2.

4 Sampling and Sample Preparation

1. Samplingtype that eliminates questions of bias in selection

a. composite c. systematic
b. stratified d. random
2. When aqueous and nonaqueous liquids are combined, they usually form an immiscible mixture,
such as oil and water.A________ helps in separating the liquids into two samples.
a. pipet c. separatory funnel
b. beaker d. rotary evaporator
3. Mixtures of liquids and solids are usually separated prior analysis by
a. filtering
b.decanting
c. centrifuging
d. All of the above
4. Pre-treatment of solid samples prior analysis.
a. Leaching and extraction of soluble components
b. Filtering of mixtures of solids, liquids and gases to leave particulate (solid) matter
c. Grinding
d. All of the above
5. In the decomposition and dissolution of solids during sample preparation, which of the following is
expensive and often the last resort?
a. Acid treatment using oxidation c. Dissolution using ultrasound&appropriate solvent
b. Fusion technique d. Simple dissolution
6. Reliability of the results decreases with a decrease in the level or concentration of the:
a. matrix c. reactant
b. analyte d. product
7. Properties of nitric acid making it the preferred acid for digesting samples for the analysis of
metals
a. acts as a strong acid
b. as an oxidizing agent
c. does not form insoluble compounds with metals/nonmetals
d. All of the above

8. Primary sample preparation method for organics

a. Sonication
b. Acid-digestion
c. Extraction
d. All of the above

9. Possible sources of contamination during sample preparation include:

a. Reagents (tracers)
b. Glassware/equipment
c. Cross-contamination between high- and low-activity samples
d. All of the above
10. Containers that should not be used for dry ashing because the elevated temperatures
exceed the melting point of these materials
a. zirconium
b. platinum
c.Glass and plastic
d. porcelain

11. The size of the sample taken for analysis depends on the concentration of the
a. analyte
b. equipment to be used
c. specific tests
d. All of the above

12. Equipment commonly used to homogenize the contents of an open beaker.

a. Magnetic stirrer
bV-blenders
c. Ball and rod mills
d. tube rotator

13. The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to determination of
metals is
a. 3 months c. 6 months
b. 1 week d. 48 hours

14. A fraction of the sample actually used in the final laboratory analysis.
a. composite sample c. laboratory sample
b. sub-sample d. a, b and c

15. A change in the analytical signal caused by anything in the sample other than analyte.
a. matrix effect c. absorbance
b. interference d. transmittance

16. Medium containing analyte.

a. reactant
b. matrix
c. solute
d. reference material

17. The total error of an analytical result is the sum of

a. sampling
b. sample preparation
c. analytical errors
d. All of the above
18. The holding time for samples for metal determination preserved using nitric acid, 4 mL of dilute
3:1 is
a. 28 days c. 3 days
b. 2 weeks d. 1 year
19. When samples cannot be dried because they decompose at the temperatures necessary to drive off the
water, the samples can be analyzed as
a. wet basis
b. dry basis
c. received basis
d. All of the above
20. Organic components in solid samples are extracted from the matrix by continuously washing
the solid with a volatile solvent in a specialized piece of glassware
a. Soxhlet extraction
b. Ultrasonic extraction
c. Filtration
d. Rotary evaporation
21. In liquid-liquid extraction, it is often necessary to determine which liquid is aqueous and which
liquid is nonaqueous.To test the liquids, add a drop of water to the top layer. If the drop dissolves
in the top layer, the top layer is
a. nonaqueous
b. aqueous
c. miscible
d. denser
22. It is important to discard containers that are scratched or abraded on their interior surfaces.The
internal surface area of a container, whether used for sample preparation or storage, may cause
loss of
a. matrix
b.analyte
c. weight
d. ash
23. Process by which a sample population is reduced in size to an amount of homogeneous material
that can be conveniently handled in the lab in which the composition is representative of the
population.
a. selection
b. monitoring
c. sampling
d. segregation
24. As a general rule, the error in sampling and the sample preparation portion of an analytical
procedure is considerably higher than that in the
a. methodology
btreatment
c. preservation
d. subsampling
25. Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example of
a. random sampling
b.selective sampling
c. composite sampling
d. stratified sampling
26. Homogenization during sample preparation can be achieved using mechanical devices (e.g.,
grinders, mixers, slicers, blenders), enzymatic methods (e.g., proteases, cellulases, lipases) or
chemical methods (e.g., strong acids, strong bases, detergents).
a. mechanical devices (mixers, blenders, etc.)
b enzymatic methods
c. chemical methods
d. All of the above
27. Glass container is not suitable for
a. inorganic trace analyses
b.oil and grease determination
c. microbiological analyses
d. all of the above
27. To increase/decrease analyte concentration, pre-concentration is needed for almost all trace
analysis, ________ is used for the analysis of highly contaminated samples so the concentration
falls within the calibration range.
a. centrifugation
b.separation
c. dilution
d. none of the above
28. Chemical derivatization is used to increase or decrease volatility for _________ analysis
a. AAS
b.GC and HPLC
c. PCR
d. none of the above
28. Acid digestion via hot-plate digestion or microwave-assisted is one way of sample preparation
in the analysis of
a. Total metal
b.Bioactive compounds
c. Alcohols
d. Sugars
29. GFAA (Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption) do not use HCl since Cl- interferes. Diluted
______ acid is used.
a. Phosphoric Acid
b.Acetic acid
c. Nitric Acid
d. Sulfuric Acid
30. Partitioning of analytes between water phase and organic phase
a. Liquid-liquid extraction
b.Soli phase extraction
c. Ultrasonic extraction
d. Pressured Fluid Extraction (PFE)

2.5 Preparation of Reagents and Chemical Analysis

1. Calculate the equivalent weight and normality for a solution of 6.0 M H3PO4 given the following
reactions:
(a) H3PO4(aq) + 3OH–(aq) PO43–(aq) + 3H2O(l)
(b) H3PO4(aq) + 2NH3(aq) HPO42–(aq) + 2NH4+(aq)
(c) H3PO4(aq) + F–(aq) H2PO4–(aq) + HF(aq)

a. (a) 18 N, (b) 12 N and (c) 6N

b. (a) 12 N, (b) 18 N and (c) 6N
c. (a) 6 N, (b) 12 N and (c) 18N
d. (a) 16 N, (b) 12 N and (c) 3N
2. What is the molality of solution made by dissolve 25 g of NaCl in to 2.0 Liter of water. Assume
the density of water d = 1.0 g/mL (= kg/L).
a. 0.210 m
b. 0.250 m
c. 0.211 m
d. 0.214 m
3. The amounts of all constituents in the samples were determined
a. Complete (or ultimate) analysis
b.Partial analysis
c. Elemental analysis
d. All of the above
4. Implies that the constituent determined was present in high concentration
a. Trace analysis
b.Macro analysis
c. Elemental analysis
d. All of the above
5. Quantitative chemicall analysis of weighing a sample, usually of a separated and dried precipitate.
a. Titrimetric analysis
b.Volumetric analysis
c. Gravimetric analysis
d. Elemental analysis
6. A chemical grade of highest purity and meets or exceeds purity standards set by American
Chemical Society
a. Technical grade
b.Laboratory grade
c. Pure or practical grade
d. ACS grade
7. Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?
a. Ammonium hydroxide
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Acetic acid
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

8. How would you prepare 500.0 mL of 0.2500 M NaOH solution starting from a concentration of
1.000 M?
a. Transfer 125 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL.
b.Transfer 121 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL.
c. Transfer 122 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL.
d. Transfer 112 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL.

9. A student performs five titrations and obtains a mean result of 0.110 M, with a standard
deviation of 0.001 M. If the actual concentration of the titrated solution is 0.100 M, which of the
following is true about the titration results?
a. Accurate but not precise
b. Precise but not accurate
c. Both accurate and precise
d. Neither accurate nor precise
10. How many grams of Sodium Persulfate (Na2S2O8) required to prepare a 1 L solution of Sodium
Persulfate with concentration of 10% (w/v). This solution is widely used as oxidizing reagent for
Total Organic Carbon analyzer (TOC).
a. 100 g of Sodium Persulfate
b. 101 g of Sodium Persulfate
c. 102 g of Sodium Persulfate
d. 99 g of Sodium Persulfate

11. A solution has been prepared by transfer 60 mL from Ortho-phosphoric acid 85 % (v/v) H3PO4
and dilute to 1.0 L, what is the concentration of the new solution.
a. 10.10%
b.9.25%
c. 12.2%
d. 5.10%

12. A student has got three stock standard solutions of 3 different elements, zinc (Zn) 2000 ppm,
cadmium (Cd) 1500 ppm and lead (Pb) 1000 ppm. A student took 10 mL from each solution
and transfers it to 200 mL volumetric flask then completed to total volume with solvent. What
is the final concentration of each element in the diluted mix solution?
a. 50 ppm Zinc, 32 ppm Cd, 25 ppm Pb
b.100 ppm Zinc, 75 ppm Cd, 50 ppm Pb
c. 75 ppm Zinc, 75 ppm Cd, 50 ppm Pb
d. 100 ppm Zinc, 25 ppm Cd, 25 ppm Pb

13. Bidirectional harpoons or double arrows (⇆) should be used to indicate ________ reactions
a. one sided
b. resonance
c. dynamic
d. reversible

14. In the preparation of 1 liter of 1.0 N acid from 35% Hydrochloric Acid, what weight of the impure
acid should be taken, assuming standardization in the recommended manner?

Given : Normality (N1)=1.0 eq. wt./li HCl

% purity = 35 %
Volume = 1 liter
Required: weight (wt) of impure acid (HCl)

Solution: wt = [(1 eq.wt. HCl/li x 1 liter x 1mole/1 eq. wt. HCl x 36.45 g HCl/mole)] / 0.35
wt =101.29

a. 101.29
b.113.29
c. 111.29
d. 124.89

15. A few ways in which solution composition can be described are as follows.
a.Molarity
b. Normality
c. Molality
d. All of the above
16. The substance which does the dissolving and must be greater than 50% of the solution.
a. solvent
b.solute
c. mixture
d. solution

17. Naphthalene (C10H8) is one of aromatic hydrocarbons measured by GC-MS. If molecular weight of
naphthalene is 128.6 g/mol; how many milligrams are required to prepare 100 mL of 2,000 ppb stock
standard solution of naphthalene from powder Naphthalene (purity of 91.5 % w/w)?
a. 2.18
b.2.1858
c. 2.186
d. 2.1859

18. Used to measure volumes approximately, typically with errors of several percent except for one.
a. Beakers
b.pipettes
c. reagent bottles
d.graduated cylinders

19. Nitrate (NO3-) anion solution prepared by dissolving 3.0 g of KNO3 in 250 mL of water. What
is the concentration of Nitrate ion, express the concentration in Molarity and ppm.
a. 0.1187 M, 7359.05 ppm
b.0.1190 M, 7349.05 ppm
c. 0.1107 M, 7459.00 ppm
d. 0.1120 M, 7400.00 ppm

20. The number of formula mass of any solute dissolved in 1 liter of solution
a. formality
b.normality
c. molality
d. molarity

21. A 0.217 g sample of HgO (molar mass = 217 g) reacts with excess iodide ions according to
the reaction. Titration of the resulting solution requires how many mL of 0.10 M HCl to reach
equivalence point? HgO + 4 I− + H2O →HgI4 2- + 2 OH−
a. 1.0 mL
b. 10 mL
c. 20 mL
d. 50 mL

22. If the theoretical yield for a reaction was 156 grams and I actually made 122 grams of the
product, what is my percent yield?
a. 78.2%
b. 128%
c. 19.0%
d. none of these
23. The method of standardization can be used if a _______________ reacts quantitatively with the
reagent needed in the standard solution.
a. primary standard
b.secondary standard
c. working standards
d. intermediate solution

24. You have a stock solution of 15.8 M HNO3. How many mL of this solution should you dilute
using only a graduated pipette to make 100.0 mL of .250 M HNO3?
a. 1.58
b. 1.582
c. 1.50
d. 1.583

26. If 56.0 g of Li reacts with 56.0 g of N2, 93.63 grams of Li3N can beproduced. How many grams
of Nitrogen remains? What is the limiting reactant?
a. 19.3 g; Nitrogen
b. 18.3 g N; Lithium
c. 20.3 g N; none
d. 18.39 g; Lithium

27. HCl cannot be considered to be a primary standard because of its gaseous form at room
temperature, but its solutions may be standardized against anhydrous ______.
a. NaSO4
b.NaHCO3
c. Na2CO3
d. All of the above

28. When making a solution from a solid reagent, if necessary, dry the solid reagent on a clean, oven
dried, watch glass at 105 ºC for 2 hours and cool it in a desiccator.
a. 121 ºC
b.105 ºC
c. 80 ºC
d. 118 ºC

29. Requirements of a primary standards.

a. High Purity, 99.9% or better
b. Stability in air
c. Absence of hydrate water
d. All of the above

30. Blank samples are prepared so that you have a measure of the amount that needs always to be
added to or subtracted from the end point to achieve the ________point.
a. titration error
b. equivalence
c. accuracy
d. precision
31. Property which depends on the number of particles dissolved in a given mass of solvent.
a. vapor pressure lowering
b. boiling point elevation
c. freezing point depression
d. all of the above

32. Boiling occur if the vapor pressure of the liquid is less than the atmospheric pressure.
a. True
b. False
c. not all the time
d. Always

33. What is the relationship between the temperature and the solubility of a solid in a liquid?
a. directly proportional
b. inversely proportional
c. no relationship
d. geometric

34. What is boiling point elevation?

a. it is the difference between the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution
b. it is the sum of the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution
c. it is the difference between the boiling points of a pure solute and a pure solvent
d. it is the boiling point of a solution

35. A membrane that allows the passage of solvent molecules through but not solute molecules is
called
a. animal membrane
b. semipermeable membrane
c. permeable membrane
d. plant membrane

36. The excess pressure required to stop the flow and keep the solution in equilibrium with the pure
solvent is
a. partial pressure
b. vapor pressure
c. osmotic pressure
d. atmospheric pressure

37. The separation of a mixture of substances into pure components on the basis of their differing
solubilities is
a. fractional distillation
b. vacuum crystallization
c. vacuum distillation
d. fractional crystallization

38. Which has a lower freezing point?

a. water
b. NaCl
c. NaCl solution
d. all of the above
39. The reactant which is present in the smallest stoichiometric amount and which limits the amount
of product that can be formed in a reaction is
a. the limiting reagent
b. the reagent with the least number of grams
c. the excess reagent
d. the reagent with the most number of grams

40. Which of the following hastens the rate of solution?

a. pulverization
b. scratching the sides of the container
c. seeding
d. cooling

41. A polar solute usually dissolves in a polar solvent and a nonpolar solute usually
dissolves in a nonpolar solvent. This is
a. thesolubility rule
b. the“like dissolves like” rule
c. Henry’s law
d. Hund’s rule

42. A solution is _______ if more solute can dissolve in it.

a. saturated
b. supersaturated
c. unsaturated
d. concentrated

43. The maximum amount of solute that will dissolve in a definite amount of solvent to produce a
stable system at a specified temperature is called
a. dilution
b. solubility
c. saturation
d. concentration

44. The normality of a solution is always _______ the molarity.

a. greater than or equal to
b. greater than
c. less than or equal to
d. less than

45. Which of the following concentration units is independent of temperature?

a. molarity
b. normality
c. molality
d. percent volume

46. A solution contains 34.0% by mass HClO4 (100.45). It has a density of 1.242 g/ml. The molarity of
the solution is
a. 5.13
b. 4.20
c. 8.40
d. 0.916
47. The normality of the solution is
a. 5.13
b. 4.20
c. 8.40
d. 0.916

48. The molality of the solution is

a. 5.13
b. 4.20
c. 8.40
d. 0.0845

49. The mole fraction of the solute is

a. 0.338
b. 3.67
c. 0.916
d. 0.0845

50. The mole fraction of the solvent is

a. 0.338
b. 3.67
c. 0.916
d. 0.0845

The recommended procedure for preparing a very dilute solution is not to weigh out a very small mass or
measuring a very small volume of a stock solution. Instead it is done by a series of dilutions. A sample of
0.8214 g of KMnO4 (158.04) was dissolved in water and made up to the volume in a 500-ml volumetric
flask. A 2.000-ml sample of this solution was transferred to a 1000-ml volumetric flask and diluted to the
mark with water. Next, 10.00 ml of the diluted solution were transferred to a 250-ml flask and diluted to
the mark with water.

21. What is the concentration (in molarity) of the final solution?

a. 0.1039 M
b. 2.079 x 10‒5 M
c. 8.316 x 10‒7 M
d. none of the above

22. Calculate the mass of KMnO4 needed to directly prepare the final solution
a. 3.28 x 10‒5 g
b. 6.57 x 10‒5 g
c. 0.4107 g
d. 0.2054 g

2.3 Qualify Laboratory Equipment/Apparatus/Glasswares

1. Which is not a volumetric glassware?

a. beaker
b. burette
c. pippette
d. volumetric flask
2. Ambient laboratory conditions arenot the same to standard conditions, therefore thevolumes
dispensed involumetric glassware are often not the same as the manufacturer's specifications, but
within some acceptable limits determined by the manufacturer. Thisslight variation in volume
will cause a_________ error that arebased on volume-volume or mass-volume concentrations.
a. random
b. systematic
c. gross
d. all of the above

3. Glass cuvettes are typically for use in the wavelength range of visible light, whereas fused quartz
tends to be used for ____________ applications.
a. microwave
b. IR
c. uv/visible
d. none of the above

4. In this column type, the retention is governed by the interaction of the polar parts of the stationary
phase and solute.
a. reverse phase
b. ion exchange
c. column guard
d. normal phase

5. A stable light source in AAS analysis, which is necessary to emit the sharp characteristic spectrum
of the element to be determined
a. Tungsten lamp
b. hollow cathode lamp
c. deuterium lamp
d. Nerst blower

6. The HPLC column type in which molecules are separated according to size.
a. Ion exchange
b. size exclusion
c. normal phase
d. reverse phase

7. Non Polar Reverse phase and C8 (octyl bonded silica) are commonly used for hydrophobic
Analytes in solid phase extraction. An example is
a. C18 (octadecyl bonded silica)
b. Resins
c. Florisil
d. alumina

8. Filters that can be heated and used in gravimetric analysis.

a. ordinary filter paper
b. GFF
c. Sintered glass fibers
d. none of the above
9. Objects cannot be weighed when hot or warm. But if you were to take a sample out and wait for
itto cool it would pick up moisture like that so put it in ________.
a. an oven
b. a dessicator
c. at room temperature
d. fumehood

10. Weighing to constant weight means a weighing difference of ±0.1mg using a calibrated
analytical balance.
a. ±1.0 mg
b. ±0.01g
c. ±0.01mg
d. ±0.1mg

11. The following are common desiccants except for _______

a. Calcium Sulfate
b. Ammonium Acetate
c. Calcium Chloride
d. Magnesium Oxide

12. During ignition for ashing, muffle furnaces that go up to 1100oC are used primarily for this and
________ is needed to contain the sample.
a. porcelain crucible
b. evaporating dish
c. beaker
d. all of the above

13. In making standard solutions, ______ are used for measuring liquid with high accuracy.
a. beakers
b. volumetric flasks
c. Erlenmeyer flasks
d. Nesslers Tubes

14. Used for distillation or heating of liquids, allows uniform heating.

a. round bottom flask
b. Erlenmeyer flask
c. test tube
d. Florence flask
15. Most popular burettes are 10 mL, 25 mL and 50 mL types. Which has the highest resolution?
a. 25 mL
b. 10 mL
c. 50 mL
d. All of the above

16. Used for vacuum filtration using filter paper.

a. gooch crucible
b. Buchner funnel
c. rotary evaporator
d. rubber aspirator
17. In chromatography, ________ is carried out on glass plates or strips of plastic or metal coated
on one side with a thin layer of adsorbent.
a. HPLC
b. GC
c. Paper Chromatography
d. Thin Layer Chromatography

18. The nominal volume of water (or mercury) contained, or delivered by an article of volumetric
glassware, at its reference temperature.
a. capacity
b.liter
c. mL
d. Ul

19. In verification of laboratory glassware, ________ is usually measured in terms of the tolerance,
which is the uncertainty in a measurement made with the glassware. Class A volumetric
glassware has a lower tolerance than Class B.
a. mean
b. accuracy
c. difference
d. precision

20. Glass apparatus that are generally received with calibration certificates from suppliers.
a. Class B
b.Class A
c. Erlenmeyer flasks
d. Beakers

2.6 Instrumental Analyses

1. All proteins absorb electromagnetic radiation of wavelength around 190 nm, which corresponds
to a excitation in the protein molecule. In which region of the spectrum is this wavelength found?
a. X-ray
b. ultraviolet
c. Visible
d. Infrared

2. Chromatography is used to
a. Separate two or more compounds based on their polarities.
b. Separate two or more compounds based on their masses.
c. Separate two or more compounds based on how strongly they interact with other compounds.
d) all of the above.

3. A food scientist has a sample of a plantoil and wants to determine if the oil contains saturated or
unsaturated fatty acids. Which of the following spectroscopic techniques would be most
useful for this purpose?
a.ultraviolet spectroscopy
b.visible spectroscopy
c.infrared spectroscopy
d.mass spectroscopy
4. The concentration at which the calibration curve departs from linearity by a specified amount.
a. Limit of Blank
b. Dynamic Range
c. Limit of Linearity
d. Limit of quantitation

5. A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte.

a. Calibration curve
b. Quality Control Chart
c. Absorbance Chart
d. None of the above

6. What is the path of light through a spectrophotometer?

a. meter, photodetector, filter, sample, light source
b. meter, filter sample, photodetector, light source
c. light source, filter, sample, photodetector, meter
d. light source, sample, filter, photodetector, meter

7. With a “standard” sample with a known absorbance and concentration and a measured absorbance, it is
easy to determine an unknown concentration of †the same substance by.
a. Beer’s Law
b. Beer and Lambert’s Law
c. Law of mass conservation
d. none of the above

8. The highest apparent analyte concentration expected to be found when replicates of a blank sample
containing no analyte are tested..
a. Limit of Detection
b. Limit of Blank
c. Limit of Linearity
d. Limit of Quantitation

9. Motion of the mobile phase through the stationary phase.

a. Elution
b. Retention time
c. Eluent
d. Elution time

10. A phase which sample is dissolved in may be gas, liquid, or supercritical fluid
a. stationary phase
b. reverse phase
c. normal phase
d. mobile phase

11. In spectrophotometric methods, the_________ isolates the specific spectrum line emitted by
the light source through spectral dispersion.
a. monochromator
b. prism
c. sample compartment
d. detector
12. In AAS method, If the sample concentration is too high to permit accurate analysis in linearity
response range, there are alternatives that may help bring the absorbance into the optimum
working range.
a. sample dilution
b. using an alternative wavelength having a lower absorptivity
c. reducing the path length by rotating the burner hand
d. All of the above

13. A technique for separating mixtures into their components in order to analyze, identify, purify, and/or
quantify the mixture or components.
a. Spectrocopy
b.Chromatography
c. Gravimetry
d. Titrimetry

14. A “modified” stationary phase where polar solutes run fast i.e. reverse order.
a. Normal phase
b.Reverse phase
c. mobile phase
d. none of the above

15. A graph showing the detectors response as a function of elution time : band’s shapes, position,
resolution
a. monitor display
b. quality control chart
c. calibration curve
d. chromatogram

16. The pH meter glass probe has two electrodes, one is a glass sensor electrode and the
other is a _______electrode.
a. reference
b. anode
c. cathode
d. none of the above

17. Conductivity could be determined using the distance between the electrodes and their surface area
using Ohm's law but, for accuracy, a calibration is employed using ____of well-known conductivity.
a. acid solution
b. basic solution
c. electrolytes
d. buffer solution

18. The electrical conductivity of water is directlyrelated to the concentration of dissolved ionized
solids in the water or
a. Total Suspended Solids
b.Total Dissolved Solids
c. Volatile Solids
d. Total Solids
19. At 510 nm, the iron orthophenanthroline complex has a molar absorptivity of 1.2 x 104. What
is the concentration of iron (in ppm) in a solution which gives an absorbance of 0.002 in a 1.00-
cm path length cell?
a. 7.3 x 10-3 ppm
b. 8.3 x 10-3 ppm
c. 9.3 x 10-3 ppm
d. 6.3x 10-3 ppm
20. The light source used in the visible range to 340-1000 nm.
a.deuterium
b. nerst blower
c. tungsten
d.incandescent

21. The % T of a solution in a 2.00 cm cell is 50. Calculate the %T of this solution in a 1.0 cm cell
path length.
a. 71
b. 19
c. 27
d. 20
22. An air sampling canister was evacuated by the local fire dep’t and brought to the environmental lab
for analysis. It was said that the sample was taken very near the site where a rusty 55-gal drum was found
by some children. A reported unpleasant smell near the site was reported. Results of gravimetric analysis
of the gas in the canister:C – 40%, H- 6.7% , O – 53.33%. What is the liquid in the drum?
a. CH2O
b. CH3OH
c. CH3CH2O
d. none of the above

23. The light source used in the visible range to 340-1000 nm.
a.deuterium
b. nerst blower
c. tungsten
d.incandescent

24. A student has to measure out 9.40 mL ofa liquid and selects a 100 mL graduatedcylinder. To improve
the accuracy ofthe measurement, it would be mos effective to:
a. take the average of multiplemeasurements using the graduatedcylinder.
b.measure the liquid using a 25 mLgraduated cylinder instead.
c.estimate the measurement obtainedfrom the graduated cylinder to anadditional significant figure.
d.measure the liquid using a 10 mLgraduated pipette instead.

ACIDS AND BASES

1. Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, a base is

A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. a hydroxide donor
D. an electron pair donor
2. Under the Lewis concept of acids and bases, an acid is
A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. An electron pair donor
D. an electron pair acceptor

3. Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, an acid is

A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. an electron pair donor
D. an electron pair acceptor

4. Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?

A. HCN and CN−
B. H2O and OH−
C. H2S and OH−
D. NH3 and NH4+

5. Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction:HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) →

A. H3O+(aq) + OH−
B. Na+(aq) + Cl−(aq)
C. NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
D. no reaction takes place

6. Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction: NH3(aq) + HNO3(aq) →

A. NH2OH(aq) + HNO2(aq)
B. NH4NO3(aq)
C. NH4OH(aq)
D. no reaction takes place

7. What effect will addition of excess of HCl have on the pH of a solution of NH3?
A. increase the pH
B. decrease the pH
C. no effect
D. cannot tell from information given

8. What effect will addition of sodium acetate have on the pH of a solution of acetic acid?
A. increase the pH
B. decrease the pH
C. no effect
D. cannot tell from information given

9. A solution that causes only a relatively small change in pH upon addition of small amounts of acids and bases is
A. saturated
B. a salt
C. a buffer
D. unsaturated
10. Which of the following is buffer?
A. NaCl/NH4Cl
B. NH3/NH4Cl
C. NH3/CH3COOH
D. CH3COOH/NaOH

11. A buffer solution may be a mixture of

A. a weak acid and its salt
B. a weak base and its salt
C. an excess of a weak acid with a strong base
D. all of the above

12. The conjugate base of acetic acid is

A. HCOOH
B. NH3
C. CH3COO−
D. OH−

13. The conjugate acid of ammonia is

A. H3O+
B. NH4+
C. HCOOH
D. OH−

14. Effect produced by an ion, say from a salt, which is the same ion produced by the dissociation of a weak acid or
base is called
A. colloidal effect
B. precipitation effect
C. common ion effect
D. ligand effect

15. A principle stating that if stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium is shifted in the
direction that tends to reduce the stress.
A. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
B. Le Chatelier’s Principle
C. Hund’s Rule
D. Debye-Huckel Principle

16. Water cannot function as which one of the following?

A. a Bronsted acid
B. a Bronsted base
C. a Lewis acid
D. a Lewis base
17. Given the following reaction: HCN(aq) + NH3(aq) ⇄ NH4+(aq) + CN−(aq)
The Bronsted acid on the left is
A. HCN B. NH3

18. And its conjugate base is

A. NH4+ B. CN−

19. The ammonium ion would be classified as a Bronsted

A. acid B. base
20. HCOOK is a/an
A. acid
B. base
C. salt
D. oxide

21. When a strong acid is titrated with a weak base, the pH at the equivalence point is
A. basic
B. acidic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

22. When a strong acid is titrated with a strong base, the pH at the equivalence point is
A. basic
B. acidic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

24. When NH4Cl hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is

A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

25. We have a 5.43 x 10−4 M solution of HNO3 at 25oC. What is the [OH−] in this solution?
A. 1.84 x 10−11 M
B. 5.43 x 10−10 M
C. 5.43 x 10−4 M
D. 3.67 x 10−6 M
26. What is the pH of a 5.82 x 10−3 M solution of NaOH at 25oC?
A. 4.76
B. 11.76
C. 7.00
D. 2.45

27. The pH of a 0.20 M NH3 solution is Kb (NH3) = 1.8 x 10‒5

A. 0.70
B. 2.73
C. 11.28
D. 6.99

28. The pH of a solution is 6.38. The hydrogen ion concentration is

A. 4.17 x 10−7 M
B. 4.17 x 10−6 M
C. 6.38 x 10−6 M
D. 0.638 M
29. What is the [H3O+] of a 0.100 M solution of HCN at 25oC? Ka (HCN) = 4.0 x 10−10
A. 1.58 x 10−8 M
B. 2.00 x 10−5 M
C. 6.32 x 10−6 M
D. 4.00 x 10−11 M
30. A 0.200 M solution of an acid, HA, has a pH of 2.70 at 25oC. What is Ka for this acid?
A. 2.21 x 10−4
B. 4.55 x 10−6
C. 1.99 x 10−4
D. 2.00 x 10−5

31. What is the pH of a 0.52 M solution of CH3COONa at 25oC? Ka (CH3COOH) = 1.76 x 10−5
A. 9.23
B. 4.77
C. 9.37
D. 10.21

32. Acids and BasesWhich statement is true?

a. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst
b. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates
c. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction.
d. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions

33. The lining of the stomach contains cells that secrete a solution of HCl. Which drink would best
alleviate heartburn (excess acid in the stomach)?
a. milk, pH = 6.5
b. wine, pH = 3.8
c. diet soda, pH = 4.3
d. milk of magnesia, pH = 10.5

34. Which species are acting as Bronsted acids in the reaction below?
HSO4− (aq) + H2O(l) ⇄ H3O+ (aq) + SO4−2(aq)
a. H2O
b. H2O and H3O+
c. H2O and SO4−2
d. HSO4− and H3O+

35. Which equation correctly describes the relationship between Kb and Ka for a conjugate acid/base pair?
a. Kb = KwKa
b. Kb = Ka / Kw
c. Kb = Kw / Ka
d. Kb = Ka + Kw

GASES

1. The following are observed characteristics of gases except for

a. gases can be compressed by application of pressure
b. gases diffuse and spontaneously mix with each other
c. pressure exerted by a gas decreases with increase in temperature
d. there is negligible attraction between particles of an ideal gas
2. The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is
a. 1 atm
b. 760 mm Hg
c. 760 torr
d. all of the above

3. As altitude increases, air becomes less dense and

a. pressure increases
b. pressure decreases
c. pressure remains the same
d. none of the above

4. Raising the temperature of an enclosed gas

a. slows down the kinetic energy of the gas molecules
b. decreases the momentum of the gas molecules
c. forces the gas particles to collide with the walls harder
d. decreases the volume of the gas

5. At constant temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of a gas varies

a. inversely as its density
b. directly as its molecular mass
c. directly as the square root of its density
d. inversely as the square of its molecular mass

6. What are the standard temperature and pressure (STP) conditions for gas law problems?
a. 760 atm, 00C
b. 1 mm Hg, 2730C
c. 760 mmHg, 273 K
d. 760 atm, 0 K

7. If the temperature of a confined gas is doubled, while the volume is held constant, what will happen to
the pressure?
a. it will be doubled
b. it will be half as large
c. it will be four times as large
d. cannot be determined

8. What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day?
a. its volume decreases
b. it remains the same
c. its volume increases
d. its volume becomes equal to zero
9. The process by which a gas under pressure escapes from a compartment of a container to another by
passing through a small opening is called
a. effervescence
b. effusion
c. diffusion
d. sublimation
10. As a bubble of air rises from a diver’s helmet to the surface of the water, it continuously expands.
What law is illustrated?
a. Dalton’s law
b. Avogadro’s law
c. Boyle’s law
d. Charles’ law

11. A gas is in a steel tank at 100 atm pressure. When the tank is opened to the atmosphere, the gas
suddenly expands, increasing its volume by 10%. This illustrates
a. Dalton’s law
b. Boyle’s law
c. Charles’ law
d. Gay-Lussac’s law

12. Water boils at a lower temperature such as on top of a mountain than at sea level. This illustrates
a. Boyle’s law
b. Charles’ law
c. Graham’s law
d. Avogadro’s law

13. What volume is occupied by 4.00 g of carbon dioxide, CO2 (44.0) gas at a pressure of
0.976 atm and a temperature of 25.0 0C?
a. 0.191 L
b. 19.1 L
c. 2.28 L
d. 22.8 L

14. What is the molar mass of an unknown gas if 1.60 grams of that gas occupies a volume of
2.24 L at STP?
a. 16.0 g/mol
b. 35.8 g/mol
c. 81.0 g/mol
d. 160 g/mol

15. The volume of a certain gas sample is 235 ml when collected over water at a temperature of 25 0C and
a pressure of 698 mm Hg. What will be the volume of this gas when measured dry at standard
conditions? The vapor pressure of water at this temperature is 23.8 mm Hg.
a. 197 ml
b. 191 ml
c. 223 ml
d. 265 ml
16. The depletion of ozone, O3, in the stratosphere has been a matter of great concern among scientists in
recent years. It is believed that ozone can react with nitric oxide, NO, that is discharged from high-altitude
jet plane, the SST. The reaction is
O3 + NO → O2 + NO2
If 0.740 g of O3 reacts with 0.670 g of NO, how many grams of NO2 would be produced?
( O, 16.0; N, 14.0)
a. 0.0708 g
b. 0.1026 g
c. 0.708 g
d. 1.026 g
17. What is the limiting reagent in problem #16?
a. O3
b. O2
c. NO
d. NO2

18. What is the number of moles of the excess reagent remaining at the end of the reaction in problem
#16?
a. 0.0690
b. 0.690
c. 0.00069
d. 0.0069

19. Which of the following represents the largest gas pressure?

a. 1.0 atm
b. 1.0 Pa
c. 1.00 mm Hg
d. 1.0 KPa

20. The total volume of a average adult lungs when expanded is about 6 liters. Calculate the pressure of
oxygen inhaled if 0.05 mole of oxygen is needed to fully fill a pair of average adult lungs at a
normal body temperature of 370C.
a. 0.0253 atm
b. 2.58 atm
c. 0.212 atm
d. 0.308 atm

21. Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood because

a. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules
b. the solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher temperature of the body
c. pressure is increased inside the body
d. pressure inside the body is different outside of it

22. A fatal condition known as “bends” occurs when a diver ascends too quickly to the surface of the
water. This is due to
a. nitrogen in the blood boiling off rapidly as its partial pressure decreases, forming bubbles
in the blood
b. lack of oxygen in water at depths of more than 15 meters
c. the solubility of oxygen gas is very much decreased at greater depths
d. the solubility of oxygen decreases in the blood as the diver ascends
23. When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glass before the water boils.
This shows that
a. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
b. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
c. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature
d. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature