Professional Documents
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Physics
Topic – Unit and dimension
Concept – Dimension
Subject Concept – Dimension of velocity of light
Concept Field – Comparison of dimension
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 30 sec
1. The dimension of ( 00 )–1/2 are:
(1) [L–1/2T1/2] (2) [L1/2T–1/2] (3) [L–1T] (4) [LT–1]
Sol. (4)
1
Velocity of light c =
0 0
So dimension of given expression is equal to velocity [LT–1]
Topic – Mechanics
Concept – Centre of mass and rotational motion
Subject Concept – Moment of inertia
Concept Field – Moment of inertia of uniform thin rod
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
2. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis
passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to its length is I0. Its moment of
inertia about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length
is:
(1) I0 + ML2 (2) I0 + ML2/2 (3) I0 + ML2/4 (4) I0 + 2ML
Sol. (3)
Moment of inertia about an axis passing through one end = Icm + md2
2
L ML2
= I0 + M = I0 +
2 4
Topic – Kinematics
Concept – Motion in straight line
Subject Concept – Motion under gravity
v = 2gh = 2 10 20 = 20 m / sec
Topic – Mechanics
Concept – NLM
Subject Concept – Mass-lift problem
Concept Field – Tension in the string
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
4. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on
control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10
ms–2, the tension in the supporting cable is:
(1) 1200 N (2) 8600 N (3) 9680 N (4) 11000 N
Sol. (4)
1 m/s2
940 g
60 g
For (man + lift)
T – (60 + 940) g = (60 + 940) × 1
T = (60 + 940)(10 + 1) = 11000 N
Topic – Kinematics
Concept – Projectile motion
Subject Concept – Maximum height
Concept Field – Maximum power
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
5. A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth's radius
before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is
greatest:
(1) at the instant just after the body is projected.
(2) at the highest position of the body
(3) at the instant just before the body hits the earth.
Topic – Mechanics
Concept – Circular motion
Subject Concept – Angular velocity
Concept Field – Torque
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
6. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the
equation (t) = 2t3 – 6t2
The torque on the wheel becomes zero at:
(1) t = 2 sec (2) t = 1 sec (3) t = 0.5 sece (4) t = 0.25 sec
Sol. (2)
= 2t3 − 6t2
d
= = 6t 2 − 12t
dt
d
= = 12t − 12
dt
= I
Torque will be zero when is zero
so = 12t − 12 = 0
t = 1 sec.
Topic – Mechanics
Concept – Circular motion
Subject Concept – Uniform speed
Concept Field – Time period
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
7. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2
s. The acceleration of the particle is:
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 15 m/s2 (3) 25 m/s2 (4) 36 m/s2
Sol. (1)
If particle move in a circular path with constant speed, the acceleration of the
particle is centripetal acceleration
2
2
ac = R = R
2
T
42R 42
ac = = 5 10−2
T 2
(0.2)
Unacademy Select [3]
ac = 5 m/sec2
Topic – Mechanics
Concept – Centre of mass and rotational motion
Subject Concept – Rigid body
Concept Field – Change in impulse
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
8. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with
the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is -
(1) Zero (2) MV (3) 1.5 MV (4) 2 MV
Sol. (4)
Impulse = mv2 – mv1
= –mv – mv = –2mv
Topic – Mechanics
Concept – Circular motion
Subject Concept – Linear velocities
Concept Field –
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
9. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and
farthest away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points
v1
respectively, then the ratio is:
v2
(1) r1/r2 (2) (r1/r2)2 (3) r2/r1 (4) (r2/r1)2
Sol. (3)
v1r1 = v2r2
v1 r2
=
v2 r1
dP
Fex = = 0 dp = 0 P = constant
dt
Pi = Pf
0 = PNu + PPh
h h
PNu = PPh = =
c
2
PNu
Recoil K.E. of nucleus K.E.Nu =
2MNu
2
h / c h22
K.E.Nu = = =
2M 2Mc2
Topic - Mechanics
Concept – Work, energy and power
Subject Concept – Energy
Concept Field – Potential energy
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
11. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done:
(1) Upon the system by a conservative force.
(2) Upon the system by a nonconservative force.
(3) by the system against a conservative force.
(4) by the system against a nonconservative force.
Sol. (3)
Potential energy will increase when work is done by the system against a
conservative force.
Topic – Kinematics
Concept – Motion in plane
Subject Concept – Change in velocity
Concept Field – Average acceleration
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
12. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity
becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is:
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2 (3) 7 m/s2 (4) 7 m/s2
Sol. (1)
Average acceleration
Topic – Gravitation
Concept – Gravitation field
Subject Concept – Missile projection
Concept Field – Range
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
13. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s 2,
the range of the missile is:
(1) 20 m (2) 40 m (3) 50 m (4) 60 m
Sol. (2)
Maximum Range
u2 ( 20 )
2
Rmax = = = 40 m
g 10
Topic – Mechanics
Concept – Work, energy and power
Subject Concept – Work done
Concept Field – Area under curve
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
14. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the
figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is:
F (N)
0 1 7 12 d(m)
(1) 13 J (2) 18 J (3) 21 J (4) 26 J
Sol. (1)
Work done = area between force v/s displacement curve and displacement axis
25
= (2 4) + = 13 J
2
Topic - Electrostatics
Concept – Electric field
Subject Concept – Electric flux
Concept Field – Gaussian surface
Unacademy Select [6]
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 35 sec
15. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is
doubled, then the outward electric flux will:
(1) be doubled (2) increase four time
(3) be reduced to half (4) remain the same
Sol. (4)
q
net =
0
Net flux does not depend on size of Gaussian surface
Flux remains unchanged.
Topic - Electrostatics
Concept – Electric charge
Subject Concept – Electric potential
Concept Field – Net potential
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
16. Four electric charge + q, + q, – q and – q are placed at the corners of a square of
side 2L. (see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two
charge + q and + q, is:
+q –q
+q –q
2kq 1
= 1 −
L 5
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – Electric field
Subject Concept – Parallel plate capacitor
Concept Field – Stored Energy
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – Current electricity
Subject Concept – Power dissipation
Concept Field – Potential difference
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
18. If power dissipated in the 9 resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential
difference across the 2 resistor is:
9
6
V 2
(1) 2 Volt (2) 4 Volt (3) 8 Volt (4) 10 Volt
Sol. (4)
= I2gR
36 = I2(9)
I9 = 2A
1
In parallel I
R
I9 6 2 6
= =
I6 9 I6 9
Ickt = 2 + 3 = 5A
( )( )
V2 = IR = 5 2 = 10 volt
Topic – Electromagnetism
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – Magnetic Field
Subject Concept – Current carrying conductor
Unacademy Select [9]
Concept Field – Magnetic force
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
21. A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is
placed in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm
BC is F , the force on the arm AC is:
A
B C
(1) 2F (2) − 2 F (3) − F (4) F
Sol. (3)
(
From F = I l B )
FBC = FAC
FAC = −F
B C
B
m = 40 gm
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – Magnetic field
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – EM wave
Subject Concept – Propagation of EM wave
Concept Field – Representation of electric and magnetic field associated with EM
wave
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
24. The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating along
the +z-axis, can be represented by:
(1) E = E ˆj, B = B kˆ (2) E = E0ˆi, B = B0ˆj
0 0
ˆ B = B ˆi
(3) E = E0k, (4) E = E0ˆj, B = B0ˆi
0
Sol. (2)
ˆ B
v̂ = E ˆ or (direction of propagation of waves is E
ˆ B
ˆ)
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – Magnetism field
Subject Concept – Electric field
Concept Field – Motion of electron
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
25. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same
direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its
velocity is pointed along the direction of fields, then the electron:
(1) will turn towards left of direction of motion
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – Current electricity
Subject Concept – Inductor
Concept Field – Induced E.M.F.
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 50 sec
26. The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of
induced emf with time would be:
i
0 j
T/4 T/2 3T/2 T
emf emf
(1) (2)
emf emf
(3) (4)
Sol. (2)
d
e=−
dt
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – Current Electricity
Subject Concept – Alternating Current
Concept Field – RMS current
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – Current Electricity
Subject Concept – Alternating Current
Concept Field – Phase difference
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
28. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L in series. If R and the
inductive reactance are both equal to 3 , the phase difference between the
applied voltage and the current in the circuit is:
(1) zero (2) / 6 (3) / 4 (4) / 2
Sol. (3)
XL
tan = = 1, = 45
R
Topic – Kinematics
Concept – Motion in a plane
Subject Concept – 2-D motion
Concept Field – Displacement
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
31. A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown.
Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small which graph
correctly depicts the position of the particles as a function of time?
V(x)
m
(x)
0
x(t) x(t)
0 t 0 t
(1) (2)
x(t) x(t)
0 t 0 t
(3) (4)
Unacademy Select [14]
Sol. (2)
Motion start from extreme position and for small displacement it is SHM
y = A cos ( t + )
Topic – Optics
Concept – Wave optics
Subject Concept – Representation of waves
Concept Field – Phase difference
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 35 sec
32. Two waves are represented by the equations y1 = a sin ( t + kx + 0.57) m and y2 =
a cos ( t + kx)m, where x is in meter and t in sec. The phase difference between
them is:
(1) 0.57 radian (2) 1 radian (3) 1.25 radian (4) 1.57 radian
Sol. (2)
Y1 = a sin ( t + kx + 0.57 )
Y2 = a sin ( t + kx + / 2)
Phase difference = − 0.57 = 1 radian
2
Topic – Waves
Concept – Sound waves
Subject Concept – Acoustic wave
Concept Field – Wavelength
Unacademy Select [15]
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
34. Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass.
The wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air:
(1) decreases by a factor 20 (2) decreases by a factor 10
(3) increases by a factor 20 (4) increases by a factor 10
Sol. (4)
Frequency is same in both medium
n1 = n 2
v1 v2
=
1 2
2 v2 3500
= = = 10
1 v1 350
Topic – Electromagnetism
Concept – EM waves
Subject Concept – EM waves spectrum
Concept Field – Wavelength
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
35. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma
rays is:
(1) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(2) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(3) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(4) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
Sol. (2)
microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Topic – Optics
Concept – Ray optics
Subject Concept – Reflection
Concept Field – Internal reflection
Question Level – Easy
Expected time to solve – 40 sec
37. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
(1) brilliance of diamond
(2) working of optical fibre
(3) difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
(4) mirage on hot summer days
Sol. (3)
difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
Topic – Optics
Concept – Ray optics
Subject Concept – Biconvex lens
Concept Field – Image formation
Question Level – Moderate
Expected time to solve – 45 sec
38. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the
following options describe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed
30 cm from the lens?
(1) Real, inverted, height = 1 cm (2) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
(3) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm (4) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
Sol. (4)
Focal length of the lens
1 1 1 1
= ( 1.5 − 1) − =
f 20 −20 20
f = 20 cm
From lens formula
1 1 1
− =
v u f
1 1 1
− =
v −30 20
v = 60 cm
I v 60
=m= = = −I
O u −30
I = –2(0) = –2 × 2 = –4 cm
Unacademy Select [17]
so image will be real inverted and of size 4 cm.
2 V1 25 1
= = =
1 V2 100 2
1
2 =
2
2
vmax = (E − W )
m Ph
v1 EPh − W 1 − 0.5
= 1
=
v2 EPh − W 2.5 − 0.5
2
v1 1
=
v2 2
emission decreases mass no. by 4 and atomic no. by 2 and − emission increases
atomic number by one but leaves mass no. unchanged.
=
IC
=
( 20 − 10) 10 −3
= 50
IB ( 300 − 100) 10 −6
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively:
(1) (ii), (iv) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (iii), (ii) and (i) (4) (iii), (ii) and (iv)
Sol. (1)
From theory
Answer Key
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A. 4 3 3 4 3 2 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 4
Q. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 4 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 2 3 2 1 3 1 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 4 2 1 3 4 4 3 3 2 3 1 4
Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 2 4 1 1
2. The half life of a substance in a certain enzymecatalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required for the
concentration of the substance to fall from
1.28 mg L–1 to 0.04 mg L–1, is-
(1) 276 s (2) 414 s (3) 552 s (4) 690 s
Sol. (4)
1.28 → 0.64 → 0.32 → 0.16 → 0.08 → 0.04
1.28 mg L−1
No. of half lifes (n) = −1
= 32 = 25
0.04 mg L
Total time
5=
138
time required = 5 × 138 = 690 s
4. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following
presents the correct description?
(1) O,O22− Both paramagnetic
(2) O2− ,O22− Both diamagnetic
(3) O+ ,O22− Both paramagnetic
(4) O2+ , O2 Both paramagnetic
Sol. (4)
O2+ = KKσ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2pz2 (π2px2 = π2py2) (π*2px1)
O2 = KKσ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2pz2 (π2px2 = π2py2 ) (π*2px1 = π*2py1 )
O2 and O2+ contain unpaired electron in π* ABMO so paramagnetic.
5. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to
the least energetic photon?
(1) n = 5 to n = 3
(2) n = 6 to n = 1
(3) n = 5 to n = 4
(4) n = 6 to n = 5
Sol. (4)
hC 1 1
E= = hCRH 2 − 2
n1 n2
From here, we can se that higher the value of n, more less the value of E. Thus, the least energetic
photon is observed in transition of n = 6 to n = 5.
6. In qualitative analysis, the metals of Group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating them
as chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl
is added to this solution until the Cl– concentration is 0.10 M. What will the concentration of Ag+ and
Pb2+ be at equilibrium? (Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 × 10–10,
Ksp for PbCl2 = 1.7 × 10–5)
7. A bubble of air is underwater at temperature 15°C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the
surface where the temperature is 25°C and the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the volume of
the bubble?
(1) Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5
(2) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6
(3) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1
(4) Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70
Sol. (2)
P1 = 1.5 bar P2 = 1
T1 = 288 K T2 = 298 K
V1 = V V2 = ?
P1V1 P2 V2
=
T1 T2
V2 = 1.55 V
8. A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86°C/m, the freezing
point of the solution will be –
(1) –0.24°C (2) –0.18°C (3) –0.54°C (4) –0.36°C
Sol. (1)
i = 1 – α + nα
i = 1 – 0.3 + 2(0.3)
i = 1.3
∆Tf = iKf m
= 1.3 × 1.86 × 0.1
∆Tf = + 0.24°C
Freezing point of solution = 0.24°C
9. A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I– ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35°C. E° for Fe3+/Fe2+
is +0.77 V and E° for I2/2I– = 0.536 V. The favourable redox reaction is-
(1) Fe2+ will be oxidized to Fe3+
(2) I2 will be the reduced to I–
(3) There will be no redox reaction
(4) I– will be oxidized to I2
Sol. (4)
2Fe+3 + 2I– → I2 + 2Fe+2
11. 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The Osmotic pressure of this solution
at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10–3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1):
(1) 61038 g mol–1 (2) 51022 g mol–1
–1
(3) 122044 g mol (4) 31011 g mol–1
Sol. (1)
w
v = RT
m
200 1.26
2.57 10−3 = 0.083 300
1000 m
m = 61038 gm mol −1
Question Type: NEET
Difficulty of question: Moderate
Expected time to solve: 30 sec.
Topic: Inorganic Chemistry
Concept: s-block Elements
12. Match List I with List II for the compositions of substances and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists-
List – I List-II
Substances Composition
(A) Plaster of paris (A) CaSO4. 2H2O
(B) Epsomite (B) CaSO4.½H2O
(C) Kieserite (C) MgSO4.7H2O
(D) Gypsum (D) MgSO4.H2O
Unacademy Select [27]
(E) CaSO4
Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
Sol. (3)
Plaster of paris = CaSO4.1/2H2O
Epsomite = MgSO4.7H2O
Kieserite = MgSO4.H2O
Gypsum = CaSO4.2H2O
14. The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the
reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag.
(1) 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO (g)
(2) Fe2O3(s) + 3CO (g) → 2Fe(l) + 3CO2(g)
(3) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(4) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(s)
Sol. (4)
SiO2 + CaO → CaSiO3
Acidic Basic Slag
impunity flux
17. Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following?
(1) 64 g SO2 (2) 44 g CO2
(3) 48 g O3 (4) 8 g H2
Sol. (4)
Maximum number of molecules Number of Moles
8
8 g of H2 has maximum number of moles = N
2 A
= 4NA
18. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion
(Y–) will be-
(1) 165.7 pm (2) 275.1 pm (3) 322.5 pm (4) 241.5 pm
Sol. (4)
For NaCl type structure,
rc 100
= 0.414 = ra = = 241.5 pm
ra 0.414
19. Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (1)
It is most preferred structure of SO3 with lowest energy is as it contains maximum number of covalent
bond.
(p– p bonding)
20. Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C–O bond ?
(1) Fe (CO)5 (2) Mn (CO)6+
(3) Cr (CO)6 (4) V(CO)6-
Sol. (2)
21. Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour?
(1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (2) [Ti(NH3)6]3+
(3) [Cr (NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co (NH3)6]3+
(At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)
Sol. (3)
[Cr(NH3)6]+3 [Ar] 3d3 4s0
three unpaired electron are present in t2g orbital.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (3)
Localized l.p. is more basic than delocalized l.p.
24. Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (2)
–NO2 is a electron withdrawing group which facilitates the Nucleophilic substitution reaction in
Chlorobenzene.
(1) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
(2) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
(3) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
(4) trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
Sol. (2)
26. An organic compound 'A' on treatment with NH3 gives 'B', which on heating gives 'C'. 'C' when treated
with Br2 in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound 'A' is –
(1) CH3CH2COOH
(2) CH3COOH
(3) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(4) CH3 − CHCOOH
|
CH3
Sol. (1)
NH
CH3 − CH2 − COOH ⎯⎯⎯
3
→ CH3 − CH2 − COONH4
(A) (B)
O
||
−H2O Br +KOH
⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ CH3 − CH2 − C− NH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2
Hoffmann
CH3 − CH2 − NH2
degradation
(C)
27. Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II and select the suitable option using the code given
below :
List - I List - II
(a) Benzaldehyde (i) Phenolphthalein
(b) Phthalic anhydride (ii) Benzoin condensation
(c) Phenyl benzoate (iii) Oil of wintergreen
(d) Methyl salicylate (iv) Fries rearrangement
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Sol. (1)
alc.KCN
*Ph − C− H + Ph − C− H ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Ph − CH− C− Ph
|| || | ||
O O OH O
28. Which of the statements about "Denaturation" given below are correct ?
Statements
(a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein
(b) Denaturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand
(c) Denaturation affects primary structure which gets distorted
Options :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
Sol. (4)
Primary structure of proteins is unaffected by denaturation.
29. The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds :
Biology
AIPMT 2011
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Moderate
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Reproduction in Organisms
Concept: Vegetative Propagation
Sub-concept: Vegetative Propagule in Angiosperms
Concept field: Eyes of Potato
1. The "eyes" of the potato tuber are
(1) Axillary buds (2) Root buds (3) Flower buds (4) Shoot buds
Answer (1)
Sol. The "eyes" of the potato tuber are vegetative propagules that bear axillary buds
which form a new plantlet.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Biological Classification
Concept: Kingdom Monera
Sub-concept: Archaebacteria
Concept field: Methanogens
2. Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a
(1) Hot spring (2) Sulphur rock (3) Cattle yard (4) Polluted stream
Answer (3)
Sol. Methanogens are most abundant in marshy areas and cattle yards. They produce
methane gas or biogas.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Animal Kingdom
Concept: Classification of Animals
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Plant Kingdom
Concept: Bryophytes
Sub-concept: Liverworts
Concept field: Sexual Reproduction in Liverworts
4. Archegoniophore is present in
(1) Funaria (2) Marchantia (3) Chara (4) Adiantum
Answer (2)
Sol. Archegoniophore is present in Marchantia that helps in sexual reproduction.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Moderate
Expected time to solve: 35 secs
Topic: Plant Kingdom
Concept: Vascular Plants: Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms & Angiosperms
Sub-concept: Sexual Reproduction in Vascular Plants
Concept field: Gametophytes in Vascular Plants
5. Compared to the gametophytes of bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants
tend to be
(1) Smaller and have smaller sex organs
(2) Smaller but have larger sex organs
(3) Larger but have smaller sex organs
(4) Larger and have larger sex organs
Answer (1)
Sol. The gametophytes of vascular plants are smaller and have smaller sex organs as
compared to bryophytes.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Plant Kingdom
Concept: Gymnosperms and Angiosperms: Phanerogams
Sub-concept: Sexual Reproduction in Phanerogams
Concept field: Gametophytes of Phanerogams
6. The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in
(1) Pinus (2) Polytrichum (3) Adiantum (4) Marchantia
Answer (1)
Sol. In gymnosperms (Pinus), the gametophyte is haploid, reduced and dependent.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Cell: The Unit of Life
Concept: Eukaryotic Cells
Sub-concept: Ribosomes
Concept field: Protein Synthesis
8. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in
(1) Ribosomes (2) Chloroplast (3) Mitochondria (4) Chromoplast
Answer (1)
Sol. Peptide or protein synthesis takes place in ribosomes.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Moderate
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Cell: The Unit of Life
Concept: Prokaryotic Cell and Eukaryotic Cell
Sub-Concept: Cellular Components of Cell
Concept field: Cell Membrane of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cell
9. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is
(1) Cell wall
(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Nucleus
(4) Ribosomes
Answer (2)
Sol. Eubacteria are prokaryotes having a primitive nucleus, 70S ribosome and their cell
wall is made up of peptidoglycan. Eukaryotes have well-defined nucleus, 80S
ribosome and their cell wall is made up of cellulose or chitin (in case of fungi).
Plasma membrane in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes is made up of phospholipid
bilayer.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Concept: Mutation
Sub-Concept: Mutagens
Concept field: Physical mutagens
10. Mutations can be induced with
(1) Gamma radiations
(2) Infra-red radiations
(3) IAA
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Concept: Plant Breeding
Sub-Concept: Main Steps in Plant Breeding
Concept field: Collection of Variability
11. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is
called a
(1) Genome (2) Herbarium (3) Germplasm (4) Gene library
Answer (3)
Sol. The entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in
a given crop is called germplasm collection.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Biomolecules
Concept: Enzymes
Sub-Concept: Ribozymes
Concept field: Ribozymes in Prokaryotic Cells
12. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
(1) 23S rRNA (2) mRNA (3) sn RNA (4) hn RNA
Answer (1)
Sol. 23S rRNA in bacteria has peptidyl transferase catalytic activity, hence, it is used in
protein synthesis.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Morphology of Flowering Plants
Concept: Flower
Sub-Concept: Characteristics of Flower
Concept field: Flower – A Condensed reproductive Shoot
13. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot.
(2) In tomato, fruit is a capsule.
(3) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperms.
(4) Placentation in primrose is basal.
Answer (1)
Sol. In tomato, the fruit is a berry. Orchid seeds are non-endospermic. Primrose has free
central placentation.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 35 secs
Topic: Morphology of Flowering Plants
Concept: Description of some important families
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Mineral Nutrition
Concept: Metabolism of Nitrogen
Sub-Concept: Nitrogen Cycle
Concept field: Nitrifying Bacteria
15. Nitrifying bacteria
(1) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
(2) Oxidise ammonia to nitrates
(3) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
(4) Convert proteins into ammonia
Answer (2)
Sol. During nitrogen cycle, nitrifying bacteria oxidise ammonia to soluble forms i.e.,
nitrates.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Mineral Nutrition
Concept: Metabolism of Nitrogen
Sub-Concept: Biological Nitrogen Fixation
Concept field: Nodule Formation
16. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is
(1) Expression of nif gene
(2) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity
(3) Oxygen removal
(4) Nodule differentiation
Answer (3)
Sol. Leg-haemoglobin in the root nodules is an oxygen scavenger that protects the
enzyme nitrogenase.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Unacademy Select [39]
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Transport in Plants
Concept: Uptake and Transport of Mineral Nutrients
Sub-Concept: Translocation of Mineral Ions
Concept field: Remobilisation of Mineral Ions
17. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?
(1) Sulphur (2) Phosphorus (3) Calcium (4) Potassium
Answer (3)
Sol. Elements that are structural components like calcium are not remobilised.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Morphology of Flowering Plants
Concept: Fruit
Sub-Concept: Simple Fruits
Concept field: Drupes or Stone fruits
18. A drupe develops in
(1) Tomato (2) Mango (3) Wheat (4) Pea
Answer (2)
Sol. A drupe or stony fruit is characterised (in the case of mango) with an outer thin
epicarp, a middle fleshy mesocarp and inner stony endocarp.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Concept: The Tissue System
Sub-Concept: The Ground Tissue System
Concept field: Components of Ground Tissue
19. Ground tissue includes
(1) All tissues internal to endodermis
(2) All tissues external to endodermis
(3) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
(4) Epidermis and cortex
Answer (3)
Sol. All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles constitute the ground tissue.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Concept: The Tissue System
Sub-Concept: Epidermal Tissue System
Concept field: Guard Cell
20. In land plants the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having
(1) Chloroplasts
(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer (1)
Sol. Guard cells enclose the stomatal pore and possess chloroplasts.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Concept: Secondary Growth
Sub Concept: Cork Cambium
Concept of Field: Periderm
22. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called
(1) Phellem (2) Phelloderm (3) Phellogen (4) Periderm
Answer (4)
Sol. The cork cambium (phellogen), cork (phellem) and secondary cortex (phelloderm)
are collectively called the periderm.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Moderate
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Biological Classification
Concept: Kingdom Fungi
Sub-Concept: Basidiomycetes
Concept field: Rust Fungi - Puccinia
23. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Cassia – Imbricate aestivation
(2) Root pressure – Guttation
(3) Puccinia – Smut
(4) Root – Exarch protoxylem
Answer (3)
Sol. Puccinia is a basidiomycete fungus that causes rust diseases.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Morphology of Flowering Plants
Concept: The Flower
Sub-Concept: Symmetry in Flower
Concept field: Zygomorphic Flower
24. Flowers are zygomorphic in
(1) Datura (2) Mustard (3) Gulmohur (4) Tomato
Answer (3)
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
Concept: Biosynthetic Phase of Photosynthesis
Sub-Concept: Photosynthesis in Succulents
Concept field: Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM)
25. CAM helps the plants in
(1) Reproduction
(2) Conserving water
(3) Secondary growth
(4) Disease resistance
Answer (2)
Sol. Succulent plants have scotoactive stomata i.e. it opens during the night and remains
closed during the day. Thus, it conserves water.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Ecosystem
Concept: Energy Flow
Sub-Concept: Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR)
Concept field: Percentage of PAR in Solar Radiation
26. Of the total incident solar radiation, the proportion of PAR is
(1) More than 80%
(2) About 70%
(3) About 60%
(4) Less than 50%
Answer (4)
Sol. Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is photosynthetically active
radiation (PAR).
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Plant Kingdom
Concept: Gymnosperms
Sub-Concept: Characteristics of Gymnosperms
Concept field: Coralloid Root and Associated Nitrogen Fixing Cyanobacteria
27. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont found in
(1) Pisum (2) Alnus (3) Cycas (4) Cicer
Answer (3)
Sol. Coralloid roots in Cycas are associated with nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Concept: Apomixis and Polyembryony
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Concept: Pre-Fertilisation: Structure & Events
Sub-Concept: Embryo Sac
Concept field: Filiform Apparatus
29. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
(1) Zygote (2) Suspensor (3) Egg (4) Synergid
Answer (4)
Sol. Synergids in the embryo sac possess filiform apparatus.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Moderate
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Concept: Post-Fertilisation: Structure and Events
Sub-Concept: Seed
Concept field: Monocot Seed
30. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with
42 chromosomes in its root tip cells?
(1) 21 (2) 42 (3) 63 (4) 84
Answer (3)
Sol. Chromosomes in the root tip cell (2n) = 42 i.e., n= 21. Therefore, chromosome
number in aleurone cell (3n) = 3*21 = 63.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Concept: Pre-Fertilisation: Structure & Events
Sub-Concept: Pollination
Concept field: Agents of Pollination
31. Wind pollination is common in
(1) Orchids (2) Legumes (3) Lilies (4) Grasses
Answer (4)
Sol. Anemophily is commonly seen in grasses.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Concept: Pre-Fertilisation: Structure & Events
Sub-Concept: Pollination
Concept field: Kinds of Pollination
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Ecosystem
Concept: Energy Flow
Sub-Concept: Trophic Level
Concept field: Standing Crop
33. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called
(1) Standing state (2) Standing crop (3) Detritus (4) Humus
Answer (2)
Sol. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called
as the standing crop.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Environmental Issues
Concept: Radioactive Wastes
Sub-Concept: Bhopal Gas Tragedy
Concept field: Bhopal Gas Tragedy
34. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy?
(1) It took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984.
(2) Methyl isocyanate gas leakage took place.
(3) Thousands of human beings died.
(4) Radioactive fallout engulfed Bhopal.
Answer (4)
Sol. Bhopal gas tragedy (2-3 December 1984) took place due to the leakage of methyl
isocyanate. It led to the death of thousands of human beings. It wasn’t a radioactive
fallout.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Microbes in Human Welfare
Concept: Microbes in Sewage Treatment
Sub-Concept: Secondary or Biological Treatment
Concept field: Secondary Treatment of Sewage
35. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(1) Biological process
(2) Physical process
(3) Mechanical process
(4) Chemical process
Answer (1)
Sol. Secondary sewage treatment includes the treatment of effluents with aerobic and
anaerobic bacteria. Hence, it is mainly a biological process.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Organisms and Population
Concept: Organisms and Its Environment
Sub-Concept: Major Biomes
Concept field: Tropical Rain Forest
37. Large woody vines are more commonly found in
(1) Alpine forests
(2) Temperate forests
(3) Mangroves
(4) Tropical rainforests
Answer (4)
Sol. Large woody vines are found in Tropical rainforests.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Difficult
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Biodiversity and Conservation
Concept: Biodiversity
Sub-Concept: How Many Species are there on Earth and How Many in India?
Concept field: IUCN
38. Which one of the following expanded forms of the following acronyms is correct?
(1) IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(2) IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
(3) UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy
(4) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
Answer (1)
Sol. IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural
Resources.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Ecosystem
Concept: Ecological Succession
Sub-Concept: Succession of Plants
Concept field: Secondary Succession
39. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
(1) It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace.
(2) It begins on a bare rock.
(3) It occurs on a deforested site.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Biodiversity and Conservation
Concept: Biodiversity
Sub-Concept: Levels of biological organisation
Concept field: Genetic Diversity
40. Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?
(1) Mango (2) Groundnut (3) Rice (4) Maize
Answer (3)
Sol. India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Microbes in Human Welfare
Concept: Microbes as Biofertilisers
Sub-Concept: Organic Farming
Concept field: Nitrogen Fixing Bacteria
41. Which one of the following is not a biofertiliser?
(1) Mycorrhiza (2) Agrobacterium (3) Rhizobium (4) Nostoc
Answer (2)
Sol. Agrobacterium is used in biotechnology for gene transfer and its expression.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Human Health & Diseases
Concept: Immunity
Sub-Concept: Innate Immunity
Concept field: Physiological Barriers
42. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of
microorganisms in the human body?
(1) Skin
(2) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(3) Tears
(4) Monocytes
Answer (3)
Sol. Tears act as physiological barriers to the entry of microorganisms in the human
body.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Microbes
Concept: Microbes as Biofertilisers
Sub-Concept: Fungal Symbionts
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Concept: Plant Breeding
Sub-Concept: Plant Breeding for Disease Resistance
Concept field: Methods of Breeding for Disease Resistance
44. 'Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust
pathogens is a variety of
(1) Wheat (2) Chilli (3) Maize (4) Sugarcane
Answer (1)
Sol. 'Himgiri' is a variety of wheat that is resistant to leaf and stipe rust and hill bunt
diseases.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Microbes in Human Welfare
Concept: Microbes in Sewage Treatment
Sub-Concept: Secondary or Biological Treatment
Concept field: Anaerobic Sludge Digesters
45. Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on
sewage?
(1) Marsh gas (2) Laughing gas (3) Propane (4) Mustard gas
Answer (1)
Sol. During anaerobic sludge digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as
methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Biotechnology – Principles & Processes
Concept: Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
Sub-Concept: Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
Concept field: Gel Electrophoresis
46. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in
(1) Gel electrophoresis
(2) Spectrophotometry
(3) Tissue culture
(4) PCR
Answer (1)
Sol. Agarose is used in gel electrophoresis. It is prepared from agar which is extracted
from marine red algae like Gelidium and Gracilaria.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Microbes in Human Welfare
Concept: Microbes in Industrial Products
Sub-Concept: Fermentation
Concept field: Types of Fermentation
48. Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to
(1) Degrade sewage
(2) Produce methane
(3) Obtain antibiotics
(4) Purify enzymes
Answer (4)
Sol. Fed-batch culture is a technique in which nutrients are supplied to the bioreactors.
Continuous addition of sugars in fed-batch fermentation is done to purify the
enzymes.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
Concept: Biotechnological Applications in Agriculture
Sub-Concept: Pest Resistant Plants
Concept field: RNA interference
49. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants
resistant to
(1) Insects (2) Nematodes (3) Fungi (4) Viruses
Answer (2)
Sol. A nematode Meloidogyne incognita infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes
a great reduction in yield. The process of RNA interference (RNAi) was adopted to
prevent this infestation.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Concept: Plant Breeding
Sub-Concept: Procedure of Plant Breeding
Concept field: High Yielding Varieties of Indian Hybrid Crops
50. "Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of
(1) Bajra (2) Maize (3) Rice (4) Wheat
Answer (3)
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Biological Classification
Concept: Five Kingdom Classification
Sub-Concept: Characteristics of the Five Kingdom
Concept field: Kingdom Monera and Protista
51. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?
(1) Amoeba proteus
(2) Paramecium caudatum
(3) Escherichia coli
(4) Euglena viridis
Answer (3)
Sol. Escherichia coli is an example of a prokaryotic cell.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: The Living World
Concept: Taxonomy
Sub-Concept: Taxonomic Categories
Concept field: Organisms with their Taxonomic Categories
52. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named
taxonomic category?
(1) Housefly - Musca, an order
(2) Tiger - tigris, the species
(3) Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class
(4) Humans - Primata, the family
Answer (2)
Sol. The species of tiger is tigris.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Moderate
Expected time to solve: 45 secs
Topic: Animal Kingdom
Concept: Classification of Animals
Sub-Concept: Phylum Echinodermata, Nematoda, Chordata
Concept field: Characters of Phylum Echinodermata, Nematoda and Class Amphibia and
Mammalia
53. In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its
class/phylum are correctly matched?
Genus Name Two Characters Class/Phylum
(a) Cnidoblasts
(1) Aurelia Coelenterata
(b) Organ level of organisation
(a) Body segmented
(2) Ascaris Annelida
(b) Males and females distinct
(a) A tympanum represents ear
(3) Salamandra Amphibia
(b) Fertilisation is external
(a) Skin possesses hair
(4) Pteropus Mammalia
(b) Oviparous
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 40 secs
Topic: Animal Kingdom
Concept: Classification of Animals
Sub-Concept: Phylum Chordata
Concept field: Class Chondrichthyes, Reptilia, Mammalia
54. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one
characteristic feature without even a single exception?
(1) Mammalia: Give birth to young ones
(2) Reptilia: Possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
(3) Chordata: Possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
(4) Chondrichthyes: Possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Answer (4)
Sol. Class Chondrichthyes possess cartilaginous endoskeleton without exception.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 35 secs
Topic: Animal Kingdom
Concept: Classification of Animals
Sub-Concept: Non-Chordates and Chordates
Concept field: Reproductive Organs in Chondrichthyes, Nematoda, Amphibia, Insecta
55. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?
(1) Male shark - Claspers borne on pelvic fins
(2) Female Ascaris - Sharply curved posterior end
(3) Male frog - A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hindlimb
(4) Female cockroach - Anal cerci
Answer (1)
Sol. Male shark bear claspers on its pelvic fins and it is used for sexual reproduction.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Biomolecules
Concept: Enzymes
Sub-Concept: Factors Affecting Enzyme Activity
Concept field: Temperature
56. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions
(pH, temperature and substrate concentration). What do the two axes (x and y)
represent?
x-axis y-axis
(1) Enzymatic activity Temperature
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 35 secs
Topic: Structural Organisation in Animals
Concept: Animal Tissues
Sub-Concept: Epithelial Tissues
Concept field: Ciliated Columnar Epithelial Tissue
57. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in
(1) Fallopian tubes and urethra
(2) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
(3) Bronchioles and fallopian tube
(4) Bile duct and oesophagus
Answer (3)
Sol. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans occur in the inner surface of
bronchioles and fallopian tube.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division
Concept: M Phase
Sub-Concept: Metaphase
Concept field: Key features of Metaphase
58. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.
(1) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along the equatorial
plate in metaphase.
(2) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase.
(3) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase.
(4) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase.
Answer (1)
Sol. During metaphase, the chromosomes are moved to spindle equator and get aligned
along metaphase plate through spindle fibres to both poles.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Biomolecules
Concept: Biomacromolecules
Sub-Concept: Lipids
Concept field: Phospholipids
59. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is
correctly identified along with its related function?
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Evolution
Concept: Origin and Evolution of Man
Sub-Concept: Evolution of Man
Concept field: Brain Capacities
60. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens)
from his ancestors?
(1) Increasing brain capacity
(2) Upright posture
(3) Shortening of jaws
(4) Binocular vision
Answer (1)
Sol. The most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
ancestors was increasing brain capacity.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 40 secs
Topic: Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Concept: Sex Determination
Sub-Concept: Sex Determination in Insect, Birds, Drosophila
Concept field: Male and Female Heterogametes
61. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of
determining the sex in the given example?
(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.
(2) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.
(3) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper.
(4) XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex.
Answer (3)
Sol. In case of insects like grasshopper, the males bear only one X chromosome and
produce only half the sperms with X chromosomes. Therefore, XO type of sex
chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper.
Class 11th
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Concept: DNA
Sub-Concept: Packaging of DNA helix
Concept field: Nucleosomes in Chromatin
63. What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes
when viewed under electron microscope?
(1) Base pairs (2) Genes (3) Nucleotides (4) Nucleosomes
Answer (4)
Sol. Nucleosomes appear as a ‘beads-on-string’ structure in the chromosomes when
viewed under electron microscope (EM).
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve:45 secs
Topic: Chemical Coordination and Integration
Concept: Human Endocrine System
Sub-Concept: Hormones from Thyroid, Pituitary, Corpus Luteum
Concept field: Functions of Hormones from Thyroid, Pituitary, Corpus Luteum
64. Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as function.
Source Gland Hormones Function
(1) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level
Contraction of uterus muscles
(2) Anterior pituitary Oxytocin
during childbirth
Stimulates reabsorption of water
(3) Posterior pituitary Vasopressin in
the distal tubules of the nephron
(4) Corpus Iuteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy
Answer (3)
Sol. Vasopressin is secreted by neurohypophysis. Vasopressin acts mainly on the kidney
and stimulates reabsorption of water and electrolytes by the distal tubules and
thereby reduces loss of water through urine (diuresis). Hence, it is also called anti-
diuretic hormone (ADH).
Class 11th
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Breathing and Exchange of Gases
Concept: Transport of Gases
Sub-Concept: Transport of Oxygen
Concept field: Transport of Oxygen at Tissue Level
66. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake
by the body tissues. This O2
(1) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues
(2) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(3) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
(4) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
Answer (2)
Sol. During exercise, the partial pressure of oxygen in the tissue falls, as a result of
which the oxygen concentration of blood at the tissue level is reduced. This oxygen
is transported to tissues during muscular exercise.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Moderate
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Digestion and Absorption
Concept: Digestion of Food
Sub-Concept: Digestion of Protein
Concept field: Digestion of Protein in Stomach
67. Which one of the following enzymes carries on the initial step in the digestion of
milk in humans?
(1) Trypsin (2) Pepsin (3) Rennin (4) Lipase
Answer (2)
Sol. Rennin is an enzyme that digests proteins and carries out the initial step in the
digestion of milk in infants. Adult human lacks Rennin, thus pepsin coagulates the
milk in stomach.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Excretory Products and Their Elimination
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Structural Organisation in Animals
Concept: Earthworm
Sub-Concept: anatomy
Concept field: Alimentary Canal
69. One very special feature in the earthworm (Pheretima) is that
(1) It has a long dorsal tubular heart.
(2) Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body.
(3) The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested
food in the intestine.
(4) The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons
used against the enemies.
Answer (3)
Sol. A very special feature in the earthworm (Pheretima) is typhlosole which is an
internal median fold of the intestine.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 35 secs
Topic: Digestion and Absorption
Concept: Digestive System
Sub-Concept: Alimentary Canal
Concept field: Entry of Food into the Pharynx
70. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts
coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to
improper movement of
(1) Tongue (2) Epiglottis (3) Diaphragm (4) Neck
Answer (2)
Sol. Epiglottis is a cartilaginous flap-like structure that prevents the entry of food into
the windpipe (glottis). Due to improper movement of epiglottis, the food might reach
the glottis that initiates coughing.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 35 secs
Topic: Body Fluids and Circulation
Concept: Human circulatory system
Sub-Concept: Blood Vessels
Concept field: Characteristics of Arteries
71. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Body Fluids and Circulation
Concept: Human Circulatory System
Sub-Concept: Human Heart
Concept field: Nodal Tissue
72. ‘Bundle of His' is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?
(1) Pancreas (2) Brain (3) Heart (4) Kidney
Answer (3)
Sol. The ‘bundle of his’ is an important part of the electrical conduction system of the
heart, as it transmits impulses from the atrioventricular node.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Neural Control and Coordination
Concept: Sensory Reception and Processing
Sub-Concept: Eye
Concept field: Mechanism of Vision
73. The purplish-red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor
cells of the human eye, is a derivative of
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1 (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
Answer (1)
Sol. Rhodopsin is composed of opsin (a protein) and 11-cis-retinal (an aldehyde of
vitamin A).
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Body Fluids and Circulation
Concept: Blood
Sub-Concept: Plasma
Concept field: Fibrinogen
74. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
(1) Fibrinogen (2) Albumin (3) Serum amylase (4) Globulin
Answer (1)
Sol. The plasma protein involved in clotting or coagulation of blood is fibrinogen.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 45 secs
Topic: Neuron as Structural and Functional Unit of Neural System
Concept: Generation and Conduction of Nerve Impulse
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 50 secs
Topic: Excretory Products and Their Elimination
Concept: Human Excretory System
Sub-Concept: Structure of Renal Tubules
Concept field: Functions of Part of Renal Tubules
76. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of
human nephron?
(1) Afferent arteriole: Carries blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein
(2) Podocytes: Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the
Bowman's capsule
(3) Henle's loop: Most reabsorption of major substances from the glomerular filtrate
(4) Distal convoluted tubule: Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood
capillaries
Answer (2)
Sol. Podocytes provide space in the glomerulus and help in the easy passage of specific
substances and filtration of blood.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Chemical Coordination and Integration
Concept: Human Endocrine System
Sub-Concept: Hormones from Ovary, Pancreas and Pituitary gland
Concept field: Functions of Hormones from ovary, Pancreas and Pituitary
77. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and
one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the
three blanks A, B and C.
Glands Secretion Effect on Body
Maintenance of secondary sexual
A Oestrogen
characters
Alpha cells of Islets of
B Raises blood sugar level
Langerhans
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads to gigantism
A B C
(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone
(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Excretory Products and Their Elimination
Concept: Modes of Excretion
Sub-Concept: Uricotelism
Concept field: Uricotelic Animals
78. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes in found in
(1) Insects and Amphibians
(2) Reptiles and Birds
(3) Birds and Annelids
(4) Amphibians and Reptiles
Answer (2)
Sol. The excretory waste of reptiles, birds, land snails and insects is uric acid. Thus, they
are uricotelic.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Breathing and Exchange of Gases
Concept: Exchange of Gases
Sub-Concept: Layers of Diffusion Membrane in the Alveoli
Concept field: Diagrammatic section of Alveolus with a Pulmonary Capillary
79. The figure given below shows a small part of human lungs where exchange of gases
takes place. In which one of the options given below, part A, B, C or D is correctly
identified along with its function?
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Body Fluids and Circulation
Concept: Human Circulatory System
Sub-Concept: Disorders of Circulatory System
Concept field: High Blood Pressure
80. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?
(1) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.
(2) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment.
Class 11th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Moderate
Expected time to solve: 45 secs
Topic: Excretory Products and Their Elimination
Concept: Regulation of Kidney Function
Sub-Concept: Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Concept field: Role of ADH in Osmoregulation
81. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function
regulation?
(1) During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH
is suppressed.
(2) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed.
(3) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release.
(4) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
Answer (2)
Sol. The osmolarity of blood decreases on drinking excess water. The decrease in
osmolarity of blood inhibits the release of ADH.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Human Reproduction
Concept: The Female Reproductive System
Sub-Concept: Parts of Female Reproductive Tract
Concept field: Parts of Female Reproductive Tract
82. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female
reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I-VI have been
correctly identified?
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 35 secs
Unacademy Select [59]
Topic: Human Reproduction
Concept: The Male Reproductive System
Sub-Concept: Testes
Concept field: Function of Scrotum
83. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch
called scrotum. The purpose served is for
(1) Providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
(2) Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
(3) Escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
(4) Providing more space for the growth of epididymis
Answer (2)
Sol. The scrotum in male reproductive system helps in maintaining the low temperature
of the testes which is crucial for spermatogenesis.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Reproductive Health
Concept: Birth Control
Sub-Concept: Contraceptive Methods
Concept field: Intra Uterine Devices
84. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in
India, as at present?
(1) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
(2) Cervical caps
(3) Tubectomy
(4) Diaphragms
Answer (1)
Sol. The most widely accepted method of contraception in India is IUDs at present.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Human Reproduction
Concept: The Male Reproductive System
Sub-Concept: Testes and Male Sex Accessory Ducts
Concept field: Pathway of Sperms
85. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system gets
blocked, the gametes will not be transported from
(1) Vagina to uterus
(2) Testes to epididymis
(3) Epididymis to vas deferens
(4) Ovary to uterus
Answer (2)
Sol. The vasa efferentia and rete testis connect seminiferous tubules to the epididymis.
Hence, the sperms cannot be transported from testes to the epididymis if the vasa
efferentia is blocked.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Reproductive Health
Concept: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Organisms and Population
Concept: Populations
Sub-Concept: Population Interactions
Concept field: Parasitism
87. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense?
(1) The cuckoo (koel) lays its egg in crow's nest.
(2) The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans.
(3) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother.
(4) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair.
Answer (4)
Sol. Cuckoo is an example of brood parasitism. Female Anopheles is a vector. The human
foetus is not a parasite because a parasite depends on the host for its entire life.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Organisms and Population
Concept: Populations
Sub-Concept: Population Attributes
Concept field: Age Pyramids for Human Population
88. What type of human population is represented by the following pyramid?
Class 12th
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Microbes in Human Welfare
Concept: Microbes in Industrial Products
Sub-Concept: Fermented Beverages
Concept field: Fermentation by Yeast (Brewer’s yeast)
90. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of
(1) Aspergillus (2) Saccharomyces (3) Clostridium (4) Trichoderma
Answer (2)
Sol. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (commonly known as brewer’s yeast) is used for
fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices, to produce ethanol.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 35 secs
Topic: Organisms and Population
Concept: Organisms and Its Environment
Sub-Concept: Adaptations
Concept field: Behavioural Responses
91. Consider the following four conditions (a - d) and select the correct pair of them as
adaptation to environment in desert lizards. The conditions are:
(a) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(b) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
(c) Bask in sun when the temperature is low
(d) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis
(1) (a), (b) (2) (c), (d) (3) (a), (c) (4) (b), (d)
Answer (3)
Sol. Desert lizards show adaptations to the environment by burrowing in the soil to
escape high temperature and bask in the sun when temperature is low.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Environmental Issues
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 30 secs
Topic: Human Health and Disease
Concept: Common Diseases in Humans
Sub-Concept: Malaria
Concept field: Life Cycle of Plasmodium
93. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
(1) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
(4) Spleen of infected humans
Answer (2)
Sol. Sporozoites of plasmodium are present in the saliva of infected female Anopheles
mosquito.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Concept: Plant Breeding
Sub-Concept: Heterosis
Concept field: Hybrid Vigour
94. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid
is often superior to both of its parents. This phenomenon is called
(1) Metamorphosis (2) Heterosis (3) Transformation (4) Splicing
Answer (2)
Sol. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid
is often superior to both of its parents. This phenomenon is called heterosis.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Human Health and Disease
Concept: AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome)
Sub-Concept: Diagnostic Test for AIDS
Concept field: ELISA
95. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency
Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
(1) WIDAL (2) ELISA (3) MRI (4) Ultrasound
Answer (2)
Sol. ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay) is a highly sensitive diagnostic test
for the detection of AIDS.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 25 secs
Topic: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
Concept: Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
Sub-Concept: Restriction Enzymes
Concept field: Palindromic Sequence
97. Given below is a sample of portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the
opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?
5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3'
3' _______CTTAAG________ 5'
(1) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
(2) Replication completed
(3) Deletion mutation
(4) Start codon at the 5' end
Answer (1)
Sol. As the base sequence is same whether read from 5' to 3' in the upper strand or 5'
to 3' on the lower strand, it is called a palindromic sequence.
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Microbes in Human Welfare
Concept: Microbes in Industrial Products
Sub-Concept: Production of Ethanol
Concept field: Raw Materials Used to produce Ethanol
98. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is
(1) Molasses (2) Corn meal (3) Soya meal (4) Ground gram
Answer (1)
Sol. Molasses are the most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of
ethanol.
Class 12th
Class 12th
Question type: AIPMT
Difficulty of question: Easy
Expected time to solve: 20 secs
Topic: Biotechnology – Principles and Processes
Concept: Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
Sub-Concept: Restriction Enzymes
Concept field: Naming of Restriction Enzymes
100. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand
for?
(1) coli (2) colon (3) coelom (4) coenzyme
Answer (1)
Sol. EcoRI comes from Escherichia coli RY 13. Hence, “co” stands for ‘coli’.