Theorem. Z, the set of all integers, is a countably infinite set.

( Z  J )


 f (1)  0

 n
Proof: Define f : J  Z by  f (n)  if n is even
 2
  n 1 
 f (n)    2  if n is odd , n  1
  

We now show that f maps J onto Z . Let w  Z . If w  0 , then note that f (1)  0 . Suppose
2w  n 1 
w  0 . Then f (2w)   w . Suppose w  0 . Solving w     for n , we get
2  2 
n  2 w  1. Note that 2 w  1 is an odd positive number. So,
 2 w  1  1 
f (2w  1)      w . Hence, f maps J onto Z.
 2 

n m  n 1   m 1 
The function f is 1-1 since  implies n  m and       implies n  m .
2 2  2   2 

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