Professional Documents
Culture Documents
• Introduction
• Question Paper Pattern
• Design of Questions
• Marking Scheme
• Syllabus
• Previous Year Solved Papers
o Solved Question Paper 2014
o Answer Key 2014
o Solved Question Paper 2013
o Answer Key 2013
o Solved Question Paper 2012
o Answer Key 2012
Introduction
The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examination
conducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology
(IITs).
A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATE
papers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exam
pattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.
While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in a
simulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown to
test time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as if
he / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions you
could get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, and
accordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areas
where in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.
Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on the
basis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Question Paper Pattern
In all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10
questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).
In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF and
XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the General
Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of the
total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.
In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude
section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is
devoted to the subject of the paper.
(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and
sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four
answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).
(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For
these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the
virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Design of Questions
(i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of the
paper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/her
memory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.
(ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of the
basics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamental
ideas.
(iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,
diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesis
question might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.
Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstated
assumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Marking Scheme
For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.
Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong
answer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.
In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions
carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total
10 marks).
These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and
30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist of
questions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,
choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a real
number, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. An
appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type
questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.
Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:
Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section
1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part
A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section
contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-
total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questions
may be of numerical answer type questions.
Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions
carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions
carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative
marking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong
answer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a
wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical
answer type questions.
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)
Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups,
instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.
Mathematical Physics: Linear vector space; matrices; vector calculus; linear differential
equations; elements of complex analysis; Laplace transforms, Fourier analysis, elementary
ideas about tensors.
Classical Mechanics: Conservation laws; central forces, Kepler problem and planetary
motion; collisions and scattering in laboratory and centre of mass frames; mechanics of
system of particles; rigid body dynamics; moment of inertia tensor; noninertial frames and
pseudo forces; variational principle; Lagrange’s and Hamilton’s formalisms; equation of
motion, cyclic coordinates, Poisson bracket; periodic motion, small oscillations, normal
modes; special theory of relativity – Lorentz transformations, relativistic kinematics, mass-
energy equivalence.
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Thermodynamics and Statistical Physics: Laws of thermodynamics; macrostates and
microstates; phase space; probability ensembles; partition function, free energy,
calculation of thermodynamic quantities; classical and quantum statistics; degenerate
Fermi gas; black body radiation and Planck’s distribution law; Bose-Einstein condensation;
first and second order phase transitions, critical point.
Atomic and Molecular Physics: Spectra of one- and many-electron atoms; LS and jj
coupling; hyperfine structure; Zeeman and Stark effects; electric dipole transitions and
selection rules; X-ray spectra; rotational and vibrational spectra of diatomic molecules;
electronic transition in diatomic molecules, Franck-Condon principle; Raman effect; NMR
and ESR; lasers.
Nuclear and Particle Physics: Nuclear radii and charge distributions, nuclear binding
energy, Electric and magnetic moments; nuclear models, liquid drop model – semi-
empirical mass formula, Fermi gas model of nucleus, nuclear shell model; nuclear force
and two nucleon problem; Alpha decay, Beta-decay, electromagnetic transitions in
nuclei;Rutherford scattering,nuclear reactions, conservation laws; fission and
fusion;particle accelerators and detectors; elementary particles, photons, baryons, mesons
and leptons; quark model.
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE
Previous Year Solved Papers
Physics - PH
2012 - 14
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Solved Paper
PH: Physics
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA
Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.
Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.
Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?
Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK
Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?
Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25
Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)
xˆ + yˆ − zˆ xˆ − yˆ − zˆ xˆ − yˆ + zˆ xˆ + yˆ + zˆ
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 3
Q.2 Which one of the following quantities is invariant under Lorentz transformation?
(A) Charge density (B) Charge (C) Current (D) Electric field
Q.4 If the half-life of an elementary particle moving with speed 0.9c in the laboratory frame is
5 × 10 −8 s, then the proper half-life is __________ × 10-8 s. (� = 3 × 108 �/�)
Q.5 An unpolarized light wave is incident from air on a glass surface at the Brewster angle. The angle
between the reflected and the refracted wave is
Q.6 Two masses m and 3m are attached to the two ends of a massless spring with force constant K. If
m = 100 g and K = 0.3 N/m, then the natural angular frequency of oscillation is ___________ Hz.
Q.7 The electric field of a uniform plane wave propagating in a dielectric, non-conducting medium is
given by,
(
E = xˆ 10 cos 6π × 10 7 t − 0.4π z V/m. )
The phase velocity of the wave is ________________ × 10 m/s. 8
Q.9 The recoil momentum of an atom is p A when it emits an infrared photon of wavelength 1500 nm,
pA
and it is p B when it emits a photon of visible wavelength 500 nm. The ratio is
pB
Q.10 For a gas under isothermal conditions, its pressure P varies with volume V as P ∝ V −5 / 3 . The bulk
modulus B is proportional to
Q.11 Which one of the following high energy processes is allowed by conservation laws?
(A) p + p → Λ0 + Λ0 (B) π − + p → π 0 + n
(C) n → p + e − + ν e (D) µ + → e + + γ
Q.12
The length element ds of an arc is given by, (ds ) 2 = 2 dx1 ( ) + (dx )
2 2 2
+ 3 dx1dx 2 .The metric
tensor g ij is
2 3 3
(A) 2
3 1 (B) 2
3
1
2
2 1 3
1
(C) 2
3 3
(D)
3
2 2 2
2
Q.13 The ground state and the first excited state wave functions of a one dimensional infinite potential
well are ψ1 and ψ2, respectively. When two spin-up electrons are placed in this potential, which one
of the following, with x1 and x2 denoting the position of the two electrons, correctly represents the
space part of the ground state wave function of the system?
(A)
1
[ψ 1 ( x1 )ψ 2 ( x1 ) − ψ 1 ( x2 )ψ 2 ( x2 )] (B)
1
[ψ 1 ( x1 )ψ 2 ( x2 ) + ψ 1 ( x2 )ψ 2 ( x1 )]
2 2
(C)
1
[ψ 1 ( x1 )ψ 2 ( x1 ) + ψ 1 ( x2 )ψ 2 ( x2 )] (D)
1
[ψ 1 ( x1 )ψ 2 ( x2 ) − ψ 1 ( x2 )ψ 2 ( x1 )]
2 2
Q.15 At a given temperature, T, the average energy per particle of a non-interacting gas of
two-dimensional classical harmonic oscillators is ________________ kBT
(kB is the Boltzmann constant).
Q.17 Which one of the following three-quark states (qqq), denoted by X, CANNOT be a possible
baryon? The corresponding electric charge is indicated in the superscript.
++ + – ––
(A) X (B) X (C) X (D) X
Q.18 The Hamilton’s canonical equations of motion in terms of Poisson Brackets are
(A) �̇ = {�, �} ; �̇ = {�, �}
(B) �̇ = {�, �} ; �̇ = {�, �}
(C) �̇ = {�, �} ; �̇ = {�, �}
(D) �̇ = {�, �} ; �̇ = {�, �}
Q.19 The Miller indices of a plane passing through the three points having coordinates (0,0,1),
1 1 1
(1,0,0), � , , � are
2 2 4
Q.20 The plot of specific heat versus temperature across the superconducting transition temperature (�� )
is most appropriately represented by
(A) (B)
Cp Cp
�� T �� T
(C) (D)
Cp Cp
�� T �� T
Q.21 If ��⃗ is the orbital angular momentum and �⃗ is the spin angular momentum, then ��⃗. �⃗ does NOT
commute with
(A) �� (B) �2 (C) � 2 2
(D) ���⃗ + �⃗�
�
-π/a O π/a
k k
-π/a -π/a O π/a
O π/a
(C) (D)
�� ��
k k
-π/a O π/a -π/a O π/a
Q.23 For a free electron gas in two dimensions, the variation of the density of states, �(�) as a function
of energy E, is best represented by
(A) (B)
N(E) N(E)
E E
(C) (D)
N(E)
N(E)
E E
V0
t
t0
The correct output of the integrator circuit is
(A) (B)
V V
V0 V0
t
t0 t0 t
(C) (D)
V V
V0
V0
t
t t0
t0
Q.25 The minimum number of flip-flops required to construct a mod-75 counter is _______.
m
450
r
��
(A) mr 1 1 (D) 2mr
(B) mr (C) mr
2 2
Q.27 An electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom has the wave function
1 −�� �
Ѱ(�⃗) = � �� 0
���03
Q.28 For Nickel, the number density is 8 × 1023 �����/��3 and electronic configuration is
1s22s22p63s23p63d84s2. The value of the saturation magnetization of Nickel in its ferromagnetic
state is _________________× 109 �/�.
(Given the value of Bohr magneton µ� = 9.21 × 10−21 ��2 )
Q.30 The donor concentration in a sample of n-type silicon is increased by a factor of 100. The shift in
the position of the Fermi level at 300K, assuming the sample to be non degenerate is __________
meV.
(�� � = 25 ��� at 300 �)
Q.33 �
A planet of mass m moves in a circular orbit of radius r0 in the gravitational potential �(�) = − � ,
where k is a positive constant. The orbital angular momentum of the planet is
(A) 2r0 km (B) 2r0 km (C) r0 km (D) r0 km
Q.34 The moment of inertia of a rigid diatomic molecule A is 6 times that of another rigid diatomic
molecule B. If the rotational energies of the two molecules are equal, then the corresponding values
of the rotational quantum numbers JA and JB are
(A) JA = 2, JB = 1 (B) JA = 3, JB = 1 (C) JA = 5, JB = 0 (D) JA = 6, JB = 1
Q.36 A ray of light inside Region 1 in the xy- plane is incident at the semicircular boundary that carries
no free charges. The electric field at the point P ( r0 , π / 4 ) in plane polar coordinates is
E1 = 7eˆr − 3eˆϕ , where eˆr and eˆϕ are the unit vectors. The emerging ray in Region 2 has the
electric field E2 parallel to x- axis. If ε1 and ε 2 are the dielectric constants of Region 1 and
ε2
Region 2 respectively, then is ____________________________
ε1
(A) cos t + sin t (B) cosh t + sinh t (C) cos t - sin t (D) cosh t - sinh t
Q.38 Given that the linear transformation of a generalized coordinate q and the corresponding
momentum p,
Q = q + 4ap
P = q + 2p
is canonical, the value of the constant a is ___________ .
Q.39 The value of the magnetic field required to maintain non-relativistic protons of energy 1 MeV in a
circular orbit of radius 100 mm is ______________ Tesla.
(Given: m p = 1.67 × 10 −27 kg, � = 1.6 × 10−19 �)
Q.40 For a system of two bosons, each of which can occupy any of the two energy levels 0 and ε, the
1
mean energy of the system at a temperature T with β = is given by
k BT
ε e − βε + 2ε e −2 βε 1 + ε e − βε
(A) − βε − 2 βε
(B)
1 + 2e +e 2e − βε + e −2 βε
2ε e − βε + εe −2 βε ε e − βε + 2εe −2 βε
(C) (D)
2 + e − βε + e −2 βε 2 + e − βε + e −2 βε
Q.41 In an interference pattern formed by two coherent sources, the maximum and the minimum of the
intensities are 9I0 and I0, respectively. The intensities of the individual waves are
(A) 3I0 and I0 (B) 4I0 and I0
(C) 5I0 and 4I0 (D) 9I0 and I0
Q.42 ψ1 and ψ2 are two orthogonal states of a spin 1 system. It is given that
2
1 1 2 0
ψ1 = + ,
3 0 3 1
1 0
where and represent the spin-up and spin-down states, respectively. When the system is
0 1
in the state ψ2, its probability to be in the spin-up state is ______________ .
Q.43 Neutrons moving with speed 103 m/s are used for the determination of crystal structure. If the Bragg
angle for the first order diffraction is 300, the interplanar spacing of the crystal is _________ Å.
(Given: mn = 1.675 × 10-27 kg, ℎ = 6.626 × 10−34 �. �)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.45 The intensity of a laser in free space is 150 mW/m2. The corresponding amplitude of the electric
field of the laser is ____________ V/m. (�0 = 8.854 × 10−12 � 2 /�. �2 )
Q.46 The emission wavelength for the transition 1D2 → 1F3 is 3122 Å. The ratio of populations of the
final to the initial states at a temperature 5000 K is (ℎ = 6.626 × 10−34 �. �, � = 3 × 108 �/�,
�� = 1.380 × 10−23 �/�)
(A) 2.03 × 10-5 (B) 4.02 × 10-5 (C) 7.02 × 10-5 (D) 9.83 × 10-5
Q.47 Consider a system of 3 fermions, which can occupy any of the 4 available energy states with equal
probability. The entropy of the system is
(A) �� ln2 (B) 2�� ln2 (C) 2�� ln4 (D) 3�� ln4
Q.48 A particle is confined to a one dimensional potential box with the potential
V (x ) = 0, 0 < x < a
= ∞, otherwise
If the particle is subjected to a perturbation, within the box, W = β x , where β is a small constant,
the first order correction to the ground state energy is
(A) 0 (B) aβ / 4 (C) aβ / 2 (D) aβ
Q.49 Consider the process µ + + µ − → π + + π − . The minimum kinetic energy of the muons (µ) in the
centre of mass frame required to produce the pion (π) pairs at rest is __________ MeV.
(Given: mµ = 105 MeV/c2, mπ = 140 MeV/c2).
Q.50 A one dimensional harmonic oscillator is in the superposition of number states, n , given by
1 3
ψ = 2 + 3 .
2 2
The average energy of the oscillator in the given state is ______________ ω.
Q.51 A nucleus X undergoes a first forbidden β-decay to a nucleus Y. If the angular momentum (I) and
7−
parity (P), denoted by I P as for X, which of the following is a possible � � value for Y?
2
1+ 1− 3+ 3−
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2
Q.52 The current gain of the transistor in the following circuit is ��� = 100. The value of collector
current Ic is _______________ mA.
12 V
3 kΩ 20 µF
Vo
150 kΩ
Vi
20 µF
3 kΩ
Q.53 In order to measure a maximum of 1V with a resolution of 1mV using a n-bit A/D converter,
working under the principle of ladder network, the minimum value of n is _____________ .
Q.54 If L+ and L– are the angular momentum ladder operators, then, the expectation value of
(�+ �− + �− �+), in the state |� = 1, � = 1〉 of an atom is ________ 2 .
Q.55 A low pass filter is formed by a resistance R and a capacitance C. At the cut-off angular frequency
1
ωc = , the voltage gain and the phase of the output voltage relative to the input voltage
RC
respectively, are
(A) 0.71 and 450 (B) 0.71 and − 450 (C) 0.5 and − 900 (D) 0.5 and 900
Physics - PH
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 D 20 A 39 1.41 to 1.47
2 B 21 A 40 A
3 A 22 B 41 B
4 2.1 to 2.3 23 C 42 0.66 to 0.68
5 C 24 A 43 3.91 to 4.15
6 1.99 to 2.01 25 6.99 to 7.01 44 D
7 1.49 to 1.51 26 A 45 10.58 to
10.70
8 D 27 D 46 C
9 C 28 40 to 43 47 B
10 D 29 A 48 C
11 B 30 114 to 117 49 34.9 to 35.1
12 B 31 3.99 to 4.01 50 3.2 to 3.3
13 D 32 1.99 to 2.01 51 C
14 0.99 to 1.01 33 D 52 1.4 to 1.7
15 1.99 to 2.01 34 B 53 9.99 to 10.01
16 B 35 C 54 1.99 to 2.01
17 D 36 2.3 to 2.4 55 B
18 A 37 D
19 C 38 0.24 to 0.26
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Solved Paper
PH: PHYSICS
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.Questions are of multiple choice type or
numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with
only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices
will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
2. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
3. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each.
4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ̃ mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, ̄ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.
5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
Q.1 f (x) is a symmetric periodic function of x i.e. f (x) = f (x). Then, in general, the Fourier series of
the function f(x) will be of the form
∞
(A) cos sin
∞
(B) + cos
∞
(C) sin
∞
(D) + sin
Q.2 In the most general case, which one of the following quantities is NOT a second order tensor?
(A) Stress (B) Strain
(C) Moment of inertia (D) Pressure
Q.3 An electron is moving with a velocity of 0.85c in the same direction as that of a moving photon.
The relative velocity of the electron with respect to photon is
(A) c (B) c (C) 0.15c (D) 0.15c
Q.4 If Planck's constant were zero, then the total energy contained in a box filled with radiation of all
frequencies at temperature T would be ( k is the Boltzmann constant and T is nonzero)
(A) Zero (B) Infinite (C) (D)
Q.5 Across a first order phase transition, the free energy is
(A) proportional to the temperature
(B) a discontinuous function of the temperature
(C) a continuous function of the temperature but its first derivative is discontinuous
(D) such that the first derivative with respect to temperature is continuous
Q.6 Two gases separated by an impermeable but movable partition are allowed to freely exchange
energy. At equilibrium, the two sides will have the same
(A) pressure and temperature
(B) volume and temperature
(C) pressure and volume
(D) volume and energy
Q.7 The entropy function of a system is given by where and are positive
constants. The temperature of the system is
(A) negative for some energies
(B) increases monotonically with energy
(C) decreases monotonically with energy
(D) Zero
Q.8 Consider a linear collection of N independent spin 1/2 particles, each at a fixed location. The
entropy of this system is (k is the Boltzmann constant)
(A) Zero (B) (C) (D)
Q.11 Consider the scattering of neutrons by protons at very low energy due to a nuclear potential of
range r0. Given that,
cot
where is the phase shift, k the wave number and the logarithmic derivative of the deuteron
ground state wave function, the phase shift is
Q.13 At a surface current, which one of the magnetostatic boundary condition is NOT CORRECT?
(A) Normal component of the magnetic field is continuous.
(B) Normal component of the magnetic vector potential is continuous.
(C) Tangential component of the magnetic vector potential is continuous.
(D) Tangential component of the magnetic vector potential is not continuous.
Q.14 Interference fringes are seen at an observation plane z = 0, by the superposition of two plane waves
. and . , where and are real amplitudes. The
condition for interference maximum is
(A) .
(B) .
(C) .
(D) .
Q.16 A circularly polarized monochromatic plane wave is incident on a dielectric interface at Brewster
angle. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT ?
(A) The reflected light is plane polarized in the plane of incidence and the transmitted light is
circularly polarized.
(B) The reflected light is plane polarized perpendicular to the plane of incidence and the transmitted
light is plane polarized in the plane of incidence.
(C) The reflected light is plane polarized perpendicular to the plane of incidence and the transmitted
light is elliptically polarized.
(D) There will be no reflected light and the transmitted light is circularly polarized.
Q.18 The Lagrangian of a system with one degree of freedom q is given by L = , where and
are non-zero constants. If denotes the canonical momentum conjugate to q then which one of
the following statements is CORRECT?
(A) and it is a conserved quantity.
(B) and it is not a conserved quantity.
(C) and it is a conserved quantity.
(D) and it is not a conserved quantity.
Q.19 What should be the clock frequency of a 6-bit A/D converter so that its maximum conversion time
is 32 μs?
(A) 1 MHz (B) 2 MHz (C) 0.5 MHz (D) 4 MHz
Q.20 A phosphorous doped silicon semiconductor ( doping density: 1017/cm3) is heated from 100C to
200C. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT ?
(A) Position of Fermi level moves towards conduction band
(B) Position of dopant level moves towards conduction band
(C) Position of Fermi level moves towards middle of energy gap
(D) Position of dopant level moves towards middle of energy gap
Q.21 Considering the BCS theory of superconductors, which one of the following statements is NOT
CORRECT?
(h is the Planck's constant and e is the electronic charge)
(A) Presence of energy gap at temperatures below the critical temperature
(B) Different critical temperatures for isotopes
(C) Quantization of magnetic flux in superconducting ring in the unit of
(D) Presence of Meissner effect
Q.22 Group I contains elementary excitations in solids. Group II gives the associated fields with these
excitations. MATCH the excitations with their associated field and select your answer as per codes
given below.
Group I Group II
(P) phonon (i) photon + lattice vibration
(Q) plasmon (ii) electron + elastic deformation
(R) polaron (iii) collective electron oscillations
(S) polariton (iv) elastic wave
Codes
(A) (P-iv), (Q-iii), (R-i), (S-ii)
(B) (P-iv), (Q-iii), (R-ii), (S-i)
(C) (P-i), (Q-iii), (R-ii), (S-iv)
(D) (P-iii), (Q-iv), (R-ii), (S-i)
Q.23 The number of distinct ways of placing four indistinguishable balls into five distinguishable boxes
is ____________.
Q.24 A voltage regulator has ripple rejection of 50dB. If input ripple is 1 mV, what is the output ripple
voltage in μV? The answer should be up to two decimal places. __________
Q.25 The number of spectral lines allowed in the spectrum for the transition in sodium is
____________.
Q.26 Which of the following pairs of the given function F(t) and its Laplace transform f (s) is NOT
CORRECT?
(A) F(t) = (t), f (s) = 1 , (Singularity at +0)
(B) F(t) = 1, f (s) = , (s > 0)
(C) F(t) = sin kt, f (s) = , (s > 0)
(D) F(t) = t , f (s) = , (s > k, s > 0)
(A) F =
√
√
(B) F =
(C) F =
(D) F =
Q.30 Consider a gas of atoms obeying Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics. The average value of . over
all the momenta of each of the particles (where is a constant vector and is its magnitude, m
is the mass of each atom, T is temperature and k is Boltzmann's constant) is,
(A) One (B) Zero
(C) (D)
where ρ(r) is the charge density, the root mean square radius of the nucleus is given by,
(A) / (B) √ / (C) √ / (D) √ /
Q.32 A uniform circular disk of radius R and mass M is rotating with angular speed about an axis,
passing through its center and inclined at an angle 60 degrees with respect to its symmetry axis. The
magnitude of the angular momentum of the disk is,
√ √ √ √
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.33 Consider two small blocks, each of mass M, attached to two identical springs. One of the springs is
attached to the wall, as shown in the figure. The spring constant of each spring is k. The masses
slide along the surface and the friction is negligible. The frequency of one of the normal modes of
the system is,
k k
M M
√ √ √ √
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.34 A charge distribution has the charge density given by . For this
charge distribution the electric field at , ,
Q.35 A monochromatic plane wave at oblique incidence undergoes reflection at a dielectric interface. If
, and are the unit vectors in the directions of incident wave, reflected wave and the normal
to the surface respectively, which one of the following expressions is correct?
(A) (B) ∙
(C) ∙ (D) ∙
Q.36 In a normal Zeeman effect experiment, spectral splitting of the line at the wavelength 643.8 nm
corresponding to the transition of cadmium atoms is to be observed. The
spectrometer has a resolution of 0.01 nm. The minimum magnetic field needed to observe this is
( . , . , / )
(A) 0.26 T (B) 0.52 T (C) 2.6 T (D) 5.2 T
Q.37 The spacing between vibrational energy levels in CO molecule is found to be 8.44x eV.
Given that the reduced mass of CO is 1.14x kg , Planck's constant is 6.626 Js and
1eV = 1.6x J. The force constant of the bond in CO molecule is
(A) 1.87 N/m (B) 18.7 N/m (C) 187 N/m (D) 1870 N/m
Q.39 The total energy of an ionic solid is given by an expression where is Madelung
constant, r is the distance between the nearest neighbours in the crystal and B is a constant. If r0 is
the equilibrium separation between the nearest neighbours then the value of B is
Q.40 A proton is confined to a cubic box, whose sides have length m. What is the minimum
kinetic energy of the proton? The mass of proton is 1.67 kg and Planck's constant is
6.63 Js.
(A) 1.1 J (B) 3.3 J (C) 9.9 J (D) 6.6 J
Q.41 For the function f (z)= , the residue at the pole z = 1 is (your answer should be an
integer) ___________.
Q.43 Consider the decay of a pion into a muon and an anti-neutrino ̅ in the pion rest
frame.
. / , . / ,
The energy (in MeV) of the emitted neutrino, to the nearest integer is ____________
Q.44 In a constant magnetic field of 0.6 Tesla along the z direction, find the value of the path integral
∮ ∙ in the units of (Tesla m2) on a square loop of side length (1/ √ ) meters. The normal to the
loop makes an angle of 60° to the z-axis, as shown in the figure. The answer should be up to two
decimal places. ____________
60
̂
Q.45 A spin-half particle is in a linear superposition 0.8| 〉 + 0.6| 〉 of its spin-up and spin-down states. If
| 〉 and | 〉 are the eigenstates of then what is the expectation value, up to one decimal place, of
the operator 10 + 5 ? Here, symbols have their usual meanings. ____________
Q.46 Consider the wave function ( /r), where is the normalization constant. For r = 2 , the
magnitude of probability current density up to two decimal places, in units of ( / ), is
_____________.
Q.47 An n-channel junction field effect transistor has 5mA source to drain current at shorted gate (IDSS)
and 5V pinch off voltage (VP). Calculate the drain current in mA for a gate-source voltage (VGS) of
2.5V. The answer should be up to two decimal places. ________________
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Common Data for Questions 50 and 51: To the given unperturbed Hamiltonian
(A) (1/√ , 1/√ , ) (B) (1/√ , 1/√ , ) (C) (0,0,1) (D) (1,0,0)
Q.51 A pair of eigenvalues of the perturbed Hamiltonian, using first order perturbation theory, is
(A) 3+2 , 7+2 (B) 3+2 , 2+ (C) 3, 7+2 (D) 3, 2+2
Q.52 For the case / , where is the total angular momentum, the expectation value of ∙ in
the nuclear ground state is equal to,
Q.53 For the O17 nucleus (A=17, Z=8), the effective magnetic moment is given by,
,
where is equal to, ( . for proton and 3.83 for neutron)
(A) 1.12 (B) 0.77 (C) 1.28 (D) 1.28
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: Consider the following circuit
10kΩ
V(in)
V(out)
1000pF
1kΩ
2kΩ
Q.54 For this circuit the frequency above which the gain will decrease by 20 dB per decade is
(A) 15.9 kHz (B) 1.2 kHz (C) 5.6 kHz (D) 22.5 kHz
Q.56 A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is:
(A) 91 (B) 93 (C) 89 (D) 96
Q.58 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below:
Primeval
(A) Modern (B) Historic
(C) Primitive (D) Antique
(B) intimate
(C) secret
(D) pleasant
Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
Medicine: Health
(A) Science: Experiment (B) Wealth: Peace
(C) Education: Knowledge (D) Money: Happiness
Q.61 X and Y are two positive real numbers such that and . For which of the
following values of , the function , will give maximum value?
(A) (4/3, 10/3)
In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage?
(A) Raw material and Salary & wages
Q.64 A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is
earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price
should be increased to maintained the same profit level.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 30
Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above
statements?
_______________________________________________________________
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2012 Solved Paper
PH : PHYSICS
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and
put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
For all 1 mark questions, ̃ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
̄ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks
for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
question paper for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ball point pen.
Name
Registration
Number
PH
Q.1 Identify the CORRECT statement for the following vectors a 3 iˆ 2 ˆj and b iˆ 2 ˆj
L2 L2
(A) M 1 M 2 (B) M 1 M 2
12 6
L2 L2
(C) M 1 M 2 (D) M 1 M 2
3 2
Q.3 The space-time dependence of the electric field of a linearly polarized light in free space is given by
xE0 cos( t kz ) where E0, and k are the amplitude, the angular frequency and the wavevector,
respectively. The time averaged energy density associated with the electric field is
1 1
(A) 0 E02 (B) 0 E02 (C) 0 E0
2
(D) 2 0 E0
2
4 2
Q.4 If the peak output voltage of a full wave rectifier is 10 V, its d.c. voltage is
(A) 10.0 V (B) 7.07 V (C) 6.36 V (D) 3.18 V
Q.5 A particle of mass m is confined in a two dimensional square well potential of dimension a. This
potential V(x,y) is given by
V ( x, y) 0 for a x a and a y a
elsewhere
The energy of the first excited state for this particle is given by,
2 2
2 2 2 5 2 2 4 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ma 2 ma 2 2ma 2 ma 2
Q.6 The isothermal compressibility, of an ideal gas at temperature T0 and volume V0, is given by
1 V 1 V P P
(A) (B) (C) V0 (D) V0
V0 P T0 V0 P T0 V T0 V T0
Q.7 The ground state of sodium atom (11Na) is a 2S1/2 state. The difference in energy levels arising in the
presence of a weak external magnetic field B, given in terms of Bohr magneton, µ B, is
(A) µ BB (B) 2µ BB (C) 4µ BB (D) 6µ BB
Q.8 For an ideal Fermi gas in three dimensions, the electron velocity v F at the Fermi surface is related
to electron concentration n as,
k BT 3 k BT 1 k BT 2 k BT
(A) (B) (C) (D)
m 2 m 2 m m
Q.14 In a central force field, the trajectory of a particle of mass m and angular momentum L in plane
polar coordinates is given by,
1 m
1 cos
r L2
where, is the eccentricity of the particle’s motion. Which one of the following choices for gives
rise to a parabolic trajectory?
Q.15 Identify the CORRECT energy band diagram for Silicon doped with Arsenic. Here CB, VB, ED and
EF are conduction band, valence band, impurity level and Fermi level, respectively.
(A) (B)
CB CB
E
ED D
EF
E
EF
VB VB
(C) (D)
CB CB
EF
EF
ED ED
VB VB
Q.16 The first Stokes line of a rotational Raman spectrum is observed at 12.96 cm-1. Considering the
rigid rotor approximation, the rotational constant is given by
(A) 6.48 cm-1 (B) 3.24 cm-1 (C) 2.16 cm-1 (D) 1.62 cm-1
Q.17 The total energy, E of an ideal non-relativistic Fermi gas in three dimensions is given by
5
N 3
E 2
where N is the number of particles and V is the volume of the gas.
V 3
r1 ,r2
1
2
1 r1 2 r2 2 r1 1 r2
where 1 and 2 are single particle states. The spin part s of the wavefunction with spin states
(+½) and (-½) should be
1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2
Q.19 The electric and the magnetic fields E ( z, t ) and B( z, t ) , respectively corresponding to the scalar
potential (z,t) = 0 and vector potential A( z, t ) it z are
Vin +
+5V Vout
4 k
1 k - 10 V
Which one of the following correctly represents the output Vout corresponding to the input Vin?
(A) (B)
+5V +5V
Vin Vin
+1V +1V
0V 0V
t® t®
+ 10 V + 10 V
Vout Vout
t® t®
- 10 V - 10 V
(C) (D)
+5V +5V
Vin Vin
0V 0V
t® t®
+ 10 V + 10 V
Vout Vout
t® t®
- 10 V - 10 V
Q.21 Deuteron has only one bound state with spin parity 1+, isospin 0 and electric quadrupole moment
0.286 efm2. These data suggest that the nuclear forces are having
(A) only spin and isospin dependence
(B) no spin dependence and no tensor components
(C) spin dependence but no tensor components
(D) spin dependence along with tensor components
Q.22 A particle of unit mass moves along the x-axis under the influence of a potential,
V ( x) x x 2 . The particle is found to be in stable equilibrium at the point x 2 . The time
2
Q.23 Which one of the following CANNOT be explained by considering a harmonic approximation for
the lattice vibrations in solids?
Q.24 A particle is constrained to move in a truncated harmonic potential well (x > 0) as shown in the
figure. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
V(x)
x
(A) The parity of the first excited state is even
Q.25 The number of independent components of the symmetric tensor Aij with indices i, j = 1, 2, 3 is
1 0
Q.26 Consider a system in the unperturbed state described by the Hamiltonian, H 0 . The system
0 1
is subjected to a perturbation of the form H , where 1 . The energy eigenvalues of
the perturbed system using the first order perturbation approximation are
Q.27 Inverse susceptibility (1/) as a function of temperature, T for a material undergoing paramagnetic
to ferromagnetic transition is given in the figure, where O is the origin. The values of the Curie
constant, C, and the Weiss molecular field constant, , in CGS units, are
1
600 K
O T
2 104
(CGS unit)
(A) B( x, z, t )
1
c
6k 8i exp[i(6x 8z 10ct )]
(B) B( x, z, t )
1
c
6k 8i exp[i(6x 8z 10ct )]
(C) B( x, z, t )
1
c
6k 8i exp[i(6x 8z ct )]
(D) B( x, z, t )
1
c
6k 8i exp[i(6x 8z ct )]
0 1 0
Q.29 The eigenvalues of the matrix 1 0 1 are
0 1 0
1 1
(A) 0, 1, 1 (B) 0, 2, 2 (C) , ,0 (D) 2, 2, 0
2 2
Q.30 Match the typical spectroscopic regions specified in Group I with the corresponding type of
transitions in Group II.
Group I Group II
Q.31 In the following circuit, for the output voltage to be Vo = ( – V1 + V2 /2), the ratio R1/R2 is
R
+ VCC
R
V1
Vo
+
V2
R1 - VCC
R2
Q.32 The terms j1 , j2 J arising from 2s13d1 electronic configuration in j-j coupling scheme are
1 3 1 5 1 1 1 3
(A) , and , (B) , and ,
2 2 2,1 2 2 3,2 2 2 1,0 2 2 2,1
1 1 1 5 3 1 1 5
(C) , and , (D) , and ,
2 2 1,0 2 2 3,2 2 2 2,1 2 2 3,2
Q.33 In the following circuit, the voltage drop across the ideal diode in forward bias condition is 0.7 V.
12 k
24 Volt
+
–
+
+
6 k 3.3k
Q.35 A rod of proper length l0 oriented parallel to the x-axis moves with speed 2c/3 along the x-axis in the
S-frame, where c is the speed of the light in free space. The observer is also moving along the x-axis
with speed c/2 with respect to the S-frame. The length of the rod as measured by the observer is
(A) 0.35 l0 (B) 0.48 l0 (C) 0.87 l0 (D) 0.97 l0
Q.36 A simple cubic crystal with lattice parameter ac undergoes transition into a tetragonal structure with
lattice parameters at = bt = 2 ac and ct = 2ac, below a certain temperature. The ratio of the
interplanar spacings of (1 0 1) planes for the cubic and the tetragonal structures is
1 1 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 6 8 8
Q.37 Consider the following circuit in which the current gain dc of the transistor is 100.
+ 15 V
100 k 900
100
Which one of the following correctly represents the load line (collector current IC with respect to
collector-emitter voltage VCE) and Q-point of this circuit?
(A) (B)
15 mA Q-point 13 mA Q-point
(2 V, 13 mA) (2 V, 10 mA)
IC ®
IC ®
VCE ® 15 V VCE ® 15 V
(C) (D)
15 mA 13 mA
Q-point
Q-point
IC ®
VCE ® 15 V
VCE ® 15 V
Q.38 Consider a system whose three energy levels are given by 0, and 2. The energy level is
two-fold degenerate and the other two are non-degenerate. The partition function of the system
1
with is given by
k BT
(A) 1 2e (B) 2e e2
(C) (1 e )2 (D) 1 e e2
Q.39 Two infinitely extended homogeneous isotropic dielectric media (medium-1 and medium-2 with
1
dielectric constants 2 and 2 5 , respectively) meet at the z = 0 plane as shown in the
0 0
figure. A uniform electric field exists everywhere. For z 0, the electric field is given by
E1 2i 3 j 5k . The interface separating the two media is charge free.
medium-1
z=0
medium-2
The plot of the radial probability density, P(r) for the hydrogen atom in the ground state is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.41 Total binding energies of O15, O16 and O17 are 111.96 MeV, 127.62 MeV and 131.76 MeV,
respectively. The energy gap between 1p1/2 and 1d5/2 neutron shells for the nuclei whose mass
number is close to 16, is
(A) 4.1 MeV (B) 11.5 MeV (C) 15.7 MeV (D) 19.8 MeV
Q.42 A particle of mass m is attached to a fixed point O by a weightless inextensible string of length a. It
is rotating under the gravity as shown in the figure.
The Lagrangian of the particle is z
L( , )
1 2 2
2
ma sin 2 2 mga cos
where and are the polar angles.
a
g
The Hamiltonian of the particle is
1 2 p2 1 2 p2
(A) H p 2 mga cos (B) H p 2 mga cos
2ma 2 sin 2ma 2 sin
2
p 2 p2 mga cos 2
p 2 p2 mga cos
1 1
(C) H (D) H
2ma 2ma
Q.43
Given F r B , where B B0 iˆ ˆj kˆ is a constant vector and r is the position vector. The
value of F dr , where C is a circle of unit radius centered at origin is,
C
x
C
e
1z
Q.44 The value of the integral dz , using the contour C of circle with unit radius z 1 is
C
Q.45 A paramagnetic system consisting of N spin-half particles, is placed in an external magnetic field. It
is found that N/2 spins are aligned parallel and the remaining N/2 spins are aligned antiparallel to
the magnetic field. The statistical entropy of the system is,
N
(A) 2 NkB ln 2 (B) k B ln 2
2
3N
(C) k B ln 2 (D) NkB ln 2
2
Q.46 The equilibrium vibration frequency for an oscillator is observed at 2990 cm-1. The ratio of the
frequencies corresponding to the first and the fundamental spectral lines is 1.96. Considering the
oscillator to be anharmonic, the anharmonicity constant is
(A) 0.005 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.1
Q.47 At a certain temperature T, the average speed of nitrogen molecules in air is found to be 400 m/s.
The most probable and the root mean square speeds of the molecules are, respectively,
(A) 355 m/s, 434 m/s (B) 820 m/s, 917 m/s
(C) 152 m/s, 301 m/s (D) 422 m/s, 600 m/s
5 2 k 2 3 2 k 2
(A) (B)
2m 4m
k
2 2
2k 2
(C) (D)
2m m
Q.49 The probability current density for the real part of the wavefunction is
k k
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D) 0
m 2m
Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:
The dispersion relation for a one dimensional monatomic crystal with lattice spacing a , which interacts via
nearest neighbour harmonic potential is given by
Ka
A sin ,
2
where A is a constant of appropriate unit.
Q.50 The group velocity at the boundary of the first Brillouin zone is
Aa 2 1 Aa 2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) (D)
2 2 2
Q.51 The force constant between the nearest neighbour of the lattice is (M is the mass of the atom)
MA2 MA2
(A) (B) (C) MA2 (D) 2 MA2
4 2
In a hydrogen atom, consider that the electronic charge is uniformly distributed in a spherical volume of
radius a (= 0.5 10-10 m) around the proton. The atom is placed in a uniform electric field E = 30 105 V/m.
Assume that the spherical distribution of the negative charge remains undistorted under the electric field.
Q.52 In the equilibrium condition, the separation between the positive and the negative charge centers is
(A) 8.66 10-16 m (B) 2.60 10-15 m (C) 2.60 10-16 m (D) 8.66 10-15 m
A particle of mass m slides under the gravity without friction along the parabolic path y ax 2 as shown in
the figure. Here a is a constant.
y
1 2 1
(A) L mx mgax 2 (B) L m(1 4a 2 x 2 ) x 2 mgax 2
2 2
1 2 1
(C) L mx mgax 2 (D) L m(1 4a 2 x 2 ) x 2 mgax 2
2 2
Q.57 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Mitigate
(A) Diminish (B) Divulge (C) Dedicate (D) Denote
Q.58 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Despite several ––––––––– the mission succeeded in its attempt to resolve the conflict.
(A) attempts (B) setbacks (C) meetings (D) delegations
Q.59 The cost function for a product in a firm is given by 5q2, where q is the amount of production. The
firm can sell the product at a market price of 50 per unit. The number of units to be produced by
the firm such that the profit is maximized is
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 25
Q.60 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Q.62 An automobile plant contracted to buy shock absorbers from two suppliers X and Y. X supplies
60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock absorbers. All shock absorbers are subjected to a quality test.
The ones that pass the quality test are considered reliable. Of X’s shock absorbers, 96% are reliable.
Of Y’s shock absorbers, 72% are reliable.
The probability that a randomly chosen shock absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made by Y
is
(A) 0.288 (B) 0.334 (C) 0.667 (D) 0.720
Q.63 A political party orders an arch for the entrance to the ground in which the annual convention is
being held. The profile of the arch follows the equation y = 2x – 0.1x2 where y is the height of the
arch in meters. The maximum possible height of the arch is
(A) 8 meters (B) 10 meters (C) 12 meters (D) 14 meters
Q.64 Wanted Temporary, Part-time persons for the post of Field Interviewer to conduct personal
interviews to collect and collate economic data. Requirements: High School-pass, must be
available for Day, Evening and Saturday work. Transportation paid, expenses reimbursed.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above advertisement?
(A) Gender-discriminatory
(B) Xenophobic
(C) Not designed to make the post attractive
(D) Not gender-discriminatory
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