BACTERIOLOGY
Pelvic inflammatory disease
1. Which of the following factors is responsible for the
symptoms in scarlet fever?
C. Erythrogenic toxin
2. The toxin responsible for scalded skin syndrome of
Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Exfoliatin
3. Chemotherapeutic drug used in management of
methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Vancomycin
4. Virulence factor of Group A Streptococcus associated
with antiphagocytosis.
A. M-protein
5. A 28-year old woman became ill four days after the
onset of her menstrual period. She presented in the ER
with elevated WBC and a rash on her trunk &
extremities. She complained of fatigue, vomiting, and
diarrhea. She had recently eaten at a fast food
restaurant, but otherwise had prepared all her meals at
home. The patient retained a tampon. The patient
described most likely has
D. Toxic shock syndrome
6. Which of the following gram positive cocci is
responsible for this condition?
A. S. aureus
7. Dr. Juan de la Cruz observed localized skin infections
ranging from folliculitis, furuncle, carbuncle, & impetigo
in his monthly examination among the IRC inmates in
Pototan, Iloilo. Which of the following Gram positive
cocci are implicated in this kind of skin infections?
A. S. aureus
8. Otitis media is an infection often caused by
C. Middle ear, S. pneumonia
9. Which of the following group of Streptococci are
responsible for the most severe streptococcal diseases?
C. Pneumococci
10. The coagulase test is used to differentiate
Staphylococcus aureus from:
A. Other staphylococci
11. Which of the ff. are possible complications of genital
gonorrhea are in women?
B.
12. The most common sexually transmitted disease in
Iloilo City accdg to the City health office is
A. N. gonorrhea
13. The epidemiologic team of the DOH has observed
that these bacteria have sporadic or epidemic incidence
during rainy days or colder days as brought about by
change in weather, complications is usually observed as
Hypotension and bilateral hemorrhage of adrenal
glands commonly known as Waterhouse-Friedrichsen
syndrome. Which of the ff. bacteria manifest such
conditions?
A. N. meningitides
14. Which of the ff. components of Streptococci
responsible for stimulating macrophage and T helper
cells releasing cytokines triggering fever infection?
D. Pyrogenic toxin
15. Which of the ff. Streptoccocus sp. Is implicated with
dental cares and endocarditis?
C. Viridans Streptococci
16. Which of the ff. is a medically important
opportunistic bacterium causing infection in
compromised hosts such as burn patients and those
who are suffering from cystic fibrosis?
A. P. aeruginosa
17. All of the ff. are correct about salmonellosis except:
A. strains are normal flora in cats and dogs
B. foods contaminated with rodent feces causes
outbreak
C. outbreaks have been caused by eggs
D. drug resistance of salmonella is on the rise
18. Which is not a characteristic of Shigellosis?
A. painful diarrhea B. stool with blood C.
mucus filled stool D. whooping cough
Choices for 19-23:
a. Brucella b. Bordetella c. Francisella d. legionella
19. For which of the given organisms is there no known
animal reservoir? B. Bordetella
20. For which of the above green organisms is human
disease typically acquired by drinking contaminated,
unpasteurized cow's milk? A. Brucella
21. Which is the causative agent of tularemia? C.
Francisella
22. Which causes lung disease and Pontiac fever? D.
legionella
23. Which causes undulant fever in humans? B.
Bordetella
24. The gram negative bacillus assoc. with abscesses
from dog and cat bites or scratches is:
C. Pastuerella multocida
Choices 25-26:
A. E.coli B. Shigella C. Klebsiella D.
Pseudomonas
25. An elderly man. hospitalized and recovering from
cardiac bypass surgery. develops pneumonia Sputum
gram negative rod that produces a green pigment. but
does not ferment carbohydrates. The most likely
organism: D. Pseudomonas
26. Which of the following bacilli causes infantile
diarrhea, travelers diarrhea, urinary tract infection and
nosocomial pneumonia and septicemia? A. E.coli
27. Which of the statement is true of Klebsiella,
Enterobacter, Serratia, Citrobacter?
A. They are common nosocomial opportunist
28 A classic symptom of pertussis is
B. paroxysmal coughing
29. Which statement does not describe conjunctivitis?
A. also called pink eye B. occurs primarily among adults
C. can be spread through contaminated finger D. can be
mechanically transferred by flies
30. Which does not describe typhoid fever?
A. the causative agent enters the alimentary canal B.
one suffers from enteric fever C. one has septicemia D.
all of the above describe typhoid fever
31. Which statement does not pertain to Klebsiella?
A. One species causes nosocomial pneumonia
B. its colonization causes lung infection
C. its virulence is due to its large capsule
D. none of the statements does not pertain to Klebsiella
32. A 45 year-old woman experiences low grade fever,
night sweat, weight loss & production of cough with
blood streak. lithe patient will see doctor, more likely
the doctor will request for:
B. Acid-fast staining of the sputum
33. A person was admitted due to a gunshot wound.
After a week, the wound and the nearby area is turning
black with bubbles on skin showing that the tissue is
undergoing necrosis. The patient is showing symptoms
of
C. Gangrene
34. Which of these diseases cannot be acquired by
inhalation of airborne bacteria or droplets from human
carrier or fomites
C. Tetanus
Choices for # 35-36 A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C.
Clostridium perfringens B. Bacillus anthracis D. Listeria
monocytogenes
35. Woolsorter's disease is acquired through inhalation
of airborne spores. Which of these bacteria cause this
disease? D. Listeria monocytogenes
36. Which of these bacteria primarily attaches to the
lungs? A. M. tuberculosis
37. Clostridium perfringens infections are commonly
associated with:
A. Contamination of wounds
38 Hansen's disease is associated with which of the
following bacteria?
B. Mycobacterium leprae
39. This disease is characterized by severe muscle
spasms resulting to lock jaw.
D. Tetanus
40. A 23-year-01 woman, seven months pregnant, visits
her OB complaining of fever, myalgia and backache of
recent. Three weeks earlier the patient had been a
weekend guest at a rural farmhouse, where all the food
was “unprocessed" and "natural".A culture of the
patient's blood shows Gram-positive rods displaying a
tumbling motility in a liquid medium. What is most
likely the source of the woman’s infection?
B. Fresh, raw cow's milk
41. The causative agent of leprosy belongs to what
genus?
A. Mycobacterium
42. Which of these is the characteristic of bacteria that
cause tetanus?
C. terminal spore
43. Which of these diseases is not acquired by
inhalation?
A. anthrax B. gangrene C. diphtheria D. tuberculosis
44. Which of these characterize the disease, botulism?
D. double vision, muscular paralysis and stoppage of
respiration
45. A 45-year-old man experiences the abrupt onset of
high fever, general myalgia and a dry cough He also
complains of diarrhea. He is a building superintendent,
and has been servicing air conditioning equipment
Which of the following organisms is likely the causative
agent?
C. Legionella pneumophila
46. Which of these do not characterize leprosy as a
disease?
C. genetic disease
47. Gram positive, non-spore forming bacilli arrange in
palisade; crosses the placenta of pregnant mother;
affect brain and meninges of fetus. Which of this genus
of bacteria is being referred to?
A. Corynebacterium
48. Which of these is not true of pulmonary
tuberculosis?
C. an acute disease
49. Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus?
A. present in soil B. causes foodborne intoxication C.
causes a zoonosis D. associated with cooked rice,
potato & meat dishes stored tit loom
50. Which of these pairs of disease and mode of
transmission is correct?
A. tuberculosis - inhalation of droplet spray
51. Which of these pairs do not match?
A. tuberculosis — productive cough sometimes with
blood streak
B. tetanus — black necrotic lesion
C. gangrene — bubbles in the skin noted surrounding
wound area
D. choices B and C does not match
52 Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes?
A. all pathogenic B. gram negative C. D. endoflagella
enclosed in periplasmtc space
53. During which stage of syphilis does fever,
lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?
B. Secondary.
54 All of the following are associated with bubonic
plague except
A. it is transmitted by human feces. B. the caused by
Yersinia pestis C. the patient often has enlarged inguinal
lymph nodes D. it can progress to a septicemia.
55. Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that
A. are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to
deep tissues.
56. infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in
their:
C. urine
57. Leptospirosis has all the ff. characteristics except
A. most common in cattle, horses, rags. and dogs
B infects kidneys, liver, brain, eyes
C humans acquire d by contact with abraded skin of
mucous membranes
D. can be transmitted by animal bites
58. The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are
used to diagnose
B. syphilis
59 An organism found in coastal waters that cause a
food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of
contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is
C. Vibrio cholerae
60. "Rice water stools" are associated with disease
caused by this organism:
B. Vibiio cholerae
61. Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
A gram negative B produces enteroxin that causes
diarrhea C. curved rods D. produce urease that buffer
stomach acidity
62. Which is mismatched?
A. epidemic typhus - body louse feces
B. ricketsial pox-mite bite
C. RMSF-tick bite
D. Human erlichiosis-flea bite
63. Which is mismatched:
A Rickettsia rickettsa - epidemic typhus C. Battonella
quintana - trench fever B. Coxiella bumetii- 0 fever D.
Bartonella henselae - cat scratch disease
64. The following are characteristics of Chlamydias
except: BONUS
A. elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making
ATP
C. elementary bodies am the infectious form
B. obligate parasites that need host cells for growth
D. reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies
Choices for # 65-66. A. Mordant C. Dye B. Accentuator
D. Fixative
65 Which of the following terms is described as a
substance which makes the smear adheres to the
material being stained: A. Mordant
66. Which of the following terms is described as an
organic solution that is capable of coloring other
materials? C. dye
Choices for #67-68 A. Carbolfuschin B. Methylene Blue
C. Crystal violet D. Safranin
67. What is the primary stain in Gram staining method?
C. Crystal violet
68. What is the counter stain agent in Gram staining
method? D. Safranin
Choices for 69-70 A. Sodium bicarbonate with
merthiolate C. Iodine solution B. Crystal Violet D.
Safranin 69. Which of the following solution in the Gram
staining method acts as mordant? C.
70. Which of the following solution in the Gram staining
method acts as accentuator? A.
71. Which of the following solution is the recommended
decolorizing agent in Gram staining method'
A Acetone
72. Which of the ff. staining method is used to
distinguish the differences of medically important
bacteria?
B. Gram staining
73. Which of the ff. structure is present in both gram
positive and gram negative cell walls?
C. Peptidoglycan layer
74. Which of the ff. structures within the peptidoglycan
layer in certain groups of bacteria provide affinity for
crystal violet solution?
A. Mycolic acid B. Techoic acid C. Muramic acid
D.AOTA
75. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is spread by:
B. respiratory droplets
76. What is the color of acid fast bacilli when stained
with alkaline methylene blue and carbolfuchsin?
D. red
77.What staining method was employed to stain
Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
B. Ziehl neelsen C. Kinyoun
78. Acid fast stained sputum smears are microscopically
examined to confirm the clinical diagnosis of which of
the ff. diseases?
C. pulmonary tb
79. Which of the ff. bacterial structures is responsible
for the acid fastness of mycobacterium?
C. cell wall
80. Why is Mycobacterium classified as AFB?
C. because they resist acid decolorization
81. What accounts for the acid fastness of
Mycobacterium Tb?
C. cell wall
82. What is the purpose of acid alcohol in AFS?
B. decolorizer
83. Which of the ff. is not applicable in AFS?
A. placing a strip of paper over smear after staining
84. To facilitate easy microscopic identification of
bacteria, cells are colored with dyes. Which of the ff.
process refers to the coloring of cells?
B. staining
85. The ff. bacterial characteristics could be observed in
simple stained smears except:
D. motility
86. Which of the ff. types of simple staining method
results to a stained background with unstained cells?
B. negative staining
87. Which organism is implicated as index for fecal
contamination of water?
D. E.coli
88. Which of the following media in water bacteriology
is used for colony count?
C. NA
89. Which of the following criteria DO NOT provide
assurance that water is potable?
A. Colony count: Not to exceed 100 colonies per mL C.
No greenish metallic sheen B Presence of coliforms D.
Presence of gas in DSLB
90. When doing bacteriological analysis of water, which
of the following procedures is carried out routinely?
A. Bacterial (Total plate) count C. Test for coliforms B. A
and C
91. When preparing culture media for bacteriological
analysis of water, which of the following sterilization
procedure appropriate.
A. Steam under pressure
92. Which of the following diseases maybe carried
through water either directly or indirectly?
A. Typhoid and para typhoid fever C. Amoebic dysentery
B Cholera D. All of the above
93 Which of the following test provides index as to
possible number of organism in water sample?
C. Quantitative analysis
94. Which of the following colored colonies developed
in EMB described as lactose fermenters?
A. Purple colonies
95. Which media is overlayed in sterile plates with
water samples in quantitating the number of colonies in
water bacteriology?
A. NA
96. Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs
include
B. high toxicity against microbial cells.
97. Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's
normal flora often cause
A nephrotoxicity. C. superinfections. B. allergic
reactions. D. All of the choices are correct
98. Which antibacterial does not inhibit cell wall
synthesis?
A. gentamicin
99. Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are
drugs used to treat infections
A. bacterial
100. Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotnmazole, and
miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat
infection
C. fungal
101 Drug susceptibility testing
B. determines the pathogen's response to vanous
antrrnicrobics.
102.There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and
antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs
because fungi protozoa, and helminths
C. are so similar to human cells that drug selective
toxicity is difficult.
103.A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of
several antimicrobics in broth, and then incubates each
drug dilution series with a standard amount of a
patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist
setting up?
B.MIC
104. Antibacterial drugs effective against only gram
positive bacteria would be termed
C. narrow-spectrum drugs.
105.A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy
involves
C. using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of
killing the pathogen is greater.
106. All of the following could be reasons why
antimicrobic treatment fails except
B. a mixed infection where some of the pathogens are
drug resistant.
107. All of the following are correct about allergic
reactions to drugs except
A. the drug acts as an antigen. B. every person develop
allergies to certain drugs C. anaphylaxis can occur. D.
allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a
person takes the drug.
108. What is observed in the medium to determine the
susceptibility of the inoculated bacteria to an antibiotic?
C. Zone of inhibition
109. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing, the turbidity
of the bacterial suspension of the test organism is
adjusted to what standard?
D. MacFarland No. 5
110. The agar recommended by the CLSI (Clinical
Laboratory Standard Institute) for antimicrobial
susceptibility testing is
A. Mueller-Hinton agar