Biology 102 Finalv2 PDF

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A complex individual that consists of organ systems is organism

known as a/an
In a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a/an population

The alligators in a swamp are all
members of one species and
belong to a population.
The region in which populations interact with each other an ecosystem.

and with the physical environment is called
An ecosystem includes
populations of organisms
interacting with each other and
the physical environment.
Which of the following statements most correctly defines Cells and organisms must be
homeostasis? able to maintain a fairly
All living organisms are alike. constant internal environment.
Living organisms do not change much over time.
Homeostasis is the ability of
Human beings and other animals acquire materials
living things to maintain an
and energy when they eat food.
internal environment that
It takes energy to maintain the organization of the
operates under specific
cell.
conditions.
Cells and organisms must be able to maintain a
fairly constant internal environment.
Four million years ago, horses were rather small compared evolution
to today's horses and had relatively stocky bodies with a Evolution is the process by
straight shoulder and thick neck. This statement is an which a species changes
example of which biological concept? through time.
The face of a sunflower turns to response to stimuli.

follow the sun as it moves across
Movement in response to sunlight is an example of
the sky. This is an example of
response to an external stimulus.
The process of change that evolution

produces the diversity of life on
Earth is called
Fish have scales that enable adaptation

them to live in a water Adaptation provides members of a population with a
environment. This is an example better chance for survival. Fish scales are an adaptation to
of their environment.
Traditions, beliefs, and values are cultural

considered what aspect of Cultural activities of humans include traditions, beliefs,
human life? and values.
Which organisms are most meerkats

closely related to humans? All of these are animals. Only snakes, parakeets, and
meerkats are vertebrates. Only meerkats are mammals,
therefore meerkats are most closely related to humans.
T or F: Only humans have a True

language that allows us to
communicate information and
experiences symbolically.
________ observations are supported Objective/subjective

by factual information while _______
observations involve personal
judgment.
The tentative explanation to be a hypothesis.

tested is called
Which of the following statements "I lost 21 lbs on the Atkins diet."
would be considered anecdotal
Anecdotal data tends to consist of testimonials from
data?
an individual rather than results from a controlled
"I lost 21 lbs on the Atkins
study. All of the other statements are results from
diet."
controlled studies.
The average weight loss for
participants in the Atkins diet
was 15 pounds in 8 weeks.
Participants who stayed on
the South Beach Diet for a
total of 12 weeks lost an
average of 22 pounds.
Which of the following statements If a student buys a meal plan he/she will eat more
is a hypothesis? vegetables.
I like my biology class better
If/then statements are often hypotheses. The other
than my other classes.
statements do not propose something that can be
Ginny gained 5 lbs her
tested.
freshman year.
If a student buys a meal plan
he/she will eat more
vegetables.
There are more calories in
french fries than in colas.
T or F: If the control group in an experiment False

shows the same results as the test group, If the control and test group show the same
the treatment was successful. results, the treatment has no effect and the
experiment is invalid.
T or F: An important part of scientific True

research is repeatability. Another scientist should be able to repeat the
experiment in a different location and get the
same, or very similar, results.
In a graph, the experimental variable is x axis.

plotted on the The experimental variable is plotted on the x
or horizontal axis.
After studying biology, it is hoped that you will be better able to make wise decisions
regarding your own well being and the
Earth's.
The development of resistance of MRSA evolution

bacteria to antibiotics is an example of Resistance in MRSA is an example of
adaptation and evolution.
Which of the following statements is This package is larger than that one.
an objective observation?
This mattress feels hard to me.
This milk tastes funny.
This package is larger than that
one.
I like this picture.
Which of the following is not a basic Theory of gravity

theory of biology?
The theory of gravity is not a biological theory. The
Theory of ecosystems
law of gravity is found in physics.
Cell theory
Gene theory
Theory of evolution
Theory of gravity
The cause of stomach ulcers appears the bacterium Helicobacter pylori.

to be
The bacterium Helicobacter pylori is a major
contributor to stomach ulcers.
In an atom, the number of protons of neutrons.

always equals the number
In an atom, the number of protons always equals
the number of electrons.
Isotopes of an element differ due to neutrons

the number of
A combination of two or more atoms of the a molecule.

same type is called
T or F: Water makes up 60-70% of total body False

weight. Water is the most abundant molecule in
living organisms.
Which of the following characteristics of Frozen water is less dense than liquid water.
water is most responsible for the sinking of
Since frozen water is less dense than liquid
the Titanic?
water, ice, including icebergs, will float in
liquid water.
T or F: A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times True

as many H + as a pH of 6. A pH of 7 actually has 10 times fewer H + as a
pH of 6.
Which of the following is not one of the four vitamins

classes of organic molecules found in cells?
vitamins
nucleic acids
lipids
carbohydrates
proteins
T or F: A hydrolysis reaction involves False

the loss of water. A hydrolysis reaction involves the addition of water.
Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are they are all made of glucose.
alike in that
T or F: Fats are usually of animal True

origin while oils are usually of plant Fats, such as lard and butter, are of animal origin,
origin. while oils, such as corn oil and soybean oil, are of
plant origin.
The monomer unit of a protein is amino acids.
An alpha helix or a beta sheet are secondary

examples of what level of protein
The secondary structure of a protein can be an alpha
structure?
helix or a beta sheet.
List the properties of water. water has a high heat of evaporation,

water has a high heat capacity, what is a
solvent, water molecules are cohesive
and adhesive, and frozen water is less
dense than liquid water.
The gel-like fluid substance within a matrix

mitochondrion is called the
The first day of football practice was rough on the lactate

squad. During practice the players complained of The reason for cramps and sore muscles
cramps and sore muscles. The reason for their complaints was that there was a lactate
complaints was that there was a __________________ build up in their muscles due to
build up in their muscles. anaerobic exercise.
T or F: Fermentation produces more ATP than False

does aerobic respiration. Fermentation only produces 2 ATP while
aerobic respiration produces 32 ATP.
The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its surface area-to-volume ratio.
The surface area of a cell reflects the

ability to exchange materials and the
volume reflects the cell's metabolic
needs. As the volume increases in cells,
the surface area decreases.
Which of the following structures are plasma membrane

present in both eukaryotes and
prokaryotes?
T or F: The cytoplasm is not considered a True

cellular organelle. An organelle is any well-defined subcellular
structure, so the cytoplasm is not an organelle.
However, the cytoplasm does contain organelles.
What is the function of cholesterol in the support

plasma membrane? Molecules of cholesterol add support to the
plasma membrane.
Brad placed a drop of blood in some The cells burst.

distilled water. What happened in the red
Cells placed in pure water would swell until they
blood cells?
burst because they would be in a hypotonic
solution.
Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by phagocytosis

engulfing the prey with its false feet or Phagocytosis involves the engulfing of an object
pseudopods. This process is known as by a cell.
If a cell lacked ribosomes, it synthesize proteins.

would not be able to
Which of the following vesicles must travel from the Golgi to the cell surface.
would be a way of finishing
In order to be secretory, vesicles must travel from the Golgi to
this hypothesis about the
the cell surface. Although vesicles do travel from the RER and
function of the Golgi
SER to the Golgi apparatus, this does not apply to secretion,
apparatus? If the Golgi
only to intracellular transport. The Golgi apparatus is part of
apparatus is involved in
the endomembrane system, does consist of 3-20 slightly
packaging products for
curved sacs, and does contain proteins, but none of these
secretion, then
apply to a secretory function.
Which of the following actin filaments

protein fibers is used for
Actin filaments are used in movement of the cell and are very
cellular movement and are
thin fibers. Intermediate filaments are not the thinnest fibers.
extremely thin in size.
Microtubules are very large filaments. Centrosomes are the
microtubule organizing center of the cell. Cilia are associated
with cellular movement but are not thin filaments. They are
composed of bundles of microtubules.
Which structure in the sperm

human body will use flagella Sperm contain flagella that enable them to move. Human
to move? eggs do not move on their own, they are pushed along the
female reproductive tract by cilia in the tract. The lining of the
respiratory tract and uterine tubes contain cilia that help
move particles along. The urinary system does not contain
flagella or cilia.
Why type of junctions must tight junctions

there be between cells to
Tight junctions are necessary to contain fluids within a specific
form a barrier?
area.
Which of the following is not considered fat

a basic tissue type?
epithelial
connective
muscle
nervous
fat
What protein provides flexibility and collagen

strength to connective tissues?
What are the two forms of fibrous loose fibrous and dense fibrous
connective tissue?
The best description for the two formed elements and plasma.
components of blood are
Blood is composed of the formed elements (red
blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) and
plasma.
In epithelial tissues, what serves to basement membrane

anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying
In epithelial tissues, the basement membrane
connective tissue?
serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to
underlying connective tissue.
Which type of tissues make stratified squamous epithelium

up the epidermis?
The epidermis is made up of stratified squamous epithelium.
The dermis is made up of dense fibrous connective tissue.
Adipose and loose connective tissue are components of the
subcutaneous layer. Elastic fibers are part of the dermis.
Which of the following is keratin

responsible for the
waterproofing of skin?
mucus
hyaline cartilage
sweat
wax
keratin
Carla is having problems with immune system

infections. Which body system
is failing?
T or F: The cardiovascular False

system is limited to just the The cardiovascular system consists of the heart, the blood,
heart and the blood. and the vessels the blood moves through.
T or F: If temperature were True

controlled by a positive A positive feedback system results in an increasing change
feedback mechanism, the in the same direction.
body's temperature would
continue to rise.
Which of the following is not involved in respiration rate

body temperature homeostasis?
shivering
respiration rate
secretion of sweat glands
constriction or dilation of blood
vessels
the hypothalamus
When comparing the cardiovascular system roads

to a city, what is it similar to? The cardiovascular system is similar to the
roads which transport goods between all of
the other places in the city.
The innermost layer of an artery is known as endothelium

what?
What structure within a capillary bed shunts precapillary sphincter

blood from the arteriole to the venule?
Elizabeth takes a prescription drug that It falls because this increases the cross-
dilates her arterioles. What does this do to sectional area of the vessels.
her blood pressure? Why?
When arterioles dilate blood pressure falls
because of the increase in the cross-sectional
area of the vessels.
What is the function of valves in the prevent the backward flow of blood
veins?
In the lower extremities, valves prevent the backflow
of blood from occurring.
What are the upper chambers of the atria

heart called?
During open heart surgery, the first pericardium

heart structure that would be cut into The heart is surrounded by a thick, membranous sac
is the _____________. called the pericardium that would have to be cut
through to reach the heart.
The "lub" sound of the "lub-dup" the closing of the AV valves

heart beat is due to what?
The "lub" occurs when increasing pressure of blood
inside a ventricle forces the cusps of the AV valves to
slam shut.
Which part of the brain contains the medulla oblongata

cardiac control center?
If your pulse is 70 70 beats per minute

beats per minute,
how fast is your heart
beating?
T or F: A blood False
pressure of 90/40 is This would be considered hypotension. Normal blood pressure is
considered normal. 120/80.
Which chamber of right ventricle

the heart pumps
blood into the
pulmonary circuit?
What happens to the The excess fluid is collected in the lymphatic capillaries.
excess fluid that
The excess fluid is collected in the lymphatic capillaries. There is
leaves the capillaries
always some fluid left over since 100% does not return to the venous
at the venous end?
capillaries. It is not excreted or reabsorbed by the kidneys. It doesn't
accumulate in the cells causing them to rupture.
If a person is Water will not leave the arterial end of the capillary and enter the
dehydrated, how will tissues.
this affect nutrient
If a person is dehydrated, this will increase their osmotic pressure
exchange at the
(more solutes dissolved in the liquid fraction of the blood). This
capillaries?
would result in less water leaving the capillaries and entering the
tissues.
T or F: Generally, there are no symptoms True

of hypertension. Hypertension is sometimes called a silent killer,
because there are no symptoms present.
What is a stent? a cylinder of expandable metal mesh
A stent is a cylinder of expandable metal mesh

that is positioned inside a coronary artery.
The two major components of blood are formed elements and plasma.
Which of the following substances is not red blood cells

considered part of blood plasma?
Red blood cells are part of the formed elements,
dissolved O2
not the plasma.
glucose
urea
albumin
red blood cells
T or F: The most abundant component of True

plasma is water. Water makes up 91% of plasma.
How many globin chains are found in Four

hemoglobin?
If a person does not have enough iron anemia

in their diet, they may suffer from
T or F: White blood cells are like red False

blood cells in that they only live for a Some white blood cells may only live for a few days
matter of days. but others can live for months or even years.
Which of the following is not a There is uncontrolled white blood cell proliferation.
characteristic of infectious
Mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus,
mononucleosis?
which does not involve uncontrollable white blood
Symptoms include fever, sore
cell proliferation.
throat, and swollen lymph
glands.
The virus remains within a
person's body for the rest of
his/her life.
Active EBV can be passed in
saliva.
There is uncontrolled white
blood cell proliferation.
Coagulation contributes to keeping the blood within the vessels.

homeostasis by
Coagulation keeps the blood within the vessels so
that we do not bleed to death.
Robby has type B positive blood. B and Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies.
His blood will contain
Robby will possess both B antigens and Rh antigens
on his red blood cells, and antibodies against A.
Jeremy has type O negative blood. O negative only

What type blood could he receive in
Jeremy cannot receive A positive or negative, B
a transfusion?
positive or negative, or AB positive or negative blood
because he has antibodies against both A and B
antigens.
T or F: An individual who is blood True

type O will have antibodies against The antibodies against blood antigens develop wether
type A and B antigens, regardless of or not a person has ever had a transfusion. Therefore,
whether they have had a blood an individual who is blood type O will have antibodies
transfusion or not. against both A and B antigens, even if they haven't
had a transfusion.
T or F: If mom has already True

developed anti-Rh antibodies The purpose of a RhoGAM shot is to prevent the
during her first pregnancy, a formation of anti-Rh antibodies. If they are already
RhoGAM shot will not help her formed, the shot will not help.
second pregnancy.
What do type A positive and AB A antigens

negative blood have in common?
Blood type A positive has A antigens, Rh antigens, and
anti-B antibodies. Blood type AB negative has A
antigens, B antigens, and anti-Rh antibodies. The only
thing they have in common is A antigens.
How does the keeps blood moving through the heart and vessels
muscular system
Muscle contraction keeps blood moving through the heart and in the
benefit the blood?
blood vessels, particularly the veins.
T or F: Excess tissue True

fluid becomes The lymphatic system helps maintain blood volume by collecting
lymphatic fluid that excess tissue fluid and returning it to the blood.
eventually enters
the blood stream.
T or F: Hormones True
produced by the The endocrine system assists the cardiovascular system by producing
endocrine system hormones that regulate blood volume and blood cell formation.
regulate blood
volume and blood
cell formation.
Which accessory liver

organ of the The liver will process and store nutrients as well as producing bile for
digestive system emulsification. The gallbladder stores the bile and sends it to the small
will process and intestine. The pancreas produces pancreatic juices and insulin. The
store nutrients as stomach will secrete acid and digestive enzymes as well as absorb
well as producing nutrients. The small intestine will mix chyme with digestive enzymes,
bile for absorb nutrients, and secrete digestive enzymes into the blood.
emulsification?
Which of the to protect against pathogens

following is not a
function of the
digestive system?
What is the correct order of components of mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small
the digestive tract? intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus
The fleshy extension of the soft palate is uvula

known as the
The dentist explained that dental caries are bacteria within the mouth metabolizing
caused by sugar.
Today, physicians and dentists are concerned cardiovascular disease

that gum disease is linked to ___________.
Muscles that encircle tubes and act as sphincters.

circular valves are called
Which of the following is not associated with duodenum

the stomach?
The duodenum is part of the small
alcohol absorption
intestine, not the stomach.
gastric glands
rugae
duodenum
pepsin
Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is Trypsin-carbohydrates

incorrect?
Trypsin is an enzyme secreted by the
Lipase-fat
pancreas that digests proteins.
Amylase-starch
Trypsin-carbohydrates
Pepsin-protein
Nuclease-DNA
The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the lacteals

small intestines and absorb fats are known as
Which of the following is not produced by the bile

pancreas? The pancreas secretes all of these but bile.
lipase
trypsin
amylase
sodium bicarbonate
bile
T or F: The secretions of digestive juices are True

controlled by the nervous system as well as by The parasympathetic nervous system
digestive hormones. stimulates gastric secretions along with
digestive hormones.
What is one benefit of normal produce vitamin B

flora in the large intestine?
Resident bacteria in the large intestine serve to produce
vitamin B, as well as vitamin K, and breakdown indigestible
material.
According to the BMI chart, a 18.5 to 24.9.

healthy BMI is in the range of
Why is it necessary to include Brain cells require glucose.

some carbohydrates in the
Brain cells require glucose and are unable to convert fatty
diet?
acids to glucose.
About 90% of people young women.

suffering from anorexia
nervosa are
The respiratory system is oxygen entering the body and carbon dioxide leaving the
responsible for body.
Which structure is not All are part of the inspiration process.

part of the inspiration
process?
lungs→
All are part of the
inspiration process.
larynx
trachea
bronchioles
Which structure is the nose

initial entry way for air to The air will initially enter the nose, then proceed to the nasal
enter the respiratory cavity, to the pharynx, to the trachea, to the bronchioles, and to
system? the lungs. The esophagus is part of the digestive system, not the
respiratory system.
During respiration, which trachea

structure connects the The trachea connects the larynx to the bronchiole tree. The glottis
larynx to the bronchiole is the opening in the larynx. The lungs receive the air from the
tree? trachea. The alveoli are the site of gas exchange within the lungs.
The esophagus is part of the digestive system.
T or F: The epiglottis is False

the slit between the The glottis is the slit between the vocal cords.
vocal cords.
Which part of the lower lungs

respiratory tract is The lungs contain the alveoli where gas exchange occurs
intimately in contact with between the cardiovascular system and the respiratory system.
the cardiovascular
system?
What separates the pleura

lungs from the thoracic Each lung is enclosed by a serous membrane called a pleura (pl.,
cavity? pleurae).
Which of the following The pressure in the lungs increases.

is not a part of
inspiration?
The intercostal
muscles pull the
ribs outward.
The pressure in
the lungs
increases
.The rib cage
moves up and
out.
The diaphragm
contracts and
moves down.
Air rushes into
the lungs.
The amount of air that tidal volume.

moves in and out with
each breath is called
the
During respiration, expiratory reserve volume

what is the additional
The expiratory reserve volume is the additional volume of air that
amount of air that can
can be exhaled form the lungs which is usually 1,400 ml. The
be exhaled from the
inspiratory reserve volume can add an additional 2,900 ml of air to
lungs during an extra
the lungs. The residual volume is the amount of air that can't be
deep exhalation called?
exhaled from the lungs. Vital capacity is the maximum amount of
This volume is usually
air that can be inhaled and exhaled by a deep breath. Tidal volume
around 1,400 ml.
is the normal amount of air that moves in and out during a normal
breath.
Where is the in the brain

respiratory control
center located?
T or F: Chemoreceptors for blood pH are False

located in the brain stem and the lungs. Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in
the brain stem, in the carotid arteries, and in
the aorta.
Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the bicarbonate ion.

plasma as
"Strep throat" is caused by what type of bacteria

infecting organism?
Which of these lower respiratory diseases pulmonary tuberculosis

should be treated with antibiotics?
T or F: The kidneys excrete metabolic wastes, False

including urea, a by-product of glucose Urea is a by-product of amino acid
metabolism. metabolism.
Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product? Erythropoietin

uric acid
Erythropoietin is a
creatinine
hormone secreted by
urea
the kidneys.
erythropoietin
How many openings (inputs and outputs) are there in the urinary three
bladder?
Which of the following is not a region of the kidney? hypothalamus

pelvis The hypothalamus is a
hypothalamus region of the brain.
collecting ducts
cortex
medulla
Which of the following is not part of a nephron? ureter

collecting duct The collecting duct
glomerular capsule empties into the ureter,
ureter but the ureter is not part
loop of Henle of a nephron.
proximal convoluted tubule
Place the parts of the nephron in order of how filtration would 4,3,2,1,6,5
occur. 1. ascending limb of loop; 2. descending limb of loop; 3.
proximal convoluted tubule; 4. glomerulus; 5. collecting duct; 6.
distal convoluted tubule
Why do water and small glomerular blood pressure

molecules move from the
glomerulus into the
filtrate?
What are the two ways glomerular filtration and tubular secretion
substances are removed
from the blood and added
to the forming urine?
What is the normal pH of slightly basic

blood?
Which substance is H+
removed from the blood H + are removed from the blood during tubular secretion. Na +
during tubular secretion? is reabsorbed into the blood. Aldosterone is excreted by the
kidneys into the bloodstream. Water is reabsorbed into the
blood. Cl - is reabsorbed into the blood.
Which of these contains urethra

urine?
intestine
gallbladder
uterus
urethra
Kidneys are organs of homeostasis because they All of the answer

All of the above choices are correct.
regulate the pH of the blood.
regulate the blood volume.
excrete nitrogenous wastes.
help maintain the correct concentration of salts in the blood.
What hormone is secreted by the kidneys when blood oxygen drops, erythropoietin
targets bone marrow, and triggers production of red blood cells?
What part of the kidney is the central space that leads to the ureter? renal pelvis
Choose which components are found in glomerular filtrate. water

water ions
large proteins small
blood cells molecules
ions
small molecules
Antidiuretic hormone acts directly on the collecting duct to __________ reabsorb; more
water and make the urine _____ concentrated.
Which function of the skeletal system They support the entire body.
requires the leg bones to be extremely
strong?
What type of cartilage is found at the hyaline cartilage

ends of the long bones?
Bone recycling allows the body to the amount of calcium in the blood
regulate what?
Bone serves as a storage reservoir for calcium and
recycling allows the body to regulate the amount
of calcium in the blood.
Which of the following statements is not The region of primary ossification is where
true regarding the region of primary osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the
ossification of a bone? bone.
Osteoblasts are derived from the
newly formed periosteum.
The region of primary ossification
is where osteoclasts are laid down
on the outside of the bone.
A band of cartilage remains
between the primary ossification
center and each secondary center.
How long does the bony callus in a bone 3-4 months

repair last?
Which of the trochanter

following is not a A trochanter is not a type of joint, they are large bonny projections
type of joint? located on the femur.
trochanter
synovial
cartilaginous
suture
fibrous
Which of the fibrocartilage

following is not
Fibrocartilage is another type of joint. It is not found in a synovial joint.
associated with a
synovial joint?
fibrous
capsule
menisci
bursar
ligaments
fibrocartilage
Which joint action adduction

allows for the Adduction is the movement of a body part to the midline of the body.
body part to move Abduction is the movement of the body part away from the midline.
towards the Flexion is the increase in the joint angle. Pronation is when the hand
midline? faces downward. Eversion is when the sole of the foot turns outward.
Which of these is a All the Above

function of the
skeleton?
houses
tissues
involved in
the
production
of red blood
cells
All of the
answer
choices are
correct.
protection
support
Which of these is conducts nervous impulses

NOT a function of
The skeleton functions to support the body, protect soft body parts,
the skeleton?
and store minerals. What it does not do is conduct nerve impulses.
protects soft
body parts
stores
minerals
supports the
body
conducts
nervous
impulses
The hardest portion(s) of a long bone is/are the compact

bone.
The outer portion of a long bone, aside from the articular cartilages, is covered periosteum
by a layer of fibrous connective tissue called
What type of cartilage is particularly flexible and is found in ear flaps and the elastic
epiglottis? cartilage
The shoulder joint is an example of a __________ joint. All the

All of the answer choices are correct. above
synovial
ball-and-socket
freely movable
Fluid-filled sacs within synovial joints are called bursae
Endochondral ossification involves All of the answer choices are correct.

a cartilaginous model.
long bones.
All of the answer choices are correct.
an epiphyseal plate.
Bone-building cells are __________; mature bone osteoblasts; osteocytes

cells are__________.
Choose the proper sequence describing repair of hematoma–fibrocartilage callus–bony

bone fractures. callus–remodeling
Of the three types of muscle tissue, which has skeletal muscle

multinucleated fibers?
Which of the following is not a function of pumping of blood throughout the body
skeletal muscles?
support
protection of internal organs
movement of bones
pumping of blood throughout the body
maintenance of body temperature
What muscle works in a pair with the triceps brachii

the biceps brachii?
T or F: When a muscle contracts, The H zone is the area in the center of the sarcomere
the H zone almost disappears. that almost disappears when the muscle contracts.
What does troponin bind to and Ca 2+, tropomyosin shifts

what happens when it binds?
T or F: One motor unit obeys a True

principle called the all-or-none law. All the muscle fibers in a motor unit are stimulated at
once. They all either contract or do not contract.
Which of the following does not Tetanus is achieved.

occur when a muscle fatigues?
Tetanus is maximal sustained contraction and does not
Its energy reserves are
occur during muscle fatigue.
depleted.
Acetylcholine is crossing the
synaptic cleft.
Tetanus is achieved.
Stimulation continues.
The muscle relaxes.
Which of the following is not a source of ATP for ATP in the blood
muscle contraction?
Muscles do not get ATP from the
ATP stored in the cell
blood.
aerobic respiration
fermentation
ATP in the blood
the creatine phosphate pathway
Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the aerobic respiration

muscle, which pathway(s) do slow-twitch fibers
Slow-twitch fibers prefer to use aerobic
prefer?
respiration for their ATP source since it
produces a large supply of ATP.
Why are slow-twitch muscles dark? They contain myoglobin.
T or F: Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of False

achy muscles, usually due to overuse. Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition
whose symptoms include achy pain,
tenderness, and stiffness of muscles.
Which disease is an autoimmune disease myasthenia gravis

characterized by weakness that especially affects
the muscles of the eyelids, face, neck, and
extremities?
What is the reservoir for Ca 2+ in the bones

body?
T or F: If you lock your knees while True

standing you may pass out because The skeletal muscles aid in the process of venous
of the lack of venous return to the return by pushing blood back toward the heart. If you
heart. lock your knees, there is a shortage of blood
returning to the heart and you may pass out.
A whole muscle is divided into fascicles

bundles of muscle fibers called
____________, each of which is
surrounded by a layer of connective
tissue.
A muscle pulling just opposite to antagonist

another can be best described as
a(n)
The contractile unit of a myofibril is sarcomere`

the
According to the sliding filament theory, actin moves past myosin as myosin
cross-bridges pull on the actin.
What is true of fast-twitch fibers? All of the answer choices are correct.
provide explosions of energy
light in color, little myoglobin
fewer blood vessels than slow-twitch fibers
All of the answer choices are correct.
_____________ refers to a group of inherited disorders Muscular dystrophy

characterized by a progressive degeneration and
weakening of muscles.
The central nervous system is protected by bone

The brain is protected by the skull and
the spinal cord is protected by the
vertebral column.
Which of the following is not a type of neuron? neuroglia

neuroglia Neuroglia are cells that support and
interneuron nourish neurons.
motor
afferent
sensory
Which of the following is associated with the Schwann cells

PNS but not the CNS?
Schwann cells are a type of neuroglia
myelin sheath
found only in the PNS.
node of Ranvier
Schwann cells
dendrite
axon
Depolarization of the neuron occurs when sodium gates open and sodium moves
inside the cell.
Which conducts an action potential faster and myelinated fibers, the action potential
why? jumps from one node of Ranvier to
another
Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter? ATP

ATP
glutamate
acetylcholine
serotonin
GABA
T or F: When a neurotransmitter is released into False

the synaptic cleft, the response of the receiving Depending on the nature of the
neuron will be toward excitation. neurotransmitter, the response can be
toward excitation or toward inhibition.
T or F: The white matter of the spinal cord TrueThe gray matter is centrally located and
surrounds the gray matter. shaped like the letter H. The white matter
surrounds the gray matter.
Which drug is in the same category as cocaine

nicotine? they are both stimulants
Long term use of heroin results in which set addiction, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, various
of symptoms? bacterial infections
Heavy use of which drug can lead to marijuana

hallucinations, anxiety, depression, paranoia,
and psychotic symptoms?
Rapid conduction of a nerve impulse in openings in the myelin sheath.

vertebrates is because of
Which of the following components of a axon

neuron transmits signals away from the cell
body?
dendrite
synaptic cleft
axon
synovial joint
Which of the following drugs is classified as a marijuana

hallucinogen?
marijuana
caffeine
nicotine
alcohol
The drug __________ in tobacco products nicotine; marijuana; alcohol

causes neurons to release dopamine, which
reinforces dependence on this drug.
Occasional __________ users experience
euphoria, alterations in vision and judgment,
and distortions of space and time. Heavy use
of __________ often leads to liver damage.
T or F: Nociceptors are a type of True

chemoreceptor. Nociceptors (pain receptors) are a type of
chemoreceptor that respond to chemicals
released by damaged tissues.
If the nerves between the eyes and the ears seeing lights.
were switched, stimulation of the
Stimulation of the mechanoreceptors would
mechanoreceptors in the ear would result in
eventually arrive in the visual cortex if the
nerves were switched. Therefore, the result
would be seeing lights. The individual could
still hear if the receptors in the eyes were
stimulated and they could hear if the
receptors in the ears were stimulated.
The type of taste savory

called umami
allows us to
enjoy what type
of flavor?
Which layer of choroid

the eye contains The middle layer, the choroid, contains an extensive blood supply, and its
an extensive dark pigment absorbs stray light rays.
blood supply?
Which of the red green color blindness

following is a
Red green color blindness is caused by a genetic mutation that affects 5-
genetic mutation
8% of the male population.
that affects
males more than
females?
Which structure lens

in the eye The lens refracts and focuses light rays. Humors transmit light rays and
refracts and support the eye. Cone cells make color vision possible. The retina
focuses light contains sensory receptors for sight. The pupil admits light to the eye.
rays?
Which disorder astigmatism

of the eye is due
An astigmatism is when the cornea or lens is uneven and images are
to the cornea or
fuzzy. Glaucoma is the accumulation of aqueous humor due to the
lens being
blockage of the drainage ducts in the eye. Color blindness is due to a
uneven resulting
genetic mutation in which the cones are defective or deficient.
in a fuzzy
Nearsightedness is due to the shape of the eye being elongated.
image?
Farsightedness is due to the eye being shortened.
What do nociceptors detect? stimuli of pain
T or F: All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals. True

all sensory receptors initiate nerve
signals.
T or F: Sensory adaptation is a form of integration True

and involves the summing of input signals. sensory adaptation is a form of
integration and involves the summing
of input signals.
T or F: Sensation is the conscious perception of True

stimuli. sensation is the conscious perception of
stimuli.
Which of the following are mechanoreceptors proprioceptors

involved in reflex actions and serve to maintain
muscle tone?
nociceptors
proprioceptors
Meissner corpuscles
Ruffini endings
Which of the following are NOT a type of proprioceptor? All of the answer
nociceptors choices are
muscle spindles proprioceptors.
All of the answer choices are proprioceptors.
golgi tendon organs
T or F: Nociceptors respond to the sense of pain. True
The senses of taste and smell work because specific __________ in the protein receptors;
organs of taste and smell combine with __________ in the air or food. chemicals
Both senses thus employ __________ to detect changes in the (molecules);
environment. chemoreceptors
The blind spot is on the retina,

where there are no
rods or cones.
T or The lens is involved in focusing visual information on the retina. True

T or F: The effects True

initiated by the The endocrine produces hormones that have a slower, more
endocrine system are prolonged response than the nervous system.
longer lasting than
those of the nervous
system.
Which of the secretes a hormone directly into the bloodstream

following is a feature
Endocrine glands are those that secrete a hormone directly into the
of an endocrine
bloodstream. Exocrine glands secrete a hormone into a gland or
gland?
duct. Their product is carried into the lumen of an organ. They are
characterized
characterized by the salivary glands. Both endocrine and exocrine
by the salivary
glands respond to a negative feedback system.
glands
they do not
respond to a
negative
feedback
secretes a
hormone into a
gland or duct
secretes a
hormone
directly into the
bloodstream
Which of the dudodenum

following is not an
endocrine gland?
duodenum
pineal
thymus
adrenal
pituitary
Peptide hormones bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane.

act much more
Peptide hormones bind to receptors in the plasma membrane to
slowly than
exert their effect.
steroid
hormones.
are composed
of a complex of
4 carbon rings.
initiate gene
expression
.bind to a
receptor in the
plasma
membrane.
are able to pass
through the
membrane and
bind to a
receptor in the
cytoplasm.
The secretion of insulin and glucagon

which hormones
Both insulin and glucagon are secreted by the pancreas directly into
qualifies the pancreas
the bloodstream. Digestive juices are secreted by the pancreas but
as an endocrine
they do not go into the bloodstream. Mineralocorticoids are
gland?
secreted by the adrenal cortex. Estradiol is secreted by the adrenal
cortex.
Describe the People with Type 2 diabetesis the most common, and there is
characteristics of usually an adult-onset. These people are usually are obese and
individuals with Type 2 stationary lifestyle. Their body's cells do not repond to insulin, so
diabetes. their glucose levels are almost always high.
How are type 1 and type The blood glucose levels are very high in both.
2 diabetes mellitus
similar?
The body does not
produce glucagon
in both.
The blood glucose
levels are very high
in both.
Both are a result of
obesity
.The body does not
produce insulin in
both.
The number of
glucose carriers is
too low in both.
Which of the following kidney

secretes erythropoietin?
small intestine
heart
thalamus
thymus
kidney
T or F: The cramping False

associated with Cramping of the uterus is due to the effect of prostaglandins.
premenstrual syndrome
is often due to
norepinephrine.
Steroid hormones activate genes leading to protein synthesis.

combine with
receptors in the
plasma membrane
.never pass
through the
membrane
.only interact with
endocrine organs.
activate genes
leading to protein
synthesis.
T or F: Through the action of neurotransmitters, the nervous system responds True

rapidly to external stimuli. In contrast, the dependence upon hormones within the
endocrine system results in a slower response to stimuli.
T or F: Endocrine glands secrete their products directly into the bloodstream True
while exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts.
T or F: Overproduction of growth hormone may result in a condition termed True

acromegaly.
In which case is insulin NOT produced? type 1

type 3 diabetes diabetes
type 4 diabetes
type 1 diabetes
type 2 diabetes
__________ is secreted when blood glucose is high and __________ is/are secreted Insulin;
when blood glucose is low. glucagon
T or F: All of the body False

systems in humans are the The reproductive system of males and females will differ.
same in males and females. Males have gender specific structures like testes and a penis
while females have ovaries, labia, and a vulva.
How many chromosomes 23

does a sperm contain?
hich of the following is not bladder

part of the male The bladder is part of the urinary system, not the reproductive
reproductive system? system.
urethra
testes
bladder
epididymides
prostate gland
Which of the following are follicle

not found in the testes? Follicles are found in ovaries, not testes.
spermatozoa
follicle
Sertoli cells
interstitial cells
seminiferous tubules
What is the function of It inhibits the secretion of GnRH.

inhibin?
Inhibin blocks the secretion of GnRH and FSH.
T or F: The oviducts are not True

attached to the ovaries. The oviducts are near the ovaries and have finger-like
projections that sweep over the ovaries.
How much does the uterus stretch 6 times normal

in order to accommodate a
The uterus is approximately 5 cm wide in its usual state.
growing fetus?
It stretches to over 30 cm wide to accommodate a
growing fetus.
What structure is present within a an oocyte

follicle?
An ovary contains many follicles, and each one
contains an immature egg called an oocyte.
During which stage of the ovarian Ovulation

cycle will LH spike?
T or F: If fertilization occurs, the False

progesterone levels rise and stay If fertilization occurs, the progesterone levels rise and
high. stay high.
Put the following methods of contraception in 1,4,2,3

order from most effective to least effective: 1.
Hormone pills are 98% effective. A male
hormone pill 2. female condom 3. spermicide 4.
condom is 89% effective. A female
male condom
condom is 79% effective. Spermicides are
50-80% effective.
What is the most frequent cause of infertility in low sperm count

males?
During IVF, where does conception occur? in the laboratory
Which of the following STDs is caused by a HIV/AIDS

virus?
HIV/AIDS is caused by the human
gonorrhea
immunodeficiency virus.
HIV/AIDS
chlamydia
syphilis
vaginitis
What causes genital warts? virus
All of the following are viral infections, except Chlamydia

warts. Chlamydia is a
HIV/AIDS. bacterial infection.
herpes.
hepatitis.
chlamydia.
Which STD is characterized by a foul-smelling, yellow-green frothy trichomoniasis

discharge and itching of the vulva/vagina?
The development of a hard chancre (an ulcerated sore with hard syphilis
edges) is indication of what type of STD?
The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the corona radiata.
When does the heart begin to develop? three weeks
At what point during when it forms the gastrula

development does
the embryo form
three germ layers?
The first system in nervous system.

the body to become
visibly differentiated
during development
is the
The yolk sac of the chorion

chick provides The chorion develops into the fetal half of the placenta and provides
nutrients to the the embryo with nourishment and oxygen. The allantois develops
developing embryo. into the umbilical arteries and veins. The yolk sac contains food for
What structure the developing embryo. The amnion contains protective fluid that
serves the same role cushions the embryo. The zona pellucida is the surrounding
in humans? membrane of the egg prior to fertilization.
What structure placenta

produces
progesterone and
estrogen during
pregnancy?
T or F: The sex of an True

individual is Sex is determined by the chromosomal make up (XX for females, XY
determined at the for males) which is determined at the moment of fertilization.
moment of
fertilization.
If a fetus contains an X and a Y chromosome into a female because testosterone is not

but a defective SRY gene, they will develop present.
T or F: Estrogen is responsible for the onset False

and continuation of labor. Oxytocin is responsible for the onset and
continuation of labor.
T or F: Development ceases at birth. False

Humans continue to develop through
infancy, childhood, adolescence, and
adulthood.
Which hypothesis of aging involves genetic in origin

mitochondria?
The current mitochondrial hypothesis of
genetic in origin
aging suggests that aging is genetic in
external factors
origin.
extrinsic factors
whole-body process
damage accumulation
Which of the following skin changes is not There is an increase in the number of oil
associated with growing older? glands.
There is less adipose tissue in the
The number of oil glands decreases as we
subcutaneous layer
age, and the skin tends to crack.
.There are fewer sweat glands for
sweating to occur.
There is an increase in the number of oil
glands.
Pigmented blotches appear on the skin.
The number of elastic fibers decreases.
During the process of fertilization, many sperm release

acrosome enzymes so
that one sperm can
enter the egg.
Fertilization begins when sperm make contact with the __________, zona pellucida;
they release enzymes from the __________, and then one sperm can acrosome; fertilization
enter the egg. When the sperm nucleus fuses with the egg nucleus,
__________ is complete.
T or F: Depolarization of the egg membrane after fertilization True

prevents polyspermy.
The zygote begins to undergo cleavage in the oviduct

Which of these pairs is mismatched? morphogenesis =

morphogenesis = organ systems present organ systems present
differentiation = specialization of cells
Organ systems are not
cleavage = cell division
present during
growth = increase in size
morphogenesis.
The placenta allows exchanges

of substances
between maternal
and fetal blood.
The presence of the __________ chromosome determines whether the Y; clitoris; penis
embryo will become male or female. At six weeks, a small bud appears
between the legs of the embryo. It will develop into a __________ if it is a
female and into a __________ if it is a male.
T or F:The placenta is the source of estrogen and progesterone during True

pregnancy.
__________ is a progressive decline in bone density and occurs in both Osteoporosis

males and females.
As aging occurs, the skin becomes __________ and __________ elastic. thinner; less
T or F:As a group, females live longer than True

males.
What is the term for the DNA and chromatin

proteins found within the cell? Collectively, the DNA and proteins are referred
to as chromatin. The nucleus is the structure that
contains the genetic material. A karyotype is the
display of the chromosomes. Centromere is the
region that holds the chromatids together.
Suppose that nondisjunction occurs 2, 1

during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each
of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a
normal sperm. How many cells are normal
and how many have a chromosomal
trisomy?
In a karyotype, the chromosomes are largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at
arranged in order from the end.
What are the two parts of the cell cycle? interphase and cell division
Which stage comes directly after mitosis

interphase? Mitosis, the division of the DNA, is directly after
interphase. It precedes cytokinesis, the division of the
cytoplasm. G 1, S, and G 2 are components of
interphase.
In which stage of meiosis do anaphase I

homologous chromosomes separate
from each other?
If the parent cell has 24 mitosis

chromosomes, and each of the In mitosis, the daughter cells are identical to the
daughter cells has 24 chromosomes, parent cell. In meiosis I and II the daughter cells are
then the cell has undergone different that the parent cell. During G 1 the DNA has
not been copied yet.
T or F: All the products of oogenesis False

are equal in size and content. The polar body(ies) are much smaller as the egg
receives all of the cytoplasm.
Which of the following is not a indeterminate genitalia

symptom of Down syndrome?
indeterminate genitalia
short stature
flat face
stubby fingers
eyelid fold
Which of the following syndromes has a Turner syndrome

karyotype with a missing X chromosome?
In Turner syndrome, the individual has only one
Down syndrome
sex chromosome, an X. The other X chromosome
Williams syndrome
is missing.
Turner syndrome
Jacobs syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
T or F:In a translocation, all of the DNA is True

present, and there is only one copy of In a translocation, a portion of a chromosome is
each piece. moved, but there are no deletions or
duplications.
Which of the following is located where centromere

sister chromatids join?
centromere
centriole
homologous chromosomes
spindle fibers
T or F:The gender of a fetus can be True

determined by analysis of a karyotype.
T or F: Sister chromatids carry the same True

genes.
T or F: In a karyotype, chromosomes are paired up by examining the stained True

dark and light cross-bands of varying widths, chromosomal size, and
chromosomal shape.
If a cell is to divide, DNA replication must occur during interphase.
During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes first become visible? prophase
During which stage of mitosis do sister chromatids separate at their anaphase

centromere?
In animal cells, cytokinesis takes place by a

furrowing
process.
The appearance of siblings can vary greatly prophase I.

because of crossing-over during
During anaphase of meiosis II, sister chromatids

____________________ separate.
By the end of meiosis I, crossing-over has occurred.

The nuclear division that reduces the diploid (2n); haploid (n)
chromosome number from the __________
number to the __________ number is called
meiosis.
T or F: The mitotic cell cyle produces four, False

genetically-identical cells vs. the meiotic cell The mitotic cell cyle produces two,
cycle produces two, genetically-different genetically-identical cells vs. the meiotic cell
cells. cycle produces up to four, genetically-
different cells.
Monosomy and trisomy are caused by which of the following? nondisjunction

separation of sister chromatids
crossing-over
nondisjunction
fertilization

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12/10/2017 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of Final

StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of Final

A complex individual that consists of organ systems is organism

In a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a/an population

The region in which populations interact with each other an ecosystem.

The face of a sunflower turns to response to stimuli.

The process of change that evolution

Fish have scales that enable adaptation

Traditions, beliefs, and values are cultural

Which organisms are most meerkats

T or F: Only humans have a True

________ observations are supported Objective/subjective

The tentative explanation to be a hypothesis.

T or F: If the control group in an experiment False

T or F: An important part of scientific True

In a graph, the experimental variable is x axis.

The development of resistance of MRSA evolution

Which of the following is not a basic Theory of gravity

The cause of stomach ulcers appears the bacterium Helicobacter pylori.

In an atom, the number of protons of neutrons.

Isotopes of an element differ due to neutrons

A combination of two or more atoms of the a molecule.

T or F: Water makes up 60-70% of total body False

T or F: A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times True

Which of the following is not one of the four vitamins

T or F: A hydrolysis reaction involves False

T or F: Fats are usually of animal True

The monomer unit of a protein is amino acids.

An alpha helix or a beta sheet are secondary

List the properties of water. water has a high heat of evaporation,

The gel-like fluid substance within a matrix

The first day of football practice was rough on the lactate

T or F: Fermentation produces more ATP than False

The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its surface area-to-volume ratio.

The surface area of a cell reflects the

Which of the following structures are plasma membrane

T or F: The cytoplasm is not considered a True

What is the function of cholesterol in the support

Brad placed a drop of blood in some The cells burst.

Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by phagocytosis

If a cell lacked ribosomes, it synthesize proteins.

Which of the following actin filaments

Which structure in the sperm

Why type of junctions must tight junctions

Which of the following is not considered fat

What protein provides flexibility and collagen

In epithelial tissues, what serves to basement membrane

Which type of tissues make stratified squamous epithelium

Which of the following is keratin

Carla is having problems with immune system

T or F: The cardiovascular False

T or F: If temperature were True

Which of the following is not involved in respiration rate

When comparing the cardiovascular system roads

The innermost layer of an artery is known as endothelium

What structure within a capillary bed shunts precapillary sphincter

What are the upper chambers of the atria

During open heart surgery, the first pericardium

The "lub" sound of the "lub-dup" the closing of the AV valves

Which part of the brain contains the medulla oblongata

If your pulse is 70 70 beats per minute

Which chamber of right ventricle

T or F: Generally, there are no symptoms True