Name ………………..………………………..…. Class ..…… Admission No ……...

233/2
CHEMISTRY PAPER 2
THEORY
2 HOURS
JULY/AUGUST 2017

G3 JOINT EXAMINATION
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS

 Write your name and class in the spaces provided.

 Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
 Silent electronic calculators may be used.
 All workings must be clearly shown in the spaces provided.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Candidate’s Score Maximum Score

80
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 1. The flow chart below shows a sequence of reactions starting with iron metal. Study it and
use it to answer the questions that follow.

Step 1 Step 2 nn step 3

Iron Pale green Yellow Brown
HCl(aq) solution Hydrogen solution NaOH(aq) precipitate
Peroxide
Step 4 H2S(g)

Step 5
Solution M Green
NaOH(aq) precipitate

a. Identify solution M (1 mark)

Iron (II) chloride

b. Write an ionic equation for the reaction that takes place in step 3 (1 mark)
Fe3+(aq) + 3OH-(aq) →Fe(OH)3(s)

c. State and explain the observation made in step 4 (2 marks)

Solution changes from yellow to pale green
Hydrogen sulphide reduces yellow iron (III) ions to pale green Iron (II) ions

d. Name another substance that can be used for the test in step 5 (1 mark)
Aqueous ammonia

e. State the role of hydrogen peroxide in step 2 (1 mark)

It oxidizes iron (II) ions to iron (III) ions // oxidizing agent

f. Explain the observation made if copper is used in place of iron in step 1(1 mark)
No reaction will take place since copper is less reactive than hydrogen hence doesn’t
react with dilute acids.

g. Iron is extracted from its ore by the blast furnace process.

i. Name the main ore from which iron is extracted (1 mark)
Magnetite or Siderite

ii. Identify the gas that is recycled in the process (1 mark)

Carbon (IV) oxide

iii. Describe the process through which iron is formed in the blast furnace
(3 marks)
Air reacts with carbon(coke) to form carbon (iv) oxide. Carbon (IV) oxide reacts
with coke to form carbon (II) oxide. Carbon (II) oxide reacts with iron (III) oxide
to form iron.

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2. Study the flow diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
Step 7 Step 6
Substance D Propanol CH3COOCH2CH2CH3
KMnO4/H+ reagent R
Step 1

G Polymerization CH3CH=CH2 Chlorine gas Substance V

Step 8 Step 5

Step 2

CH3CH2 CH3 Step 4 Gas H and liquid B

Oxygen gas
Step 3 Chlorine gas

Substance K

a. Identify the reagent used in; (1 mark)

i. Step 1 concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid

ii. Step 2 hydrogen gas

b. State the condition necessary in (1 mark)

i. Step 3 sunlight / UV light

ii. Step 4 Heat

c. Write the structural formula of substance (2 marks)

i. Substance V H H H
H – C – C – C – Cl
H Cl H

ii. Substance K H H H
H – C – C – C – Cl
H H H

d. Write an equation for (2 marks)

i. Step 4
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O (l)

ii. Step 6
CH3COOH(aq) + CH3CH2CH2OH(l)→ CH3COOCH2CH2CH3(aq)

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e. Name the process in (1½ mark)
i. Step 1 Dehydration

ii. Step 7 Oxidation

iii. Step 6 Esterification

f. A sample of substance G was found to have a molecular mass of 92,400.

i. Write the structural formula of the polymer (1 mark)
H H
–C–C–
H CH3
ii. Name the polymer (½ mark)
Polypropene

iii. Calculate the number of monomers in the sample (2 marks)

92400/42 = 220

3. The grid below represents part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions
that follow. (The letters do not represent actual symbols of the elements)

P T M
D Y J G E V N
F R
S

a. Identify the; (2 marks)

i. Strongest reducing agent F

ii. Metal with the highest ionization energy P

iii. Least reactive element M

iv. Element with giant covalent structure G

b. Giving a reason, compare the following;

i. Reactivity of element T and S (1½ mark)
T is more reactive than S or S is less reactive than T
T has a smaller radius hence a higher affinity for electrons than S

ii. Atomic radius of D and F (1 ½mark)

D has a smaller radius or F has a bigger radius
D has less energy levels than F

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c. Identify the chemical family to which the elements below belong (1 mark)
i. R Halogens

ii. Y Alkaline Earth Metals

d. Element D and V react to form a compound.

i. Write the electron configuration of element D and V (1 mark)
D 2.8.1

V 2.8.7

ii. Use dot and cross diagram to show bonding in the compound formed.
(2 marks)

iii. Name the bond formed in (ii) above (1 mark)

Ionic bond

e. Element G and E belong to the same period. However, the melting point of an oxide
of G is 1,710°C while that of the oxide of E is 340°C. Explain this observation.
(2
marks)
An oxide of G has giant covalent structure with covalent bonds throughout its structure.
The strong covalent bonds require a lot of heat to break hence the high melting point. An
oxide of E is made of molecules which have weak van der waal’s forces between
molecules, which require less energy to break.

f. State the nature of the following substances (2 marks)

i. Oxide of F basic____
ii. Oxide of J Amphoteric _
iii. Chloride of Y Neutral ____
iv. Oxide of V Acidic_____

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4. The diagram below shows the set up used to determine the molar enthalpy of combustion
of methanol.

During the experiment, the following data was obtained;

Volume of water = 500cm3
Initial temperature of water = 25.3°C
Final temperature of water = 45.5°C
Mass of methanol + lamp before burning = 120.5g
Mass of methanol + lamp after burning = 115.5g

a. Determine the;
i. Temperature change (½ mark)
45.5 – 25.3 = 20.2°C
ii. Mass of methanol that burns (½ mark)
120.5 – 115.5 = 5g
b. Calculate;
i. Heat evolved during the experiment (Density of water = 1g/cm3, specific heat
capacity of water = 4.2KJ/Kg/K) (2 marks)
500 × 4.2 ×20.2 = 42.42 KJ
1000

ii. Molar heat of combustion of methanol (C=12.0, H=1.0, O=16.0) (2 marks)

RMM of methanol = 12 + 4 + 16 = 32
32 ×42.42 = -271.488KJ/Mol
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c. Write the thermochemical equation for the reaction (1 mark)
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CH3OH (l) + /2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O (l) ΔH = -271.488KJ/Mol

d. State two factors to consider when choosing a fuel. (1 mark)

Cost, availability, effect on environment, transport, heating value, storage

e. Give two reasons why the experimental heat of combustion is lower than the theoretical
value (2 marks)
 Incomplete combustion of the methanol
 Incorrect reading of values
 Some heat may be lost to the surrounding

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 5. The flow chart below shows some of the processes involved in large scale production of
sulphuric (VI) acid and ammonia gas. Study it and use it to answer the questions that
follow.
Sulphur (IV) oxide gas Sulphuric (VI) acid water

Oxygen Chamber G gas D Absorption liquid H Diluter

chamber B

Gas K

Nitrogen Filters Chamber Y ammonia Reaction

chamber W

a. Identify; (3 marks)
i. Gas D Sulphur (VI) oxide // SO3

ii. Gas K Hydrogen // H2

iii. Liquid H Oleum // H2S2O7

b. Write an equation for the reaction in; (3 marks)

i. Chamber B
SO3(g) + H2SO4(l) → H2S2O7 (l)

ii. Chamber Y
NH3(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3 (g)

iii. Chamber W
2NH3(g) + H2SO4(l) → (NH4)2 SO4 (aq)

c. Name the catalyst used in; (2 marks)

i. Chamber G Vanadium (V) oxide

ii. Chamber Y Finely divided iron

d. Explain the role of the filters (1 mark)
Purifies the gases to prevent poisoning the catalyst
e. State and explain the observations made in the following reactions;
i. Concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid is added to sugar in a beaker (2 marks)
A black solid is formed and the beaker becomes hot. Conc sulphuric (VI) acid dehydrates white
sugar to black carbon
ii. Aqueous ammonia is added to copper(II) sulphate solution, dropwise until in
excess (2 marks)
Blue ppt which changes to deep blue solution in excess as a complex tetra amine copper(II) ion
is formed

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6. Use the standard reduction potentials for elements P, Q, R, S and T given below to
answer the questions that follow. (The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the
elements).
Eθ (Volts)
P2+ (aq) + 2e P (s) - 2.90
Q2+(aq) + 2e Q (s) -2.36
R+ (aq) + e ½R2 (g) 0.00
S2+ (aq) + 2e S (s) + 0.33
½ T2 (g) + e T- (aq) +2.86

a. Which element is likely to be hydrogen? Give a reason for your answer.(1 mark)
R2 , it is a reference electrode with a reduction potential of 0.00V

b. What is the Eθ value of the strongest reducing agent? (1 mark)

– 2.90V

c. In the space provided below draw a labeled diagram of the electrochemical cell
that would be obtained when half-cells of elements Q and S are combined.

(3marks)

d. Calculate the e.m.f. of the cell formed in (c) above (1 mark)

0.33 – ( – 2.36) = +2.69V

e. Write the cell diagram for the cell (1 mark)

Q(s) / Q2+ (aq) // S2+(aq)/S (s) E°= +2.69V

f. A current of 0.5A was passed though molten lead (II) bromide for two hours.
Calculate the mass of lead that was deposited ( RAM of Pb =207; 1F = 96,500 C).
Q= It; Q=0.5×2×60×60 = 3,600C Pb2+(l) + 2e- →Pb(s) (3marks)
2F = 96,500×2 = 193,000C; MASS = (3600/193000) × 207= 3.8611g

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 7. In an experiment to determine the rate of reaction between calcium carbonate and dilute
hydrochloric acid, 1g of calcium carbonate was reacted with 2M Hydrochloric acid. The
data below was obtained.

Time in seconds 0 30 60 90 120 15 180 210 240

0
3
Volume of gas formed (cm ) 0 80 135 17 210 23 240 240 240
5 0

a. On the grid provided, plot a graph of volume of gas produced (Vertical axis) against time.
(3
marks)

b. Write an equation for the reaction (1 mark)

CaCO3(s) + HCl (aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H2O (l) + CO2(g)

c. From the graph, determine the rate of the reaction at

i. 20 seconds (1 mark)

ii. 130 seconds (1 mark)

iii. Explain the difference in the two values (1 mark)

At 20 seconds, concentration of reactants is high, hence the higher reaction rate
At 130 seconds, most of the reactants have been used up hence the rate of reaction is lower

d. In a different experiment, a student used calcium carbonate powder. On the same graph,
sketch the curve that would be obtained. Explain (2 marks)
Calcium carbonate powder has a higher surface area hence the reaction takes place
faster and stops earlier

e. The equation below shows a reaction in manufacture of ammonia gas.

N2 (g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ΔH= – 91Kj/Mol

State the effect of the following on the yield of ammonia

i. Increase in temperature (1 mark)
Yield reduces. Reaction is exothermic hence an increase in temperature shifts
equilibrium to the left

ii. Increase in pressure (1 mark)

Yield increases. Equilibrium shifts to the right to reduce the pressure

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