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Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2021

TEST - 3 (Code-C)
Test Date : 01/12/2019

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (3) 73. (3) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (2) 110. (3) 146. (1)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (4) 147. (3)
4. (2) 40. (2) 76. (1) 112. (4) 148. (2)
5. (4) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (4) 42. (3) 78. (1) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (1) 151. (2)
8. (4) 44. (1) 80. (2) 116. (4) 152. (3)
9. (1) 45. (2) 81. (1) 117. (1) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (4) 154. (2)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (1) 155. (3)
12. (3) 48. (1) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (3) 85. (1) 121. (4) 157. (3)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (1) 87. (1) 123. (1) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (2) 88. (1) 124. (3) 160. (2)
17. (2) 53. (4) 89. (2) 125. (1) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (1) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (4) 92. (2) 128. (1) 164. (4)
21. (1) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (3)
23. (4) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (2)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (4)
25. (4) 61. (3) 97. (2) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (3) 98. (1) 134. (1) 170. (1)
27. (1) 63. (3) 99. (3) 135. (1) 171. (3)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (3) 136. (3) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (1) 101. (1) 137. (4) 173. (1)
30. (3) 66. (3) 102. (2) 138. (3) 174. (1)
31. (1) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (4)
32. (3) 68. (2) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (4) 105. (4) 141. (1) 177. (3)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (1) 107. (1) 143. (4) 179. (1)
36. (4) 72. (4) 108. (1) 144. (4) 180. (3)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) 6. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: Normal force due to book on the table Hint: ∴ No impulsive external force acts on bomb,
and weight of the book, both are in same direction. so momentum of system remains constant

−2mv i + mv j + 2mv 3
Sol.: 0 =
 v
so θ = 0° v=3
v i − j
2
2. Answer (3)
7. Answer (1)
Hint: Block is sliding with constant velocity,
Hint: Horse pushes the earth backward and earth
so a = 0
applies force in forward direction.
Sol.: Block slides along the plane, with constant
Sol.: Total mass of system = 2000 kg
velocity
F – µ(mg) = (m + M)a
F – 0.2(1500 × 10) = (2000) × 2
F = 7000 N
8. Answer (4)
Hint: When angle of inclination is θ
a = g sinθ

mgsinθ – µmgcosθ = m(0) =


Sol.: v 2gl sinθ
µmgcosθ = mgsinθ
Ff = mgsinθ
3. Answer (1)
Hint: According to Newton’s second law

 dP
F=
dt
  
Sol.: P= a + bt 2 When angle of plane is 2θ

dP  =v1 2gl sin2θ
= 2bt
dt
=v1 2gl ( 2 sin θ cos θ )
F ∝t
4. Answer (2) =v1 v 2cos θ
Hint & Sol.: In circular motion with increasing 9. Answer (1)
speed, tangential force and displacement are in
g
same direction, (θ = 0°). So work done on the body Hint: amin =
is positive. µ

5. Answer (4) Sol.: Let common acceleration be a. Then



 ∆P F
Hint: F = a=
∆t 2m
0.5(2iˆ + 2 jˆ) (0.5) (2 2) N=
F
×m=
F
Sol.: F
= = = 1N
1.414 1.414 2m 2
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Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

For no slipping (in limiting equilibrium) 13. Answer (1)


µN =mg Hint: mg ≤ µN

µF
= mg
2
F = 2mg/µ
10. Answer (2)
Hint: Force of limiting friction flim = µmg
Sol.: Normal reaction of wall N = 100 N
Sol.: N = mg = 10 N
Force of limiting friction F = µN = 25 N
Ff = µmg = 2 N
Pulling force = mg = 20 N
at t = 3 s, F = 6 N
So force of friction = 20 N (upwards)
⇒ friction = 2 N
14. Answer (2)
11. Answer (4) Hint: Impulse = Change in momentum
Hint: Applied force F = 2t is time dependent. 
 ∆ x
Sol.: Velocity up to 2 s = v1 = 2 m s−1
So up to certain time, block will not move. ∆t

Sol.: Applied force F = 2t velocity just after 2 s, v 2 = 0
Limiting friction Ff = µmg change in momentum
  
F − Ff 2t − µmg ∆
= p m [v 2 − v 1 ]
=a =
m m
= 1[0 – 2]
2t = –2 kg m/s
=
a − µg
m
15. Answer (3)
This is an equation of straight line of form
Hint: According to polygon law a set of forces
y = mx + c, with positive slope and negative
forming a closed polygon leads to a zero resultant.
intercept.
Sol.: In closed polygon resultant of four identical
forces is balanced by fifth force.
=
So, resultant magnitude force ( F2 − F1 )
( F2 − F1 )
Net acceleration a =
m
12. Answer (3)
Hint: The compression will be maximum, when
work done by pseudo force is stored in the form of
elastic potential energy.
Sol.: As the plank is accelerated, pseudo force (ma)
acts on the block, which compresses the spring
through x,
At maximum compression
1 2
max = kx
2
16. Answer (1)
2ma Hint & Sol.: Potential energy is defined for
x=
k conservative forces.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

17. Answer (2) Sol.: Mass of shell = 0.2 kg


Hint: Total mass of rod can be assumed at its Mass of gun = 4.0 kg
centre of mass. According to law of conservation of momentum
 
Sol.: Work done = change in potential energy 0= 0.2 × v + 4.0 v 1
l 
= mg    0.2  1 
2 v1 =
− v=− v
4.0 20
mgl
= Total kinetic energy = 1050
2
1 1
18. Answer (3) × 0.2v 2 + × 4 × v 2 =1050
2 2 1
Hint: Work done by all forces is equal to change in 2
kinetic energy.  v 
0.2v 2 + 4   = 2100
   20 
Sol.: Work done by forces F 1 and F 2 + work done
by gravity = ∆K = 0  1 
v 2 0.2 + 2100
=
   100 
work done by F1 and F2 = − [ work done by gravity ]
  100 × 2100
v2 =
work done by F1 and F2 = − [ mg h cos180°] 21
= mgh v = 100 m/s
19. Answer (3) 22. Answer (2)
 
Hint: Instantaneous power P = F .v Hint: Apply law of conservation of mechanical
−1
energy.
Sol.: F ∝ s 3
Sol.: Loss of potential energy = Gain in kinetic
k −1 energy.
a= s 3 (k is a constant)
m
( 3 × 10 × 5 − 2 × 10 × 5 )= 1 ( 3 + 5 ) v 2
dv k −1 2
v. = s 3
ds m 50 × 2 = 5v2
k −13 v = 2 5 m/s
vdv = s ds
m
23. Answer (4)
v 2 3 k 23
= s Hint & Sol.: Momentum of system is always
2 2m conserved but kinetic energy of system just before
3k 13 collision is equal to kinetic energy of system just
v= s
m after collision.
−1 3k 13 24. Answer (3)
= = ks
P Fv 3
s Hint: Energy stored in stretched spring
m
1 2 F2
P ∝ s0 =U = kx
2 2k
20. Answer (1) Sol.: Given KA = 3KB
Hint: Work done by forces is equal to change in U A KB
kinetic energy. =
UB K A
2
Sol.: K = as
E K
= B
dK EB 3K B
= 2as
ds
EB = 3E
F = 2as
25. Answer (4)
21. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: Work done by friction may be positive,
Hint: Law of conservation of linear momentum negative or zero.
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Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

26. Answer (2) 1 1 


∆p =  × 4 × 4 − × 2 × 2
Hint: Because wall is in (y – z) plane, only 2 2 
x-component of velocity will change. m[v – 1] = 6
velocity of separation
Sol.: e = v = 4 m/s
velocity of approach
1
1 0 − v1 K.E. = × ( 2 ) × 42 =16 J
= 2
2 2−0
 29. Answer (2)
v 1 = −i
So, velocity just after collision =−i + 2 j Hint: First apply law of conservation of linear
momentum and then mechanical energy
27. Answer (1) conservation.
Hint: Elastic collision and energy conservation
Sol.:

Sol.:

When block C collide with A elastically then its


kinetic energy transferred to A.
At maximum compression of spring, relative speed
of A and B is zero.
According to momentum conservation
= ( m + 2m ) v1
mv
Apply law of conservation of momentum
v
v1 =
3 mv
= MV +
mv
2 2
1 1 v  1
mv 2 = × 3m   + kx 2
2 2 3 2 V =
m
v
1 1 1 2 2M
mv 2 − mv 2 = kx
2 6 2 1
2 1 MV 2 = Mgh
mv 2 = kx 2 2
6 2
2m V 2 m 2v 2
x =v =
h =
3k 2g 8M 2 g

28. Answer (4) l −h


cos θ =
Hint: Area of (F - t) graph gives change in l
momentum  m 2v 2 
Sol.: F = – t + 4 =θ cos−1  1 − 2 
 8M gl 
draw (F - t) graph
30. Answer (3)
Hint: Work will be done only by tangential force
 
Sol.: dW = F .dx
dW = mcx dx
2 πr
W = mc ∫ x dx
0

∆K = 2π2cmr 2
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

31. Answer (1) Py


tan θ =
Hint: Work done by gravity is decrease in potential Px
energy
  m × 10 3
tan60° =
Sol.: W = F .S 2m v1
 u 2 cos2 θ  10 3
= mgh
= mg   3=
 2g  2v1
1 v1 = 5 m/s
= mu 2 cos2 θ
2
34. Answer (4)
32. Answer (3)
Hint: Work-energy theorem
Hint: Law of conservation of linear momentum and
t3
conservation of mechanical energy. Sol.: s =
3
Sol.: According to law of conservation of linear
momentum ds
=
v = t2
dt
v
=
m2v m1v1 + m2 v = t2
3
v speed at t = 0, v=0
2m2 = m1v1
3 speed at t = 2 s, v = 4 m/s
2 m2 1
v1 = v W = × 2 [16 − 0 ] =16 J
3 m1 2
35. Answer (2)
Block will complete the vertical circle if
Hint: Work-energy theorem
v1 ≥ 5gl
Sol.: Work done by air drag = change in kinetic
2 m2 energy
v = 5gl
3 m1 1  2
= m v f − v i 2 
2
3 m1
v= 5gl 1
2 m2 = × 1[ 256 − 400 ]
2
33. Answer (3) = −72 J
Hint: Law of conservation of linear momentum. 36. Answer (4)
 
Hint: Instantaneous power P = F .v
Sol.: Sol.: Because block slides down with constant
speed, then
mg sin θ − Ff =0
=Ff mg sin θ
When block moves up the plane then friction acts
downward
 
P = F .v
= ( 2mg sin θ ) v
=P 2mgv sin θ
37. Answer (3)
Hint: Use energy conservation law
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Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

Sol.:
Sol.:

Assume centre of mass as origin. Then moment of


mass at C.M. is zero.
16x + 12[–(14 – x)] = 0
16x – 12 × 14 + 12x = 0
28x = 12 × 14
Total mechanical energy at A = Total mechanical
energy at B x=6Å

1 2 1 42. Answer (3)


mg × 10 + m (10 2 ) =0 + mv B 2
2 2 Hint: Mass is continuously increasing with length,
2 × 100 + 200 =
vB 2 so first calculate centre of mass of elementary mass
(dm)
v B = 20 m/s
Sol.: Linear mass density λ = 2x
38. Answer (4)
Mass of element of length dx,dm = 2xdx
Hint: In self explosion, linear momentum of system
L L 2
remains constant.
 =
xcm
∫=
0
xdm 2∫ x dx
0
L L
Sol.: 0 = m × 50 − 2m × 25 + 2mv 3
 ∫0 dm 2∫0 xdx
2mv 3 = 0
 L3 
v3 = 0 2 
=
xcm = 3  2L
Kinetic energy of third part = 0  L2  3
2 
39. Answer (1) 2
Hint & Sol.: Assume downward direction as 43. Answer (1)
negative direction  
 m1 r 1 + m2 r 2
 m( −g ) + 2m( −g ) Hint: r cm =
acm = m1 + m2
m + 2m
 
acm = −g Sol.: Position of 2 kg, r 1 =i − 2 j − k
 
a cm = g Position of 1 kg, r 2 =−4i + 5 j − 2k
40. Answer (2)   2 × 1 − 1× 4   2
x cm =  i = − i
L  −L   3  3
 m ×  + m ×0 + m 
Hint & Sol.: x cm =  2   2    2 × ( −2 ) + 1× 5   1 
m+m+m =y cm = j j
  3  3
x cm = 0
  2 ( −1) + 1( −2 )   4
L z cm =  k = − k
 m×0 + m + m×L  3  3
y cm = 2
m+m+m 2 1 4
− i + j − k
Position of centre of mass =
 L 3 3 3
y cm =
2 44. Answer (1)
 L Hint: Because no external force acts on system, so
Co-ordinate of centre of mass  0, 
 2 centre of mass of system remains in same position.
41. Answer (3) Sol.: As man shift to other end then boat shifts
Hint: Moment of mass at centre of mass is zero. through a distance x in opposite direction.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

 F ext = 0 45. Answer (2)
 Hint: In equilibrium, net force on system is zero.
∆x cm =0
Sol.: Assume the rope is pulled with force F.
50 ( 5 − x ) + 40 ( − x ) =
0
In equilibrium
250 − 50 x − 40 x =
0 2F = (25 +50) × 10
25 F = 375 N
x= m
9

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (2) 55. Answer (1)
Hint: 1 bar = 0.987 atm Hint: During evaporation, entropy increases.
47. Answer (2) 56. Answer (4)
P1 P2 Hint: If ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 then reaction is
Hint: At constant volume, =
T1 T2 spontaneous at all temperatures.
57. Answer (2)
P° Pf
Sol.: = Hint: For adiabatic process, Q = 0.
273.15 274.15
P° Sol.: ∆U = Q + W (first law of thermodynamics)
∆P = ∆U = W (for adiabatic process).
273.15
48. Answer (1) 58. Answer (2)
Hint: ∆H – ∆U = ∆ngRT
 1 
Hint: Rate of diffusion ∝  . Sol.: Greater is the positive value of ∆ng, higher will
 molar mass 
be ‘∆H – ∆U’.
49. Answer (3)
59. Answer (2)
Hint: Dalton’s law is applicable for non-reacting
r1 M2
gases. He(g) is least likely to react with CO2(g). Hint: =
r2 M1
50. Answer (4)
Hint: Higher is the critical temperature, easier will rX2 MH2 1 MH2
Sol.: = ⇒ = ⇒ MX2 = 16 × 2 = 32
be the liquifaction of gas. rH2 MX 2 4 Mx2
Sol.: H2O(g) has highest critical temperature 60. Answer (2)
among the given gases due to H-bonding.
 a 
51. Answer (1) Hint:  2  term is negligible for He(g).
V 
Hint: Intensive properties do not depend on mass.
Sol.: van der Waals equation for He(g).
Sol.: Surface tension is an intensive property.
PV Pb
52. Answer (2) P(V – b) = RT or = 1+
RT RT
Hint: In adiabatic process, heat exchange is zero. Pb
∴ Z= 1 +
53. Answer (4) RT
Hint: Enthalpy change for formation of 1 mole 61. Answer (3)
compound from its elements in standard states is Hint: Sum of fractions of molecules remains
known as enthalpy of formation. unaltered on changing the temperature.
54. Answer (4) 62. Answer (3)
Hint: b depends on size of molecules/atoms. Hint: Molecules having H-bonding have higher
Sol.: Correct order of ‘b’ is boiling points.
CO2 > O2 > He Sol.: H-bonding is present in ethyl alcohol.
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Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

63. Answer (3) 3


Sol.: Translational KE (E1) = × n1 × RT1
 n2 a  2
Hint:  P + 2  (V − nb) =
nRT 3
 V  Translational KE (E2) = × n2 × RT2
2
 n2 a 
Sol.: Unit of (P) = unit of  2  E1 n1T1
V  =
E2 n2T2
Unit of a = atm L2 mol–2.
x
64. Answer (2) EO2 × T1
= 32
Hint: At critical point, density of liquid and gas EKr x
×T
becomes equal. 54 2
65. Answer (1) 1 54 T1 T 8 4
= × ⇒ 1 = =
Hint: Among given liquids, H2O has highest 4 32 T2 T2 54 27
surface tension.
71. Answer (1)
66. Answer (3) Hint: Partial pressure = mole fraction × Total
3 RT pressure.
Hint: Urms =
M Sol.: H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl
3 × 8.314 × 400 Initial 3 mol 0.5 mol 0
Sol.: Urms
= = 558.37 m/s
32 × 10 −3 Final 2.5 mol 0 1.0 mol
67. Answer (3) 2.5
PH2 = × 7 atm =5 atm
Hint: Polar and non-polar molecules have dipole- 3.5
induced dipole interaction. 1
PHCl = × 7 atm = 2 atm
Sol.: H2 and Cl2 : induced dipole - induced dipole 3.5
force. 72. Answer (4)
HF and HCl : Dipole-dipole force. Hint: Urms> Uavg> Ump
NH3 and He : Dipole induced-dipole force. Sol.: If Urms, Uavg and Ump are equal then
CCl4 and SiCl4 : Induced dipole-induced dipole temperatures at which these occur will have
force. reverse order.
i.e. T1< T2< T3.
68. Answer (2)
73. Answer (3)
PM
Hint: Density of ideal gas (d) = Hint: For adiabatic process, TVγ–1 = constant
RT
Sol.: TV1/4 = constant
PM
Sol.: d = Cp, m 5
RT 1 5
γ − 1= ⇒ γ= ⇒ =
4 4 Cv, m 4
(5 atm) × 44 g mol−1
d = 3.8 g / L
(0.0821 L-atm/mol-K) × 700 K 74. Answer (2)
69. Answer (4) Hint: ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
Hint: PV = nRT Sol.: C7H8(l) + 9O2(g) → 7CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
Sol.: PV = nRT ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
1 atm × 10 L = n × 0.0821 (L-atm mol –1
K ) ×
–1 ∆U = ∆H – ∆ngRT (∆ng = 7 – 9 = –2)
300 K = –3910 + (2 × 8.314 × 10–3 × 300)
n = 0.406 = –3905 kJ mol–1
70. Answer (3) 75. Answer (1)
Hint: Translational kinetic energy for n mole(s) of Hint: For adiabatic process, Q = 0
3 Sol.: In isolated system, the exchange of neither
gas = nRT
2 energy nor the matter takes place.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

76. Answer (1) ∆H = T∆S


Hint: ∆U = nCv∆T ∆H 149 × 1000
=∆S = = 500 J/K-mol
Sol.: ∆T = 0 T 298
∆U = 0 83. Answer (4)
77. Answer (2) Hint: H2O(l)  H2O(g), ∆H > 0
Hint: Enthalpy of ionization of acid is heat required Sol.: H2O(l)  H2O(g), ∆S > 0, ∆U > 0 and ∆G =0
to ionize 1 mol of weak acid completely into its
84. Answer (3)
respective ions.
Hint: Resonance energy
Sol.: HA + NaOH → NaA + H2O
(RE) = (∆Hf)calculated – (∆Hf)experimental
Heat released on neutralisation of 0.2 mol of HA
= 6.2 kJ Sol.:
Heat released on neutralisation of 1 mol of HA
= 31 kJ
Hence, enthalpy of ionization = 57.1 – 31
= 26.1 kJ/mol ∴ RE = (–3x) – (–y) = y – 3x.
78. Answer (1) 85. Answer (1)
n∆H Hint: ∆Hr = Σ( ∆ f H)products − Σ( ∆ f H)reactants
Hint: Entropy of vaporization =
TB.P.
Sol.: C2H4 (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O(l)
0.5 × 40.66 × 103
= Sol.: ∆S = 54.5 J/K ∆Hr = ∆cH(C2H4(g)) = 2∆fH(CO2(g)) + 2∆fH(H2O(l))
373
–∆fH(C2H4(g))
79. Answer (3)
–z = 2(–x) + 2(–y) – ∆fH(C2H4(g))
Hint: Apply Hess’s Law.
∆fH(C2H4(g)) = 2(–x) + 2(–y) + z
Sol.: 2A → 2B, ∆H = +600 = (z – 2x – 2y)
2B → 3C + D, ∆H = −200 86. Answer (3)
3E + 3C → 12D, ∆H = +2100 Hint: For spontaneity, ∆Gsystem< 0 or ∆Stotal> 0
87. Answer (1)
2A + 3E → 13D; ∆H = +2500 kJ/mol
Hint: ∆H = ∆U + ∆(PV)
80. Answer (2) Sol.: ∆H = ∆U + (P2V2 – P1V1)
Hint: Higher is the ∆fH, lesser is the stability. 40 L-atm = ∆U + {(4 × 10) – (2 × 3)} L-atm
Sol.: 40 L-atm = ∆U + 34 L-atm
∆U = (40 – 34) L-atm = 6 L-atm
88. Answer (1)
T 
Hint: ∆S =2.303 nCP log  2 
 T1 
 800 
Sol.: ∆
=S 2.303 × 2 × 20 × log  =  27.7 J/K.
Stability order : Y > X > Z.  400 
81. Answer (1) 89. Answer (2)
Hint: ∆H = ∆U + ∆(PV) Hint: Work done (w) and heat change (q) are path
dependent.
Sol.: ∆H =∆U + ngR∆T
90. Answer (2)
10 =∆U + (2 × 2 × 1) Hint: ∆r H = Σ (B.E.)reactants − Σ (B.E.)products
⇒ ∆U =6 cal
82. Answer (2) Sol.: OCl2 (g) → O(g) + 2Cl(g)

Hint: At equilibrium, ∆G = 0 ∆rH = 2B.E.O – Cl = 420


Sol.: ∆G = ∆H – T∆S B.E.O – Cl = 210 kJ mol–1.
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Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (2) 99. Answer (3)
Hint: Epigynous flowers have inferior ovary. Hint: Castor have albuminous seeds.
Sol.: When margin of thalamus grows upward and Sol.: Being albuminous castor have triploid
encloses the ovary completely the ovary is said to endosperm rich in oil and fats. In all angiosperms
be inferior eg. guava, cucumber etc. endosperm develops after fertilisation.
92. Answer (2) 100. Answer (3)
Hint: In china rose all the stamens are united in Hint: Scutellum represents the single cotyledon.
single bundle. Sol.: Single cotyledon of monocots is called
Sol.: China rose has scutellum.
(1) Monoadelphous stamens 101. Answer (1)
(2) Placenta in the axial position i.e. axile Hint: Aestivation and placentation are shown in
placentation. floral diagram.
93. Answer (3) Sol.: Given floral formula is of family Brassicaceae.
Sol.: In imbricate aestivation, margins of petals A floral formula does not represent aestivation of
and sepals overlap each other but not in a petals or sepals and placentation of ovary.
particular direction. eg. Cassia. 102. Answer (2)
94. Answer (3) Hint: Tulip flowers have epiphyllous stamens.
Hint: In bean flower, petals show vexillary 
Sol.: C A – epipetalous stamens
aestivation.
Sol.: In bean flower, petals are of three types.

P A – epiphyllous stamens
(1) Standard : largest posterior one. 103. Answer (2)
(2) Keel : smallest anterior petals. Hint: Indigofera belongs to family Fabaceae.
(3) Wings : smaller lateral petals. Sol.: Members of Fabaceae family have
95. Answer (3)  Non endospermic seeds
Hint: In epiphyllous condition, stamens are  Legume type of fruit
attached to perianth.
 Zygomorphic flower
Sol.: Tomato lacks perianth, thus epiphyllous
 Racemose inflorescence
condition is absent in it, rather it shows epipetalous
stamens. 104. Answer (1)
96. Answer (2) Sol.: Sunhemp – Fabaceae
Hint: In lotus, ovary is apocarpous. Gloriosa – Liliaceae
Sol.: In apocarpous ovary, carpels are free. Lotus Belladonna – Solanaceae
has multicarpellary, apocarpous ovary. 105. Answer (4)
97. Answer (2) Sol.: Lupin, tulip, sweet pea and Petunia all are
Hint: Mango and coconut have drupe type of fruits. ornamental plants.
Sol.: In mango, mesocarp is edible and epicarp is Lupin, sweet pea – Fabaceae
thin while in coconut, mesocarp is used in making Tulip – Liliaceae
coir. Endocarp is hard and stony in both. Petunia – Solanaceae
Drupe develops from monocarpellary superior 106. Answer (3)
ovary.
Hint: Seeds of cereals have thin and membranous
98. Answer (1) seed coat.
Hint: Banana have parthenocarpic fruits. Sol.: Cereals are monocots and have thin seed
Sol.: Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless and coat. Tobacco (Nicotiana tabacum) is a fumigatory
develop from ovary but without fertilization. plant of Solanaceae family.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

107. Answer (1) 114. Answer (1)


Hint: Persistent calyx is a feature of members of Hint: A vessel is made up of many cells.
family Solanaceae. Sol.: Tracheid is a single elongated cell. However
Sol.: Brinjal – Solanaceae (persistent calyx) both are dead, thick walled tissues and involved in
Tulip, Gloriosa – Liliaceae conduction of water.
Mustard – Brassicaceae 115. Answer (1)
108. Answer (1) Hint: Vessel is mainly found in members of
Sol.: Muliathi – Medicinal plant angiospermae.
Lupin – Ornamental plant Sol.: Vessel is main water conducting element of
angiosperms while tracheid is main water
Sesbania – Fodder plant
conducting element of gymnosperms &
Colchicum – Yields colchicine which is used in
pteridophytes. Algae lack vascular tissues.
doubling of chromosomes.
116. Answer (4)
109. Answer (3)
Sol.: Pneumatophores or respiratory roots are
Sol.: Tendril is modification of stem in pumpkin,
modified tap roots. Rest are adventitious roots.
grape vine, cucumber whereas it is modified leaf in
pea, sweet pea, Nepenthes & Smilax. Belladonna 117. Answer (1)
& wheat lack tendril. Hint: In Opuntia, leaves modify to minimise water
110. Answer (3) loss.
Hint: Onion belongs to family Liliaceae while Sol.: In Opuntia, stem is modified to perform
potato belongs to family Solanceae. photosynthesis and leaves modify into spines.
Such stems are called phylloclade.
Sol.: Both onion and potato are/have
118. Answer (4)
 Modified underground stem
Hint: Phloem parenchyma is absent in monocots.
 Actinomorphic flower & ovary with axile
placentation Sol.: Roots have exarch condition of xylem in
vascular bundles in which protoxylem is towards
In onion, fleshy leaves are modified for food
the periphery.
storage and being monocot it has fibrous roots.
However these features are absent in potato. Given features are true for monocot stem as they
have sclerenchymatous hypodermis and endarch
111. Answer (4)
xylem i.e. protoxylem towards pith.
Hint: Parenchyma and collenchyma both are living
119. Answer (1)
simple permanent tissues.
Hint: In alternate phyllotaxy the stem bear single
Sol.: Parenchyma – thin walled, may have
leaf at each node in alternate fashion.
chloroplast & intercellular space.
Collenchyma – may have chloroplast, intercellular Sol.: Guava, Calotropis – Opposite phyllotaxy
space always absent, it provides mechanical Sunflower – Alternate phyllotaxy
support. Nerium – Whorled phyllotaxy.
112. Answer (4) 120. Answer (3)
Hint: In some plants adventitious roots provide Hint: Trichomes prevent water loss whereas root
mechanical support. hairs increase water absorption.
Sol.: Banyan tree – roots arise from stem branches Sol.: Root hair – Unicellular, unbranched
to provide mechanical support. Trichome – Unicellular / multicellular and
Turnip, Radish – modified tap root for food storage. Branched / unbranched
Rhizophora – modified tap root for respiration. Both are epidermal appendages.
113. Answer (4) 121. Answer (4)
Hint: Protoxylem is a type of primary xylem. Sol.: Stele includes all the tissues inside the
Sol.: Protoxylem & metaxylem both are found in endodermis i.e. pericycle, vascular bundle and pith.
dicot as well as monocot plants. Hypodermis is the part of ground tissue.
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Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

122. Answer (2) 130. Answer (2)


Hint: Pericycle is a cylinder of thin walled Sol.: After many secondary growth—
parenchymatous or thick walled sclerenchymatous Oldest layer of sapwood – just outside the
tissue. heartwood.
Sol.: Pericycle is absent in monocot stem. In roots, Oldest secondary phloem – just inner to primary
pericycle forms lateral roots and a part of vascular phloem.
cambium. Primary phloem – inner to pericycle.
123. Answer (1) 131. Answer (1)
Sol.: In cymose inflorescence, main axis
Sol.: Pistia & Eicchornia have subaerial stem
(peduncle) terminates into a flower, thus shows
called offset.
limited growth. Flowers are arranged in basipetal
132. Answer (3)
order.
Hint: Heartwood is nonfunctional wood.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: Axillary bud may modify into thorns or Sol.: Heartwood includes nonfunctional secondary
tendrils. xylem.
Sol.: Spines of Aloe – modified leaves. 133. Answer (2)
Hint: Tyloses are formed in heartwood.
Sol.: Tyloses are balloon like swellings formed by
125. Answer (1) xylem parenchyma cells in xylem vessels to make
Hint: Cells of endodermis may store starch grains them nonfunctional. They are found in
in stem. angiospermic woods.
Sol.: In dicot stem, endodermis is also called 134. Answer (1)
starch sheath, however endodermis is absent in Hint: Growth rings are very distinct in plants of
monocot stem. temperate regions.
126. Answer (2) Sol.: Roots are underground structures thus
Hint: Isobilateral leaves have equal number of cambium do not show variation in its activity due to
stomata on both the surfaces. seasonal change. In roots, vascular cambium is
Sol.: Isobilateral leaves are found in monocots. formed at the time of secondary growth and thus
They lack palisade parenchyma & have close type completely secondary in origin.
of vascular bundles. 135. Answer (1)
127. Answer (3) Hint: Bulliform cells are large, empty, colourless
Hint: In plants of temperate region, cambium is cells.
more active in spring & less active in autumn Sol.: Bulliform cells become flaccid during water
season. stress and curl the leaf inward. They are found in
Sol.: Spring wood – lighter in colour, less density monocots especially grasses.
Autumn wood – darker in colour, high density. 136. Answer (3)
While plants of tropical regions do not show Hint: Protein that is the main content of bird’s egg.
differential activity of cambium. Sol.: Albumin helps in maintaining the blood
128. Answer (1) colloidal osmotic pressure.
Hint: Sapwood is peripheral active region of wood. • Fibrinogen & prothrombin are blood clotting
Sol.: Sapwood – conduct water. proteins.
Heartwood –  filled with tannins, phenols • Globulins are involved in defence mechanisms
 do not conduct water of the body.
129. Answer (1) 137. Answer (4)
Hint: Cork has suberin deposited cells. Hint: Proteins contribute 6 – 8% of plasma.
Sol.: Cork/phellem is formed by redifferentiation Sol.: RBCs, WBCs & platelets are collectively
and has thick walled cells at maturity. It is also called formed elements. Plasma proteins are not
found in dicot roots. formed elements.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

138. Answer (3)  In non-chordates, annelids (except leech) and


Hint: Blood cells that lack nucleus and other cephalopods have closed circulatory system.
organelles. 146. Answer (1)
Sol.: RBCs are biconcave in shape so it helps in Hint: Atrio-ventricular valve.
providing more room for haemoglobin. Sol.: Opening between right atrium and right
139. Answer (3) ventricle and opening between left atrium and left
Hint: Cells that secrete histamine, serotonin and ventricle is guarded by tricuspid and bicuspid valve
heparin. respectively.
Sol.: Differential leukocyte count in blood – 147. Answer (3)
Neutrophils (Maximum) > Lymphocytes > Hint: Atrial diastole coincides with ventricular
Monocytes > Eosinophils > Basophils (Minimum) systole.
Basophils are least (0.5 – 1%) in number. Sol.:
140. Answer (3)
Hint: These are also called platelets.
Sol.: Thrombocytes are cell fragments produced
from megakaryocytes. Thrombocytes/platelets
release a variety of substances involved in
coagulation of blood.
141. Answer (1) 148. Answer (2)
Hint: Universal blood donor. Hint: Phase of cardiac cycle in which volume of
heart chambers increases.
Sol.: Sol.: Blood from pulmonary veins and venae
cavae, fills the left and right atria, respectively. The
pressure causes AV valves to open and blood to
flow from atria into ventricles.
149. Answer (3)
142. Answer (3)
Hint: SAN is called Pacemaker of heart.
Hint: Thrombocytes are platelets.
Sol.: • SAN generates an action potential which
Sol.: Leukocytes - 6000 to 8000 mm–3. stimulates both the atria to undergo
143. Answer (4) simultaneous contraction.
Hint: Thrombokinase catalyses conversion of • Ventricular systole increases the
prothrombin to thrombin. ventricular pressure causing closure of
Thrombin
Sol.: Fibrinogen 
→ Fibrin tricuspid and bicuspid valves due to
attempted backflow of blood into the atria.
144. Answer (4)
150. Answer (2)
Hint: Lymph is filtered product of blood.
Hint: Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart rate.
Sol.: Lymph has the same mineral distribution as
Sol.: SV = EDV – ESV
that in plasma.
EDV = 120 ml,
145. Answer (4)
ESV = 50 ml
Hint: Notochord extends from head to tail region in
So, SV = 120 – 50 = 70 ml
this taxon.
SV = Stroke volume
Sol.: In protochordates and urochordate have open
circulatory system, while cephalochordates have EDV = End diastolic volume
closed circulatory system. In open circulatory ESV = End systolic volume
system, blood fills in open spaces/sinuses. 151. Answer (2)
 Except urochordates all chordates have closed Hint: White fibrous cords attached with tricuspid
circulatory system. and bicuspid valves.
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Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

Sol.: Chordae tendinae are attached to the flaps of 159. Answer (3)
bicuspid and tricuspid valves at one end and their Hint: The term pulmonary refers to lungs.
other ends are attached to the ventricular wall with Sol.: From the ascending aorta, right and left
papillary muscles. coronary arteries arise which supply oxygenated
152. Answer (3) blood to the heart muscles.
Hint: SA node is called pace maker. 160. Answer (2)
Sol.: Cardiac muscle cells have ability to generate Hint: Identify the most abundant WBCs.
the electrical impulses that trigger cardiac Sol.: Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic
contraction. SA node generates the maximum cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the
number of action potentials i.e. body.
70 – 75 min .
–1
161. Answer (3)
153. Answer (3) Hint: Myeloid tissue present in bones.
Hint: AV valves guard between atria and Sol.: In humans, erythropoiesis during embryonic
ventricles. development occurs in yolk sac, liver and spleen.
When RBC count is very low yellow bone marrow
Sol.: First heart sound ‘lub’ is low pitched and of converts into red bone marrow in adults.
longer duration than dub and is produced by
162. Answer (2)
closure of AV valves.
Hint: This is evaluated using inulin.
154. Answer (2)
Sol.: 99% of filtrate is reabsorbed.
Hint: Maximum filling of ventricles occurs during 163. Answer (4)
joint diastole.
Hint: Acetylcholine has inhibitory effect on cardiac
Sol.: 70% filling of ventricles occurs during joint musculature.
diastole and 30% occurs during filling atrial
Sol.: Parasympathetic nerve endings release
contraction. acetylcholine which decreases the rate of heart
155. Answer (3) beat, speed of conduction of action potential and
Hint: Ventricular repolarisation. cardiac output.
164. Answer (4)
Sol.: The T-wave represents the return of the
ventricles from excited to normal state. Hint: Epithelial part of blood vessels.
Sol.: The wall of capillaries are composed of just
156. Answer (4)
one cell layer of simple squamous epithelium or
Hint: First downward wave in ECG. endothelium.
Sol.: QRS complex represents depolarisation of 165. Answer (3)
the ventricles, which initiates ventricular Hint: Respiratory rhythm centre is also present
contraction. The contraction of ventricles starts here.
shortly after Q and marks the beginning of systole.
Sol.: Medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac
157. Answer (3) functions through ANS. ANS provides both
Hint: Veins carry blood to the heart. sympathetic and parasympathetic supply to the
heart.
Sol.: • Arteries distribute blood from heart to
different parts of the body. 166. Answer (3)
Hint: Common salt increases blood pressure.
• Tunica media is thicker in arteries having
more muscle fibres. Sol.: Hypertension – Systolic ≥ 140 mmHg
Diastolic ≥ 90 mmHg
158. Answer (2)
Heart failure – Congestion of lungs is one
Hint: Second heart sound. of the main symptoms due to
Sol.: Isovolumetric systole represents the duration which heart does not pump
between closure of AV valve and opening of blood effectively enough to
semilunar valve. meet the need of the body.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

167. Answer (2) 174. Answer (1)


Hint: The nitrogenous waste which is most soluble Hint: Conditional reabsorption.
in water. Sol.: Angiotensin II activates the adrenal cortex to
Sol.: Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires release aldosterone, which causes reabsorption of
large amount of water for its elimination. Na+ and water from DCT.
Ammonotelism occurs in many bony fishes, aquatic
175. Answer (4)
amphibians and aquatic insects.
Hint: This structure is not a part of nephron.
168. Answer (4)
Sol.: Conditional reabsorption and tubular
Hint: Identify a free living flatworm.
secretion occur in DCT.
Sol.: Protonephridia or flame cells are the
excretory structures in platyhelminthes, rotifers, 176. Answer (3)
some annelids and cephalochordates. Hint: Insulin deficiency.
169. Answer (2) Sol.: Presence of glucose and ketone bodies urine
Hint: Aquatic arthropods. are indicative of diabetes mellitus.
Sol.: Antennal glands/green glands perform the 177. Answer (3)
excretory function in crustaceans like prawns. Hint: One gram = 1000 mg.
170. Answer (1) Sol.: An adult human excretes, on an average,
Hint: Maximum water is required for elimination of 1 - 1.5 L of urine per day. 25-30 gm of urea is
ammonia. excreted per day.
Sol.: Ammonia is the most toxic form of 178. Answer (2)
nitrogenous waste and requires large amount of Hint: Urea cycle.
water for its elimination, whereas uric acid, being
Sol.: Ornithine cycle occurs in liver in which 1
the least toxic, can be removed with a minimum
molecule of urea is syntherised from 1 molecule of
loss of water.
CO2 and 2 molecules of NH3.
171. Answer (3)
179. Answer (1)
Hint: Renal columns.
Hint: 288 L of CO2 is released per day.
Sol.: Extended cortex between the medullary
pyramids as renal columns are called columns of Sol.: Our lungs remove large amounts of CO2 i.e.
Bertini. 200 mL/min.
172. Answer (2) 180. Answer (3)
Hint: Cardiac output is 5L. Hint: Suffix ‘itis’ indicates inflammation.
Sol.: 1000 - 1200 ml is the renal blood flow which Sol.: (a) Nephritis – Inflammation of kidney
is filtered by kidney per minute. (b) Cystitis – Inflammation of urinary
173. Answer (1) bladder
Hint: Part of renal tubule having maximum (c) Uremia – Increased concentration of
microvilli. urea in blood
Sol.: PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border (d) Haematuria – Presence of blood in the
epithelium which increases the surface area for urine
reabsorption.

  

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Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2021

TEST - 3 (Code-D)
Test Date : 01/12/2019

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (1) 73. (3) 109. (1) 145. (3)
2. (1) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146. (1)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (3) 111. (1) 147. (2)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (2)
6. (2) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (4) 150. (3)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (4) 116. (3) 152. (4)
9. (3) 45. (4) 81. (1) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (4) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (1) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (1) 155. (3)
12. (4) 48. (1) 84. (2) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (3) 49. (1) 85. (1) 121. (4) 157. (3)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (4) 122. (1) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (1) 87. (3) 123. (2) 159. (3)
16. (3) 52. (3) 88. (1) 124. (2) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (4) 89. (2) 125. (1) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (1) 55. (1) 91. (1) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (1) 164. (3)
21. (4) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (4) 59. (2) 95. (1) 131. (3) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (1) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (1)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (3) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (3) 64. (4) 100. (2) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (2) 65. (1) 101. (1) 137. (1) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (3) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (3) 67. (4) 103. (1) 139. (3) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (2) 104. (2) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (3) 105. (4) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (3) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (3)
35. (4) 71. (1) 107. (1) 143. (1) 179. (4)
36. (2) 72. (2) 108. (4) 144. (2) 180. (3)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) L L 2

Hint: In equilibrium, net force on system is zero. =


xcm
∫=
0
xdm 2∫ x dx
0
L L

Sol.: Assume the rope is pulled with force F. ∫0 dm 2∫0 xdx


In equilibrium  L3 
2 
2F = (25 +50) × 10 =
xcm = 3  2L
 L2  3
F = 375 N 2 
2
2. Answer (1)
5. Answer (3)
Hint: Because no external force acts on system, so
centre of mass of system remains in same position. Hint: Moment of mass at centre of mass is zero.

Sol.: As man shift to other end then boat shifts Sol.:


through a distance x in opposite direction.
 Assume centre of mass as origin. Then moment of
 F ext = 0
mass at C.M. is zero.

∆x cm = 0 16x + 12[–(14 – x)] = 0
50 ( 5 − x ) + 40 ( − x ) =
0 16x – 12 × 14 + 12x = 0
250 − 50 x − 40 x =
0 28x = 12 × 14

25 x=6Å
x= m
9 6. Answer (2)
3. Answer (1) L  −L 
 m ×  + m ×0 + m 
  2  2 
 m1 r 1 + m2 r 2 Hint & Sol.: x cm =
Hint: r cm = m+m+m
m1 + m2 
x cm = 0

Sol.: Position of 2 kg, r 1 =i − 2 j − k L
 m×0 + m + m×L
 y cm = 2
Position of 1 kg, r 2 =−4i + 5 j − 2k m+m+m
  L
 2 × 1 − 1× 4   2 y cm =
x cm =  i = − i 2
 3  3
  L
 2 × ( −2 ) + 1× 5   1  Co-ordinate of centre of mass  0, 
=y cm = j j  2
 3  3
7. Answer (1)
  2 ( −1) + 1( −2 )   4
z cm =  k = − k Hint & Sol.: Assume downward direction as
 3  3
negative direction
2 1 4
− i + j − k
Position of centre of mass =  m( −g ) + 2m( −g )
3 3 3 acm =
m + 2m
4. Answer (3) 
acm = −g
Hint: Mass is continuously increasing with length, 
so first calculate centre of mass of elementary a cm = g
mass (dm). 8. Answer (4)
Sol.: Linear mass density λ = 2x Hint: In self explosion, linear momentum of system
Mass of element of length dx,dm = 2xdx remains constant.
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Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

Sol.: 0 = m × 50 − 2m × 25 + 2mv 3 t3
 Sol.: s =
2mv 3 = 0 3
v3 = 0 ds
=
v = t2
dt
Kinetic energy of third part = 0
v = t2
9. Answer (3)
speed at t = 0, v=0
Hint: Use energy conservation law
Sol.: speed at t = 2 s, v = 4 m/s
1
W = × 2 [16 − 0] =16 J
2
13. Answer (3)
Hint: Law of conservation of linear momentum.

Sol.:
Total mechanical energy at A = Total mechanical
energy at B
1 2 1
mg × 10 + m (10 2 ) =0 + mv B 2
2 2
vB2
2 × 100 + 200 =
v B = 20 m/s
10. Answer (4)
 
Hint: Instantaneous power P = F .v
Sol.: Because block slides down with constant
speed, then
mg sin θ − Ff =0 Py
tan θ =
=Ff mg sin θ Px
When block moves up the plane then friction acts m × 10 3
downward tan60° =
  2m v1
P = F .v
10 3
= ( 2mg sin θ ) v 3=
2v1
=P 2mgv sin θ
v1 = 5 m/s
11. Answer (2)
14. Answer (3)
Hint: Work-energy theorem Hint: Law of conservation of linear momentum and
Sol.: Work done by air drag = change in kinetic conservation of mechanical energy.
energy Sol.: According to law of conservation of linear
1  2 momentum
= m v f − v i 2 
2 v
=
m2v m1v1 + m2
1 3
= × 1[ 256 − 400 ]
2 v
2m2 = m1v1
= −72 J 3
12. Answer (4) 2 m2
v1 = v
Hint: Work-energy theorem 3 m1
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

Block will complete the vertical circle if l −h


cos θ =
v1 ≥ 5gl l

2 m2
 m 2v 2 
v = 5gl =θ cos−1  1 − 2 
3 m1  8M gl 
3 m1 18. Answer (4)
v= 5gl
2 m2 Hint: Area of (F - t) graph gives change in
momentum
15. Answer (1)
Sol.: F = – t + 4
Hint: Work done by gravity is decrease in potential
energy draw (F - t) graph
 
Sol.: W = F .S
 u 2 cos2 θ 
= mgh
= mg  
 2g 
1
= mu 2 cos2 θ
2
16. Answer (3)
Hint: Work will be done only by tangential force
 
Sol.: dW = F .dx 1 1 
∆p =  × 4 × 4 − × 2 × 2
dW = mcx dx 2 2 
2 πr m[v – 1] = 6
W = mc ∫ x dx
0 v = 4 m/s
∆K = 2π2cmr 2 1
K.E. = × ( 2 ) × 42 =16 J
17. Answer (2) 2
Hint: First apply law of conservation of linear 19. Answer (1)
momentum and then mechanical energy Hint: Elastic collision and energy conservation
conservation.
Sol.: Sol.:

When block C collide with A elastically then its


kinetic energy transferred to A.
At maximum compression of spring, relative speed
of A and B is zero.
According to momentum conservation
= ( m + 2m ) v1
mv
v
v1 =
Apply law of conservation of momentum 3
2
mv 1 1 v  1
= MV +
mv mv 2 = × 3m   + kx 2
2 2 2 3 2
m 1 1 1 2
V = v mv 2 − mv 2 = kx
2M 2 6 2
1 2 1
MV 2 = Mgh mv 2 = kx 2
2 6 2
V 2 m 2v 2 2m
=
h = x =v
2g 8M 2 g 3k
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Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

20. Answer (2)  0.2  1 


v1 = − v= − v
Hint: Because wall is in (y – z) plane, only 4.0 20
x-component of velocity will change. Total kinetic energy = 1050
1 1
velocity of separation × 0.2v 2 + × 4 × v 2 =1050
Sol.: e = 2 2 1
velocity of approach 2
 v 
1 0 − v1 0.2v 2 + 4   = 2100
=  20 
2 2−0
  1 
v 2 0.2 + 2100
=
v 1 = −i  100 
So, velocity just after collision =−i + 2 j 100 × 2100
v2 =
21
21. Answer (4)
v = 100 m/s
Hint & Sol.: Work done by friction may be positive,
negative or zero. 26. Answer (1)

22. Answer (3) Hint: Work done by forces is equal to change in


kinetic energy.
Hint: Energy stored in stretched spring
Sol.: K = as 2
1 2 F2
=U = kx
2 2k dK
= 2as
Sol.: Given KA = 3KB ds
U A KB F = 2as
=
UB K A 27. Answer (3)
 
E K Hint: Instantaneous power P = F .v
= B
EB 3K B −1
Sol.: F ∝ s 3

EB = 3E
k −13
a= s (k is a constant)
23. Answer (4) m
Hint & Sol.: Momentum of system is always dv k −1
v. = s 3
conserved but kinetic energy of system just before ds m
collision is equal to kinetic energy of system just k −1
vdv = s 3 ds
after collision. m
24. Answer (2) v 2 3 k 23
= s
Hint: Apply law of conservation of mechanical 2 2m
energy. 3k 13
v= s
Sol.: Loss of potential energy = Gain in kinetic m
energy. −1 3k 13
= = ks
P Fv 3
s
m
( 3 × 10 × 5 − 2 × 10 × 5 )= 1 ( 3 + 5 ) v 2
2 P ∝ s0
50 × 2 = 5v2 28. Answer (3)
v = 2 5 m/s Hint: Work done by all forces is equal to change in
kinetic energy.
25. Answer (1)  
Sol.: Work done by forces F 1 and F 2 + work done
Hint: Law of conservation of linear momentum
by gravity = ∆K = 0
Sol.: Mass of shell = 0.2 kg  
work done by F1 and F2 = − [ work done by gravity ]
Mass of gun = 4.0 kg
 
According to law of conservation of momentum work done by F1 and F2 = − [ mg h cos180°]
 
0= 0.2 × v + 4.0 v 1 = mgh
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29. Answer (2) Sol.: Normal reaction of wall N = 100 N


Hint: Total mass of rod can be assumed at its Force of limiting friction F = µN = 25 N
centre of mass.
Sol.: Work done = change in potential energy Pulling force = mg = 20 N
l  So force of friction = 20 N (upwards)
= mg  
2
34. Answer (3)
mgl
= Hint: The compression will be maximum, when
2
30. Answer (1) work done by pseudo force is stored in the form of
elastic potential energy.
Hint & Sol.: Potential energy is defined for
conservative forces. Sol.: As the plank is accelerated, pseudo force
31. Answer (3) (ma) acts on the block, which compresses the
Hint: According to polygon law a set of forces spring through x,
forming a closed polygon leads to a zero resultant. At maximum compression
Sol.: In closed polygon resultant of four identical
1 2
forces is balanced by fifth force. max = kx
2
So, resultant magnitude force = ( F2 − F1 )
2ma
( F2 − F1 ) x=
Net acceleration a = k
m
35. Answer (4)
Hint: Applied force F = 2t is time dependent.
So up to certain time, block will not move.
Sol.: Applied force F = 2t
Limiting friction Ff = µmg

F − Ff 2t − µmg
=a =
m m
2t
32. Answer (2) =
a − µg
m
Hint: Impulse = Change in momentum
 This is an equation of straight line of form
 ∆ x
Sol.: Velocity up to 2 s = v1 = 2 m s−1 y = mx + c, with positive slope and negative
∆t
 intercept.
velocity just after 2 s, v 2 = 0
change in momentum
  

= p m [v 2 − v 1 ]
= 1[0 – 2]
= –2 kg m/s
33. Answer (1) 36. Answer (2)
Hint: mg ≤ µN
Hint: Force of limiting friction flim = µmg

Sol.: N = mg = 10 N
Ff = µmg = 2 N
at t = 3 s, F = 6 N
⇒ friction = 2 N
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Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

37. Answer (1) 41. Answer (4)



g  ∆P
Hint: amin = Hint: F =
µ ∆t
Sol.: Let common acceleration be a. Then
0.5(2iˆ + 2 jˆ) (0.5) (2 2)
F Sol.: F
= = = 1N
a= 1.414 1.414
2m
42. Answer (2)
F F
N= ×m= Hint & Sol.: In circular motion with increasing
2m 2
speed, tangential force and displacement are in
For no slipping (in limiting equilibrium)
same direction, (θ = 0°). So work done on the body
µN =mg is positive.
µF 43. Answer (1)
= mg
2
Hint: According to Newton’s second law
F = 2mg/µ 
 dP
38. Answer (4) F=
dt
Hint: When angle of inclination is θ   
a = g sinθ Sol.: P= a + bt 2

=
Sol.: v 2gl sinθ dP 
= 2bt
dt
F ∝t

44. Answer (3)


Hint: Block is sliding with constant velocity,
so a = 0
Sol.: Block slides along the plane, with constant
When angle of plane is 2θ velocity
=v1 2gl sin2θ

=v1 2gl ( 2sin θ cos θ )

=v1 v 2cos θ
39. Answer (1)
Hint: Horse pushes the earth backward and earth
applies force in forward direction.
Sol.: Total mass of system = 2000 kg mgsinθ – µmgcosθ = m(0)
F – µ(mg) = (m + M)a µmgcosθ = mgsinθ
F – 0.2(1500 × 10) = (2000) × 2
Ff = mgsinθ
F = 7000 N
45. Answer (4)
40. Answer (4)
Hint: ∴ No impulsive external force acts on bomb, Hint & Sol.: Normal force due to book on the table
so momentum of system remains constant and weight of the book, both are in same direction.

−2mv i + mv j + 2mv 3
Sol.: 0 =
 v
v= v i − j
3
2 so θ = 0°
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (2) 54. Answer (2)
Hint: ∆r H = Σ (B.E.)reactants − Σ (B.E.)products Hint: At equilibrium, ∆G = 0
Sol.: ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
Sol.: OCl2 (g) → O(g) + 2Cl(g) ∆H = T∆S
∆rH = 2B.E.O – Cl = 420 ∆H 149 × 1000
=∆S = = 500 J/K-mol
B.E.O – Cl = 210 kJ mol–1. T 298
47. Answer (2) 55. Answer (1)
Hint: Work done (w) and heat change (q) are path Hint: ∆H = ∆U + ∆(PV)
dependent.
Sol.: ∆H =∆U + ngR∆T
48. Answer (1)
10 =∆U + (2 × 2 × 1)
T 
Hint: ∆S =2.303 nCP log  2  ⇒ ∆U =6 cal
 T1 
56. Answer (2)
 800 
Sol.: ∆
=S 2.303 × 2 × 20 × log  =  27.7 J/K. Hint: Higher is the ∆fH, lesser is the stability.
 400 
Sol.:
49. Answer (1)
Hint: ∆H = ∆U + ∆(PV)
Sol.: ∆H = ∆U + (P2V2 – P1V1)
40 L-atm = ∆U + {(4 × 10) – (2 × 3)} L-atm
40 L-atm = ∆U + 34 L-atm
∆U = (40 – 34) L-atm = 6 L-atm
Stability order : Y > X > Z.
50. Answer (3) 57. Answer (3)
Hint: For spontaneity, ∆Gsystem< 0 or ∆Stotal> 0 Hint: Apply Hess’s Law.
51. Answer (1)
Sol.: 2A → 2B, ∆H = +600
Hint: ∆Hr = Σ( ∆ f H)products − Σ( ∆ f H)reactants
2B → 3C + D, ∆H = −200
Sol.: C2H4 (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O(l) 3E + 3C → 12D, ∆H = +2100
∆Hr = ∆cH(C2H4(g)) = 2∆fH(CO2(g)) + 2∆fH(H2O(l)) 2A + 3E → 13D; ∆H = +2500 kJ/mol
–∆fH(C2H4(g))
58. Answer (1)
–z = 2(–x) + 2(–y) – ∆fH(C2H4(g))
n∆H
∆fH(C2H4(g)) = 2(–x) + 2(–y) + z Hint: Entropy of vaporization =
TB.P.
= (z – 2x – 2y)
52. Answer (3) 0.5 × 40.66 × 103
Sol.: ∆S
= = 54.5 J/K
Hint: Resonance energy 373
(RE) = (∆Hf)calculated – (∆Hf)experimental 59. Answer (2)
Hint: Enthalpy of ionization of acid is heat required
Sol.: to ionize 1 mol of weak acid completely into its
respective ions.
Sol.: HA + NaOH → NaA + H2O
Heat released on neutralisation of 0.2 mol of HA
= 6.2 kJ
∴ RE = (–3x) – (–y) = y – 3x.
Heat released on neutralisation of 1 mol of HA
53. Answer (4)
= 31 kJ
Hint: H2O(l)  H2O(g), ∆H > 0 Hence, enthalpy of ionization = 57.1 – 31
Sol.: H2O(l)  H2O(g), ∆S > 0, ∆U > 0 and ∆G =0 = 26.1 kJ/mol
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Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

60. Answer (1) x


EO2 × T1
Hint: ∆U = nCv∆T = 32
Sol.: ∆T = 0 EKr x
×T
∆U = 0 54 2
1 54 T1 T 8 4
61. Answer (1) = × ⇒ 1 = =
Hint: For adiabatic process, Q = 0 4 32 T2 T2 54 27
Sol.: In isolated system, the exchange of neither 67. Answer (4)
energy nor the matter takes place. Hint: PV = nRT
62. Answer (2) Sol.: PV = nRT
Hint: ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
1 atm × 10 L = n × 0.0821 (L-atm mol–1 K–1) ×
Sol.: C7H8(l) + 9O2(g) → 7CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) 300 K
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT n = 0.406
∆U = ∆H – ∆ngRT (∆ng = 7 – 9 = –2) 68. Answer (2)
= –3910 + (2 × 8.314 × 10–3 × 300) PM
Hint: Density of ideal gas (d) =
= –3905 kJ mol–1 RT
63. Answer (3) PM
Sol.: d =
Hint: For adiabatic process, TVγ–1 = constant RT
Sol.: TV1/4 = constant (5 atm) × 44 g mol−1
= d = 3.8 g / L
1 5 Cp, m 5 (0.0821 L-atm/mol-K) × 700 K
γ − 1= ⇒ γ= ⇒ =
4 4 Cv, m 4 69. Answer (3)
64. Answer (4) Hint: Polar and non-polar molecules have dipole-
Hint: Urms> Uavg> Ump induced dipole interaction.
Sol.: If Urms, Uavg and Ump are equal then Sol.: H2 and Cl2 : induced dipole - induced dipole
temperatures at which these occur will have force.
reverse order. HF and HCl : Dipole-dipole force.
i.e. T1< T2< T3.
NH3 and He : Dipole induced-dipole force.
65. Answer (1)
CCl4 and SiCl4 : Induced dipole-induced dipole
Hint: Partial pressure = mole fraction × Total
pressure. force.
70. Answer (3)
Sol.: H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl
3 RT
Initial 3 mol 0.5 mol 0 Hint: Urms =
M
Final 2.5 mol 0 1.0 mol
3 × 8.314 × 400
2.5 Sol.: Urms
= = 558.37 m/s
PH2 = × 7 atm =5 atm 32 × 10 −3
3.5
71. Answer (1)
1
PHCl = × 7 atm =2 atm Hint: Among given liquids, H2O has highest
3.5
surface tension.
66. Answer (3)
72. Answer (2)
Hint: Translational kinetic energy for n mole(s) of
Hint: At critical point, density of liquid and gas
3
gas = nRT becomes equal.
2
73. Answer (3)
3
Sol.: Translational KE (E1) = × n1 × RT1  n2 a 
2 Hint:  P + 2  (V − nb) =
nRT
3  V 
Translational KE (E2) = × n2 × RT2
2  n2 a 
Sol.: Unit of (P) = unit of  2 
E1 n1T1 V 
=
E2 n2T2 Unit of a = atm L2 mol–2.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

74. Answer (3) 82. Answer (4)


Hint: Molecules having H-bonding have higher Hint: b depends on size of molecules/atoms.
boiling points. Sol.: Correct order of ‘b’ is
Sol.: H-bonding is present in ethyl alcohol. CO2 > O2 > He
75. Answer (3) 83. Answer (4)
Hint: Sum of fractions of molecules remains Hint: Enthalpy change for formation of 1 mole
unaltered on changing the temperature. compound from its elements in standard states is
76. Answer (2) known as enthalpy of formation.
 a  84. Answer (2)
Hint:  2  term is negligible for He(g).
V  Hint: In adiabatic process, heat exchange is zero.
Sol.: van der Waals equation for He(g). 85. Answer (1)
PV Pb Hint: Intensive properties do not depend on mass.
P(V – b) = RT or = 1+
RT RT Sol.: Surface tension is an intensive property.
Pb 86. Answer (4)
∴ Z= 1 +
RT
Hint: Higher is the critical temperature, easier will
77. Answer (2) be the liquifaction of gas.
r1 M2 Sol.: H2O(g) has highest critical temperature
Hint: =
r2 M1 among the given gases due to H-bonding.

rX2 MH2 MH2 87. Answer (3)


1
Sol.: = ⇒ = ⇒ MX2 = 16 × 2 = 32 Hint: Dalton’s law is applicable for non-reacting
rH2 MX 2 4 Mx2
gases. He(g) is least likely to react with CO2(g).
78. Answer (2) 88. Answer (1)
Hint: ∆H – ∆U = ∆ngRT
 1 
Sol.: Greater is the positive value of ∆ng, higher will Hint: Rate of diffusion ∝  .
 molar mass 
be ‘∆H – ∆U’.
89. Answer (2)
79. Answer (2)
P1 P2
Hint: For adiabatic process, Q = 0. Hint: At constant volume, =
T1 T2
Sol.: ∆U = Q + W (first law of thermodynamics)
P° Pf
∆U = W (for adiabatic process). Sol.: =
273.15 274.15
80. Answer (4)

Hint: If ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 then reaction is ∆P =
273.15
spontaneous at all temperatures.
90. Answer (2)
81. Answer (1)
Hint: During evaporation, entropy increases. Hint: 1 bar = 0.987 atm

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (1) 92. Answer (1)
Hint: Bulliform cells are large, empty, colourless Hint: Growth rings are very distinct in plants of
temperate regions.
cells.
Sol.: Roots are underground structures thus
Sol.: Bulliform cells become flaccid during water cambium do not show variation in its activity due to
stress and curl the leaf inward. They are found in seasonal change. In roots, vascular cambium is
formed at the time of secondary growth and thus
monocots especially grasses. completely secondary in origin.

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Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

93. Answer (2) 101. Answer (1)


Hint: Tyloses are formed in heartwood. Hint: Cells of endodermis may store starch grains
Sol.: Tyloses are balloon like swellings formed by in stem.
xylem parenchyma cells in xylem vessels to make Sol.: In dicot stem, endodermis is also called
them nonfunctional. They are found in starch sheath, however endodermis is absent in
angiospermic woods. monocot stem.
94. Answer (3) 102. Answer (3)
Hint: Heartwood is nonfunctional wood. Hint: Axillary bud may modify into thorns or
tendrils.
Sol.: Heartwood includes nonfunctional secondary
xylem. Sol.: Spines of Aloe – modified leaves.

95. Answer (1)


Sol.: Pistia & Eicchornia have subaerial stem 103. Answer (1)
called offset.
Sol.: In cymose inflorescence, main axis
96. Answer (2) (peduncle) terminates into a flower, thus shows
Sol.: After many secondary growth— limited growth. Flowers are arranged in basipetal
Oldest layer of sapwood – just outside the order.
heartwood. 104. Answer (2)
Oldest secondary phloem – just inner to primary Hint: Pericycle is a cylinder of thin walled
phloem. parenchymatous or thick walled sclerenchymatous
tissue.
Primary phloem – inner to pericycle.
Sol.: Pericycle is absent in monocot stem. In roots,
97. Answer (1)
pericycle forms lateral roots and a part of vascular
Hint: Cork has suberin deposited cells. cambium.
Sol.: Cork/phellem is formed by redifferentiation 105. Answer (4)
and has thick walled cells at maturity. It is also
Sol.: Stele includes all the tissues inside the
found in dicot roots.
endodermis i.e. pericycle, vascular bundle and pith.
98. Answer (1) Hypodermis is the part of ground tissue.
Hint: Sapwood is peripheral active region of wood. 106. Answer (3)
Sol.: Sapwood – conduct water. Hint: Trichomes prevent water loss whereas root
Heartwood –  filled with tannins, phenols hairs increase water absorption.
 do not conduct water Sol.: Root hair – Unicellular, unbranched

99. Answer (3) Trichome – Unicellular / multicellular and


Branched / unbranched
Hint: In plants of temperate region, cambium is
more active in spring & less active in autumn Both are epidermal appendages.
season. 107. Answer (1)
Sol.: Spring wood – lighter in colour, less density Hint: In alternate phyllotaxy the stem bear single
leaf at each node in alternate fashion.
Autumn wood – darker in colour, high density.
Sol.: Guava, Calotropis – Opposite phyllotaxy
While plants of tropical regions do not show
differential activity of cambium. Sunflower – Alternate phyllotaxy

100. Answer (2) Nerium – Whorled phyllotaxy.


108. Answer (4)
Hint: Isobilateral leaves have equal number of
stomata on both the surfaces. Hint: Phloem parenchyma is absent in monocots.
Sol.: Isobilateral leaves are found in monocots. Sol.: Roots have exarch condition of xylem in
They lack palisade parenchyma & have close type vascular bundles in which protoxylem is towards
of vascular bundles. the periphery.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

Given features are true for monocot stem as they Sol.: Both onion and potato are/have
have sclerenchymatous hypodermis and endarch  Modified underground stem
xylem i.e. protoxylem towards pith.  Actinomorphic flower & ovary with axile
109. Answer (1) placentation
Hint: In Opuntia, leaves modify to minimise water In onion, fleshy leaves are modified for food
loss. storage and being monocot it has fibrous roots.
Sol.: In Opuntia, stem is modified to perform However these features are absent in potato.
photosynthesis and leaves modify into spines. 117. Answer (3)
Such stems are called phylloclade. Sol.: Tendril is modification of stem in pumpkin,
110. Answer (4) grape vine, cucumber whereas it is modified leaf in
Sol.: Pneumatophores or respiratory roots are pea, sweet pea, Nepenthes & Smilax. Belladonna
modified tap roots. Rest are adventitious roots. & wheat lack tendril.
118. Answer (1)
111. Answer (1)
Sol.: Muliathi – Medicinal plant
Hint: Vessel is mainly found in members of
Lupin – Ornamental plant
angiospermae.
Sesbania – Fodder plant
Sol.: Vessel is main water conducting element of
angiosperms while tracheid is main water Colchicum – Yields colchicine which is used in
conducting element of gymnosperms & doubling of chromosomes.
pteridophytes. Algae lack vascular tissues. 119. Answer (1)
112. Answer (1) Hint: Persistent calyx is a feature of members of
family Solanaceae.
Hint: A vessel is made up of many cells.
Sol.: Brinjal – Solanaceae (persistent calyx)
Sol.: Tracheid is a single elongated cell. However
Tulip, Gloriosa – Liliaceae
both are dead, thick walled tissues and involved in
Mustard – Brassicaceae
conduction of water.
120. Answer (3)
113. Answer (4)
Hint: Seeds of cereals have thin and membranous
Hint: Protoxylem is a type of primary xylem.
seed coat.
Sol.: Protoxylem & metaxylem both are found in Sol.: Cereals are monocots and have thin seed
dicot as well as monocot plants. coat. Tobacco (Nicotiana tabacum) is a fumigatory
114. Answer (4) plant of Solanaceae family.
Hint: In some plants adventitious roots provide 121. Answer (4)
mechanical support. Sol.: Lupin, tulip, sweet pea and Petunia all are
Sol.: Banyan tree – roots arise from stem branches ornamental plants.
to provide mechanical support. Lupin, sweet pea – Fabaceae
Turnip, Radish – modified tap root for food storage. Tulip – Liliaceae
Rhizophora – modified tap root for respiration. Petunia – Solanaceae
115. Answer (4) 122. Answer (1)
Hint: Parenchyma and collenchyma both are living Sol.: Sunhemp – Fabaceae
simple permanent tissues. Gloriosa – Liliaceae
Sol.: Parenchyma – thin walled, may have Belladonna – Solanaceae
chloroplast & intercellular space. 123. Answer (2)
Collenchyma – may have chloroplast, intercellular Hint: Indigofera belongs to family Fabaceae.
space always absent, it provides mechanical Sol.: Members of Fabaceae family have
support.  Non endospermic seeds
116. Answer (3)  Legume type of fruit
Hint: Onion belongs to family Liliaceae while  Zygomorphic flower
potato belongs to family Solanceae.  Racemose inflorescence
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Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

124. Answer (2) Sol.: In bean flower, petals are of three types.
Hint: Tulip flowers have epiphyllous stamens. (1) Standard : largest posterior one.

Sol.: C A – epipetalous stamens (2) Keel : smallest anterior petals.

 (3) Wings : smaller lateral petals.


P A – epiphyllous stamens
133. Answer (3)
125. Answer (1)
Sol.: In imbricate aestivation, margins of petals
Hint: Aestivation and placentation are shown in and sepals overlap each other but not in a
floral diagram. particular direction. eg. Cassia.
Sol.: Given floral formula is of family Brassicaceae. 134. Answer (2)
A floral formula does not represent aestivation of
Hint: In china rose all the stamens are united in
petals or sepals and placentation of ovary.
single bundle.
126. Answer (3)
Sol.: China rose has
Hint: Scutellum represents the single cotyledon.
(1) Monoadelphous stamens
Sol.: Single cotyledon of monocots is called
(2) Placenta in the axial position i.e. axile
scutellum.
placentation.
127. Answer (3)
135. Answer (2)
Hint: Castor have albuminous seeds.
Hint: Epigynous flowers have inferior ovary.
Sol.: Being albuminous castor have triploid
Sol.: When margin of thalamus grows upward and
endosperm rich in oil and fats. In all angiosperms
encloses the ovary completely the ovary is said to
endosperm develops after fertilisation.
be inferior eg. guava, cucumber etc.
128. Answer (1)
136. Answer (3)
Hint: Banana have parthenocarpic fruits.
Hint: Suffix ‘itis’ indicates inflammation.
Sol.: Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless and
Sol.: (a) Nephritis – Inflammation of kidney
develop from ovary but without fertilization.
(b) Cystitis – Inflammation of urinary
129. Answer (2)
bladder
Hint: Mango and coconut have drupe type of fruits.
(c) Uremia – Increased concentration of
Sol.: In mango, mesocarp is edible and epicarp is urea in blood
thin while in coconut, mesocarp is used in making
coir. Endocarp is hard and stony in both. (d) Haematuria – Presence of blood in the
urine
Drupe develops from monocarpellary superior
ovary. 137. Answer (1)

130. Answer (2) Hint: 288 L of CO2 is released per day.

Hint: In lotus, ovary is apocarpous. Sol.: Our lungs remove large amounts of CO2 i.e.
200 mL/min.
Sol.: In apocarpous ovary, carpels are free. Lotus
has multicarpellary, apocarpous ovary. 138. Answer (2)

131. Answer (3) Hint: Urea cycle.

Hint: In epiphyllous condition, stamens are Sol.: Ornithine cycle occurs in liver in which 1
attached to perianth. molecule of urea is syntherised from 1 molecule of
CO2 and 2 molecules of NH3.
Sol.: Tomato lacks perianth, thus epiphyllous
condition is absent in it, rather it shows epipetalous 139. Answer (3)
stamens. Hint: One gram = 1000 mg.
132. Answer (3) Sol.: An adult human excretes, on an average,
Hint: In bean flower, petals show vexillary 1 - 1.5 L of urine per day. 25-30 gm of urea is
aestivation. excreted per day.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

140. Answer (3) 149. Answer (2)


Hint: Insulin deficiency. Hint: The nitrogenous waste which is most soluble
Sol.: Presence of glucose and ketone bodies urine in water.
are indicative of diabetes mellitus. Sol.: Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires
141. Answer (4) large amount of water for its elimination.
Hint: This structure is not a part of nephron. Ammonotelism occurs in many bony fishes, aquatic
amphibians and aquatic insects.
Sol.: Conditional reabsorption and tubular
secretion occur in DCT. 150. Answer (3)
142. Answer (1) Hint: Common salt increases blood pressure.
Hint: Conditional reabsorption. Sol.: Hypertension – Systolic ≥ 140 mmHg
Sol.: Angiotensin II activates the adrenal cortex to Diastolic ≥ 90 mmHg
release aldosterone, which causes reabsorption of Heart failure – Congestion of lungs is one
Na+ and water from DCT. of the main symptoms due to
143. Answer (1) which heart does not pump
Hint: Part of renal tubule having maximum blood effectively enough to
microvilli. meet the need of the body.
Sol.: PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border 151. Answer (3)
epithelium which increases the surface area for Hint: Respiratory rhythm centre is also present
reabsorption. here.
144. Answer (2) Sol.: Medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac
Hint: Cardiac output is 5L. functions through ANS. ANS provides both
Sol.: 1000 - 1200 ml is the renal blood flow which sympathetic and parasympathetic supply to the
is filtered by kidney per minute. heart.
145. Answer (3) 152. Answer (4)
Hint: Renal columns. Hint: Epithelial part of blood vessels.
Sol.: Extended cortex between the medullary Sol.: The wall of capillaries are composed of just
pyramids as renal columns are called columns of one cell layer of simple squamous epithelium or
Bertini. endothelium.
146. Answer (1) 153. Answer (4)
Hint: Maximum water is required for elimination of Hint: Acetylcholine has inhibitory effect on cardiac
ammonia. musculature.
Sol.: Ammonia is the most toxic form of Sol.: Parasympathetic nerve endings release
nitrogenous waste and requires large amount of acetylcholine which decreases the rate of heart
water for its elimination, whereas uric acid, being beat, speed of conduction of action potential and
the least toxic, can be removed with a minimum cardiac output.
loss of water.
154. Answer (2)
147. Answer (2)
Hint: This is evaluated using inulin.
Hint: Aquatic arthropods.
Sol.: 99% of filtrate is reabsorbed.
Sol.: Antennal glands/green glands perform the
excretory function in crustaceans like prawns. 155. Answer (3)
148. Answer (4) Hint: Myeloid tissue present in bones.
Hint: Identify a free living flatworm. Sol.: In humans, erythropoiesis during embryonic
Sol.: Protonephridia or flame cells are the development occurs in yolk sac, liver and spleen.
excretory structures in platyhelminthes, rotifers, When RBC count is very low yellow bone marrow
some annelids and cephalochordates. converts into red bone marrow in adults.
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Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

156. Answer (2) 164. Answer (3)


Hint: Identify the most abundant WBCs. Hint: SA node is called pace maker.
Sol.: Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic
Sol.: Cardiac muscle cells have ability to generate
cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the
the electrical impulses that trigger cardiac
body.
contraction. SA node generates the maximum
157. Answer (3) number of action potentials i.e. 70 – 75 min–1.
Hint: The term pulmonary refers to lungs.
165. Answer (2)
Sol.: From the ascending aorta, right and left
coronary arteries arise which supply oxygenated Hint: White fibrous cords attached with tricuspid
blood to the heart muscles. and bicuspid valves.
158. Answer (2) Sol.: Chordae tendinae are attached to the flaps of
Hint: Second heart sound. bicuspid and tricuspid valves at one end and their
other ends are attached to the ventricular wall with
Sol.: Isovolumetric systole represents the duration
papillary muscles.
between closure of AV valve and opening of
semilunar valve. 166. Answer (2)
159. Answer (3) Hint: Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart rate.
Hint: Veins carry blood to the heart.
Sol.: SV = EDV – ESV
Sol.: • Arteries distribute blood from heart to
different parts of the body. EDV = 120 ml,
• Tunica media is thicker in arteries having ESV = 50 ml
more muscle fibres.
So, SV = 120 – 50 = 70 ml
160. Answer (4)
Hint: First downward wave in ECG. SV = Stroke volume

Sol.: QRS complex represents depolarisation of EDV = End diastolic volume


the ventricles, which initiates ventricular
ESV = End systolic volume
contraction. The contraction of ventricles starts
shortly after Q and marks the beginning of systole. 167. Answer (3)
161. Answer (3)
Hint: SAN is called Pacemaker of heart.
Hint: Ventricular repolarisation.
Sol.: • SAN generates an action potential which
Sol.: The T-wave represents the return of the
stimulates both the atria to undergo
ventricles from excited to normal state.
simultaneous contraction.
162. Answer (2)
• Ventricular systole increases the
Hint: Maximum filling of ventricles occurs during ventricular pressure causing closure of
joint diastole. tricuspid and bicuspid valves due to
Sol.: 70% filling of ventricles occurs during joint attempted backflow of blood into the atria.
diastole and 30% occurs during filling atrial
contraction. 168. Answer (2)

163. Answer (3) Hint: Phase of cardiac cycle in which volume of


heart chambers increases.
Hint: AV valves guard between atria and
ventricles. Sol.: Blood from pulmonary veins and venae
Sol.: First heart sound ‘lub’ is low pitched and of cavae, fills the left and right atria, respectively. The
longer duration than dub and is produced by pressure causes AV valves to open and blood to
closure of AV valves. flow from atria into ventricles.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 3 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

169. Answer (3) 175. Answer (1)


Hint: Atrial diastole coincides with ventricular Hint: Universal blood donor.
systole.

Sol.: Sol.:

176. Answer (3)


Hint: These are also called platelets.
Sol.: Thrombocytes are cell fragments produced
170. Answer (1) from megakaryocytes. Thrombocytes/platelets
Hint: Atrio-ventricular valve. release a variety of substances involved in
coagulation of blood.
Sol.: Opening between right atrium and right
ventricle and opening between left atrium and left 177. Answer (3)
ventricle is guarded by tricuspid and bicuspid valve Hint: Cells that secrete histamine, serotonin and
respectively. heparin.
171. Answer (4) Sol.: Differential leukocyte count in blood –
Hint: Notochord extends from head to tail region in Neutrophils (Maximum) > Lymphocytes >
this taxon. Monocytes > Eosinophils > Basophils (Minimum)
Sol.: In protochordates and urochordate have open Basophils are least (0.5 – 1%) in number.
circulatory system, while cephalochordates have 178. Answer (3)
closed circulatory system. In open circulatory
system, blood fills in open spaces/sinuses. Hint: Blood cells that lack nucleus and other
organelles.
 Except urochordates all chordates have closed
circulatory system. Sol.: RBCs are biconcave in shape so it helps in
providing more room for haemoglobin.
 In non-chordates, annelids (except leech) and
cephalopods have closed circulatory system. 179. Answer (4)
172. Answer (4) Hint: Proteins contribute 6 – 8% of plasma.
Hint: Lymph is filtered product of blood. Sol.: RBCs, WBCs & platelets are collectively
Sol.: Lymph has the same mineral distribution as called formed elements. Plasma proteins are not
that in plasma. formed elements.
173. Answer (4) 180. Answer (3)
Hint: Thrombokinase catalyses conversion of Hint: Protein that is the main content of bird’s egg.
prothrombin to thrombin. Sol.: Albumin helps in maintaining the blood
Thrombin colloidal osmotic pressure.
Sol.: Fibrinogen 
→ Fibrin
• Fibrinogen & prothrombin are blood clotting
174. Answer (3) proteins.
Hint: Thrombocytes are platelets. • Globulins are involved in defence mechanisms
Sol.: Leukocytes - 6000 to 8000 mm–3. of the body.

  

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