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9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.
10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.
12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.
OMR
P m
P m
M
M
(1) (M + m)g tan (2) g tan (1) (M + m)g tan (2) g tan
(3) mg cos (4) (M + m)g cosec (3) mg cos (4) (M + m)g cosec
2
2
m,
(I) (II) m,
(I) (II)
(1) mg (2) – mg (1) mg (2) – mg
2 2 2 2
(3) mg (4) – mg (3) mg (4) – mg
4 4 4 4
8. Potential energy of a particle varies with 8.
r
position r as, U 4 5 joule, where and U 4 5 joule
r r r r
are positive constants. The particle will be in
r = ............
equilibrium at r = ............
:
4 5 4 5 4 5 4 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
5 4 5 4 5 4 5 4
9. Find wrong statement : 9.
:
(1) A car moving over a convex bridge is
(1)
lighter than the same car resting on the
same bridge
(2) A car moving over a convex bridge is (2)
heavier than the same car resting on the
same bridge
(3) A car moving over a concave bridge is (3)
heavier than the same car resting on the ()
same bridge.
(4)
(4) The weight of the car changes due to the
centrifugal force for above cases.
10. Two masses m 1 = 2kg and m 2 = 5kg are 10.
m1 = 2kg
moving on a frictionless surface with velocities m2 = 5kg
10m/s
3m/s
10m/s and 3m/s respectively. An ideal spring
m2
is attached on the back of m2. The maximum
:
compression of the spring will be :
10m/s 3m/s
10m/s 3m/s K=1120N/m
K=1120N/m
m1 m2
m1 m2
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Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/14-04-2019
11. Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 are 11. R1
R2
Q1
charged with charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. Q2
:
On bringing them in contact there is :
(1) always a decrease in energy of the system (1)
(2) an increase in the energy of the system if (2) Q1R2 Q2R1
Q1R2 Q2R1
(3) no change in the energy of the system (3)
(4) a decrease in energy of the system if
Q1R2 Q2R1 (4) Q1R2 Q2R1
12. Two point charges exert on each other a force 12.
r
F when they are placed r distance apart in air. F
K
R
When they are placed R distance apart in a
R
medium of dielectric constant K, they exert the
same force. The distance R equals.
r r
r r (1) (2)
(1) (2) K K
K K
(3) rK (4) r K (3) rK (4) r K
13. A parallel plate capacitor has plates with area 13.
A
A and separation d. A battery charges the plates
d
V0
to a potential difference V0. The battery is then
d
disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness
d is introduced. The ratio of energy stored in
the capacitor before and after the slab is
introduced, is :
2 A d2K
Ad K (1) K (2) 1/K (3) (4)
(1) K (2) 1/K (3)(4) d2K A
d2K A
14. Find the charge on the capacitor C in the 14.
C
:
following circuit.
12V 2
12V 2
2µF 4
2µF 4
C
C 6
6
V V
1.5V r2 r2
1.5V
(1) r1 = 2r2 (2) r1 = 3r2 (1) r1 = 2r2 (2) r1 = 3r2
(3) r2 = 2r1 (4) r2 = 3r1 (3) r2 = 2r1 (4) r2 = 3r1
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16. In given circuit find value of V :- 16.
V
:-
+ +
4 20 100 4 20 100
25 25
V V
6 6
4A 4A
– –
(1) 50 V (2) 80 V (1) 50 V (2) 80 V
(3) 100 V (4) 1290V (3) 100 V (4) 1290V
17. Potential difference between A and B is :- 17. A B
:-
8 B 8 B
4 3 4 3
A A
10V 10V
20 40 10 20 40 10
(1) V (2) V (3) V (4) Zero (1) V (2) V (3) V (4)
7 7 7 7 7 7
18. Magnetic field at the centre O of a square loop 18. 'a'
of side 'a' carrying current I as shown in the I
figure is:-
B
B a a
a a I A C
I A C O
O a a
a a
D
D
0 I 0 I
0 I 0 I (1) (2) 2 2
(1) (2) 2 2 2 a a
2 a a
20 I 2 0 I
(3) (4) Zero (3) (4)
a a
19. Two circular concentric loops of radii r1 = 20 cm 19. r1 = 20
r2 = 30
and r2 = 30 cm are placed in the X, Y-plane as
X, Y-
shown in the figure. A current I = 7 amp is
I = 7
flowing through them. The magnetic moment
of this loop system is :-
(1) +0.4 k̂ (A – m2) r1 (1) +0.4 k̂ (A – m2) r1
r2 r2
I I
(2) –1.5 k̂ (A – m2) (2) –1.5 k̂ (A – m2)
I (3) +1.1 k̂ (A – m2) I
(3) +1.1 k̂ (A – m2)
B B
(1) 2 B (2) B (3) (4) 3 B (1) 2 B (2) B (3) (4) 3 B
2 2
21. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of 21.
the three situations shown in the figure. Their
mutual inductance will be :
(1)
(A)
(1) Maximum in situation (A)
(2)
(B)
(2) Maximum in situation (B)
(3) Maximum in situation (C) (3)
(C)
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 6 (3) 6
(4) None of these (4)
Key
Filling
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23. The voltage across a pure inductor is 23.
represented by the following diagram. Which
of the following diagram will represent the
current :
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4) (4)
10V 5V 1kW
10V 5V 1kW
34. In the case of forward biasing of PN-junction, 34. PN-laf/k ds vxz vfHkufr gksus ij fuEu esa ls dkuS ls fp= esa
which one of the following figures correctly okgdksa ds xfr dh fn'kk Bhd n'kkZ;h xbZ gS
depicts the direction of flow of carriers
– – – + – +
+ + P – + N P – + N
P – + N P – + N – + – +
¬
–
–
+
® ®
–
–
+
® ¬ – + ® ® – + ®
+ + – + – +
– + – +
– – – + – +
+ + P N
P – + N P – + N – + P – + N
– + – +
®
–
–
+
¬ ¬
–
–
+
¬ ® – + ¬ ¬ – + ¬
+ + – + – +
– + – +
35. Force constant of a spring is K. If half part is 35. ,d fLizax dk cy fu;rkad K gAS ;fn bldk vk/kk Hkkx gVk
detached then force constant of the remaining fn;k tk;s rks 'ks"k fLizax dk cy fu;rkad gksxk :-
spring will be :-
3 K
(1) K (2)
3 K 4 2
(1) K (2) (3) 2K (4) K
4 2 (3) 2K (4) K
36. A lift is descending with acceleration g/3. 36. ,d fy¶V g/3 Roj.k ls uhps dh vksj xfreku gS] bldh Nr
What will be the time period of a simple
ls yxs ljy yksyd dk vkorZdky D;k gksxk ;fn fLFkj fy¶V
pendulum suspended from its ceiling if its time
period in staionary life is 'T' ? ls bldk vkorZdky T gS ?
T 3 3T T T 3 3T T
(1) (2) T (3) (4) (1) (2) T (3) (4)
2 2 2 4 2 2 2 4
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37. A thin uniform stick of length and mass m is 37.
m
held horizontally with its end B hinged on the
B
edge of a table. Point A is suddenly released.
The acceleration of the centre of mass of the A
stick at the time of release, is :-
:-
B A
B A
3 3 2 1
3 3 2 1 (1) g (2) g (3) rg (4) g
(1) g (2) g (3) g (4) g 4 7 7 7
4 7 7 7
38. A ball whose density is 0.4 × 103 kg/m 3 falls 38.
0.4 × 103 kg/m3
9 cm
into water from a height of 9 cm. To what depth
does the ball sink?
(1) 9 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 4.5 cm (4) 2.25 cm
(1) 9 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 4.5 cm (4) 2.25 cm
39. A glass rod of radius 1.0 mm is inserted 39. 1 mm
symmetrically into a vertical capillary tube of 2 mm
radius 2mm such that their lower ends are at
same level. This arrangement is now dipped in
water. The height to which water will rise into
the tube will be (S.T. of water = 75 × 10–3 N/m) (
= 75 × 10–3 N/m)
(1) 5 mm (2) 10 mm (3) 15 mm (4) 20 mm (1) 5 mm (2) 10 mm (3) 15 mm (4) 20 mm
40. 2 kg of metal at 100°C is cooled by 1 kg of 40. 100°C
2 kg
0°C
1kg
water at 0°C. If specific heat capacity of metal
1 1
is
2
of specific heat capacity of water, final
2
temperature of mixture would be :-
(1) 50°C (2) More than 50°C (1) 50°C (2) 50°C
(3) Less than 50°C (4) None of the above (3) 50°C (4)
41. Figure shows three different arrangements of 41.
1, 2 3
materials 1, 2 and 3 to form a wall. Thermal
conductivities are k1 > k2 > k3 . The left side of k1 > k2 > k3
the wall is 20°C higher than the right side.
20°C
1
Temperature difference T across the material
T
1 has following relation in three cases :
1 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 2
1 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 2
a b c
a b c
(1) Ta > Tb > Tc (2) Ta = Tb = Tc (1) Ta > Tb > Tc (2) Ta = Tb = Tc
(3) Ta = Tb > Tc (4) Ta = Tb < Tc (3) Ta = Tb > Tc (4) Ta = Tb < Tc
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42. Which of the following statements is/are 42.
CORRECT: (i)
(i) a body with large reflectivity is a poor
emitter (ii)
(ii) a brass tumbler feels much colder than a
wooden tray on a chilly day
(iii)
(iii) the earth without its atmosphere would be
inhospitably cold (iv)
(iv) heating systems based on circulation of
steam are more efficient in warming a
building than those based on circulation of
hot water
:-
Correct option are :- (1) i ii (2) i, ii iv
(1) i & ii only (2) i, ii & iv
(3) i iv (4) i, ii, iii
iv
(3) i & iv only (4) i, ii, iii & iv
43. A bimetallic strip consists of metals A and B. 43.
A B
It is mounted rigidly at the base as shown. The
A
metal A has a higher coefficient of expansion
B
to that for metal B. When bimetallic strip is
placed in a cold bath it will
A B
A B
BASE
BASE (1)
(1) bend towards the right
(2)
(2) bend towards the left
(3)
(3) not bend but shrink
(4) neither bend nor shrink (4)
44. If displacement x and velocity v are related as 44.
x
v,
4v2 = 16 – x2 in a SHM. Then time period of 4v = 16 – x
2 2
(3) (4) – (3) (4) –
2 2 2 2
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46. At constant volume 5 mol gas show increase 46. 5
437.5 J
in temperature by 3.5 K on providing 437.5 J
3.5 K
heat then what will be the heat capacity for gas
at constant pressure :-
:-
(1) 25 J K–1 mol–1 (2) 16.7 J K–1 mol–1 (1) 25 J K–1 mol–1 (2) 16.7 J K–1 mol–1
(3) 27 J K–1 mol–1 (4) 33.3 J K–1 mol–1 (3) 27 J K–1 mol–1 (4) 33.3 J K–1 mol–1
47. For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) 47. N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
the value of Kp = 41 at 400 K. Find out the value 400 K K p = 41
of K p for following reaction at the same 2 N2(g) + 6 H2(g) 4NH3(g) Kp
temperature 2 N2(g) + 6 H2(g) 4NH3(g)
(1) 2.44 × 10–2 (2) 1681 (1) 2.44 × 10–2 (2) 1681
(3) 41 (4) 2.05 (3) 41 (4) 2.05
48. If dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion 48.
medium is solid, the colloid is known as :-
?
(1) Sol (2) Gel (1) (2)
(3) Emulsion (4) Foam (3) (4)
49. What is the maximum wavelength line in the 49. He
+
(3) BF3 F BF4 (4) H2O H H3O (3) BF3 F BF4 (4) H2O H H3O
63. Which of the following bond angle order is 63.
:-
correct :- (1) BCl3 > PCl3 > AsCl3
(1) BCl3 > PCl3 > AsCl3
(2) H2S < SF2 < NH3 < BF3
(2) H2S < SF2 < NH3 < BF3
(3) OF2 < H2O < CH3–O–CH3
(3) OF2 < H2O < CH3–O–CH3
(4) All above are correct order (4)
64. Which of the following molecular orbital has 64.
:-
two nodal planes :-
(1) 1s (2) 2s
(1) 1s (2) 2s
(3) 2pz (4) *2px (3) 2pz (4) *2px
65. The correct order of acid strength is :- 65.
:-
(1) SO3 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3 (1) SO3 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3
(2) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3 (2) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3
(3) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3 (3) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3
(4) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O5 (4) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O5
66. Which of the following process is endothermic ? 66.
?
(1) Ne(g) + e Ne–
(2) N(g) + e N–
(1) Ne(g) + e Ne–
(2) N(g) + e N–
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) All are correct (3) (i), (iii)
(iv) (4)
73. Calcium imide on hydrolysis gives gas (B) 73.
(B)
which on oxidation by bleaching powder gives
(C)
(C)
gas (C). Gas (C) on reaction with magnesium
(D)
give compound (D) which on hydrolysis again
(B)
(B), (C)
(D)
gas (B). Identify (B), (C) and (D) :-
(1) NH3, N2, Mg3N2
:-
(1) NH3, N2, Mg3N2
(2) N2, NH3, MgNH
(2) N2, NH3, MgNH
(3) N2, N2O3, Mg(NO3)2 (3) N2, N2O3, Mg(NO3)2
(4) NH3, NO2, Mg(NO2)2 (4) NH3, NO2, Mg(NO2)2
74. In given some reaction correct product match 74.
:-
will be:-
(a) NH4NO2 N2 + H2O
(a) NH4NO2
N2 + H2O
(b) NH4NO3 N2O + H2O
(b) NH4NO3 N2O + H2O
(c) Na2CO3 Na2O + CO2
(c) Na2CO3 Na2O + CO2
(d) NH4Cl
(d) NH4Cl NH3 + HCl NH3 + HCl
(1) only a (2) a, b, c, d (1) a (2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, b, d (4) a, c, d (3) a, b, d (4) a, c, d
Ph Ph Ph Ph
Ph Ph Ph Ph
CH3–C–H
HCN
(A)
Partial
(B) CH3–C–H
HCN
(A)
(B)
81. Hydrolysis 81.
OH OH
O O
Br Br Br Br Br Br Br Br
Cl Br Br Cl Br Br
Br Br Br Br
(3) (4) (3) (4)
H H
(1) x > y > z (2) x > z > y (1) x > y > z (2) x > z > y
(3) y > z > x (4) z > y > x (3) y > z > x (4) z > y > x
Cl O Cl O
I II III IV I II III IV
(1) I > II > III > IV (1) I > II > III > IV
(2) II > I > IV > III (2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > III > I > IV (3) II > III > I > IV
(4) III > I > IV > II (4) III > I > IV > II
85. Which of the following compound does not 85.
?
give Aldol condensation reaction ? (1)
(1) Acetophenone
(2)
(2) Propanal
(3)
(3) Cyclohexanone
(4) Benzophenone (4)
86. Which among the following is non-reducing 86.
sugar? (1) (2)
(1) Glucose (2) Maltose
(3) Lactose (4) Sucrose (3) (4)
87. Which of the following is not condensation 87.
polymer ?
(1) (2) PVC
(1) Terylene (2) PVC
(3) Nylon-6,6 (4) Bakelite (3)
-6,6 (4)
88. Which of the following reactions produce the 88.
same product ?
?
(A) Br .hv
Na / ether (A) Br .hv
Na / ether
2
2
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91. Wisdom teeth are 91.
(1) Last six molars in oral cavity (1)
(2) Eight premolars (2)
(3) Last Pre-molar and canine (3)
(4) Last four molars in oral cavity (4)
92. How many enzyme in the list given below are 92.
protease?
Lipase, Chymotrypsin, Aminopeptidase, Pepsin,
Dextrinase, Rennin, Carboxypeptidase, Steapsin,
Amylase (1) (2)
(1) Five (2) Four
(3) Three (4) Two (3) (4)
93. The hypothalamus is functionally connected to 93.
_
posterior pituitary lobe by :- :-
(1) Hypophyseal portal system (1)
(2) Nerve axons (2)
(3) Positive feedback only (3)
(4) Muscle & cartilage (4)
94. The development of goiter indicates that :- 94.
:-
(1) The Posterior pituitary gland abnormally (1)
enlarged (2)
(2) Person live on mountain area and does not eat
sea food
(3) Person is eating sea food (3)
(4) Person live in hilly areas and essentially eat (4)
sea food
95. Identify the correct match from column I, II, III. 95. I, II, III
-
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103. Which of the following statements is incorrect 103.
about excretion ? (1)
25-30gm
(1) Human excretes 25-30gm urea per day (2)
(2) Glucose and amino acids are absorbed actively
in renal tubules
(3)
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water
(4) Renal tubules can reabsorb nearly 99% part (4)
99%
of glomerular filtrate.
104. In humans, coccyx is formed by the fusion of 104.
vertebrae
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
105. Which of the following is the best description of 105.
muscles located at specific area :
(1) Biceps of arm are smooth muscle fibres (1)
fusiform in shape.
(2) heart muscles are voluntary and striated (2)
smooth muscles.
(3) Lower oesophageal muscles are unstriated and (3)
voluntary.
(4) upper arm muscles are striated and voluntary. (4)
106. Identify the following animal, larva of this animal 106.
is:-
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109. Identify the following birds A, B, C and D :- 109.
A, B, C
D
A B C D A B C D
(1) Neophron Psittacula Struthio Pavo (1)
(2) Psittacula Struthio Pavo Neophron (2)
(3) Neophron Struthio Psittacula Pavo (3)
(4) Pavo Psittacula corvus Neophron (4)
110. In cockroach which structure represent the brain 110.
?
? (1)
(1) Suboesophageal ganglia
(2)
(2) Supraoesphageal ganglia
(3) Suprapharyngeal ganglia (3)
(4) Circum oesophageal connective (4)
111. Tasmanian wolf
111. Tasmanian wolf
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112. On Galapagos island, Darwin observed variation 112.
in beaks of birds (Darwin's finches) and he had
concluded :- :-
(1) Adaptive convergence (1)
(2) Sudden Variation (2)
(3) Natural selection according to food habit (3)
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters (4)
113. Which one of the following is incorrect about the 113.
characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and
microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin
?
of life ? (1)
(1) They were partially isolated from the
(2)
surroundings
(2) They could maintain an internal environment
(3) They were able to reproduce (3)
(4) They could separate combinations of (4)
molecules from the surroundings
114. Identify the correct matching pair ? 114.
(1) Acrine – Mammary gland (1)
(2) Apocrine – Sweat gland (2)
(3) Holocrine – Sebaceous gland (3)
(4) Mixed gland – Liver (4)
115. Spleen, lymph node and endosteum are the 115.
examples of which type of connecting tissue ?
(1) Areolar (2) Adipose (1) (2)
(3) White fibrous (4) Reticular fibrous (3) (4)
116. In life cycle of Plasmodium gametocytes are 116.
formed in :-
?
(1) Gut of mosquito (1)
(2) Salivary gland of mosquito (2)
(3) Liver of human (3)
(4) RBCs of human (4)
117. Observe the following table very carefully contain 117.
source of drug, biological name and their
Chemical, choose the correct option:- :-
Papaver Cocaine
(1) somniferum (1) dksdsu
Claviceps (2)
(2) purpura LSD LSD
(4)
gsjksbu
Cannabis sativa Heroin (4)
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118. Best investigation and safest investigation 118.
technique used for cancer detection respectively
:-
are :-
(1)
,
(1) Biopsy, Biopsy
(2) MRI, Biopsy (2) MRI,
(3) Biopsy, MRI (3)
, MRI
(4) CT Scan, Fine needle aspiration cytology (4) CT Scan Fine needle aspiration cytology
119. Choose the correct option :- 119.
(A) Active (i) Immunological (A) (i)
immunity memory
(B) Passive (ii) Rheumatoid (B) (ii)
immunity arthritis
(C) Innate (iii) Interferons
(C) (iii)
immunity
(D) (iv) IgA)
(D) Acquired (iv) Colostrum (IgA)
immunity
(E) Auto (v) Induced by (E) (v)
immunity infection
Option :- :-
(1) A-v, B-i, C-ii, D-iv, E-iii (1) A-v, B-i, C-ii, D-iv, E-iii
(2) A-i, B-v, C-iii, D-iv, E-ii (2) A-i, B-v, C-iii, D-iv, E-ii
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-i, E-ii (3) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-i, E-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-v, E-ii (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-v, E-ii
120. 120.
A A
B B
C C
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122. What is the important use of condom other than 122.
contraception ? (1)
(1) To increase sexual desire
(2) STD
(2) Protection from STD
(3) To make coitus easier (3)
(4) Permanent contraception (4)
123. Which of the following developed from 123.
unfertilised egg ? ?
(1) Queen (2) Drones (1) (2)
(3) Workers (4) Soldiers (3) (4)
124. Red tide in ocean is caused by rapid multiplication 124.
of ? ?
(1) BGA (2) Rhodophyceae (1) BGA (2)
(3) Diatoms (4) Dinoflagellates (3) (4)
125. Kingdom – Plantae 125. –
Division – Angiospermae –
Class – Dicotyledonae –
Order – "A" – "A"
Family – "B" – "B"
Genus – Mangifera –
Species – Mangifera indica –
Identify A and B in given classification :-
A
B
:-
(1) A – Fabaceae B – Poales (1) A – B –
(2) A – Sapindales B – Anacardiaceae (2) A – B –
(3) A – Poales B – Solanaceae (3) A – B –
(4) A – Diptera B – Muscidae (4) A – B –
126. How many organisms in the list given below are
126.
autotrophs?
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas,
Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces,
Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolfia (1) (2)
(1) Six (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (3) (4)
127. Septate and branched mycelium is found in :- 127.
:-
(1) Basidiomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes (1)
(2)
(3) Ascomycetes (4) All the above (3) (4)
128. Which one of the following plants is monoecious? 128.
?
(1) Cycas (2) Marchantia (1) (2)
(3) Pinus (4) Papaya (3) (4)
129 If you see a fungal mycelium, that is coenocytic 129
aseptate and branched. You also observes some
aplanospores produced on this mycelium. Then
according to you what should be probable class
of this fungus.
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Zygomycetes (1) (2)
(3) Duteromycetes (4) Basidiomycetes
(3)
(4)
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130. Identify the given figures of algae and select the 130.
correct option.
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133. Match column-I with column-II & select correct 133. -I
-II
option :-
:-
A B C A B C
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138. Match column I with column II and select correct 138. I
II
option :-
:-
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144. Identify the incorrect statement :- 144.
(1) glycoprotein of plasma membrane facilitate (1)
cellular recogination
(2) the semipermeable membrane surrounding the (2)
vacuole is called tonoplast
(3) gametes of plants are without cell wall
(4) ingestion of solid particles is called (3)
pinocytosis. (4)
145. A typical fat molecule is made up of three 145.
---A---
molecule of ---A--- with one molecule of ---B---
---C---
---B---. The linkage is called ---C---.
A B C A B C
(1) Glycerol Fatty acid Ester (1) Glycerol Fatty acid Ester
(2) Fatty acid Glycerol Glycosidic (2) Fatty acid Glycerol Glycosidic
(3) Fatty acid Glycerol Ester (3) Fatty acid Glycerol Ester
(4) Fatty acid Glycerol Peptide (4) Fatty acid Glycerol Peptide
Ecosystem Edward
(A) (i) (A) (i)
services Wilson
Alexander
(B) (ii)
(B) Biodiversity (ii) Van
Humboldt
Species Area Robert (C)
(iii)
(C) (iii)
relationship Constanza
Global species (D)
(D)
diversity estimate
(iv) Robert May (iv)
Options:- :-
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv (3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
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149. Ecosystems need a constant supply of energy to 149.
synthesise the molecules they require to :-
(1) Increase the photo synthetic efficiency (1)
(2) Reduce respiratory loss (2)
(3) Counteract the universal tendency toward (3)
increasing disorderliness
(4) Control the impacts of predation (4)
150. Desert lizards bask in the sun and absorb heat 150.
when their body temperature drops below the
comfort zone, but move into shade when ambient
temperature starts increasing. It is a case of :-
(1) Physiological adaptation (1)
(2) Behavioural adaptation (2)
(3) Morphological adaptation (3)
(4) Molecular adaptation (4)
151. How many statements are correct ? 151.
(a) Net primary productivity is available biomass (a)
for consumption to heterotrophs
(b) Secondary productivity is defined as rate of (b)
formation of new organic matter by
heterotrophs.
(c) The annual net primary productivity of ocean (c)
is greater than land
(d) Warm and moist environment favours (d)
decomposition.
(1) a, b, c, d (1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, c (2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d (3) a, b, d
(4) a, c (4) a, c
152. The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to :- 152.
(1) Increased number of predatory birds (1)
(2) Over exploitation (2)
(3) Non-availability of the food (3)
(4) Disease in pigeon (4)
153. India is the one of the 12 mega diversity countries 153.
12
of the world. It shares what percentage of global
species diversity ?
(1) 3.4 % (2) 12%
(1) 3.4 % (2) 12%
(3) 6% (4) 8.1% (3) 6% (4) 8.1%
154. According to Allen's rule, the mammals from 154.
colder climate have :-
(1) Longer ears and longer limbs (1)
(2) Shorter ears and shorter limbs (2)
(3) Shorter ears and longer limbs (3)
(4) Longer ears and shorter limbs (4)
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155. Which of the following representation shows the 155.
pyramid of biomass in lake ecosystem?
(1) i-e, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c, v-f (1) i-e, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c, v-f
(2) i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-c, v-b (2) i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-c, v-b
(3) i-f, ii-e, iii-d, iv-c, v-b (3) i-f, ii-e, iii-d, iv-c, v-b
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e (4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e
158. Flood, drought and mansoon damage in India are 158.
the cause of :-
(1) Albido effect (2) Elnino effect (1) (2)
(3) Green house effect (4) Ozone depletion (3) (4)
159. Identify the correct match from the column I, II 159. I, II III
and III :- :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
-I
-II
-III
Type of Plant Edible part
fruit
1 a (i)
1 Hesperidium a Tomato (i) Fleshy
thalamus
2 b (ii)
2 Balausta b Orange (ii) Pericarp and
placenta
3 c (iii)
3 Berry c Apple (iii) Fleshy testa
of seed.
4 Pome d Pome (iv) Glandular 4 d (iv)
granate hair
(1) 1-b-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-a-ii, 4-c-i
(1) 1-b-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-a-ii, 4-c-i (2) 1-b-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-a-i, 4-c-ii
(2) 1-b-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-a-i, 4-c-ii
(3) 1-b-iv, 2-c-iii, 3-a-i, 4-d-ii
(3) 1-b-iv, 2-c-iii, 3-a-i, 4-d-ii
(4) 1-d-iv, 2-b-iii, 3-a-ii, 4-c-i (4) 1-d-iv, 2-b-iii, 3-a-ii, 4-c-i
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160. Select correctly match pair :- 160.
:-
(1) Phylloclade - Australian acacia (1)
-
(2) Cladode - Ruscus (2)
-
(3) Leaf spine - Pea (3)
-
(4) Leaf bladder - Dischidia (4)
-
161. What is perianth ? 161. ?
(1) Outer part of flower in which calyx and corolla (1)
are not always distinguishable.
(2) When stamens and gynoecium are not
distinguishable. (2)
(3) When only calyx is present
(3)
(4) When calyx and corolla both are absent in a
flower. (4)
162. Represented below is the certain type of vascular 162.
bundle. Which one of the following option could
be an example of this vascular bundle :
(1) Maize root (2) Cucurbita stem (1) (2)
(3) Maize stem (4) Sunflower stem (3) (4)
163. According to histogen theory, during apical 163.
organisation, histogens are formed. The part
differentiated by dermatogen in dicotyledons is :
(1) Epidermis and root cap (1)
(2) Root cap (2)
(3) Epidermis (3)
(4) Cortex (4)
164. What will be the ploidy of the cells of the nucellus, 164. MMC,
MMC, the functional megaspore and female
gametophyte respectively ?
(1) 2n, 2n, n, 2n (2) 3n, 2n n, n
(1) 2n, 2n, n, 2n (2) 3n, 2n n, n
(3) 2n, n, 2n, n (4) 2n, 2n, n, n (3) 2n, n, 2n, n (4) 2n, 2n, n, n
165. (A) Light and non-sticky pollen grain 165. (A)
(B) Well exposed stamens (B)
(C) Large often – Feathery stigma (C)
(D) Always have single ovule in each ovary (D)
(E) Numerous flowers packed into Inflorescence. (E)
How many above features favour anemophily ?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Five (4) Four (1) (2) (3) (4)
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166. Pea, Groundnut, Wheat, Maize, Barley, Castor, 166.
Sunflower
?
In how many plants endosperm is formed ?
(1) Seven (2) Four (3) Three (4) Five (1) (2) (3) (4)
167. Breeding of crops with higher levels of vitamins 167.
and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats :-
is called:-
(1) Bioprospecting (2) Mineral Enrichment (1) (2)
(3) Bioconservation (4) Biofortification (3) (4)
168. Match the column-I with column-II :- 168. -I
-II :-
(b) Pusa gaurav (ii) Flat bean (b) (ii)
Pvu II
Pvu II
a b c a b c
(1) (1)
c a b c a b
(2) (2)
b a c b a c
(3) (3)
c a b c a b
(4) (4)
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178. What is not true for RNA interference ? 178. RNA
(interference)
?
(1) A method of cellular defense in eukaryotic (1)
organism
(2) Si-RNA is formed (2) Si-RNA
(3) RISC complex is formed (3) RISC
(4) Single stranded RNA prevent translation of (4)
RNA, m-RNA
m-RNA
179. Given below are three statements (A-C) each with 179.
(A-C)
one of more blanks. Select the which correctly
:-
fills the blanks in the statements :-
(A) ______a traditional drink of some parts of (A)
South India is made by fermenting sap from __________
palms
(B) Citric acid is obtained through the
fermentation carried out by _____ (B) _______
(C) In______the fungus forms a mantle on the
surface of the roots
(1) A–Toddy B–Aspergillus niger, (C) ________
C–Ectomycorrhiza
(2) A–Wine B–Aspergillus niger,
(1) A–
; B–C–
C–Endomycorhiza
(3) A–Beer B–Aspergillus niger, (2) A–; B–C–
C–Endomycorhize (3) A–; B–C–
(4) A–Rum B–Aspergillus niger,
C–Endomycorhiza (4) A– ; B–C–
180. Column–I Column-II 180. –I
-II
I. Streptomyces A. Nitrogen fixation I. A.
II. Rhizobium B. Source of antibiotics II. B.
III. Nitrosomonas C. Vinegar synthesis III. C.
IV. Acetobacter D. Nitrification IV. D.
Which of the combinations is correct ?
?
I II III IV
I II III IV
(1) B A D C
(1) B A D C
(2) C D A B (2) C D A B
(3) A B C D (3) A B C D
(4) D B A C
(4) D B A C
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code
and Your Form No.
Correction
Paper code Form No.
dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in
mail
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