CHHK 511F Exam No.

2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

1. What is the reducing agent in the following reaction? CuOs   H 2 g   Cus   H 2O g 
a) CuO c) Cu
b) H2 d) H2O
2. Which of the following reactions is a redox reaction?
a  K 2 CrO4  BaCl 2  BaCrO4  2 KCl
b  Pb2
2
 2 Br   PbBr
c  Cu  S  CuS
a) (a) only c) (c) only
b) (b) only d) (a) and (c)
3. What is the coefficient of the hypochlorite ion when the following equation is balanced?
2 2
ClO   S 2O3  Cl   SO4
a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4
4. The gain of electrons by an element is called ___________.
a) Reduction c) Disproportionation
b) Oxidation d) Fractionation
5. What is the coefficient of the bromide ion when the following redox equation is balanced?
BrO   FeOH 2  Br   FeOH 3
a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 5
6. Which indicator may be used for an oxidation-reduction titration using the dichromate process?
a) Phenolphthalein c) Barium diphenylamine sulfonate
b) Bromothymol blue d) The reaction is self indicating
7. During a dichromate oxidation-reduction titration, the dichromate ion is reduced from +6 to ________.
a) +1 c) +3
b) +2 d) None of these
8. Commonly, the analyte in a sample is present in two different oxidation states. Pre-reduction is necessary before titration. One of the metallic
reductors is zinc soaked in dilute solution of mercuric chloride. This reductor is also known as ___________.
a) Walden reductor c) Lindlars catalyst
b) Devarda alloy d) Jones reductor
9. A sample of iron ore weighing 385.6 mg was dissolved in acid and passed through a Jones reductor. If the resulting solution required 52.36 mL of
0.01436 M K2Cr2O7 for titration, calculate %Fe3O4 in the ore sample.
a) 15.05 % c) 45.15 %
b) 90.30 % d) 67.98 %
10. What indicator may be used for Iodometric Titration?
a) Bromothymol blue c) Starch
b) Sodium diphenylamine sulfonate d) Self indicating
11. The Nernst Equation gives the effect of _____________ on electrode potentials.
a) Concentration c) Temperature
b) Pressure d) Volume
12. In a basic/neutral medium, the permanganate ion is reduced to MnO2. How many electrons were involved in the reaction?
a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4
13. The following may be used as a primary standard in the standardization of KMnO 4 solution except __________.
a) Sodium oxalate c) Arsenic oxide
b) Pure iron d) Titanium oxide
14. A 240-mg sample of pyrolusite was treated with excess KI. The iodine liberated required 46.24 mL of 0.1105 M Na 2S2O3 solution. Calculate
%MnO2 in the sample.
a) 46.27% c) 30.85%
b) 92.54% d) 76.12%
15. What is the molarity of a KMnO4 solution standardized against 1.356 grams of NaC2O4 requiring 25.1 mL of the solution in acidic medium?
a) 0.161 M c) 0.403 M
b) 1.008 M d) 0.856 M
16. An electrolytic cell is an electrochemical cell in which a _______________ reaction is driven by an external source of current.
a) Spontaneous c) Endothermic
b) Non-spontaneous d) Exothermic

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 1 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

17. It is a method of corrosion prevention that makes use of kinetic protection whereby the exchange currents are decreased by sealing the metal
surface.
a) Cathodic protection c) Greasing
b) Galvanizing d) Passivation
18. What is the oxidation state of Manganese in Potassium permanganate?
a) +1 c) +4
b) +2 d) +7
19. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?
a) Maintain electrical neutrality in the half-cells via c) Provide oxygen to facilitate oxidation at the anode
migration of ions
b) Provide a source of ions to react at the anode and cathode d) Provide a means for electrons to travel from the cathode to the anode

20. The more __________ the value of Ered, the greater the driving force for reduction.
a) Positive c) Exothermic
b) Negative d) Endothermic
21. Consider an electrochemical cell based on the reaction:
2H  aq  Sns   Sn 2 aq  H 2 aq
Which of the following actions would not change the measured cell potential?
a) Lowering the pH in the cathode compartment c) Addition of more tin metal to the anode compartment
b) Increasing the tin (II) ion concentration in the anode d) Increasing the pressure of hydrogen gas in the cathode compartment
compartment
22. What is the anode in an alkaline battery?
a) MnO2 c) KOH
b) Zn d) Pt
23. Galvanized iron is iron coated with _____________.
a) Magnesium c) Zinc
b) Chromium d) Phosphate
24. How many minutes will it take to plate out 2.19 g of chromium metal from a solution of Cr3+ using a current of 35.2 amp in an electrolyte cell?
a) 5.77 c) 346
b) 115 d) 1.92
25. How many grams of Cu are obtained by passing a current of 12 A through a solution of CuSO 4 for 15 minutes?
a) 0.016 c) 3.6
b) 7.1 d) 14
26. How many seconds are required to produce 4.00 g of aluminium metal from the electrolysis of molten AlCl 3 with an electric current of 12.0 A?
a) 27.0 c) 9.00
b) 1.19 x 10 3
d) 3.57 x 103
27. The Standard Hydrogen Electrode is assigned a value of ____________ V at all temperatures.
a) 0 c) 10
b) 1 d) 100
28. In an electrochemical cell, the oxidation reaction occurs at the _____________.
a) Anode b) Cathode
29. What reaction is written on the right hand side of a cell notation?
a) Anodic reaction b) Cathodic reaction
30. It states that the mass of substance involved in the reaction at the electrode is proportional to the quality of electricity passed through the solution.
a) Avogadro’s Law c) Law of Mass Action
b) Faraday’s Law d) Saitsev’s Rule

31. An ore is analysed for the manganese content by converting the manganese to Mn3O4 and weighing it. If a 1.52-g sample yields Mn3O4 weighing
0.126 g, what would be the per cent Mn2O3 in the sample?
a) 4.29 % c) 8.58 %
b) 12.54 % d) 17.16 %
32. From the previous problem, what would be the per cent Mn in the sample?
a) 2.95 % c) 11.94 %
b) 12.12 % d) 5.97 %
33. A 0.2356-g sample containing only NaCl (58.44 g/mol) and BaCl2 (208.23 g/mol) yielded 0.4637 g of dried AgCl (143.32 g/mol). Calculate the
percent of each halogen compound in the sample.
a) 45.01% , 54.99% c) 55.01% , 44.99%

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 2 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

b) 65.01% , 34.99% d) 75.01% , 24.99%

34. What weight of pyrite ore (impure FeS2) must be taken for analysis so that the BaSO4 precipitate weight obtained will be equal to one-half that of
the percent S in the sample? (MW: BaSO4 = 233.40; S = 32.064
a) 3.458 g c) 6.869 g
b) 1.254 g d) 12.532 g
35. What is the normality of a 0.12 M H2SO4 solution?
a) 0.060 N c) 0.240 N
b) 0.360 N d) 0.480 N
36. Calculate the molality of 2.50 M NaCl solution whose density is 1.08 g/mL. The volume of the solution is 1000 mL. MWNaCl = 58.45 g/mole
a) 2.700 molal c) 3.352 molal
b) 0.043 molal d) 2.315 molal
37. Consider a solution of phosphoric acid, H3PO4, consisting of 85 grams of H3PO4 per 100 grams of H2O. The volume of the solution is 259 milliliters.
Express the concentration of the solution in molality.
a) 0.432 molal c) 3.828 molal
b) 8.673 molal d) 3.349 molal
38. From the previous problem, what is the molarity of the solution?
a) 0.432 molal c) 3.828 molal
b) 8.673 molal d) 3.349 molal
39. The normality of the solution in the previous problem is_____________.
a) 10.047 normal c) 2.891 normal
b) 11.484 normal d) 1.632 normal
40. It is the theoretical point reached when the amount of added titrant is chemically equivalent to the amount of analyte in the sample.
a) End Point c) Neutralization Point
b) Equivalence Point d) Saturation Point
41. A process where the concentration of a volumetric solution is determined by titrating it against a carefully measured quantity of primary or
secondary standard or exactly known volume of another standard solution.
a) Buffering c) Titration
b) Solvation d) Standardization
42. Given a concentrated solution that has specific gravity 1.66 and is 70 % (w/w) HClO 4. Calculate the volume of the solution needed to prepare 2 L of
1.50 M HClO4.
a) 181.63 mL c) 135.50 mL
b) 259.47 mL d) 129.74 mL
43. The benzoic acid, C6H5COOH, extracted from 106.3 g of catsup required a 14.76-ml titration with 0.05140 M NaOH. Express the results of this
analysis in terms of percent sodium benzoate (144.10 g/mole).
a) 0.103 % C6H5COONa c) 0.2360 % C6H5COONa
b) 0.1028 % C6H5COONa d) 0.391 % C6H5COONa

44. EDTA stands for

a) Ethylenediaminetriacetic acid c) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
b) Diethylenediaminetetraacetic acid d) Ethyldiaminetetraacetic acid
45. All are characteristics of a good primary standard except
a) atmospheric stability c) high purity
b) low molecular weight d) reasonable solubility in titration medium
46. An electrolytic cell is an electrochemical cell in which a _______________ reaction is driven by an external source of current.
a) Spontaneous c) Endothermic
b) Non-spontaneous d) Exothermic
47. It is a method of corrosion prevention that makes use of kinetic protection whereby the exchange currents are decreased by sealing the metal
surface.
a) Cathodic protection c) Greasing
b) Galvanizing d) Passivation
48. What is the oxidation state of Manganese in Potassium permanganate?
a) +1 c) +4
b) +2 d) +7
49. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?
a) Maintain electrical neutrality in the half-cells via c) Provide oxygen to facilitate oxidation at the anode
migration of ions
b) Provide a source of ions to react at the anode and cathode d) Provide a means for electrons to travel from the cathode to the anode

50. The more __________ the value of Ered, the greater the driving force for reduction.

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 3 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

a) Positive c) Exothermic
b) Negative d) Endothermic
51. Consider an electrochemical cell based on the reaction:
2H  aq  Sns   Sn 2 aq  H 2 aq
Which of the following actions would not change the measured cell potential?
a) Lowering the pH in the cathode compartment c) Addition of more tin metal to the anode compartment
b) Increasing the tin (II) ion concentration in the anode d) Increasing the pressure of hydrogen gas in the cathode compartment
compartment
52. What is the anode in an alkaline battery?
a) MnO2 c) KOH
b) Zn d) Pt
53. Galvanized iron is iron coated with _____________.
a) Magnesium c) Zinc
b) Chromium d) Phosphate
54. How many minutes will it take to plate out 2.19 g of chromium metal from a solution of Cr3+ using a current of 35.2 amp in an electrolyte cell?
a) 5.77 c) 346
b) 115 d) 1.92
55. How many grams of Cu are obtained by passing a current of 12 A through a solution of CuSO 4 for 15 minutes?
a) 0.016 c) 3.6
b) 7.1 d) 14
56. How many seconds are required to produce 4.00 g of aluminium metal from the electrolysis of molten AlCl 3 with an electric current of 12.0 A?
a) 27.0 c) 9.00
b) 1.19 x 10 3
d) 3.57 x 103
57. The Standard Hydrogen Electrode is assigned a value of ____________ V at all temperatures.
a) 0 c) 10
b) 1 d) 100
58. In an electrochemical cell, the oxidation reaction occurs at the _____________.
a) Anode b) Cathode
59. What reaction is written on the right hand side of a cell notation?
a) Anodic reaction b) Cathodic reaction
60. It states that the mass of substance involved in the reaction at the electrode is proportional to the quality of electricity passed through the solution.
a) Avogadro’s Law c) Law of Mass Action
b) Faraday’s Law d) Saitsev’s Rule

1. The IUPAC name of (C2H5)3COH is

A. 3-ethyl-3-pentanol
B. triethylpropanol
C. 1,1-diethyl-1-propanol
D. triethyl alcohol
2. The high boiling point of alcohols is attributed to its
A. high molecular weight C. high solubility in water
B. high molecular force of attraction D. high density
3. A chiral carbon is
A. One which contains a multiple bond
B. One with four different bonded groups
C. One that has a planar structure
D. One that has a tetrahedral structure
4. The combination of t-butyl carbocation with hydroxyl anion takes place by which of the following mechanism?
A. SN1 C. electrophilic substitution
B. SN2 D. nucleophilic addition
5. The following are characteristics of SN2 reaction except
A. the rate of reaction depends on the concentration of both the alkyl halide and nucleophile
B. the breaking and formation of bonds around the fuctional carbon atom occur simultaneously
C. it involves only an inversion of configuration.
D. It follows first order reaction kinetics
6. Which of the following is arranged in increasing solubility in water?
A. Butanol, ethanol, pentanol
B. Isopropyl alcohol, t-butyl alcohol, methanol
C. Hexanol, butanol, ethyl alcohol
D. Propanol, sec-butyl alcohol, heptanol
7. Conformation arises due to
A. Polarizability of the pi electrons
B. Baeyer’s strain
C. Free rotation about a single bond
Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 4 of 17
Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

D. Restricted rotation about a double bond

8. Which of the following has the longest bond length?
A. CC B. C=C C. C-C D. C=O
9. The following are activating substituents of the benzene ring except
A. hydroxyl group C. cyano group
B. amino group D. alkoxy group
10. Lucas reagent is used to distinguish
A. Primary from tertiary alkyl halide
B. Primary from tertiary alcohol
C. Aldehyde from ketone
D. Saturated from unsaturated hydrocarbons
11. The compound HCCCOHCH2CH3 is classified as
A. an alcohol B. an ether C. an aldehyde D. a ketone
12. In the acetylene molecule, HCCH, the triple bond between the two carbon atom consists of
A. Three sigma bonds
B. Three pi bonds
C. Two sigma bonds and one pi bond
D. Two pi bonds and one sigma bonds

13. For a very dilute solution, its molarity is approximately equal to its
A. normality B. molality C. mole percentage D. weight percentage
14. What is the molarity of a 500 ppm CaCO3
A. 0.005M B. 0.5M C. 0.000005M D. 0.0005M
15. The determination of calcium in limestone by precipitation to its oxalate form and titration by KmnO 4 is an example of _________
titration.
A. direct B. back C. replacement D. potentiometric
16. A 0.3367 g sample of primary standard grade Na2CO3 required 28.66 mL of an H2SO4 solution to reach the endpoint of the
reaction:
 H2O + CO2
-2 +
CO3 + 2H
What is the molarity of the sulfuric acid solution?
A. 0.14108M B. 0.2216M C. 0.4433M D. 0.0554M
17. In Kjeldahl method, digestion is carried out to
A. To convert carbon and hydrogen to carbon dioxide and hydrogen gas
B. To convert nitrogen existing as amide or amine to ammonium ion
C. To increase the boiling point of sulfuric acid
D. To catalyzed the reaction
18. The ammonia from the digestion of 1.5 g protein is trapped in 50 mL of 0.15M H 2SO4. The excess H2SO4 required 11.35 mL of
0.25M of NaOH. Determine %N in the sample.
A. 90.80% B. 45.40% C. 22.70% D. 11.35%
19. A sample of a base either alone or in mixture required 15 mL of 0.1M HCl with phenolphthalein indicator and an additional 33 mL of
0.1M HCl were required for complete neutralization using methyl orange indicator. Based on this data the composition of sample is:
A. Na2CO3 C. Na2CO3, NaHCO3
B. NaOH, Na2CO3 D. NaOH, NaHCO3
20. In direct titration of an analyte with an oxidizing agent the analyte is first reduced. One of the prereducing agent used is Jones
reductor. The composition of the Jones reductor is:
A. ferrous sulfate C. amalgamated zinc
B. metallic silver D. stannous chloride
21. The designation carried by chemicals of exceptionally high purity is:
A. technical grade C. USP grade
B. reagent grade D. primary standard grade
22. Equivalence point of acid-base titration occurs at different pH depending upon the strengths of the acid and base, the type of acid-
base titration occurring at the neutral pH is the titration between
A. Strong acid vs. weak base C. Weak acid vs. strong base
B. Strong acid vs. strong base D. All of the above
23. A volume of 20 mL of EDTA titrant is required to titrate 25 mL of 0.01M calcium carbonate. A 75 mL of hard H2O sample requires
30 mL of the EDTA titrant for a total hardness determination. The titer of the EDTA expressed as mL CaCO 3 per mL EDTA is
A. 1.25 B. 2.00 C. 2.50 D. 5.00
24. Referring to problem no. 23 what is the total hardness of water expressed in ppm?
A. 200 B. 500 C. 250 D. 125
-5
25. What is the pH of the buffer which is 0.25M with respect to HC2H3O2 and 0.1M with respect to Na2C2H3O2? (Ka = 1.8 x 10 ) Use
Henderson Hassleback equation: pH = pKa – log ([HA]/[A])
A. 4.347 B. 4745 C. 9.653 D. 7.000

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 5 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
Review Questions

1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of continuous ultraviolet radiation for
spectrophotometers because of
a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
d. the narrow band pass of modern grating of monochromators

2. Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a tuned ac amplifier in an atomic absorption
spectrophotometer accomplishes the following
a. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a voltmeter for the readout
b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual photomultiplier tube
c. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of ground-state atoms
d. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not interfere with the absorbance measurement

3. Line spectra are emitted by

a. hot solids
b. excited polyatomic molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions

4. Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with feedback loops that vary the power of the reference beam
until it matches the power of the beam through the sample. This mode of operation
a. eliminates the need for a continuous source
b. requires two monochromators
c. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents
d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that nonlinear response to radiant power would not be
deleterious

5. Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is sometimes more sensitive than flame emission
spectroscopy?
a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of ground-state atoms is much greater than the
population of excited atoms.
b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more sensitive than those used to measure emission.
c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater radiant power output than do ordinary flames .
d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than an emission line because of the Doppler effect.

6. The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects provided

a. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably and does not itself introduce appreciable quantities
or interfering substances
b. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the concentrations of interfering substances are lowered to negligible
values
c. the addition contains none of the substance being determined
d. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some substance to swamp out sample variations

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 6 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

3+ 2+ 3+
7. Fe and Cu form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is colorless , as is Fe itself, at the concentration
2+
involved here: the copper complex is a deep blue color (deeper than the color of Cu itself), while EDTA is colorless.
3+ 2+
The photometric titration curve below was obtained when a solution containing both Fe and Cu was titrated with
EDTA using a spectrophotometer set at a wavelength of 745 nm in the visible region of the spectrum.

A
B
A

ml of EDTA solution

a. A is the iron end point.

b. B is the iron end point
c. The distance from A to B on the milliliter axis represents the quantity of iron
d. The quantity of iron could not be calculated from a graph like this unless the quantity of copper in the solution
was known ahead of time

8. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution of the coefficient, K, is zero may be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column occupied by the packing materials
b. the total volume of the column
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the volume within the column available to the mobile phase

9. The purpose of the solid support material in a GLC column is to

a. immobilize the stationary liquid phase
b. adsorb sample components that are insufficiently soluble in the stationary liquid phase
c. provide a "backup" stationary phase in the event that the liquid is lost by evaporation
d. remove impurities from the carrier gas

10. Helium, rather than nitrogen, is sometimes used as the carrier gas in GLC because
a. being lighter than nitrogen, helium elutes the sample components more rapidly
b. helium is less expensive than nitrogen
c. nitrogen has stable isotopes which separate and cause anomalous column behavior
d. of its much higher thermal conductivity

11. An important feature of open-tubular GLC column is

a. they can accept much larger samples than can packed column because of their great length
b. solute partitioning between stationary and mobile phases is very rapid and the C term in the Van Deemter
equation is relatively small
c. they permit the use of a wider variety of carrier gases
d. they can be operated at temperatures closer to the boiling point of the stationary liquid phase than can packed
columns and thus handle less volatile examples

12. Raising the column temperature in GLC decreases solute retention times primarily because
a. solute diffusion coefficients in the liquid phase decrease with increasing temperature
b. van der Waals interactions between solutes and stationary phase are stronger at higher temperatures
c. gases are generally less soluble in liquids at higher temperatures
d. detector sensitivity is a function of temperature, especially with a thermal conductivity cell

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 7 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

13. Which of the following would have practically no effect upon the retention volume of a solute in GLC?
a. changing the carrier-gas flow-rate
b. increasing the stationary liquid loading of the column packing from 5 to 10% by weight
c. increasing the column temperature
d. changing the chemical nature of the stationary liquid

14. The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upon

a. the length of the column
b. the square root of the length of the column
c. the nature of the stationary liquid phase
d. the number of theoretical plates in the column

15. In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often cause
a. unusually narrow elution bands
b. asymmetric elution band
c. excessive eddy diffusion
d. decreased detector sensitivity

16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column packing will, with everything else the same,
a. increase tR for a solute
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation

17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way into the pores of a typical anion-exchange resin
can be eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one exchange basis
d. by flushing out the water

18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient, K, is zero may be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column available to the moving phase
b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the total volume of the column

19. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase absorption?

a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed from a solution
b. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors being equal
c. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the solute
d. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear

20. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC is

a. the height of the elution band
b. the area of the elution band
c. the baseline width of the elution band
d. the retention volume

21. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which adsorbent and what solvent system to use for a
larger-scale chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product from materials formed in side reactions?
a. Paper chromatography
b. Affinity chromatography
c. TLC
d. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution

22. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best approach employs
a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the hydrogen form
b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the sodium form and a strong-base anion
exchanger in the chloride form
d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the hydrogen form and a strong-base
anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 8 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

23. Line spectra are emitted by

a. incandescent solids
b. excited molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions

24. Band spectra are emitted by

a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. incandescent solids

25. A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development of analytical methods based upon
chemiluminescence. If a conventional spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements, an the instrument has
separate switches for its various circuits, which switch will be left in the "off" position?
a. detector power supply
b. amplifier
c. source power supply
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the emission side of the instrument

26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant combination available as yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
c. acetylene-oxygen
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide

27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy involves change in the average separation of the
nuclei of two or more atoms, then the change is
a. electronic
b. vibrational
c. translational
d. rotational

28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon

a. Beer's law
b. Fajar's law
c. Bouger law's
d. Beer Lambert's Law

29. IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic components as visible and UV spectro-photometers. In which
of the following basic components could the devices be used interchangeable in both:
a. sources of radiant energy
b. optical system
c. sample holders
d. detectors

30. Which of the following may not be used in the determination of sugars?
a. TLC chromatography
b. Polarimetry
c. Copper reduction methods
d. Lane and Eynon methods

31. Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?

a. hydrogen arc lamp
b. glass filter
c. barrier layer photocell
d. none of these

32. This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a solution is an experimental function of the
concentration of absorbing substance present and the sample path length
a. Bouger's Law
b. Beer's Law
c. Lambert's Law
d. Bouger-Beer Law

33. Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to

a. instrumental
b. intermolecular reactions
c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 9 of 17
Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

d. all of these

34. IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV spectrophotometers, except:

a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these

35. Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited atoms:

a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
d. Nephelopmetry

36. The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not depend on the :
a. wavelength of the incident light
b. intensity of the incident light
c. concentration of the substance
d. thickness of the sample cell

37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy, which of the following statements will be true?
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopy
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission spectroscopy
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission spectroscopy
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy

38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible absorption spectrophotometry because AAS
a. has no light source
b. does not need a monochromator
c. does not follow Beer's Law
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made

39. Gas chromatography does not use this detector

a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector
c. flame ionization detector
d. electron capture detector

40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on

a. carrier gas velocity
b. column temperature
c. volume of compound analyzed
d. volatility of compound analyzed
GENERAL CHEMISTRY, ORGANIC CHEMISTRY, ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

61. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?

b) 2,3,5-Trimethylheptane
62. Your task is to convert 2-chloropentane into 1-pentene. Which reagents would you choose?
d) (CH3)3COK/(CH3)3COH
63. A correct name for the following compound would be which of those below?

c) 2,5-Dimethylhexanal
64. A correct name for

c) 2-Methylbutyl 3-methylbutanoate
65. Which compound would be the strongest acid?
d) CH3CH2CCl2CO2H
66. A solution was prepared by dissolving 6.75 g of KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (277.85 g/mol) in sufficient water to give 2.000 L. Calculate the ppm of K +
(39.10 g/mol).
Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 10 of 17
Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

a) 475
67. How many Na+ ions are contained in 5.43 g of Na3PO4?
a) 5.98 x 1022
68. The presence of common ion _____ the solubility of a given precipitate.
c) Decreases
69. What is the pH at 90% titration of 50.0 ml of 0.200 M HCl with 0.200 M NaOH?
c) 1.978
70. At what volume of the titrant (in ml) will be used in the titration of 50.0 ml of 0.100 M acetic acid with 0.100 M NaOH so that the pH will just
be equal to pKa of the acid? Ka = 1.75 x 10 -5
b) 25.0
71. Which of the following affect the behaviour of an indicator in titration process?
a) Ionic strength of the medium Presence of organic solvents and colloidal particles
b) Temperature All of the choices
72. The phosphorus in a 4.258 g sample was converted to Ag 3PO4 with the addition of 50.00mL of 0.0820M AgNO3. The excess AgNO3 was
back titrated with 4.86 mL of 0.0625 M KSCN. Find the percentage P 2O5 in the sample. (MW P2O5 = 141.94)
c) 4.22%
73. A 1.00 g sample of antacid with Mg(OH)2 as its active component was titrated with 9.0 mL of 0.140M HCl. What is the percentage of
magnesium hydroxide in the sample? (MW Mg(OH)2 = 58.34)
c) 3.68%
For Nos. 24-25. A 485.0-mg sample containing MnO2 was titrated with 75.00-mL of 0.1175 M FeSO4 solution. The excess iron was back
titrated with 7.850-mL 0.0879 M K2Cr2O7.
74. How much Fe in millimoles is obtained after all the MnO 2 in the sample has been titrated?
a) 4.672
75. What is the percentage of MnO2 in the sample? (MW MnO2 = 86.94 g/mol)
c) 41.88
76. Calculate the freezing point of a 0.05500 m aqueous solution of NaNO 3. The molal freezing point depression constant of water is 1.86
C/m.
c) -0.2046
77. As the concentration of a solute in a solution increases, the freezing point of the solution ___________ and the vapor pressure of the
solution __________.
d) Decreases, decreases
78. What is the pH of an aqueous solution at 25C in which [OH-] is 0.0025 M?
c) +11.40
79. What is the oxidation state of Manganese in Potassium permanganate?
d) +7
80. A 3.82-g sample of magnesium nitride is reacted with 7.73 g of water. The yield of MgO is 3.60 g. What is the percent yield in
the reaction? Mg 3 N 2  3H 2O  2 NH 3  3MgO
b) 78.8
81. Which of the following will change the value of an equilibrium constant?
a) changing temperature
82. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 64.8%C, 13.6% H and 21.6% O by mass?
b) C4H10O
83. Calculate the percentage by mass of nitrogen in PtCl 2(NH3)2.
c) 9.34
84. A solution was prepared by dissolving 5.76 g of KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (277.85 g/mol) in sufficient water to give 2.000 L. Calculate the ppm of K +
(39.10 g/mol).
d) 405
85. The amount of the solute present before dilution is _____ as/than the amount of solute after dilution.
b) The same
86. How many grams of Ba(IO3)2 (487.13 g/mol) can be dissolved in 500 ml of water at 25oC? Ksp of Ba(IO3)2 is 1.57 x 10-9?
c) 1.78 x 10-1
87. What is the pH of a 0.25 M acetic acid if the Ka is 1.75 x 10 -5
c) 2.68
88. What is the pH of a solution that is 0.200 M NH3 and 0.300 M NH4Cl? Ka of NH4+ = 5.70 x 10-10
d) 9.07
89. At what volume of the titrant (in ml) will be used in the titration of 50.0 ml of 0.100 M acetic acid with 0.100 M NaOH so that the
pH will just be equal to pKa of the acid? Ka = 1.75 x 10-5?
c) 25.0
90. A carbonate mixture that consumes 25.00mL of NaOH at the phenolphthalein endpoint and an additional 10.00 mL of the same base at the
methyl orange end point contains
b) NaOH and Na2CO3
91. Which of the following methods is NOT used for the direct determination of halides?
a) Volhard
92. What do you call the organic complexing agents used to bind with the metal in order to form stable complexes, which then prevent it from
interfering with the metal under consideration?
Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 11 of 17
Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

a) Masking agent
93. Which of the following is TRUE about EDTA?
b) For metal ions detection it is necessary to adjust the
pH to neutral or basic condition
For Nos. 11-12. A 1.3174-g sample containing the chloride salts of magnesium, mercury (II), and zinc was dissolved in 250.0 mL solution. A
50.00 mL aliquot was treated with 10 mL of an NH3/NH4Cl buffer at pH 10 followed by 25.00 mL of 0.05331 M EDTA. After a few minutes of
mixing, the excess EDTA was back titrated with 11.43 mL of 0.01816 M MgCl 2. A second 50.00 mL was made basic and treated with excess
NaCN, complexing both the mercury and zinc. The magnesium in this sample required 16.31 mL of 0.005583M EDTA for titration. The solution
remaining at the end point of this titration was treated with excess formaldehyde, which reacts with the free CN - and with Zn(CN)42-:
O HO
-
-
CN + C H + H2O CH CH3 + HO

H NC
The liberated Zn+2 required 28.47 mL of the EDTA for titration.
94. What is the percentage of magnesium in the sample (MW Mg = 24.305)?
a) 0.8399
95. What is the percentage of mercury in the sample (MW Hg = 200.59)?
c) 67
96. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
b) The redox reaction is considered spontaneous when the cell potential is negative.

For Nos. 14-15. A 0.8720 g sample of a mixture consisting solely of sodium bromide and potassium bromide yields 1.505 g of silver bromide.
(Na=22.99; K=39.10; Br=79.90; Ag=107.87).
97. What is the weight of sodium bromide in the sample?
a) 0.5224 g
98. What is the percentage of potassium bromide in the sample?
c) 40.09
99. Which of the following would have a trigonal planar structure?
c) CH3+
100. CH3CH2OCH2CH3 and CH3(CH2)3OH are examples of ____________.
d) Constitutional isomers
101. Which of the following compound has the highest boiling point?
c) CH3(CH2)4OH
102. Cis-trans isomerism is possible only in the case of __________.
d) BrCH=CHBr
103. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
d) Stronger acids can have a negative pKa values.
104. The IUPAC name of the structure below is __________.

a) 3,4,6-Trimethyloctane
105. Catalytic hydrogenation of which of the following will yield isopentane?
a) CH3CH2C(CH3)=CH2 c) CH2=CHCH(CH3)2
b) CH3CH=C(CH3)2 d) All of the choices
106. Elimination reactions are favored over nucleophilic substitution reactions __________-.
a) at high temperature c) when tert-butoxide is used
b) when 3o alkyl halides are used as d) all of the choices
substrate
107. Markovnikov addition of HCl to propene involves __________________.
b) formation of an isopropyl cation
108. Which of the following reagent is NOT considered to be a reducing agent?
b) H2CrO4
109. A reaction of an aldehyde and a ketone to produce an α,β-unsaturated compound is termed as _____________.
c) Claisen-Schmidt
110. The carbon-carbon bonds in benzene are ____________.
c)
of equal length and are intermediate between a double bond and a
single bond
111. What general test can be applied to distinguish an aldehyde from a ketone?
c)
Tollens test
112. What is the correct name for the structure given below?
CH3 O

CH C CH2 CH2
H3C CH2 O CH CH3

CH3

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 12 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

c)
2-Methylbutyl 3-methylbutanoate
113. What test can be applied to an organic compounds having an amine group?
d) quinhydrone test
114. Adding solute to a solution decreases the ____________ of the solution.
d) freezing point and vapor pressure
115. After swimming in the ocean for several hours, swimmers noticed that their fingers appeared to be very wrinkled. This is an indication that
seawater is ___________ relative to the fluid in cells.
c) Hypertonic
116. An aqueous solution of a soluble compound (a nonelectrolyte) is prepared by dissolving 33.2 g of the compound in sufficient water to form
250 mL of solution. The solution has an osmotic pressure of 1.2 atm at 25°C. What is the molar mass (g/mL) of the compound?
c) 2.7 x 103
117. The atomic masses in the periodic table are not integral numbers. For example, carbon is listed as 12.01115 instead of 12.00000. Why?
c) Atomic masses listed in the periodic table are weighted
averages of naturally occurring isotopes.
118. The average atomic weight of copper, which has two naturally occurring isotopes, is 63.5. One of the isotopes has an atomic
weight of 62.9 amu and constitutes 69.1% of the copper isotopes. The other isotope has an abundance of 30.9%. What is the
atomic weight of the second isotope in amu?
d) 64.8
119. Which of the following is the least electronegative?
a) Li
120. A nitrogen oxide is 63.65% by mass nitrogen. What is the molecular formula of the oxide?
c) N2O

121. Calculate H for the reaction: NO  1 O

(g) 2 ( g )  NO2 ( g )
2
given the following:
N 2( g )  O2( g )  2 NO( g ) H  43.2 kcal
N 2( g )  2O2( g )  2 NO2( g ) H  16.2 kcal

a) -13.5 kcal
122. Which of the following is true for a basic solution?
b) [H3O+] < [OH-]
123. Which of the following is not part of the kinetic-molecular theory?
a) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed by ordinary
chemical reactions.
124. Which of the following gases will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature?
c) CH4
125. Five grams of CO and 5 grams of CO2 were placed in a 750-mL container at 50C. What is the total pressure of the container in atm?
a) 10.3
126. 4.22 g of CuS were mixed with excess HCl and the resulting H 2S was collected over water. What volume of H 2S was collected at 32C
when the atmospheric pressure was 749 torr? The vapour pressure of water at this temperature is 36 torr.
d) 1.18
127. In a gas mixture of He, Ne, and Ar with a total pressure of 8.40 atm, what is the mole fraction of Ar if the partial pressures of He and Ne are
1.50 and 2.00 atm, respectively?
d) 0.583
128. What is the density of N2O at 1.53 atm and 45.2C g?
d) 2.58

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

129. Gases behave ideally at

a) high temperature and low pressure
130. The parameter “b” in the Van der Waals equation pertains to
c) volume of the individual gas molecules
131. Which is NOT true for an isothermal reversible process?
d) Q = H
132. In the Joule-Thomson experiment gases expand at constant temperature producing a cooling effect. This expansion is made possible at
the expense of the ____ of the gas.
c) internal energy
133. Which does not hold true for an ideal gas?
d) H = H (S,V)

134. The quantum number that specifies the orientation of the electron in 3-dimensional space
b) magnetic quantum number
135. In the Carnot Cycle , the total entropy change after the four processes is

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 13 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

c) Zero
136. A pure alcohol boils at 79 oC at 1 atm. If you would want to know its boiling point at 5 atm, what relationship will help you ?
b) Clausius-Clapeyron equation
137. Which does not hold true for a system in equilibrium ?
d) S = 0
138. Liquid junction potential in electrochemical systems can be minimized by using
b) using salt bridges
139. Which statement is not correct with regard to heat and work?
a) All heat can be converted into work.
140. The type of work that corresponds to the deformation of system boundaries.
c) (PV) work
141. An ideal gas enters an expansion valve (also considered a throttle valve), which of the following relationships does not hold?
d) H2 = H1
142. Which of the following devices cannot be assumed to operate isobarically?
a) Pump
143. is the maximum work in Joules per mole for the expansion of 1 mol of a perfect gas from 10 -3 to 5x10-3 m3 at 25oC?
c) -3.986 x 103 J/mol

For Nos. 31 and 32. A 0.5 mol of a monoatomic gas ( = 1.66) fills a 1L container to a pressure of 2.02 MPa. It is allowed to expand
reversibly and adiabatically until a pressure of 1.01 MPa is reached.
144. What is the final volume (L)?
b) 1.52
145. What is the final temperature (K)?
b) 370.73

For Nos. 33 and 34. Five moles of an ideal monoatomic gas, with the specific heat at constant volume being 20.92 J/mol-K, expands
irreversibly but adiabatically from an initial pressure of 2.02 MPa against a constant external pressure of 0.101 MPa until t he temperature
drops from the initial value of 27C to a final value of 7C.
146. How much work (L-MPa) has been done in the process?
b) -20.63
147. What is the final volume (L)?
c) 210.41
148. A central power plant, rated at 800,000 kW, generates steam at 585K and discards heat to a river at 295K, if the thermal efficiency of the
plant is 70% of the maximum value, how much heat (kJ/s) is discarded to the river at the rated power?
a) 1.505 x 106
149. Which thermodynamic properties is most fundamentally responsible for the behavior of matter?
a) Entropy
150. The following are parameters that are important in the design of a chemical reactor. Which of these can be predicted using principles of
thermodynamics?
c) equilibrium constant
151. An isentropic process is one that is _____________.
b) adiabatic and reversible
152. It is the energy possessed by all substances in varying amounts according to the motion and special arrangement of the particles making
up the atoms and the molecules.
d) internal energy
153. Which of the following is most likely an endothermic process?
d) H2O(s)  H2O(l)
154. Which of the following is the most important characteristic of a heat sink?
b) infinite heat capacity
155. Saturated steam at 117oC undergoes adiabatic and reversible expansion to a final pressure of 1 atm. What is the quality of the expanded
steam?
b) 0.97
156. Saturated steam at 100oC undergoes expansion until the quality is reduced to 75%. What is the final enthalpy of the wet steam?
d) 2112 kJ/kg
157. The most efficient power cycle permitted by the second law of thermodynamics is the _______________.
b) Carnot cycle
158. What is the heat evolved in freezing water at -10oC given that
H2O(l)  H2O(s) Ho (273K) = -6004 J/mol
CP(H2O,l) = 75.3 J/K-mol
CP(H2O,s) = 36.8 J/K-mol
b) -5619 J/mole
159. The change in temperature in a certain process is 25 K. What is the corresponding change in oR?
a) 52.2 R
160. When 1 g-atom of pure iron is dissolved in dilute HCl at 18oC, the heat liberated is 87.03 kJ. Calculate the change in internal energy of the
system.
b) -89.44 Kj

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 14 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

161. A refrigerator operates in a cyclic and reversible manner between 0 and 27 oC. How much work must be done in freezing 1 L of water? The
heat of fusion of water is 334.73 J/g.
c) 33.10 kJ
162. What is the coefficient of performance of the refrigeration system described in the preceding item?
a) 10.11
163. Assuming that it is really possible to design a steam power plant on the basis of the Carnot cycle. What will be the major drawback or
problem that may be encountered when the system becomes operational?
c) The wet steam at the exhaust of turbine may cause corrosion
and wearing out of the machine.

ENVI, BIOENG, NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY

164. The pattern of flow of energy in a natural ecosystem is known as the _____________.
c) Food chain
165. Natural enhancement of nutrient enrichment that occurs over time in a body of water.
a) Eutrophication
166. Which of the following is not a cause of depletion of DO in bodies of water?
c) Photosynthesis of algae
167. The following procedures must be observed in BOD analysis, except ___________.
b)Samples must be kept at 50C
168. Group of highly toxic, man-made industrial chemicals used as coolants and lubricants in electrical transformers and other electrical
equipment.
b) PCB
169. The law that banned the use of ozone-depleting substances worldwide.
a) Montreal Protocol
170. Emitters of air pollutants that move from place to place while yielding emissions.
d) Mobile sources
171. Compounds that decomposes by photolysis thus attacking the ozone layer.
b) CFC
172. The implementing rules and regulations of RA 6969.
c) DAO 29
173. Aerobic decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms into a nutrient-rich, stable humus material.
c) Composting

(I) An organism that can grow using oxygen as electron acceptor and can also grow and can metabolize in the absence of oxygen is
called facultative.
(II) Yeasts are prokaryotes.
(III) A bacteriophage is a virus that infects bacteria.
174. Which of the above statement(s) is/ are TRUE?
d) I & III only
175. For an enzyme reaction obeying Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the horizontal part of a v versus [S] plot is indicative of
c) a zero-order reaction with respect to substrate.
176. The enzyme curease catalyzes the conversion of L-mendit to alpha-ketowhatsit. Assume that you have used the proper conditions and
have obtained the following data:
[L-mendit], mM 1.0 1.25 2.0 3.0 4.0 10
Velocity, μmole/min 0.025 0.03 0.042 0.056 0.067 0.10
From these data, what is the Km and Vmax for this enzyme and substrate?
a) Km = 5 mM; Vmax = 0.14 mM/min
177. If a Lineweaver-Burk double-reciprocal plot of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction yields a straight line, the intercept on the 1/[S] axis is:
c) -1/Km
178. Aerobic catabolism of organic compounds such as glucose may be considered in three different phases. The last phase would be
a) Electron transport chain reactions
179. In the microbial growth curve, the point where microbial cells are actively dividing is the
d) exponential phase
180. Microbial growth-associated products are produced simultaneously with microbial growth. The specific rate of product formation is
inversely proportional to the specific rate of growth, μ.
b) False
181. Which of these environmental factors influence microbial growth?
a) pH c) water potential
b) Oxygen d) all of the above
182. The following equations described the microbial kinetics EXCEPT
d) Hamiltonian equation
183. The term that refers to culturing of cells in a vessel with an initial charge of medium that is not altered by further nutrient addition or
removal.
c) batch growth
27
184. What is emitted in the nuclear transmutation, 13 Al n, ?1124 Na
Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 15 of 17
Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

a) an alpha particle
185. When atoms of Be-9 are bombarded with alpha particles, neutrons and a new isotope are formed. What is this type of nuclear reaction?
a) Transmutation
1. Which of the following functional groups represent a nitrile?
A. –CN
2. The property of carbon which makes it capable of forming bond/s with other carbon atoms:
A. catenation
3. U-235 and U-238 are
C. isotopes.
4. What is the oxidation number for chromium in the compound BaCrO 4?
D. +6
5. As the pressure of a gas decreases, the solubility of that gas in a liquid
C. always decreases.
6. The pH of a 0.001 M HCl solution is
C. 3
7. How many millilitres of 1 M NaOH solution will a 25 ml of 2 M H 2SO4 neutralize?
D. 100 ml
8. Which of the following occurs when NaCl is added to continuously heated boiling water?
B. The water momentarily stops boiling.
9. Water and SO3 combine to form sulfuric acid. How many grams of water must be added to 100g of 20% oleum (20% SO 3 and 80%
H2SO4) to produce a 95% solution (by weight) of sulfuric acid?
100 g
10. When a deliquescent substance is exposed to air, it
D. becomes moist.
11. A process is isentropic when it is
D. adiabatic and reversible.
12. A current of 0.075 A passes through a solution of silver nitrate for 10 minutes. How much silver is deposited?
C. 0.050 g
13. Six (6) grams of a substance are dissolved in 1000 g of water. The solution freezes at -0.16oC. What is the molecular weight of the
substance?
B. 70 g/mol
14. A mixture of ice and water is held at a constant temperature of 273 K. How many degrees of freedom does the mixture have?
B. 0
15. A brass alloy is 40% zinc and 60% copper by weight. What is the approximate mole fraction of zinc?
B. 39%
16. An amalgam is an alloy which contains
C. mercury.
17. A given sample of radioactive material has 80% of the original substance remaining after 10 years. How much will remain after 90
additional years?
B. 11%
18. There are 500 g of zinc sulphide in a load of zinc ore. The ZnS is roasted in excess air to form zinc oxide and sulphur dioxide. How many
grams of zinc can be subsequently recovered if 5% of the zinc is lost in the roasting process?
A. 320 g
19. Gas initially at 1 MPa and 150oC receives 7.2 MJ of work while 1.5 kW of heat are removed from the system. Calculate the internal energy
change for the system over a period of 1 hour..
B. 1.8 MJ
20. The generating function of all the intrinsic thermodynamic properties is the
D. Gibbs free energy.
21. The measure of the energy that is no longer available to perform useful work within the current environment is called
A. entropy.
22. The most efficient power cycle permitted by the second law of thermodynamics is the
C. Carnot cycle.
23. A Carnot refrigerator receives heat from a cold reservoir at 0 0C. The power input is 1750 W per ton of refrigeration. Find the system’s
COP?
D. 2.0
24. A ball is dropped onto a smooth floor. It deforms elastically, and then returns to its original shape as it rebounds to its original height. Air
friction is negligible. Which of the following statements best describes the thermodynamic change in the ball?
B. The entropy of the ball is unchanged.
25. What property of liquid makes it maintain a spherical shape as its droplet falls?
A. surface tension
26. An equilibrium mixture of saturated steam and saturated liquid water at 55 oF has an enthalpy of 639.3 Btu/lb. What is the fraction of steam
in the mixture?
A. 0.58
27. Two phases are in equilibrium; which of the following properties should be the same in both phases?
A. temperature C. molar Gibbs free energy

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 16 of 17

Electrochemistry
 CHHK 511F Exam No. 2 (set A)
Analytical Chemistry, Physical Chemistry
4th Quarter AY 2004-2005
D
Project Deuterium

B. pressure D. all of these

28. Which of the following is not a state function?
B. W
29. For a certain ideal gas, CV = 3R/2. If 1 mole of this gas undergoes an adiabatic reversible expansion from STP to a volume of 40.0 L, what
is the final temperature?
A. 185 K
30. Which of the following is true for ideal gas?
A. CP = CV + R C. PV = nRT
B. Joule-Thompson coefficient = 0 D. all of these

Oxidation – Reduction Titration Page 17 of 17

Electrochemistry