12ME5A1

USN

R. V. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Autonomous Institution affiliated to VTU
V Semester B. E. Examinations Nov/Dec-15
Mechanical Engineering
MATERIALS TECHNOLOGY (ELECTIVE)
Time: 03 Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Instructions to candidates:
1. Answer all questions from Part A. Part A questions should be answered
in first three pages of the answer book only.
2. Answer FIVE full questions from Part B.

PART-A

1 1.1 Critical radius of nucleation __________. 01

1.2 Impurities in a melt help in __________ nucleation. 01
1.3 For heterogeneous nucleation, contact angle ( ) should be __________
90°. 01
1.4 Carbon in iron is an example of __________ solid solution. 01
1.5 The crystal structure of Austenite is __________. 01
1.6 State peritectic reaction. 02
1.7 Give an example of Invariant reaction from equilibrium diagram. 01
1.8 What are the 3 s in diagram? 01
1.9 Percentage of carbon in hypereutectoid steel is __________. 01
1.10 __________ test is used to determine the hardenability of steel. 01
1.11 The phase boundary between alpha and (alpha beta) region is called
__________. 01
1.12 Brass is an alloy of __________. 01
1.13 Bonze is an alloy of __________. 01
1.14 Aluminum alloys are hardened by __________ process. 01
1.15 Couplants are used in ultrasonic test to __________. 01
1.16 Two common types of liquids used for liquid penetrates are __________. 01
1.17 Normalizing is done to __________ the grain structure. 01
1.18 What are cermets? 02

PART-B

2 a Briefly explain:
i) Pyrometallurgy
ii) Hydrometallurgy. 08
b With a neat sketch explain Induction furnace. 08

OR

3 a Explain in brief mechanism of solidification in pure metals. 08

b Write a note on directional solidification. 08
4 a Draw Iron carbon equilibrium phase diagram and label all temperature
and phase field. 08
b With the help of the above diagram of question 4(a) explain
solidification of hypoeutectoid steel and hypereutectoid steel. 08

OR

5 a Explain the steps to construct diagram. Draw a labeled sketch of

diagram for eutectoid steel. 10
b Differentiate between edge and screw dislocation. 06

6 a When do you prefer case hardening? Explain any two methods. 10

b Differentiate between Annealing and normalizing. 06

OR

7 Give typical composition, microstructure, properties and application of:

a) Aluminium copper alloys
b) Aluminium silicon alloys
c) Aluminium, Bronzes
d) Aluminium-magnesium alloys. 16

8 a With a line diagram explain scanning electron microscopy. 08

b Briefly explain -ray diffraction technique. 08

OR

9 Write a note on the following:

a) Liquid penetrent
b) Magnetic particle inspection
c) Ultrasonic Inspection
d) Eddy current Inspection. 16

10 a List the materials used for hammer and briefly explain need fort heat
treatment of hammer. 04
b What are the properties of cutting tool? 04
c Briefly explain any two cutting tool materials. 08

OR

11 a Justify the use of aluminium for automobile-piston. 02

b Explain the materials used for manufacture of gas turbine blades. 06
c What are the characteristics of high temperature alloys? List few
applications of high temperature alloys. 08
 12ME5A2

USN

R. V. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Autonomous Institution affiliated to VTU
V Semester B. E. Examinations Nov/Dec-15
Mechanical Engineering
REFRIGERATION AND AIR-CONDITIONING (ELECTIVE)
Time: 03 Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Instructions to candidates:
3. Answer all questions from Part A. Part A questions should be answered
in first three pages of the answer book only.
4. Answer FIVE full questions from Part B.
5. Use of refrigerant and steam tables, Refrigerant and psychrometric chart
permitted.

PART-A

1 1.1 3.517 is ________ ton of refrigeration. 01

1.2 Air refrigeration works on ________ cycle. 01
1.3 A reversed Carnot cycle is used for heating and cooling purpose. If the
work supplied is 9.5 and . . is 3.6 for cooling, the temperature
ratio / is ________. 01
1.4 A good refrigerant should have ________ latent heat. 01
1.5 For high . . . critical temperature in general should be ________. 01
1.6 The refrigerant, commonly used in vapor absorption system is ________. 01
1.7 In electrolux refrigerator ammonia evaporates in ________. 01
1.8 In aqua-ammonia absorption system, incomplete rectification leads to
accumulation of water in ________. 01
1.9 The sensing bulb of the thermostatic expansion valve is located at the
________. 01
1.10 With increase in clearance volume, the ideal work of compressing 1 of
refrigerant ________. 01
1.11 With suction pressure being fixed increase in delivery pressure with
fixed clearance volume ________ volumetric efficiency. 01
1.12 Most thermostatic expansion valve are set for ________ of superheat. 01
1.13 When wet bulb depression is zero, relative humidity is equal to
________. 01
1.14 Room sensible heat 50 , room latent heat 50 , then room
sensitive heat factor is equal to ________. 01
1.15 Air at dry bulb temperature of 35 and dew point temperatures of 20
passes through a cooling coil maintained at 25 . The process would be
________. 01
1.16 Stream of moist air at of 35 and of 25 passes through a
water shower whose temperature is maintained at 20 . The stream will
undergo a process of cooling and ________. 01
1.17 During sensible cooling ________. 01
1.18 Compared to individual systems, the central air-conditioning system
has ________ overall efficiency. 01
 1.19 By evaporative cooling, water can be theoretically cooled down to
________ temperature. 01

1.20 When the atmospheric conditions are 20 and specific humidity

0.0095 / of dry air, the partial pressure is________. 01

PART-B

2 a Explain with a neat sketch a Boot-strap air refrigeration system. 08

b An air refrigeration system operating on an open air cycle is required to
produce 25 ton of refrigeration with a cooler pressure of 12 bar and the
refrigerator pressure of 1 bar. The temperature of air leaving the cooler
is at 0 . Assume isentropic compression and polytropic expansion with
! 1.35. Neglect compressor clearance. Determine:
i) Mass of air circulated per minute
ii) . .
iii) Power required per ton of refrigeration. 08

OR

3 a What are the desirable thermodynamic and chemical properties of a

refrigerant? 06
b A single acting compressor having a stroke volume if 500 ". " runs at
500 . #. $ and works with refrigerant. The evaporator and condenser
temperatures are 15 and 25 , respectively. The condenser liquid is
sub cooled to 150C before passing on to the expansion valve. Assume
wet compression with an initial quality of as 0.9. Assuming
isentropic compression and the volumetric efficiency of compressor as
0.85, calculate:
i) . .
ii) Power required by the compressor
iii) The refrigerating capacity of the compressor in tons of
refrigeration.
The following data for may be used.

* $+ / , -/ ., -/
&, , ()
/01203 *)#42 /01203 *)#42 /01203 *)#42
15 22.88 0.00101 0.0166 49.62 322.86 0.1976 1.2567
15 50.92 0.00130 0.0063 127.75 308.08 0.4697 1.0959
25 64.32 0.00147 0.0042 164.17 283.63 0.5903 0.9912

( 6) of gas 2.4 -/ .7 10

4 a With the help of a neat sketch describe the working of a simple

89+ 9 absorption refrigeration system 10
b Compare vapor compression and vapor absorption refrigeration system. 06

OR

5 a Derive an expression for the . . of an ideal vapor absorption system

in terms of heating, cooling and refrigerator temperatures. 07
 b In an absorption type refrigerator heat is supplied to 89+ generator by
condensing steam at 1.6 bar and 80% dry. The temperature in the
refrigerator is 5 . Find the maximum . . .If the refrigerator load is
150 tones of refrigeration and the actual is 80% of maximum ,
find the mass of steam required per hour. Atmospheric temperature is
30 . 06
c Write a note on temperature -concentration diagram. 03

6 a What are the advantages and disadvantages of centrifugal compressors

over reciprocating compressors in refrigeration system? 06
b Sketch and explain the working of vane type rotary compressors. 06
c Compare the performance of reciprocating and centrifugal compressors. 04

OR

7 a With a neat sketch explain the working of thermostatic expansion valve. 08

b List the methods of defrosting and explain any one of them with a neat
sketch. 08

8 a Define:
i) Dry bulb temperature
ii) Relative humidity
iii) Specific humidity
iv) Dew point temperature. 04
<
b Prove that relative humidity Φ is given by Φ ABC where
=> =<?@ E
AD
F degree of saturation, GH sat. temperature of vapor in moist air,
Pt=total pressure of air 04
c Air at 32 and 20 is passed through a cooling coil
maintained at 5 . The heat extracted by the cooling coil is 14 and
air flow rate is 42.5 $+ /$0!. Determine:
i) and of the air leaving the coil
ii) Coil by –pass factor. 08

OR

9 a Briefly explain:
i) Effective temperature
ii) Human comfort chart. 04
b It is required to design an air-conditioning system for an industrial
process for the following hot and wet summer conditions.
Outdoor conditions: 32 and 65% I. 9.
Required air inlet conditions: 25 and 60% I. 9.
Amount of free air circulated: 250 $+ /$0!, coil dew temperature:13
The required condition is achieved by first cooling and dehumidifying
and then by heating. Calculate the following:
i) The cooling capacity of the cooling coil and its .
ii) Heating capacity of the heating coil in and its surface
temperature if its . . is 0.3.
iii) Mass of water vapor removed per hour. 12
10 a Write the classification of air-conditioning systems. 06
b Describe the unitary air-conditioning system with a neat sketch.
Mention its advantages. 10

OR

11 a Briefly describe how milk and poultry products are

processed/ preserved. 06
b Write short notes on:
i) Principles of ice production
ii) Transport air conditioning 10
 12ME5A3

USN

R. V. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Autonomous Institution affiliated to VTU
V Semester B. E. Examinations Nov/Dec-15
Mechanical Engineering
QUALITY AND RELIABILITY ENGINEERING (ELECTIVE)

Time: 03 Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Instructions to candidates:
6. Answer all questions from Part A. Part A questions should be answered
in first three pages of the answer book only.
7. Answer FIVE full questions from Part B.
8. Use of statistical tables permitted.
9. Analysis of the problem must involve clear procedure and steps.

PART-A

1 1.1 Define Total Quality Control. 01

1.2 For any two events J and , >JK ? _________. 01
1.3 What is null event? 01
1.4 If J and are two independent events, >JL ? _________. 01
1.5 Mathematical equation of the exponential probability distribution is
given by _________. 01
1.6 In Poisson distribution, the probability of finding ‘7’ defective is given by
>7? _________. 01
1.7 A ‘O ; gauge represents the _________ material condition of the product. 01
1.8 Basic hole is a hole whose lower deviation is _________. 01
1.9 The upper control limit on the chart is expressed by the relation
P /Q _________ and while the lower control limit / /Q _________. 02
1.10 _________ chart is an example of control chart for defectives. 01
1.11 If the lower control limit on the chart has negative value then it is
taken as equal to _________. 01
1.12 In value stream mapping, .*.R and .*.R are abbreviations for
_________ and _________. 02
1.13 In RSJ, arithmetic product of severity, occurrence and detection is
denoted by _________. 01
1.14 The relation between failure rate(T) and R is given by _________. 01
1.15 In a series system, the failure rate of the system is equal to the _________
of the failure rates of the components of the system. 01
1.16 If ‘!’ items are placed in a test for ‘&’ hours and if the failure rate is ‘T’,
the expected number of failures ‘ ’ will be given by _________. 01
1.17 If IU and IV are the reliability of two components connected in series in a
system, then the reliability at the system (IW ) will be IW _________. 01
1.18 If IU and IV are the reliability of two components connected in parallel in
a system, then the reliability of the system (IW ) will be IW _________. 01
 PART-B

2 a With a neat diagram explain the spiral of progress in quality in an

industry. 10
b List five X (Total Quality Control) categories with X concepts
associated with each category. 06
OR

3 a Suppose that one of the three men, a politician, a bureaucrat and an

educationist will be appointed as * of the university. The probabilities
of their appointments are 0.3, 0.25 and 0.45 respectively. The probability
that these people will promote research activities if they are appointed is
0.4, 0.7 and 0.8 respectively. What is the probability that research will be
promoted by the new * ? 06
b The probability that a contractor will get a plumbing contract is 2/3 and
probability that he will not get an electrical contract is 5/9. If the
probability of getting at least one of these contracts is 4/5, what Is the
probability that he will get both? 06
c Using the hyper geometric formula compute the probabilities of zero
through three defectives in a sample at 5 drawn from a lot of 40 which is
10% defective. 04

4 a Explain different types of fits with sketches. 06

b Determine the tolerances on the hole and the shaft for a precision
running fit designated by 509Y Z , given that
i) 50$$ dia lies in dia step at 30 50$$.
ii) The standard tolerance unit 0 0.45 √ 0.001
\

iii) Fundamental deviation for ‘ ’ shaft 2.5 ].+^

iv) _ 7 160 and _ 6 100
State the actual maximum and minimum sizes of the hole and
shaft. 10
OR

5 a Determine the centre line and control limits of à and I charts, if

∑ à 0.93812 and Ia 0.0003, number of sub groups 15. It is given that,
i) Factor for à chart, J 0.577
ii) Factor for I chart lower control limit, + 0
iii) Factor for I chart upper control limit, ^ 2.114 06
b A press brake is set up to produce a formed part to a dimension of
3” ± 0.005”. A process study reveals that the process limits are
3.002” ± 0.006” i.e at a minimum of 2.996” and maximum of 3.008”. After
corrective action, the process limits are brought under control to
3.001” ± 0.002”.
i) Calculate the # and # of the old process
ii) Calculate the # and # of the corrected process. 10

6 a Define value analysis. 02

b List the value Analysis phases. 04
c Explain the steps involved in value analysis, in detail by considering the
case study, “.S/S _ 8 P _8O . SS I _RPR . ”. 10

OR
7 a Define RSJ. 03
b Name three most common types of RSJd and briefly explain them. 06
c Provide a schematic representation of RSJ worksheet by taking
example of a bicycle hand-brake system. 07

8 a Define reliability 02
b With a neat diagram explain failure pattern for complex product with the
help of “bath tub curve”. 08
c Describe fault tree analysis with a diagrammatic representation. 06

OR

9 a Describe briefly about the weibull distribution in reliability. 06

b A device has a constant failure rate of 5 e 10=Z failures/hr.
i) What is the reliability for an operating period of 100 hours?
ii) If 10,000 items are placed in the test, how many failures are
expected in 100 hrs?
iii) What is R ?
iv) What is the reliability of a system for an operating time equal to
R ?
v) If the useful life is 1,00,000 hrs, what _ the reliability for operating
over its useful life? 10

10 a A system has three units with a failure rate of 1.5, 4 and 3.8 failures for
10fZ hours.
i) Find the R of the system.
ii) Determine the reliability of the system for 10 hrs if the components
are connected in series.
iii) Determine the reliability of the system for 10 hours if the
components are connected in parallel. 08
b Calculate the reliability of the configuration given in fig 10b.

figure 10(b) 08

OR

11 a An active generator has a failure rate (failures per day) of 0.01. An older
stand by generator has a failure rate of 0.001 while in stand by and a
failure rate of 0.10 when on-line. Determine the system reliability for a
planned 30 day use and compute the system R . What would be the
system reliability if there is 10% probability of switching failure? 08
b Write short notes on:
i) Common mode Failure 04
ii) Load sharing system. 04
 12ME5B1

USN

R. V. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Autonomous Institution affiliated to VTU
V Semester B. E. Examinations Nov/Dec-15
Mechanical Engineering
STRESS ANALYSIS (ELECTIVE)
Time: 03 Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Instructions to candidates:
10. Answer all questions from Part A. Part A questions should be
answered in first three pages of the answer book only.
11. Answer FIVE full questions from Part B.
12. Missing data if any, may be assumed suitably.

PART-A

1 1.1 When the body is assumed to be isotropic, then elastic constants will be
independent of the ________. 01
1.2 In formulation of equilibrium equations relevant to the deformed state,
the ________ and ________ of the body before deformation are used. 02
1.3 The displacements of the different points of a material body consists of
two parts, which are ________ and ________. 02
1.4 In continuum mechanics, ________ forces are introduced through the
concept of body forces and surface forces. 01

9 6 3
1.5 The state of stress at a point is given by the following matrix:

g6 5 2h R ). Evaluate the principal stresses.

3 2 4 02
1.6 What is the function of fourth gauge in -delta rosette? 01
1.7 What is photo-elastic effect? 02
1.8 List any two assumptions made in the photo-elastic coatings. 02
1.9 The isoclinic parameter is independent of ________ and ________ of the
material. 02
1.10 Differentiate between ‘Isotropic points’ and ‘Singular points’. 02
1.11 List the characteristics of brittle coating. 02
1.12 The shift in Bragg’s ________ is approximately linear with respect to strain
and temperature. 01

PART-B

2 a Explain stress at a point and notation of stress in elasticity. 04

b When stress tensor at a point with reference to axes > , l and m? is given

4 1 2
by the array:

ijk g1 6 0h R )
2 0 8
Show that by transformation of the axes by 45° about the n-axis, the
stress invariants remain unchanged. 12

OR
3 a Explain spherical and deviatoric stress tensors. 06
b Describe the evaluation of principal stresses in three dimensional bodies. 10

4 a The components of strain at a point in a body are as follows: op 0.1;

oq 0.05; os 0.05; tpq 0.3; tqs 0.1; tsp 0.08. Evaluate the
principal strains and direction for maximum principal strain. 12
b Explain ‘plane stress’ and ‘plane strain’ problems with examples. 04

OR

5 a The following is the state of stress at a point given by ip 200R );

iq 100R ); is 50R ); upq 40R ); uqs 50R ); usp 60R ). If
S 205O ) and O 80O ), find the strain components. 10
b What are the different types of strain rosette configurations currently in
use? Discuss their uses and limitations. 06

6 a With a neat sketch derive an expression for principal stresses and

maximum shear stress for 3 element rectangular rosette. 08
b Describe the working and construction of linear variable differential
transformer for measuring displacement. 08

OR

7 a Discuss the characteristics of a strain gauge. 06

b A delta rosette yields the following strain readings: ov 845F$/$;
ow 1200F$/$; ox 710F$/$. Compute the maximum principal strain,
direction and the principal stresses if S 200O ) and y 0.3. 10

8 a With a neat sketch, explain the arrangement and working of a plane

polariscope. 10
b Write a note on fringe multiplication technique. 06

OR

9 a Define the following:

i) Isochromatic
ii) Isoclinic
iii) Fringe order
iv) Birefringence 04
b Describe the effect of stressed model in a plane polariscope and obtain
the expression for maximum transmitted light intensity. 12

10 a Explain the principle of working of fiber Bragg grating in strain

measurement. 10
b List the various advantages of fiber Bragg gratings sensors. 06

OR

11 a Explain the temperature compensation technique in fiber Bragg grating. 08

b Describe laser and phase mask method to induce Bragg grating for
measuring strain. 08
 12ME5B2

USN

R. V. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Autonomous Institution affiliated to VTU
V Semester B. E. Examinations Nov/Dec-15
Mechanical Engineering
ENERGY CONVERSION ENGINEERING (ELECTIVE)
Time: 03 Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Instructions to candidates:
13. Answer all questions from Part A. Part A questions should be
answered in first three pages of the answer book only.
14. Answer FIVE full questions from Part B.

PART-A

1 1.1 The difference between 9 * and / * when pure carbon burns to is

equal to _________. 02
1.2 Oil burners can be classified into two types as _________ and _________. 02
1.3 The contour joining points of equal rainfall in a given catchment area
is called _________. 02
1.4 According to Dicken’s formula, the maximum discharge for a given
catchment area is given by _________. 02
1.5 The time during which one half of a number of radioactive species
decays is called _________. 02
1.6 Two advantages of J8 P reactor are _________ and _________ 02
1.7 Two methods of cooling diesel engines are _________ and _________. 02
1.8 _________ and _________ are two types of lubrication systems used in
diesel engine. 02
1.9 _________ and _________ pyrometers are used for sensing flame
temperatures in the combustion chamber. 02
1.10 Safety controls for boilers are needed for protection against _________
and _________. 02

PART-B

2 a Explain the overfeed and underfeed principles of stoker with neat

diagrams. 10
b List the advantages and disadvantages of pulverized fuel burning. 06

OR

3 a With a neat diagram, explain the working of Benson boiler. 08

b A chimney 28$ high has hot gases inside at 320 . The temperature of
outside air is 23 . The furnace is supplied with 15 kg of air per kg of
coal burnt. Calculate:
i) Drought in mm of water
ii) Draught head in meters of hot gases. 08
4 a With a schematic diagram, explain the general layout of a hydel plant. 08
b The catchment area of a hydroelectric power plant is 2500 $ , with an
average rainfall of 160"$. The percolation and evaporation losses
account for 19%. The available head is 150$. Find the power developed
by the plant. Assume z{ 0.86, z| 0.91. 08

OR

5 a List the advantages and disadvantages of hydel power plants. 08

b With neat diagrams explain the working of:
i) Needle valve
ii) Tube valve. 08

6 a With a schematic diagram, explain the working of a nuclear reactor. 08

b Explain the types of nuclear wastes generated and methods of disposal
of nuclear waste. 08

OR

7 a With a neat diagram explain the working of J8 P heavy water

reactor. 08
b Explain fusion and fission reactions. 08

8 a Draw a neat schematic diagram of a diesel engine power plant showing

all the systems. 08
b Explain the different engine starting methods. 08

OR

9 a With neat diagrams, explain different fuel injection systems used in

diesel engine power plant. 12
b With schematic diagram, explain open circuit cooling system used in
diesel engine power plant. 04

10 a Explain the three basic types of instrumentation systems used for

power plant control. 12
b With examples explain the maintenance and calibration of control
system equipment. 04

OR

11 a With a schematic diagram, explain the working of a typical

combustion control system. 08
b With examples explain the functions of interlocks and safety devices in
a modern thermal power plant. 08
 12ME5B3

USN

R. V. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Autonomous Institution affiliated to VTU
V Semester B. E. Examinations Nov/Dec-15
Mechanical Engineering
OPERATIONS RESEARCH AND MANAGEMENT (ELECTIVE)
Time: 03 Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Instructions to candidates:
15. Answer all questions from Part A. Part A questions should be
answered in first three pages of the answer book only.
16. Answer FIVE full questions from Part B.
17. Use of statistical (Normal distribution) tables permitted.

PART-A

1 1.1 Define operations research. 01

1.2 If the value of objectives function n can be increased/decreased
indefinitely, such solutions are called ________ solutions. 01
1.3 Applications of operations research include ________ (any two) 02
1.4 If the number of occupied cells in a $ e ! transportation problem is
less than $ ! 1. Then it is called ________ transportation problem. 01
1.5 Write the linear programming form of an assignment problem. 02
1.6 ________ ’s rule is used for numbering the events in network analysis. 01
1.7 List the 3 types of floats used in networks. 01
1.8 The expected duration of any activity in terms of 3 time estimates is
given by ________. 01
1.9 Define a queue. 01
1.10 List the basic characteristics of a queuing system. 02
1.11 A game is said to be fair if ________. 01
1.12 R/R/1 model is also known as ________ model. 01
1.13 Define traffic intensity. 01
1.14 Productivity is defined as ________. 01
1.15 Define economic order quantity. 02
1.16 Define lead-time. 01

PART-B

2 a A farmer has to plant two kinds of trees and X in a land of 4000 sq.
m. area. Each tree requires atleast 25 sq. m and X tree requires
atleast 40 sq. m of land. The annual water requirements of P tree are 30
units and of X tree is 15 units per tree. While utmost 30000 units of
water is available. It is also estimated that the ratio of the number of X
tree to the number of trees should not be less than 6/19 and should
not be more than 17/9. The returns per tree from X are expected to be
one and half times as much as from tree. Formulate this into linear
programming problem. 06
 b Solve the following / by simplex method:
Minimize m 3 2 +
subject to: 3 2 +}7
2 4 } 12
4 3 8 + } 10
where , , + ~ 0 10

OR

3 a A firm plans to purchase atleast 200 quintals of scrap containing high

quantity metal ` and low quantity metal •. It decides that the scrap to
be purchased must contain atleast 100 quintals of ` metal and not more
than 35 quintals of • metal. The firm can purchase the scrap from 2
suppliers J and in unlimited quantities. The percentage of ` and Y
metals in terms of weight in scrap supplied by J and as follows:

R &)€ .2##€0 J .2##€0

` 25% 75%
• 10% 20%

The price of J’s scrap is Rs. 200 per quintal and that of is Rs. 400 per
quintal. The firm wants to determine how much it should buy from the
two suppliers so that the total cost is minimum. 08
b Solve the following / by Big-R method:
Minimize m 600 500
subject, to: 2 ~ 80
2 ~ 60
where , ~ 0 08

4 a In a machine shop, the interarrival time at the tool crib are exponential,
with an average time of 10 minutes. The length of service time is
assumed to be exponential with a mean of 6 minutes. Determine:
i) The probability that a person arriving at the booth will have to
wait.
ii) The average length of queue.
iii) The probability that on arrival will have to wait for more than
12 minutes for service and to obtain his tools. 10
b Explain the characteristics of queuing system. 06

OR

5 a Obtain the initial basic feasible solution by North-West corner method

for the following transportation problem:

1 2 3 4 .2##€l
J 6 4 1 5 14
8 9 2 7 16
4 3 6 2 5
Demand 6 10 5 4 - 06
 b Solve the following transportation problem by *JR and obtain its
optimal solution.
.1 .2 .3 .4 .2##€l
2 2 2 1 3
X 10 8 5 4 7
I 7 6 6 8 5
$)!3 4 3 4 4 10

6 a Draw the network for the following project. Identify its critical paths and
find project duration, calculate total float for each activity:

J"&0•0&l J S O 9 _ -
_$$ 30)& # 3 " dd4 - - J J , , S S ,O , 9, _
0$ >‚ d? 15 15 3 5 8 12 1 14 3 14 10

b Following table gives list of jobs along with time estimates:

ƒ4( &4 &$ &#
1 2 3 6 15
1 6 2 5 14
2 3 6 12 30
2 4 2 5 8
3 5 5 11 17
4 5 3 6 15
6 7 3 9 27
5 8 1 4 7
7 8 4 19 28
i) Draw the network and find its project duration.
ii) What is the probability that the project will not be completed
by due date of 38 days? 06

OR

7 a Solve the following game by graphical method:

€)l
•1 •2 •3 •4
`1 19 6 7 5
`2 7 3 14 6
€)l J
`3 12 8 18 4
`4 8 7 13 1 08

b Two competitors J and are competing for the same product. Their
different strategies are as follows in matrix:
4$# &0&4
_ __ ___ _*
_ 3 2 4 0
__ 3 4 2 4
4$# &0&4 J
___ 4 2 4 0
_* 0 4 0 8

Use dominance principle to find the optimal strategies. 08

8 a Differentiate between products and services. 06
b Explain the factors affecting productivity. 10

OR

9 a A company currently operates a single bakery, but is now considering a

second location in a new shopping mall. The company estimates that
fixed cost would be Rs.3000 per week and that labor and materials to
produce pies at that location will be Rs 6/pie. Pie be sold at Rs 16 each.
i) What number of pies must be sold to break-even?
ii) What profit (or loss) would be there on sales of 20,0000 pies in
one week?
iii) What volume would be in order to realize a project of
Rs.12000/-? 06
b A firm uses simple exponential smoothing with „ 0.1 to forecast the
sales. The forecast for the week ending Feb 1 was 500 units, where as
the actual demand turned out to be 450 units.
i) Forecast the demand for the week ending Feb. 8.
ii) Assume the actual demand during the week ending Feb 8
turned out to be 505 units. Forecasting the demand for week
ending Feb 15 continue the forecasting through Mar 15,
assuming that the subsequent demands were actually
516,488,467,554 and 510 units. 10

10 a Explain the importance of materials management. 06

b Explain the various costs associated with inventory. 10

OR

11 a Explain the classification of inventory systems. 06

b Explain the master scheduling methods. 06
c Differentiate between independent and dependent demand item. 04
 12ME52 / 12IM52

USN

R. V. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Autonomous Institution affiliated to VTU
V Semester B. E. Examinations Nov/Dec-15
Common to ME / IM
DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS - I
Time: 03 Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Instructions to candidates:
18.Answer all questions from Part A. Part A questions should be answered in
first three pages of the answer book only.
19.Answer FIVE full questions from Part B.
20.Use of design data hand book is permitted.
21.Missing data may be assumed suitably.

PART-A

1 1.1 Stress concentration factor is defined as a ratio of ________ to ________. 01

1.2 Stress concentration factors are reduced by the use of ________ fillets. 01
1.3 Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by _______. 01
1.4 ________ and ________ equations are concerned with the safety factors in
case of variable stresses. 01
1.5 Two shafts J and are made of same material. The diameter of shaft is
twice that of shaft J. The ratio of power which can be transmitted by shaft
A to that of shaft is ________. 01
1.6 If 100 power is to be transmitted at 100 #$ by a shaft of diameter ‘3’,
then for transmitting 100 power at 800 #$, the shaft diameter should
be ________. 01
1.7 The sleeve or muff of a sleeve coupling is designed by treating it as a
________. 01
1.8 The possible modes of failure of the pin (bolt) in flexible coupling are
________ and ________. 01
1.9 If two springs of same size are in parallel, then their overall stiffness will be
________. 01
1.10 Spring index is the ratio of ________ to ________. 01
1.11 Pre stressing is done to obtain ________. 01
1.12 The stress in extra full length leaves is ________ percent more than that
induced in graduated leaves. 01
1.13 The radical distance from the ________ to the clearance circle is called
working depth. 01
1.14 The minimum number of teeth on the pinion in order to avoid interference
for 20° stub system is ________. 01
1.15 The formative number of teeth in helical gears is given by ________. 01
1.16 In helical gears, the right hand helices on one gear will mesh with ________
helices on the other gear. 01
1.17 A double strap butt joint with equal straps is in ________ shear. 01
1.18 According to Indian standards, the diameter of the rivet hole for a 24$$
diameter rivet should be ________. 01
1.19 Tensile strength in welded joints is achieved by ________ type of weld. 01
1.20 In a steam engine, the piston rod is usually connected to the cross head by
means of ________ joint. 01
 PART-B

2 a Fig.2(a) shows a flat plate under a tensile load of 6 8. Using a design stress
off 80R ), determine the thickness of the plate.

06
b A mild steel shaft of 50 $$ diameter is subjected to a bending moment of
20 8 $ and a turning moment . IF the yield point of the steel material in
tension is 2008/$$ , find the maximum value of torque ‘ ’ without causing
yielding according to
i) Maximum principal stress theory
ii) Maximum shear stress theory.
Choose a factor of safety of 2.5. 10
OR

3 A ground steel cantilever member as shown in fig.3 is subjected to a

transverse load at its free end that varies from 1008 up to 2008 down and
an axial load varies from 5008 compression to 10008 tension. Determine
the required diameter of the section using a . 2. The strength properties
of the material are: ultimate strength 550R ), yield strength 480R )
and endurance limit 270R ).

16

4 A machine shaft running at 600 #$ is supported on bearings, 700$$

apart. 20 power is supplied to the shaft through a 500$$ diameter
pulley located at 250$$ to the right of the right bearing. The power is
transmitted from the shaft through a spur gear of 200$$ diameter which is
located at 250$$ to the right of the left bearing. The belt drive is at an
angle of 60° above the horizontal. The pulley weight is 7008. The ratio of
belt tensions is 2.5. The gear has 14 ° involute teeth and meshes with
another gear located directly above the shaft. The shaft is rotating in
clockwise direction and belt tensions are acting towards right. Determine
the shaft diameter assuming permissible shear stress as 45R ). 16

OR

5 a Design a muff coupling which is use to connect two steel shafts

transmitting 40 at 350 #$. The allowable shear and crushing stresses
for shafts and key are 40R ) and 80R ) respectively. The material for the
muff is cast iron for which the allowable shear stress may be taken as
15R ). 08
b The shaft and the flange of a marine engine are to be designed for flange
coupling, in which the flange is forged on the end of the shaft. The
following particulars are to be considered in the design:
Power of the engine : 3000
Speed of the engine : 100 #$
Permissible shear stress in bolts and shaft : 60R )
Number of bolts used :8
Pitch circle diameter of bolts:1.6 ediameter of shaft
 Find:
i) Diameter of the shaft
ii) Thickness of the flange
iii) Diameter of the flange. 08

6 a Design a helical compression spring for a maximum load of 10008 and for a
deflection of 25$$. the maximum permissible shear stress for spring wire
is 420 8/$$ , modulus of rigidity is 0.84 e 10… 8/$$ and value of spring
index is 6. 08
b A railway wagon weighing 50 8 and moving with a speed of 88 $/, has to
be stopped by four buffer springs in which the maximum compression
allowed is 220$$. Find the number of turns in each spring of mean
diameter 150$$. the diameter of spring wire is 25$$. Take O 84O ). Also
find the shear stress. 08

OR

7 a A loaded narrow car of mass 1600 and moving at a velocity of 1.2 $/d is
brought to rest by a bumber consisting of two helical steel springs of
square section. The mean coil diameter of the spring is 6 times the side of
the square. In bringing the car to rest, the springs are compressed by
200$$. the permissible shear stress is 400R ). Modulus of rigidity may be
taken as 84 O ). Determine the following:
i) Mean load on each spring
ii) Side of square section wire
iii) Mean coil diameter
iv) Active number of coils.
08
b The laminated leaf spring has an overall length of 1100$ and has a central
load of 160 8.The spring has 3 full length leaves and 15 graduated leaves
with a central band of 100 $$ wide. All the leaves are to be stressed to
400R ) when fully loaded. The ratio of total spring depth to width is 2.
Determine:
i) The width and thickness of leaves.
ii) Initial space to be provided between full length and graduated leaves.
iii) What load is exerted on the band when the leaves are assembled? 08

8 It is desired to transmit 11 from a motor shaft rotating at 1440 #$ to a

low speed shaft with a speed reduction ratio 3: 1. A single stage spur gear
drive is employed for this purpose. The gear teeth are 20° full depth
involute. Pinion has 25 teeth. Starting torque is 50% higher than the
running torque. Both pinion and gear are made of heat treated steel with a
maximum allowable stress of 210R ).Design the suitable spur gear drive
from the point of view of dynamic and wear strength. 16

OR

9 a Derive an expression for virtual number of teeth in helical gears. 06

b Determine the module for a pair of helical gears to transmit a power of
30 from a shaft rotating at 1500 #$ to a parallel shaft to be rotated at
450 #$. The design stresses for pinion and gear are 193.2 R ) and
138.3 R ) respectively. Consider helix angle as 25° and choose a pressure
angle of 20º full depth involute. 10
10 a A double riveted double cover butt joint of plates 20$$ thick is made with
25$$ diameter rivets at 110$$ pitch. The permissible stresses are
i{ 120R ), u 100R ), ix 150R ). Find the efficiency of the joint taking
the strength of the rivet in double shear as twice than that of single shear. 08
b A plate is welded to a vertical support by two fillet welds as shown in
fig 10(b). Determine the size of the weld if the permissible shear stress for
the weld material is 75R ).

08
OR

11 a Design a knuckle joint to withstand a load of 100 8. All the parts of the
joint are made of the same material with i{ ix 80R ) and u 60R ). 08
b Design a cotter joint to connect two round rods of diameter 30$$. the
following stresses may be used:
Tensile stress 90R )
Shear stress 60R )
Crushing stress 150R ). 08
 12ME53

USN

R. V. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Autonomous Institution affiliated to VTU
V Semester B. E. Examinations Nov/Dec-15
Mechanical Engineering
HEAT TRANSFER

Time: 03 Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Instructions to candidates:
22. Answer all questions from Part A. Part A questions should be
answered in first three pages of the answer book only.
23. Answer FIVE full questions from Part B.
24. Use of heat and mass transfer data hand book permitted.

PART-A

1 1.1 Conduction occurs in materials by __________ and __________

mechanism. 02
1.2 Heat transfer coefficient is not a property but depends on __________. 01
1.3 ‡ˆ ‰ ‡‰
‡Š ˆ ‹ ‡{
The heat equation is a differential statement of __________. 01
‡‰
1.4 0 can be used to represent __________ and __________
‡p
The term
boundary conditions. 02
1.5 A fin with insulated end can be considered as infinitely long for value
of __________. 01
1.6 Fin effectiveness and fin efficiency are related to each other by ______. 01
1.7 The difference between 0 and 82 is __________. 01
1.8 If mean heat transfer coefficient is ,Πand the local heat transfer
coefficient is ,p then in case of heat transfer to a fluid flowing over a
plate ,Π__________. 01
1.9 The Fourier number is used in the analysis of problems involving
__________ heat transfer, 01
1.10 A body cools down from 75 to 70 in 10 $0!. It will cool down from
70 to 65 in __________ min. 01
1.11 Thickness of thermal boundary layer is __________ compared to that of
hydrodynamic boundary layer when •• 1. 01
1.12 Draw the variation of heat transfer coefficient along a plate where the
flow regime is changing from laminar to turbulent. 02
1.13 Draw the velocity profile in the boundary layer for a hot vertical plate. 01
1.14 What is the physical significance of Grashof number? 01
1.15 In forced convection heat transfer effect of change in viscosity of fluid
with temperature is accounted by introducing the term __________. 01
1.16 In a flow heat transfer correlation is given as 82„ I ].Ž . The heat
transfer coefficient varies with pipe diameter as __________. 01
1.17 Whenever the boundary layer thickness is small, the rate of convective
heat transfer is high, this is due to __________. 01
 PART-B

2 a What is Fourier’s law of heat conduction? Discuss thermal

conductivity of metal alloys. 08
b Describe thermal balance of an internal combustion engine. 08

OR

3 a List the advantages and disadvantages of resistance temperature

devices (I ). 08
b Describe how thermal emissivity of a given surface is determined in
the laboratory. 08

4 a What is meant by critical radius of insulation? 06

b A furnace wall consists of 3 layers. The inner layer of 10 "$ thickness
is made of fire clay brick ( 1.04 /$ 7). The intermediate and the
outer layers are made up of 25 "$ masonry brick ( 0.69 /$ 7) and
5 "$ thick concrete wall ( 1.37 /$ 7). The inner surface of the
furnace is at 1000 and outer concrete surface is at 50 . The
convection heat transfer coefficient of the inner and outer surfaces are
50 and 15 /$ 7 respectively. Determine:
i) the rate of heat transfer per unit area from the hot gases to
the ambient air
ii) The outer wall surface temperature. 10

OR

5 a Derive an expression for the governing equation for heat transfer in a

fin of uniform cross sectional area transferring heat by convection to
ambient. 06
b One end of a long 2 "$ diameter metal rod of unknown thermal
conductivity is maintained at 400 by keeping it in a furnace, while
the rod’s surface is exposed to air at 25 . The convection heat transfer
coefficient from the surface is 10 /$ 7. Once the steady state is
reached the temperature of the rod at a distance of 60 "$ from the hot
end is 100 . Determine the thermal conductivity of the rod. 10

6 a What is meant by internal resistance and external resistance for heat

transfer? How are they evaluated? 08
b A large slab of carbon steel ( 54 /$ 7, • 1.474 e 10=… $ ⁄d )
having a thickness of 30 "$ is initially at a temperature of 630 . It is
suddenly exposed to a convection environment at 30 for 20 , d. The
convection heat transfer coefficient is 10 /$ 7. It is required to reach
a temperature of 180 for the centerline of the slab. Find whether the
requirement is met. 08

OR

7 a What are the advantages and limitations of numerical methods of heat

transfer analysis? 06
 b Consider a node at the exterior corner body shown in Fig1. If the
surfaces of the body are exposed to a convection environment, derive
the explicit nodal equation for steady state.

10

8 a What is the physical significance of Nusselt number? 06

b Calculate the convection heat transfer coefficient for water flowing at a
velocity of 3 $/d in an annulus formed by a 2 "$ tube and 3 "$ _
tube. The water enters the tube at 30 10

OR

9 a With the usual notation derive 82 ‘ >O , ? for free convection heat
transfer. 08
b A horizontal rod of 5 "$ diameter is maintained at a constant surface
temperature of 70 by submerging it in water at 20 . Calculate the
heat/unit length of the rod. 08

10 a What is Buckingham ’ theorem? State the advantages and limitations. 08

b Water flowing through a tube of 1 "$ diameter is heated from 20 to
30 while the tube surface is maintained at 70 . If the mass flow rate
of water through the tube is 0.5 /d calculate the length of the tube. 08

OR

11 a A hot plate 600 e 900 e 25 $$ made of carbon steel ( 42 /$ 7 ) is

maintained at 310 . Air at 15 blows over the plate. If the convection
heat transfer coefficient is 22 /$ 7 and 250 is lost from the plate
by surface radiation calculate the inside plate temperature. 08
b An immersion water heater of surface area of 0.1 $ has a rating of
1 . The coil is designed to operate fully submerged in water. The
warranty certificate indicates the maximum operating temperature of
the coil at 900 . Estimate the coil surface temperature when water at
30 is heated using the coil. The heat transfer coefficient between the
coil and water is 300 /$ 7 Comment on the situation if the heater
is by mistake used in air at 30 with convection heat transfer
coefficient value is 10 /$ 7. 08
 12ME54

USN

R. V. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Autonomous Institution affiliated to VTU
V Semester B. E. Examinations Nov/Dec-15
Mechanical Engineering
COMPUTER AIDED DESIGN AND MANUFACTURING
Time: 03 Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Instructions to candidates:
25.Answer all questions from Part A. Part A questions should be answered in
first three pages of the answer book only.
26.Answer FIVE full questions from Part B.

PART-A

1 1.1 The conversion of mathematical model into geometrical model is known as

_________. 01
1.2 The configuration of robot, with three linear movement is _________. 01
1.3 The combination of two or more transformation is called _________. 01
1.4 The method by which continuous path system moves from one point to
another point is called _________. 01
1.5 _________ system is suitable for drilling, boring , tapping, punch presses and
jig boring machine. 01
1.6 In order to accomplish accurate control of position and velocity, _________
motors are used for axis drive. 01
1.7 The code O40 refers to _________. 01
1.8 The term _________ is refers to the space within which the robot can operate. 01
1.9 The term _________ is used to the small increment of motion at the wrist end
that can be controlled by the robot. 01
1.10 _________ command is used to initialize the sequence of contouring motion. 01
1.11 The two basic motion commands are _________ and _________. 02
1.12 List any two common graphing methods used in robot gripper. 02
1.13 The end effectors of robot can be _________ and _________. 02
1.14 _________ are essentially alumina based high refractory materials. 01
1.15 _________ tool materials have significant quantities of tungsten,
molybdenum, chromium, and vanadium. 01
1.16 The two approaches of solid modeling are _________ and_________ 02

PART-B

2 a Illustrate the role of robots in computer integrated manufacturing. 08

b Write short notes on wire frame and solid modeling. 08

OR

3 a List and explain functions of graphic package. 08

1 2
A line is defined as / “ ” it is desired to scale the line by a factor of 2
2 4
b

and rotate the line about the origin by 30°. Write the resultant matrix by the
method of concatenation. 08
4 a List some of the advantages and disadvantages of 8 over 8 system. 08
b Explain the components of closed loop control system with example. 08

OR

5 a Briefly explain different types of drive system in 8 technology. 08

b With neat sketches explain the axis system of any three machine tools. 08

6 a Discuss the following types of cutting tool materials:

i) 9.. ii) Cemented carbide
iii) Coated carbides iv) Ceramics. 12
b List the activities in sequence used in an automate tool changing facility in
a machine centre. 04
OR

7 a Explain the following commands of J language:

i) Geometry command ii) Motion command. 06
b Write an J program to drill 4 holes on (• 60 $$). Assume all required
data. (hole dia 10 $$) 10

8 a Write a manual part program to obtain the component shown in figure 8a.
Assume suitable value.

Fig 8a 12
b With an example explain canned cycle. 04

OR

9 a Distinguish between sub-routine and macro programming. 04

b For the component shown in figure 9(b) make part program for machine on
a 8 machine centre equipped with the J8P controller.

Fig 9b 12

10 a With neat sketches, explain configuration of industrial robot. 12

b Write a short note on robot gripper. 04

OR

11 a Explain some of the industrial applications of robot. 07

b Explain the following with respect to industrial robotics:
i) Trajectory planning
ii) Resolution
iii) Work cell controls. 09