bright and point C and D are dark.
(3) Points A and C are dark and points B and D are bright.
(4) Points A and C are bright and points B and D are dark.

111
6. Plane microwaves from a transmitter are directed normally towards a plane reflector. A
detector moves along the normal to the reflector. Between positions of 14 successive maxima,
the detector travels a distance 0.13 m. If the velocity of light is 3 × 10 8 m/s, find the
frequency of the transmitter.
(1) 1.5 × 1010 Hz (2) 1010 Hz (3) 3 × 1010 Hz (4) 6 × 1010 Hz

7. Two monochromatic (wavelength = a/5) and coherent sources of electromagnetic waves are
placed on the x-axis at the points (2a, 0) and (–a, 0). A detector moves in a circle of radius
R(>>2a) whose centre is at the origin. The number of maximas detected during one circular
revolution by the detector are
(1) 60 (2) 15 (3) 64 (4) None

8. Two coherent narrow slits emitting light of wavelength l in the same phase are placed parallel
to each other at a small separation of 3  . The light is collected on a screen S which is placed
at a distance D (>> l) from the slits. The smallest distance x such that the P is a maxima

D
(1) 3D (2) 8D (3) 5D (4) 5
2

9. In YDSE how many maxima can be obtained on the screen if wavelength of light used is
200nm and d = 700 nm:
(1) 12 (2) 7 (3) 18 (4) none of these

10. In Young's double slit experiment, the wavelength of red light is 7800 Å and that of blue light
is 5200 Å. The value of n for which nth bright band due to red light coincides with (n + 1)th
bright band due to blue light, is :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

11. If the Young's double slit experiment is performed with white light, then which of the following
is not true:
(1) the central maximum will be white (2) there will not be a completely dark fringe
(3) the fringe next to the central will be red
(4) the fringe next to the central will be violet

12. Imagine a Young's double slit interference experiment performed with waves associated with
fast moving electrons produced from an electron gun. The distance between successive
maxima will decrease maximum if
(1) the accelerating voltage in the electron gun is decreased
(2) the accelerating voltage is increased and the distance of the screen from the slits is
decreased
(3) the distance of the screen from the slits is increased.
(4) the distance between the slits is decreased.
13. In a Young's double slit experiment, a small detector measures an intensity of illumination of I
units at the centre of the fringe pattern. If one of the two (identical) slits is now covered, the
measured intensity will be
(1) 2I (2) I (3) I/4 (4) I/2

112
14. Two identical narrow slits S1 and S2 are illuminated by light of wavelength  from a point
source P.

If, as shown in the diagram above the light is then allowed to fall on a screen, and if n is a
positive integer, the condition for destructive interference at Q is that
(1) (l1 – l2) = (2n + 1)  /2 (2) (l3 – l4) = (2n + 1)  /2
(3) (l1 + l2) – (l2 + l4) = n  (4) (l1 + l3) – (l2 + l4) = (2n + 1)  /2
15. In Young's double slit experiment, the two slits act as coherent sources of equal amplitude A
and wavelength  . In another experiment with the same setup the two slits are sources of
equal amplitude A and wavelength  but are incoherent. The ratio of the intensity of light at
the midpoint of the screen in the first case to that in the second case is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) none of these

16. In Young's double slit experiment the slits are 0.5 mm apart and the interference is observed
on a screen at a distance of 100 cm from the slit. It is found that the 9th bright fringe is at a
distance of 7.5 mm from the second dark fringe from the centre of the fringe pattern. The
wavelength of the light used is
2500 5000
(1) Å (2) 2500 Å (3) 5000 Å (4) Å
7 7

17. In a two slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a screen placed at
some distance from the slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10 –2 m towards the slits, the
change in fringe width is 3 × 10 –5 m. If separation between the slits is 10 –3m, the wavelength
of light used is:
(1) 6000 Å (2) 5000 Å (3) 3000 Å (4) 4500 Å

18. The ratio of the intensity at the centre of a bright fringe to the intensity at a point one–quarter
of the fringe width from the centre is
(1) 2 (2) 1/2 (3) 4 (4) 16

19. In a double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is d = 0.25 cm and the distance
of the screen D = 100 cm from the slits. If the wavelength of light used is  = 6000Å and I0 is
the intensity of the central bright fringe, the intensity at a distance x = 4 × 10 –5 m from the
central maximum is
(1) I0 (2) I0 2 (3) 3I0 4 (4) I0 3

20. A monochromatic light source of wavelength  is placed at S. Three slits S1, S2 and S3 are
equidistant from the source S and the point P on the screen. S1P – S2P =  /6 and S1P – S3P
= 2  /3. If I be the intensity at P when only one slit is open, the intensity at P when all the
three slits are open is

(1) 3 I (2) 5 I
(3) 8 I (4) zero
21. In the figure shown if a parallel beam of white light is incident on the plane of the slits then
the distance of the white spot on the screen from O is [Assume d << D, l << d]

113
 (1) 0 (2) d/2 (3) d/3 (4) d/6

22. In the above question if the light incident is monochromatic and point O is a maxima, then
the wavelength of the light incident cannot be
(1) d2 3D (2) d2 6D (3) d2 12D (4) d2 18D

23. In Young's double slit arrangement, water is filled in the space between screen and slits. Then
(1) fringe pattern shifts upwards but fringe width remains unchanged.
(2) fringe width decreases and central bright fringe shifts upwards.
(3) fringe width increases and central bright fringe does not shift.
(4) fringe width decreases and central bright fringe does not shift.

24. Light of wavelength  in air enters a medium of refractive index  . Two points in this
medium, lying along the path of this light, are at a distance x apart. The phase difference
between these points is :
2x 2x 2( − 1)x 2 x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
   ( − 1)

25. In YDSE, the source placed symmetrically with respect to the slit is now moved parallel to the
plane of the slits so that it is closer to the upper slit, as shown. Then,

(1) the fringe width will increase and fringe pattern will shift down.
(2) the fringe width will remain same but fringe pattern will shift up.
(3) the fringe width will decrease and fringe pattern will shift down.
(4) the fringe width will remain same but fringe pattern will shift down.

26. Young’s double slit experiment is carried with two thin sheets of thickness 10.4  m each and
refractive index 1 = 1.52 and  2 = 1.40 covering the slits S1 and S2, respectively. If white light
of range 400 nm to 780 nm is used then which wavelength will form maxima exactly at point
O, the centre of the screen ?

(1) 416 nm only (2) 624 nm only

(3) 416 nm and 624 nm only (4) none of these

3
27. Minimum thickness of a mica sheet having  = which should be placed in front of one of the
2
slits in YDSE is required to reduce the intensity at the centre of screen to half of maximum
intensity is
(1)  /4 (2)  /8 (3)  /2 (4)  /3

114
28. Unpolarized beam of light of intensity I0 is incident on two polarizers in contact. The angle
between the transmission axes of the two polarizers is  . The intensity of the light finally
emerging from the combination is
I  I 
(1) I0 cos2  (2) I0 cos4  (3)  0  cos2  (4)  0  cos2 
2 4

29. In the YDSE shown the two slits are covered with thin sheets having thickness t & 2t and
refractive index 2  and  . Find the position (y) of central maxima

tD tD
(1) zero (2) (3) − (4) None
d d

30. The figure shows a transparent slab of length 1m placed in air whose refractive index in x
direction varies as  = 1 + x2(0 < x < 1). The optical path length of ray R will be

2 4
(1) 1 m (2) m (3) m (4) 2 m
3 3
31. From Brewster’s law for polarization, it follows that the angle of polarization depends upon
(1) The wavelength of light (2) The frequency of light
(3) The refractive index of the material (4) The density of the material

32. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of yellow light. What happens if the yellow light
is replaced by red light?
(1) No change (2) Diffraction bands become narrower
(3) Diffraction bands become broader (4) Diffraction bands disappear

33. For what distance ray nature of light is a good approximation when the aperture is 1 mm wide
and wavelength is 5000 Å?
(1) 2 m (2) 20 m (3) 200 m (4) 1 m
34. What should be path difference between wave y1 and y2 to have constructive interference?
y1 y2

 = 1.2

 = 1.5

 3
(1) n (2) (2n + 1) (3) (4) Both (2) & (3)
2 2
35. Which of the following is incorrect about diffraction at a single slit? (symbols have their usual
meanings)
(1) If the intensity of central maximum is I, then intensities of Ist, IInd and IIIrd maxima are
respectively 4.96%, 1.68% and 0.83% of I

115
 D
(2) The position of first minima on either side of central maximum is 
a
(3) For diffraction at a single slit, the width of slit must be of the order of wavelength of light
used
2D
(4) Width of each fringe in diffraction pattern is given by
a
36. Unpolarized light of intensity I0 passes through three polarizers such that transmission axes
of the first and second polarizer makes angle 60° with each other and the transmission axis of
the last polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The intensity of final emerging light will be
I I 3I 3I
(1) 0 (2) 0 (3) 0 (4) 0
16 8 32 8
37. Diffraction expect are noticed in case of sound waves more than in case of light wave because
sound waves
(1) Are longitudinal (2) Are of longer wavelength
(3) Are of shorter wavelength (4) Are mechanical waves

38. When angle of incidence on a material is 53°, the reflected light is completely polarised. The
velocity of the refracted ray inside the material is
4 9
(1)  108 m/s (2)  108 m/s (3)1.5  108 m/s (4)1  108 m/s
3 4

39. The main difference between the phenomena of interference and diffraction is that -
(1) Diffraction is due to interaction of light from the same wave front, whereas interference is
the interaction of waves from two separate sources.
(2) Diffraction is due to superposition of light from the same wavefront, whereas interference
is due to two waves derived from the same source.
(3) Diffraction is due to two waves derived from the same source, while interference is
superposition of light from wavefront.
(4) In both diffraction and interference, number of coherent the same sources is two
40. The correct relation between the size of the obstacle and the wavelength of light in order to
observe the diffraction event is -
a a a a
(1) > 1 (2) =0 (3) = (4) = 150
   
41. The positions of minima in the diffraction pattern due to a single slit are expressed by the
formula-
 n
(1) a sin  = n (2) a sin  = (2n + 1) (3) a sin  = (4)
2 2

a sin  = (2n − 1)
2
42. The condition for obtaining maxima in the diffraction pattern due to a single slit is -
 n
(1) a sin  = (2n − 1) (2) a sin  = n (3) a sin  = (4) a sin  = (2n + 1)
2 2

43. A slit of width 12 × 10–7 m is illuminated by light of wavelength 6000Aº. The angular width of
the central maximum is approximately -
(1) 30º (2) 60º (3) 90º (4) 0º

44. The diffraction at a narrow light source is produced for red, yellow and violet light. The width
of diffraction pattern is found to be W1, W2 and W3 respectively. Then -

116
 (1) W1 > W2 > W3 (2) W1 < W2 < W3
(3) W1 = W2 = W3 (4) Nothing can be said
45. First diffraction minima due to a single slit of width 10 –4cm is at q = 30º. The wavelength of
the light used is –
(1) 4000 Å (2) 5000 Å (3) 6000 Å (4) 6250 Å
MODERN PHYSICS
1. Four physical quantities are listed in Column I. Their values are listed in Column II in a
random order
Column I Column II
A. Thermal energy of air molecules at room temperature. (i) 0.02 eV
B. Binding energy of heavy nuclei per nucleon (ii) 2 eV
C. X−ray photon energy (iii) 10 keV
D. Photon energy of visible light (iv) 7 MeV
(1) A−i, B−iv, C-iii, D−ii (2) A−i, B−iii, C-ii, D−iv
(3) A−ii, B−i, C-iii, D−iv (4) A−ii, B−iv, C-i, D−iii
2. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of
energy 6 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential in volts is:
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 10
3. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause
photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately :
(1) 540 nm (2) 400 nm (3) 310 nm (4) 220 nm

4. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles of masses m 1 and m2 having non-zero
velocities. The ratio of the de−broglie wavelengths of the particles 1/2 is :
(1) m1/m2 (2) m2/m1 (3) 1 (4) m2 / m1
5. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a proton. The energy of the photon is
E. Let 1 be the de−Broglie wavelength of the proton and 2 be the wavelength of the photon.
The ratio 1/2 is proportional to :
(1) E0 (2) E1/2 (3) E−1 (4) E−2
6. The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode potential
for a photo-sensitive surface for three different radiation. Let Ia, Ib
and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb and fc be the frequencies for the
curves a, b and c respectively
(1) fa = fb and Ia  Ib (2) fa = fc and Ia = Ic
(3) fa = fb and Ia = Ib (4) fb = fc and Ib = Ic

7. A beam of electron is used in an YDSE experiment. The slit width is d. When the velocity of
electron is increased, then :
(1) no interference is observed (2) fringe width increases
(3) fringe width decreases (4) fringe width remains same
8. The graph between 1/ and stopping potential (V) of three metals having work functions 1,
2 and 3 in an experiment of photo-electric effect is plotted as shown in the figure. Which of
the following statement(s) is/are correct? [Here 
is the wavelength of the incident ray].
(1) Ratio of work functions 1 : 2 : 3 = 1 : 2 : 4
(2) Ratio of work functions 1 : 2 : 3 = 4 : 2 : 1
(3) tan  is directly proportional to hc/e, where h is Planck’s

117
 constant and c is the speed of light
(4) The violet colour light can eject photoelectrons from metals 2 and 3.

9. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three different metal plates p, q and r
having work functions p = 2.0 eV, q = 2.5 eV and r = 3.0 eV, respectively. A light beam
containing wavelengths of 550 nm, 450 nm and 350 nm with equal intensities illuminates
each of the plates. The correct I-V graph for the experiment is :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

10. An –particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 100 V. After
this, their de Broglie wavelengths are  and p respectively. The ration p/, to the nearest
integer, is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

11. A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different wavelengths 248 nm and 310 nm. The
maximum speeds of the photoelectrons corresponding to these wavelengths are u1 and u2,
respectively. If the ratio u1 : u2 = 2 : 1 and hc = 1240 eV nm, the work function of the metal
is nearly
(1) 3.7 eV (2) 3.2 eV (3) 2.8 eV (4) 2.5 eV
12. In a historical experiment to determine Planck’s constant, a metal surface was irradiated
with light of different wavelength. The emitted photoelectron energies were measured by
applying a stopping potential. The relevant data for the wavelength ( ) of incident light and
the corresponding stopping potential (V0) are given below:

 ( m) V0 ( Volt )
0.3 2.0
0.4 1.0
0.5 0.4
Given that c = 3 108 ms −1 −19
and e = 1.6  10 C, Plank’s constant (in units of J s) found
from such an experiment is
(1) 6.0  10−34 (2) 6.4  10−34 (2) 6.6  10−34 (4) 6.8  10−34
13. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?
(1) cosmic rays (2) gamma rays
(3)  -ray (4) X-rays

14. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength?

(1)  − rays (2)  − rays (3)  − rays (4) X-rays
15. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization potential?
(1) 14
7 N (2) 133
55 Cs
40
(3) 18 Ar (4) 16
8 O

16. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is
(1) Ec (2) 2E/c (3) E/c (4) E/c2

17. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause
photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately.
(1) 310 nm (2) 400 nm (3) 540 nm (4) 220 nm

118
18. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted
photo electrons from a metal Vs the frequency of the incident light gives as straight line the
whose slope
(1) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(2) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(3) depends on the nature of the metal used
(4) is the same for the all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation
19. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1 m away. When the same source
1
of light is placed m away, the number of electrons emitted by photocathode would
2
(1) increase by a factor of 4 (2) decrease by a factor of 4
(3) increase by a factor of 2 (4) decrease by a factor of 2
20. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, it’s de Broglie wavelength changes by the
factor
1 1
(1) 2 (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 2
21. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV and the
stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface is 5V. The incident radiation lies
in
(1) ultra-violet region (2) infra-red region
(3) visible region (4) X-ray region
22. The time taken by a photoelectron to come out after the photon strikes is approximately
(1) 10−4 s (2) 10−10 s (3) 10−16 s (4) 10−1 s

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT TWO QUESTIONS

Wave property of electrons implies that they will show diffraction effects. Davisson and Germer
demonstrated this by diffracting electrons from crystals. The law governing he diffraction from a
crystal is obtained by required that electron waves reflected from the planes of atoms in a crystal
interfere constructively (see figure).

23. Electrons accelerated by potential V are diffracted from a crystal. If d = 1Å and I = 30°, V
should be about (h = 6.6 10−34 Js, me = 9.1 10−31 kg, e = 1.6 10−19 C )
(1) 2000 V (2) 50 V (3) 500 V (4) 1000 V

24. If a strong diffraction peak is observed when electrons are incident at an angle ‘i'from the
normal to the crystal planes with distance ‘d’ between them (see figure), de Broglie
wavelength  dB of electrons can be calculated by the relationship (n is an integer)
(1) d sin i = ndB (2) 2d cos i = ndB (3) 2d sin i = ndB (4) d cos i = ndB

119
25. In an experiment, electrons are made to pass through a narrow slit of width ‘d’ comparable
to their de Broglie wavelength. They are detected on a screen at a distance ‘D’ from the slit
(see figure).

Which of the following graph can be expected to represent the number of electrons ‘N’
detected as a function of the detector position ‘y’(y = 0 corresponds to the middle of the slit)?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
26. The surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of 400nm. The kinetic energy of the
ejected photoelectrons was found to be 1.68eV. The work function of the metal is
( hc = 1240eV.nm)
(1) 1.41eV (2) 1.51eV (3) 1.68eV (4) 3.09eV
27. If a source of power 4kW produces 1020 photons/second, the radiation belongs to a part of
the spectrum called
(1) X-rays (2) ultraviolet rays (3) microwaves (4)  − rays
28. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing
energy:
A : Blue light B : Yellow light
C : X-ray D : Radiowave
(1) B, A, D, C (2) D, B A, C (3) A, B, D, C (4) C, A, B, D
29. Match List – I (Electromagnetic wave type) with List-II (Its association/application) and select
the correct option from the choice given below the lists:
Column I Coloumn I
1. Infrared waves (i) To treat muscular strain
2. Radio waves (ii) For broadcasting
3. X-rays (iii) To detect fracture of bones
4. Ultraviolet rays (iv) Absorbed by the ozone layer of the atom sphere
Code
P Q R S
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 1 2 4 3
(3) 3 2 1 4
(4) 1 2 3 4

120
30. Radiation of wavelength  , is incident on a photocell. The fastest emitted electron has speed
3
v. If the wavelength is changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be
4
1 1 1 1
 3 2  4 2  4 2  4 2
(1) = v   (2)  v   (3)  v   (4)  v  
4 3 3 3
31. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure. The ratio of the wavelengths
r = 1 /  2 , is given by

1 4 2 3
(1) r = (2) r = (3) r = (4) r =
3 3 3 4
32. The shortest wavelength of X−rays emitted from an X−ray tube depends on
(1) the current in the tube (2) the voltage applied to the tube
(3) the nature of the gas in tube (4) the atomic number of the target material
33. Consider the spectral line resulting from the transition n = 2 → n = 1 in the atoms and ions
given below. The shortest wavelength is produced by :
(1) hydrogen atom (2) deuterium atom
(3) singly ionized helium (4) doubly ionized lithium
34. The X−ray beam coming from an X−ray tube will be :
(1) monochromatic
(2) having all wavelengths smaller than a certain maximum wavelength
(3) having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength
(4) having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength
35. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an electron from the
ground state of doubly ionized Li and (Z = 3) is :
(1) 1.51 (2) 13.6 (3) 40.8 (4) 122.4
36. Electrons with energy 80 keV are incident on the tungsten target of an X−ray tube K−shell
electrons of tungsten have 72.5 keV energy. X-rays emitted by the tube contain only :
(1) a continuous X−ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of  0.155 Å
(2) a continuous X−ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with all wavelengths
(3) the characteristic X−ray spectrum of tungsten
(4) a continuous X−ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of  0.155 Å
and the characteristic X−ray spectrum of tungsten.
37. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition form an excited state to the ground
state. Which of the following statement is true ?
(1) its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total energy decreases
(2) its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases and its total energy remains the
same
(3) its kinetic and total energy decreases and its potential energy increases
(4) its kinetic, potential and total energy decreases

121
38. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet
radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition :
(1) 2 → 1 (2) 3 → 2 (3) 4 → 2 (4) 5 → 4
39. The intensity of X−rays from a Coolidge tube is plotted against wavelength 
as shown in the figure. The minimum wavelength found is c and the
wavelength of the K line is k. As the accelerating voltage is increased
(1) k − c increases (2) k − c decreases
(3) k increases (4) k decreases
40. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is 5 kV and the current through it is 3.2
mA. Then the number of electrons striking the target per second is :
(1) 2 × 1016 (2) 5 × 106 (3) 1 × 1017 (4) 4 × 1015
41. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state inelastically. Energy of
the colliding photon is 10.2 eV. After a time interval of the order of micro second another
photon collides with same hydrogen atom inelastically with an energy of 15 eV. What will be
observed by the detector ?
(1) 2 photons f energy 10.2 eV
(2) 2 photons of energy 1.4 eV
(3) One photon of energy 10.2 eV and an electron of energy 1.4 eV
(4) One photon of energy 10.2 eV and another photon of energy 1.4 eV
42. K wavelength emitted by an atom of atomic number Z = 11 is . Find the atomic number
for an atom that emits K radiation with wavelength 4.
(1) Z = 6 (2) Z = 4 (3) Z = 11 (4) Z = 44
43. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The
smallest wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest integer)
is :
(1) 802 nm (2) 823 nm (3) 1882 nm (4) 1648 nm

44. Electrons with de−Broglie wavelength  fall on the target in an X−ray tube. The cut−off
wavelength of the emitted X−rays is :
2mc2 2h 2m2c23
(1) 0 = (2) 0 = (3) 0 = (4) 0 = 
h mc h2

45. Which one of the following statements is WRONG in the context of X-rays generated from a
X-ray tube?
(1) Wavelength of characteristic X-rays decreases when the atomic number of the target
increases.
(2) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the target
(3) Intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the electrical power given to the X-ray
tube
(4) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the energy of the electrons in
the X-ray tube
46. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 6561 Å.
The wavelength of the second spectral line in the Balmer series of singly-ionised helium
atom is
(1) 1215 Å (2) 1640 Å (3) 2430 Å (4) 4687 Å
47. If cu is the wavelength of K  X-ray line of copper (atomic number 29) and Mo is the
wavelength of the K  X-ray line of molybdenum (atomic number 42), then the ratio cu / Mo
is close to

122
 (1) 1.99 (2) 2.14 (3) 0.50 (4) 0.48

48. An electron in an excited state of Li 2+ ion has angular momentum 3h /2. The de Broglie
wavelength of the electron in this state is pa 0 (where a0 is the Bohr radius). The value of p
is-
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

49. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to
remove an electron from n = 2 is
(1) 10.2 eV (2) 0 eV (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
50. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to
remove the electron from the first excited state of Li++ is
(1) 30.6 eV (2) 13.6 eV (3) 3.4 eV (4) 122.4 eV

51. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition
shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?
(1) IV (2) III
(3) II (4) I
52. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet
radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from:
(1) 3 → 2 (2) 4 → 2 (3) 5 → 4 (4) 2 → 1
53. Energy required for the electron excitation in Li ++ from the first to the third Bohr orbit is:
(1) 36.3eV (2) 108.8eV (3) 122.4eV (4) 12.1eV
54. Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to another state with principal quantum
number equal to 4. Then the number of spectral lines in the emission spectra will be:
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6
55. As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen-
like atom/ion:
(1) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases
(2) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decreases
(3) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
(4) Kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same

56. Match List-I (Fundamental Experiment) with List-II (its conclusion) and select the correct
option from the choices given below the list:
LIST-I LIST-II
(1) Franck-Hertz Experiment (i) Particle nature of light
(2) Photo-electric experiment (ii) Discrete energy levels of atom
(3) Davison-Germer Experiment (iii) Wave nature of electron
(iv) Structure of atom
(1) A − ( ii ) ,B − ( iii ) ,C − ( iii ) (2) A − ( i ) ,B − ( iv ) ,C − ( iii )
(3) A − ( ii ) ,B − ( iv ) ,C − ( iii ) (4) A − ( ii ) ,B − ( i ) ,C − ( iii )

57. A radioactive element decays by –emission. A detector records n beta particles in 2s and in
next 2s it records 0.75 n beta particles. Find mean life correct to nearest whole number.
Given ln |2| = 0.6931, in ln |3| = 1.0986.
(1) 6.947 s (2) 4.947 s (3) 3.947 s (4) 5.947 s

58. A rock is 1.5 × 109 year old. The rock contains 238 U which disintegrates to form 206Pb.
Assume that there was no 206Pb in the rock initially and it is the only stable product formed

123
 by the decay. Calculate the ratio of number of nuclei of 238U to that of 206Pb in the rock.
Half–life of 238U is 4.5 × 109 years. (21/3 = 1.259)
(1) 2.861 (2) 3.861 (3) 4.861 (4) 5

59. The half−life of the radioactive radon is 3.8 days. The time, at the end of which 1/20 th of the
radon sample will remain undecayed, is (given log 10 e = 0.4343).
(1) 3.8 day (2) 16.5 day (3) 33 day (4) 76 day

60. Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are

(1) electromagnetic radiations (2) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
(3) charged particles emitted by the nucleus (4) neutral particles
61. The equation; 411 H →24 He2+ + 2e − + 26 MeV represents
(1) −decay (2) −decay (3) fusion (4) fission

62. During a negative beta decay :

(1) an atomic electron is ejected
(2) an electron which is already present within the nucleus is ejected
(3) a neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electron
(4) a part of the binding energy of the nucleus is converted into an electron
63. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half−life 2 h emits radiation of intensity which is 64
times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work
safely with the source is :
(1) 6 h (2) 12 h (3) 24 h (4) 128 h

64. The decay constant of a radioactive sample is . The half−life and mean-life of the sample
are respectively given by :
(1) 1/ and and (ln 2)/ (2) (ln 2)/ and 1/
(3)  (ln 2) and 1/ (4) / (ln 2) and 1/

65. Consider -particles, − particles and −rays each having an energy of 0.5 MeV. In
increasing order of penetrating powers, the radiations are :
(1) , ,  (2) , ,  (3) , ,  (4) , , 

66. A star initially has 1040 deuterons. It produces energy via the processes 1H2 + 1H2 → 1H3 + p
and 1H2 + 1H3 → 2he4 + n. If the average power radiated by the star is 10 16 W, the deuteron
supply of the star is exhausted in a time of the order of :
(1) 106 s (2) 108 s (3) 1012 s (4) 1016 s

67. Fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by :

(1) the use of lead shielding (2) passing them through heavy water
(3) elastic collisions with heavy nuclei (4) applying a strong electric field
68. Masses of two isobars 29Cu64 and 30Zn64 are 63.9298 u and 63.9292 u respectively. It can be
concluded from these data that
(1) both the isobars are stable
(2) Zn64 is radioactive, decaying to Cu64 through -decay
(3) Cu64 is radioactive, decaying to Zn64 through -decay
(4) Cu64 is radioactive, decaying to Zn64 through −decay
69. The half-life of 131I is 8 days. Given a sample of 131I at time t = 0, we can assert that :
(1) no nucleus will decays before t = 4 days
(2) no nucleus will decay before t = 8 days

124
 (3) all nuclei will decay before t = 16 days
(4) a given nucleus may decay at any time after t = 0
70. Binding energy per nucleon vs. mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y
and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is
(1) Y → 2Z (2) W → X + Z
(3) W → 2Y (4) X → Y + Z

71. Order of magnitude of density of Uranium nucleus is, [mP = 1.67 × 10-27 kg]
(1) 1020 kg/m3 (2) 1017kg/m3 (3) 1014kg/m3 (4) 1011kg/m3

72. 22Ne nucleus, after absorbing energy, decays into two -particles and an unknown nucleus.
The unknown nucleus is
(1) nitrogen (2) carbon (3) boron (4) oxygen
73. In hydrogen spectrum the wavelength of H line is 656 nm; whereas in the spectrum of a
distant galaxy H line wavelength is 706 nm. Estimated speed of galaxy with respect to
earth is :
(1) 2  108 m/s (2) 2  107 m/s (3) 2  106 m/s (4) 2  105 m/s

74. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(1) Beta rays are same as cathode rays
(2) Gamma rays are high energy neutrons.
(3) Alpha particles are singly ionized helium atoms
(4) None
75. The half-life period of a radioactive element X is same as the mean life time of another
radioactive element Y. Initially both of them have the same number of atoms. Then
(1) X & Y have the same decay rate initially (2) X & Y decay at the same rate always
(3) Y will decay at a faster rate than X (4) X will decay at a faster rate than Y
76. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 and  respectively. If initially
they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of
X2 will be 1/e after a time
(1) 1/(10) (2) 1/(11) (3) 11/(10) (4) 1/(9)
77. The electron emitted in beta radiation originates from :
(1) inner orbits of atom (2) free electrons existing in nuclei
(3) decay of a neutron in a nucleus (4) photon escaping from the nucleus
78. The half-life of 215At is 100 µs. The time taken for the radioactivity of a sample of 215At to
decay to 1/16th of its initial value is :
(1) 400 µs (2) 6.3 µs (3) 40 µs (4) 300 µs
79. Which of the following processes represents a −decay ?
(1) AXZ +  → AXZ − 1 + a + b (2) AXZ +  → 1n0 − 1 → A − 3XZ − 2 + c
(3) AXZ → AXZ + f (4) AXZ + e−1 → AXA − 1 + g
80. For uranium nucleus how does its mass vary with volume ?
(1) m  V (2) m  1/V (3) m  V (4) m  V2
81. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest emits an α-particle. If the Q value of the
reaction is 5.5 MeV, calculate the kinetic energy of the α-particle ?
(1) 4.4 MeV (2) 5.4 MeV (3) 5.6 MeV (4) 6.5 MeV
82. After 280 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 6000 dps. The activity reduces to 3000
dps after another 140 days. The initial activity of the sample in dps is :

125
 (1) 6000 (2) 9000 (3) 3000 (4) 24000
83. If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into oxygen nuclei. The energy released per
oxygen nuclei is:
[Mass of the helium nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of oxygen nucleus is 15.9994]
(1) 7.6 MeV (2) 56.12 MeV (3) 10.24 MeV (4) 23.4 MeV
84. Half-life of a radioactive substance A is 4 days. The probability athat a nucleus will decay in
two half−lives is :
1 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
4 4 2
85. Given a sample of Radium-226 having half-life of 4 days. Find the probability, a nucleus
disintegrates within 2 half lives.
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 3/4 (4) 1/4
86. A radioactive sample S1 having an activity 5µCi has twice the number of nuclei as another
sample S2 which has an activity of 10 µCi. The half lives of S 1 and S2 can be
(1) 20 years and 5 years, respectively (2) 20 years and 10 years respectively
(3) 10 years each (4) 5 years each
87. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is 1010 disintegrations per seconds,
whose mean life is 109s. The mass of an atom of this radioisotope is 10 -25 kg. The mass (in
mg) of the radioactive sample is
(1) (2) (3) (4)

88. An accident in a nuclear laboratory resulted in deposition of a certain amount of radioactive

material of half-life 18 days inside the laboratory. Tests revealed that the radiation was 64
times more than the permissible level required for safe operation of the laboratory. What is
the minimum number of days after which the laboratory can be considered safe for use?
(1) 64 (2) 90 (3) 108 (4) 120
232 212
89. In a radioactive decay chain, 90 Th nucleus decays to 82 Pb nucleus. Let N and N be the
number of  and − particles, respectively, emitted in this decay process. Which of the
following statements is (are) true?
(1) N = 5 (2) N = 6 (3) N = 2 (4) N = 4

90. If N0 is the original mass of the substance of half life period t 1/2 = 5 years, then the amount
of substance left after 15 years is
(1) N0/8 (2) N0/16 (3) N0/2 (4) N0/4

91. Match List I of the nuclear processes with List II containing parent nucleus and one of the
end products of each process and then select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
List I List II
P. Alpha decay 1. 8 O → 15
15
7 N + ....
238 234
Q.  + decay 2. 92 U → 90 Th + ....
185 184
R. Fission 3. 83 Bi → 82 Pb + ....
239 140
S. Proton emission 4. 94 Pu → 57 La + ...
Codes:
P Q R S
(1) 4 2 1 3
(2) 1 3 2 4

126
 (3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 4 3 2 1
238
92. When a U nucleus originally at rest, decays by emitting an alpha particle having a speed
‘u’, the recoil speed of the residual nucleus is
4u 4u 4u 4u
(1) (2) − (3) (4) −
238 234 234 238
93. A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per
minute. After 5 minutes, the rate is 1250 disintegrations per minute. Then, the decay
constant (per minute) is
(1) 0.4 ln 2 (2) 0.2 ln 2 (3) 0.1 ln 2 (4) 0.8 ln 2
94. A nucleus with Z=92 emits the following in a sequence: , − , − , , , , , − , − , , + , + , 
Then Z of the resulting nucleus is
(1) 76 (2) 78 (3) 82 (4) 74
95. A nucleus disintegrated into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio of
2 : 1. The ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
(1) 31/2 :1 (2) 1: 21/3 (3) 21/3 :1 (4) 1: 31/2

96. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron ( H)

2
1 and helium nucleus ( 4
2 He ) is 1.1 MeV and
7 MeV respectively. If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium nucleus, then the
energy released is
(1) 23.6 MeV (2) 26.9 MeV (3) 13.9 MeV (4) 19.2 MeV
97. An  − particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The
distance of closest approach is of the order of
(1) 10−12 cm (2) 10−10 cm (3) 1A (4) 10−15 cm
27
98. If radius of the 13 Al nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 fermi then the radius of 125
52 Te nucleus be
nearly
(1) 8 fermi (2) 6 fermi (3) 5 fermi (4) 4 fermi
66 7
99. Starting with a sample of pure Cu, of it decays into Zn in 15 minutes. The
8
corresponding half life is
1
(1) 15 minutes (2) 10 minutes (3) 7 minutes (4) 5 minutes
2
100. The intensity of gamma radiation from a given source is I. On passing through 36 mm of
I I
lead, it is reduced to . The thickness of lead which will reduce the intensity to will be
8 2
(1) 9 mm (2) 6 mm (3) 12 mm (4) 18 mm
101. A nuclear transformation is denoted by X (n,  ) 73 Li. Which of the following is the nucleus of
element X?
(1) 10
5 Be (2) 12 C6 (3) 114 Be (4) 59 B

102. When 3 Li7 nuclei are bombarded by protons, and the resultant nuclei are 4 Be8 , the emitted
particles will be
(1) alpha particles (2) deta particles (3) gamma photons (4) neutrons
103. The energy spectrum of  − particles [number N(E) as a function of  − energy E] emitting
from a radioactive source is

127
 (1) (2)

(3) (4)
104. If MO is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8 O17 , MP and MN are the masses of a proton and
neutron respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is
(1) (MO − 17MN )c2 (2) (MO − 8MP )c2 (3) (MO − 8MP − 9MN )c2 (4) MOc2
105. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus
(1) only the proton number changes
(2) both the neutron number and the proton number change
(3) there is no change in the proton number and the neutron number
(4) only the neutron number changes
106. The half-life period of a radio-active element X is same as the mean life time of another
radio-active element Y. Initially they have the same number of atoms. Then
(1) X and Y decay at same rate always
(2) X will decay faster than Y
(3) Y will decay faster than X
(4) X and Y have some decay rate initially

107. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The approximate time interval
2 1
( t2 − t1 ) between the time t2 when of it had decayed and time t1 when of it had
3 3
decayed is
(1) 14min (2) 20min (3) 28min (4) 7min

108. This question contains Statements-1 and statements-2. Of the four choices given after the
statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statements-1:
Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo fusion and
Statements-2:
For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon increases with increasing Z while for light
nuclei it decreases with increasing Z.
(1) Statements-1 is false, Statements-2 is true
(2) Statements-1 is true, Statements-2 is true, Statements-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statements-2 is true; Statements-2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(4) Statement-1 is true, Statements-2 is false
109. Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes, respectively.
Initially, the samples have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed
numbers of A and B nuclei will be
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 1 : 16 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

128
110. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases when electromagnetic radiation of
wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it. The band gap (in eV) for the
semiconductor is :
(1) 0.9 (2) 0.7 (3) 0.5 (4) 1.1
111. The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased
silicon p−n junctions are :
(1) drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias
(2) diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
(3) diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
(4) drift in both forward and reverse bias
112. Which of the following statement is not true ?
(1) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decreases with increase of temperature.
(2) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities give p−type semiconductors
(3) The majority carriers in n−type semiconductors are holes
(4) A p−n junction can act as a semiconductor diode
113. In a p−n junction diode not connected to any circuit
(1) the potential is the same everywhere
(2) the p−type side is at a higher potential than the n-type side
(3) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the n-side to the p-type side
(4) there is an electric field at the junction directed form the p-type side to the n-type side
114. At absolute zero, Si acts as
(1) non metal (2) metal (3) insulator (4) none of these
115. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor
(1) increases for both (2) decreases for both
(3) increases, decreases (4) decreases, increases
116. The energy band gap is maximum in
(1) metals (2) superconductors (3) insulators (4) semiconductors
117. The part of a transistor which is most heavily doped to produce large number of majority
carries is
(1) emmiter (2) base
(3) collector (4)can be any of the above three
118. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
(1) each of these decreases
(2) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(3) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
(4) each of these increases

119. The difference in the variation of resistance with temperature in a metal and a
semiconductor carriers essentially due to the difference in the
(1) crystal structure
(2) variation of the number of charge carries with temperature
(3) type of bonding
(4) variation of scattering mechanism with temperature
120. In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse –biased p-n junction, the
(1) electric field is zero (2) potential is maximum
(3) electric field is maximum (4) potential is zero
121. When npn transistor is used as an amplifier
(1) electrons move from collector to base
(2) holes move from emitter to base

129
 (3) electrons move from base to collector
(4) holes move from base to emitter
122. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 77K, the
resistance of
(1) copper increases and germanium decreases
(2) each of them decreases
(3) each of them increases
(4) copper decreases and germanium increases
123. The manifestation of band structure in solids is due to
(1) Bohr’s correspondence principle (2) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(3) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (4) Boltzmann’s law

124. When p-n junction diode forward biased then

(1) both the depletion region and barrier height is reduced
(2) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced
(3) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased
(4) both the depletion region and barrier height are increased

125. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases when electromagnetic radiation of

wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it. The band gap in (eV) for the
semiconductor is
(1) 2.5 eV (2) 1.1 eV (3) 0.7 eV (4) 0.5 eV
126. In a common base amplifier, the phase difference between the input signal voltage and
output voltage is
 
(1)  (2) (3) (4) 0
4 2
127. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains frequency, the fundamental
frequency in the ripple would be
(1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 70.7 Hz (4) 100 Hz
128. In a common base mode of a transistor, the collector current is 5.488 mA for an emitter
current of 5.60 mA. The value of the base current amplification factor () will be
(1) 49 (2) 50 (3) 51 (4) 48
129. A solid which is not transparent to visible light and whose conductivity increases with
temperature is formed by
(1) Ionic bonding (2) Covalent boding
(3) Vander Walls bonding (4) Metallic bonding

130. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing
in the circuit?

(1) 1.71 A (2) 2.00 A (3) 2.31 A (4) 1.33 A

131. In the following , which one of the diodes is reverse biased?

130
 (1) (2)

(3) (4)

132. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength  of the light falling on the
cathode is gradually changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as follows

(1) (2) (3) (4)

133. Photon of frequency v has a momentum associated with it. If c is the

velocity of light, the momentum is
(1) h  /c (2)  /c
(3) h  c (4) h  /c2

134. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. At room temperature
which one of the following statements is most appropriate?
(1) The number of free electrons for conduction is significant only in Si and Ge but small in
C.
(2) The number of free conduction electrons is significant in C but small in Si and Ge
(3) The number of free conduction electrons is negligible small in all the three
(4) The number of free electrons for conduction is significant in all the three.

135. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output.

The circuit represents

(1) NOR gate (2) AND gate (3) NAND gate (4) OR gate

136. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the
correct output waveform.

Output is

131
 (1) (2)

(3) (4)
137. The output of an OR gate is connected to both the inputs of a NAND gate. The combination
will serve as a
(1) NOT gate (2) NOR gate (3) AND gate (4) OR gate

138. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

139. The forward biased diode connection is

+2V -2V -3V -3V
(1) (2)
2V 4V -2V +2V
(3) (4)

140. The I-V characteristic of an LED is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

141. If a, b, c, d are inputs to a gate and x is its output, the, as per the following time graph, the
gate is

(1) NAND (2) NOT (3) AND (4) OR

142. Identify the semiconductor devices whose characteristics are given below, in the order (a),
(b), (c), (d):

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Zener diode, Sola cell, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance
(2) Simple diode, Zener diode, Solar cell, Light dependent resistance

132
 (3) Zener diode, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance, Solar cell
(4) Solar cell, Light dependent resistance, Zener diode, Simple diode

ANSWER
UNIT, DIMENSION & ERROR
1. 1 10. 2 19. 1 28. 4 37. 2
2. 1 11. 1 20. 2 29. 3 38. 3
3. 1 12. 3 21. 2 30. 1 39. 1
4. 3 13. 3 22. 1 31. 1 40. 3
5. 1 14. 3 23. 1 32. 1 41. 3
6. 4 15. 1 24. 2 33. 1 42. 3
7. 2 16. 3 25. 3 34. 3 43. 2
8. 4 17. 3 26. 4 35. 1 44. 3
9. 1 18. 1 27. 1 36. 2 45. 3

KINEMATICS
1. 4 7. 3 13. 3 19. 2 25. 3
2. 3 8. 1 14. 2 20. 3 26. 3
3. 2 9. 2 15. 2 21. 2 27. 2
4. 3 10. 2 16. 2 22. 3 28. 1
5. 4 11. 4 17. 2 23. 1 29. 1
6. 1 12. 4 18. 2 24. 2 30. 2

133
31. 2 34. 2 37. 3 40. 1 43. 4
32. 1 35. 2 38. 4 41. 1 44. 2
33. 2 36. 2 39. 4 42. 2 45. 3

NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION

1. 2 10. 2 19. 4 28. 1 37. –
2. 4 11. 2 20. 4 29. 4 38. –
3. 2 12. 3 21. 4 30. 2 39. 3
4. 4 13. 2 22. 3 31. 1 40. 1
5. 3 14. 4 23. 3 32. 3 41. 2
6. 2 15. 1 24. 3 33. 1 42. 1
7. 2 16. 3 25. 3 34. – 43. 2
8. 4 17. 2 26. 1 35. – 44. 1
9. 1 18. 2 27. 3 36. – 45. 1

CIRCULAR MOTION
1. – 10. 1 19. 3 28. 1 37. –
2. 2 11. 2 20. 3 29. 4 38. 2
3. 2 12. 3 21. – 30. 2 39. 4
4. 4 13. 3 22. 2 31. 1 40. 2
5. 1 14. 4 23. 1 32. 2 41. 4
6. 4 15. 1 24. 1 33. 2 42. 4
7. 3 16. 2 25. 1 34. – 43. 3
8. 1 17. - 26. 4 35. 4 44. 2
9. 3 18. 1 27. 2 36. 4 45. 3

WORK, POWER & ENERGY

1. 3 10. 1 19. 3 28. 3 37. 4
2. 4 11. 3 20. 4 29. 2 38. 2
3. 3 12. 4 21. 3 30. 3 39. 2
4. 4 13. 2 22. 3 31. 4 40. 3
5. 3 14. 3 23. 2 32. 1 41. 2
6. 4 15. 1 24. 1 33. 1 42. 1
7. 4 16. 2 25. 2 34. 3 43. 2
8. 3 17. 3 26. 1 35. 2 44. 3
9. 2 18. 2 27. 2 36. 3 45. 1
46.

CENTRE OF MASS
1. 2 10. 3 19. 2 28. 4 37. 4
2. 2 11. 4 20. 3 29. 1 38. 3
3. 2 12. 2 21. 1 30. 3 39. 1
4. 1 13. 2 22. 1 31. 3 40. 2
5. 2 14. 1 23. 4 32. 4 41. 4
6. 4 15. 1 24. 1 33. 3 42. 1
7. 2 16. 2 25. 1 34. 3 43. 2
8. 3 17. 4 26. 2 35. 2 44. 3
9. 3 18. 2 27. 3 36. 4 45. 3

134
ROTATIONAL MECHANICS
1. 1 10. 1 19. 3 28. 3 37. 4
2. 1 11. 4 20. 3 29. 3 38. 3
3. 3 12. 2 21. – 30. 1 39. 2
4. 2 13. 1 22. 3 31. 4 40. 3
5. 4 14. 1 23. 3 32. 4 41. 1
6. 4 15. 3 24. 2 33. 3 42. 2
7. 4 16. 2 25. 3 34. 4 43. 2
8. 1 17. 2 26. 2 35. 3 44. 1
9. 2 18. 2 27. 1 36. 4 45. 2
GRAVITATION
1. 1 10. 2 19. 3 28. 4 37. 4
2. 4 11. 3 20. 3 29. 2 38. 3
3. 2 12. 3 21. 4 30. 1 39. 3
4. 3 13. 3 22. 4 31. 4 40. 3
5. 1 14. 1 23. 1 32. 2 41. 3
6. 3 15. 2 24. 2 33. 1 42. 3
7. 2 16. 2 25. 3 34. 1 43. 1
8. 1 17. 3 26. 2 35. 4 44. 4
9. 1 18. 4 27. 1 36. 2 45. 3
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS & FLUIDS
1. 2 6. 3 11. 2 16. 3 21. 2 26. 3 31. 3 36. 1 41. 2 46. 4
2. 2 7. 1 12. 1 17. 4 22. 1 27. 1 32. 4 37. 4 42. 3 47. 4
3. 3 8. 3 13. 2 18. 1 23. 4 28. 1 33. 3 38. 3 43. 1 48. 2
4. 3 9. 2 14. 2 19. 3 24. 1 29. 1 34. 3 39. 1 44. 1 49. 3
5. 3 10. 1 15. 4 20. 4 25. 4 30. 4 35. 2 40. 1 45. 1 50. 3
SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION
1. 3 10. 2 19. 4 28. 2 37. 3
2. 2 11. 1 20. 1 29. 3 38. 1
3. 2 12. 4 21. 1 30. 2 39. 3
4. 1 13. 3 22. 1 31. 4 40. 2
5. 4 14. 1 23. 4 32. 1 41. 3
6. 1 15. 1 24. 3 33. 1 42. 1
7. 3 16. 3 25. 4 34. 3 43. 4
8. 4 17. 1 26. 2 35. 4 44. 4
9. 4 18. 2 27. 3 36. 1 45. 4

THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER

1. 3 10. 2 19. 4 28. 1 37. 1
2. 1 11. 2 20. 3 29. 4 38. 3
3. 3 12. 2 21. 4 30. 2 39. 3
4. 1 13. 3 22. 3 31. 4 40. 3
5. 2 14. 2 23. 2 32. 3 41. 4
6. 2 15. 2 24. 1 33. 1 42. 1
7. 3 16. 4 25. 1 34. 4 43. 3
8. 4 17. 4 26. 1 35. 1 44. 3
9. 4 18. 3 27. 1 36. 4 45. 1

THERMODYNAMICS & KTG

1. 2 2. 2 3. 3 4. 1 5. 4

135
6. 2 14. 3 22. 1 30. 4 38. 3
7. 2 15. 2 23. 1 31. 1 39. 3
8. 4 16. 1 24. 3 32. 3 40. 3
9. 2 17. 1 25. 4 33. 3 41. 3
10. 1 18. 4 26. 1 34. 4 42. 3
11. 3 19. 2 27. 4 35. 1 43. 2
12. 3 20. 2 28. 4 36. 2 44. 2
13. 3 21. 2 29. – 37. 4 45. 2

WAVE & SOUND

1. 2 10. 3 19. 3 28. 1 37. 2
2. 3 11. 3 20. 1 29. 3 38. 4
3. 2 12. 3 21. 4 30. 2 39. 2
4. 4 13. 3 22. 4 31. 4 40. 2
5. 2 14. 2 23. 3 32. 1 41. 1
6. 3 15. 1 24. 3 33. 1 42. 2
7. 1 16. 2 25. 2 34. 4 43. 3
8. 3 17. 3 26. 1 35. 3 44. 1
9. 1 18. 2 27. 1 36. 3 45. 4

ELECTROSTATICS
1. 4 6. 2 11. 3 16. 1 21. 3 26. 2 31. 3 36. 3 41. 3
2. 3 7. 3 12. 3 17. 2 22. 2 27. 3 32. 2 37. 4 42. 2
3. 1 8. 2 13. 1 18. 2 23. 2 28. 2 33. 1 38. 4 43. 2
4. 4 9. 4 14. 3 19. 3 24. 2 29. 3 34. 3 39. 3 44. 2
5. 4 10. 2 15. 3 20. 3 25. 3 30. 2 35. 2 40. 2 45. 2
CAPACITANCE
1. 4 9. 4 17. 1 25. 1 33. 2
2. 1 10. 3 18. 3 26. 3 34. 3
3. 1 11. 2 19. 2 27. 2 35. 2
4. 3 12. 2 20. 2 28. 3 36. 2
5. 3 13. 2 21. 2 29. 3 37. 1
6. 2 14. 3 22. 2 30. 1 38. 2
7. 1 15. 4 23. 2 31. 4 39. 4
8. 3 16. 1 24. 2 32. 3 40. 4
EXCLUSIVE PROBLEMS ON COMBINATION OF CAPACITORS (ANSWER KEY)
1. 3C 4C 21. C 5C 10C
12. 30. 37.
2. C 3 KC 3 7
22.
3. C 13. C k +1 7C C
31. 38.
4. 2C 5C  K +1 8 7
14. 23.  C
5. 2C 3  2  32. 2C 11C
39.
6. C 4C 24. 9 units 4C 6
15. 33.
3C 3 25. C 3 40. (1 + 2)C
7.
2 16. 2C 4C 6C
26. 34. 41. 2 2C
8. 4C 17. 3C 2 5
5C 42. 2C
9. 18. C 15 12C
27. C 35. 43. C
3 5C 14 7
19. C
10. 2C 2 5C 5C 44.
28. 36. 2
5C 5C 4 4
11. 20.
3 2 29. 2C

136
 7C
45.
5
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. 2 10. 2 19. 4 28. 4 37. 4
2. 4 11. 4 20. 3 29. 4 38. 2
3. 2 12. 1 21. 3 30. 2 39. 1
4. 3 13. 1 22. 1 31. 2 40. 2
5. 2 14. 3 23. 1 32. 4 41. 1
6. 3 15. 2 24. 3 33. 1 42. 1
7. 2 16. 4 25. 3 34. 4 43. 2
8. 4 17. 2 26. 1 35. 2 44. 4
9. 2 18. 4 27. 1 36. 4 45. 3
MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT
1. 1 12. 2 23. 1 34. 1 45. 2
2. 3 13. 4 24. 2 35. 3 46. 2
3. 4 14. 1 25. 3 36. 4 47. 2
4. 1 15. 4 26. 2 37. 2 48. 3
5. 2 16. 2 27. 3 38. 1 49. 1
6. 3 17. 3 28. 1 39. 2 50. 1
7. 3 18. 4 29. 4 40. 1 51. 2
8. 3 19. 4 30. 4 41. 2 52. 3
9. 2 20. 2 31. 1 42. 4 53. 3
10. 1 21. 3 32. 4 43. 2
11. 2 22. 2 33. 1 44. 2
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. 4 10. 2 19. 4 28. 1 37. 2
2. 4 11. 2 20. 3 29. 1 38. 4
3. 3 12. 3 21. 2 30. 2 39. 3
4. 1 13. 2 22. 1 31. 4 40. 3
5. 4 14. 4 23. 4 32. 2 41. 4
6. 1 15. – 24. 4 33. 3 42. 4
7. 2 16. 2 25. 3 34. 4 43. 2
8. 2 17. 2 26. 4 35. 2 44. 4
9. 3 18. 1 27. 2 36. 2 45. 1

ALTERNATING CURRENT
1. 2 6. 2 11. 1 16. 3 21. 2 26. 2 31. 1 36. 1 41. 4
2. 2 7. 2 12. 4 17. 3 22. 4 27. 4 32. 2 37. 3 42. 4
3. 1 8. 3 13. 2 18. 2 23. 4 28. 4 33. 3 38. 2 43. 4
4. 4 9. 4 14. 1 19. 2 24. 4 29. 4 34. 3 39. 4 44. 2
5. 1 10. 3 15. 2 20. 1 25. 4 30. 2 35. 4 40. 2 45. 1

RAY OPTICS
1. 1 8. 4 15. 2 22. 3 29. 2
2. 2 9. 2 16. 3 23. 1 30. 3
3. 1 10. 1 17. 2 24. 2 31. 3
4. 3 11. 2 18. 4 25. 2 32. 3
5. 1 12. 1 19. 1 26. 3 33. 1
6. 1 13. 1 20. 1 27. 2 34. 1
7. 2 14. 2 21. 1 28. 4 35. 1

137
36. 3 38. 2 40. 2 42. 4 44. 2
37. 1 39. 3 41. 4 43. 2 45. 2

WAVE OPTICS
1. 3 10. 2 19. 3 28. 3 37. 2
2. 1 11. 3 20. 1 29. 2 38. 2
3. 3 12. 2 21. 4 30. 3 39. 2
4. 3 13. 3 22. 1 31. 3 40. 1
5. 4 14. 4 23. 4 32. 3 41. 1
6. 1 15. 2 24. 1 33. 1 42. 1
7. 1 16. 3 25. 4 34. 4 43. 2
8. 4 17. 1 26. 3 35. 4 44. 1
9. 2 18. 1 27. 3 36. 3 45. 2

MODERN PHYSICS
1. 4 22. 2 43. 2 64. 2 85. 3 106. 3 127. 4
2. 2 23. 2 44. 1 65. 1 86. 1 107. 2 128. 1
3. 3 24. 2 45. 2 66. 3 87. – 108. 4 129. 2
4. 2 25. 4 46. 1 67. 2 88. 3 109. 1 130. 2
5. 2 26. 1 47. 2 68. 3 89. 1 110. 2 131. 4
6. 1 27. 1 48. 1 69. 4 90. 1 111. 3 132. 2
7. 3 28. 2 49. 3 70. 3 91. 3 112. 3 133. 1
8. 1 29. 4 50. 1 71. 2 92. 3 113. 3 134. 1
9. 1 30. 2 51. 2 72. 2 93. 1 114. 3 135. 4
10. 3 31. 1 52. 3 73. 2 94. 2 115. 3 136. 4
11. 1 32. 2 53. 2 74. 1 95. 2 116. 1 137. 2
12. 2 33. 4 54. 4 75. 3 96. 1 117. 1 138. 1
13. 3 34. 3 55. 2 76. 4 97. 1 118. 3 139. 1
14. 1 35. 4 56. 4 77. 3 98. 2 119. 2 140. 1
15. 2 36. 4 57. 1 78. 1 99. 4 120. 3 141. 4
16. 2 37. 1 58. 2 79. 3 100. 3 121. 4 142. 2
17. 1 38. 4 59. 2 80. 1 101. 1 122. 4
18. 4 39. 1 60. 3 81. 2 102. 3 123. 2
19. 1 40. 1 61. 3 82. 4 103. 3 124. 1
20. 4 41. 3 62. 3 83. 3 104. 3 125. 4
21. 1 42. 1 63. 1 84. 2 105. 3 126. 4

138