NCA Immuno PDF

4/8/2020 NCA Immunology Flashcards | Quizlet
NCA Immunology
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Terms in this set (41)
A patient presented with B. significant Mycoplasma pneumoniae

symptoms of pneumonia Titer is significant at 64
and a cold agglutinin
titer was performed.
Doubling dilutions of
patient serum were
tested against group O
human RBCs at 4
degrees, resulting in a
reported titer of 256. This
result should be
reported as
A. not clinically
significant
B. significant
Mycoplasma
https://quizlet.com/496948751/nca-immunology-ﬂash-cards/ 1/19
pneumoniae
C. diagnostic for
Mycoplasma
pneumoniae
D. significant for
Streptococcus
pneumoniae
In performing a C. Serum sickness

Davidson differential the heterophile antibody produced in
test, serum was serum sickness reacts with both beef
absorbed with guinea erythrocytes and guinea pig kidney cells.
pig kidney cells, then Therefore, the antibody was adsorbed
reacted against sheep onto the guinea pig kidney cells and none
RBCs. No agglutination remained in the serum to react with the
was seen. Serum was sheep RBCs. Similarly, the antibody was
also absorbed with beef absorbed onto the beef erythrocytes and
erythrocytes and then none remained in the serum to react with
reacted against sheep the sheep RBCs
RBCs. No agglutination
was seen. This is
indicative of
A. Forssman antibody
B. Infectious
mononucleosis
C. Serum sickness
D. Paul-Bunnell antibody
In the RPR card test, the A. cardiolipin

reagin antibody in the
patient serum will react
with the antigen
component
A. cardiolipin
B. cholesterol
C. lecithin
D. charcoal
An RPR card test D. is unreportable; the RPR card test

performed on a spinal should not be performed on spinal fluid
fluid sample was VDRL is the method of choice for spinal
nonreactive. The fluid
physician was skeptical
and asked for a repeat
test on the spinal fluid.
The RPR result was
reactive 1:1 dilution. The

result
A. should be reported as
nonreactive
B. should be reported as
reactive 1:1 dilution
C. is inconclusive, and
should be repeated on a
new spinal fluid sample
D. is unreportable; the
RPR card test should not
be performed on spinal
fluid
The results of a A. reactive, titer 4

quantitative VDRL test
are as follows:
1:1 WR, 1:2 R, 1:4 R, 1:8 WR,
1:16 NR
This result is reported as
A. reactive, titer 4
B. reactive, titer 8
C. weakly reactive
D. weakly reactive, titer
16
a common test kit for A. a positive reaction is indicated by

rheumatoid factor agglutination of the latex particles
contains a saline diluent,
positive and negative
controls and an IgG-
coated latex particle
reagent. In this
procedure, which of the
following statements is
true?
A. a positive reaction is
indicated by
agglutination of the latex
particles
B. RF inhibits the
agglutination of the latex
particles
C. the RF in patient
serum primarily
represents IgG
immunoglobulin
D. the test is specific for

rheumatoid arthritis
The results of an C. prozone due to antibody excess

agglutination test for excess antibody relative to antigen
antibody detection using prevents lattice formation
dilutions of patient
serum are shown below.
What do the results in
tubes 1-5 represent?
Order: tubes 1-8 with
control as 9 and dilution
1:2-1:256
0/0/0/0/0/+/+/+/0
A. agglutination was
prevented by lack of
complement activation
B. prozone due to
antigen excess
C. prozone due to
antibody excess
D. technical error; these
results cannot occur
when the procedure is
correctly performed
which of the following B. it can be elevated in postoperative

statements is true patients
regarding C reactive CRP is elevated when tissue injury occurs
proteins
A. CRP is an
immunoglobulin
B. it can be elevated in
postoperative patients
C. it remains elevated in
the serum after an
inflammatory response
has subsided
D. it is diagnostic for
active rheumatic fever
which of the following is D. very early gestation

most likely to be
associated with a false-
negative urine
pregnancy test
performed by latex-
particle agglutination
immunoassay?
A. choriocarcinoma
B. hydatidiform mole
C. presence of increased
TSH in the patient urine
D. very early gestation
A modified Davidsohn's B. infectious mononucleosis

differential rapid-slide
test is set up as follows
Left side: patient serum +
guinea pig kidney
reagent + horse cells
Right side: patient serum
+ beef erythrocytes +
horse cells
Left side looks speckled
and reactive, Right side
is completely clear
These findings indicate
A. Forssman antibody
B. infectious
mononucleosis
C. normal serum
D. serum sickness
A rubella antibody titer is D. 1:20

to be performed. total volume 0.2 +0.3 = 0.5
Doubling dilutions of the 0.2/0.5 = 2/5 x1/8 = 2/40=1/20
patient's serum are made
in saline, with the first
tube containing 0.2 mL
of serum and 0.2 mL of
saline, continuing
through tube 10. Rubella
antigen is added in a
constant amount,
negligible to the serum
dilution. At this point 0.3
mL of a 2% suspension of
RBCs is added to each
tube. What is the final
serum dilution, after the
addition of the red cells,
in the third tube?

A. 1:5
B. 1:8
C. 1:13.3
D. 1:20
A cold agglutination titer C.32

is performed, The results
are as follows:
1:2 = 4+, 1:4 = 4+, 1:8 = 3+,
1:16 = 1+, 1:32 = 1+, 1: 64 = 0,
1: 128 = 0
The patient's titer is
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
While reading a radial D. the well was nicked when filled with
immnodiffusion (RID) sample
plate, the CLS notices
that one well has an
irregularly shaped area
of precipitation around
one side. The most likely
explanation fro this result
is
A. a high concentration
of antigen in the sample
B. uneven distribution of
monospecific antibody
in the agarose
C. the well was not filled
with sample
D. the well was nicked
when filled with sample
in a serum A. high concentration of IgM in the test

immunoelectrophoresis, serum
the precipitin are formed
for IgM is close to the
trough. This indicates
A. high concentration of
IgM in the test serum
B. low concentration of
IgM in the test serum
C. the presence of
monoclonal IgM
D. the test should be
repeated; the electric
current was inadequate
Which of the following is A. antigen is moved by electrophoresis

characteristic of the rather than by diffusion
Laurell or rocket
technique of one-
dimensional
electroimmunoassay?
A. antigen is moved by
electrophoresis rather
than by diffusion
B. lines of identity and
non-identity can be
distinguished easily
C. it is performed in test
tubes and similar to the
Oudin test
D. it is a qualitative rather
than quantitative test
a western-blot assay to C. indeterminate result; repeat assay

detect HIV antibodies is
performed according to
established laboratory
procedure. All controls
are acceptable. The
patient sample exhibits
p24 band only. The result
that should be reported
is
A. positive for HIV
B. Negative for HIV
C. indeterminate result;
repeat assay
D. false-positive for HIV,
investigate for anti-HLA
antibodies
a 25 year old female A. chronic biological false positive due to

suffering from SLE and SLE
an ear infection is tested
for syphilis using the RPR
card test. The result is

reactive; however, the
patient denies any sexual
activity. A repeat test 8
months later is till
reactive even though the
ear infection has
resolved. The most likely
explanation for these
results is
A. chronic biological
false positive due to SLE
B. the patient has pinta of
yaws
C. the syphilis is in the
incubation period
D. transient biological
false positive due to
infection
the results of a A. change the report to weakly reactive

quantitative VDRL are
reported to the
physician as reactive
undiluted only. The
results were recorded in
the lab as follows
1:1 WR, 1:2 NR, 1:4 NR, 1:8
NR
The supervisor checking
the day's results should
A. change the report to
weakly reactive
B. change the report to
nonreactive
C. confirm the report as
stated
D. perform a qualitative
RPR test
The results below C. valid; a titer of 160 should be reported

represent a viral
hemagglutination-
inhibition test for rubella.
The titer of the first tube
is 1:10, doubling dilutions
are used thereafter. What
interpretation of the
results can be made?
Tube: 1 = 0, 2 = 0, 3 = 0, 4
= 0, 5 = 0, 6 = +, 7 = +, 8
(virus control) = +, 9
(serum control) = 0, 10
(RBC control) = )
The results are
A. invalid due to the virus
control pattern and
should not be reported
B. invalid due to the
serum control pattern
and should not be
reported
C. valid; a titer of 160
should be reported
D. valid; a titer of 320
should be reported
an antinuclear antibody C. report the types of fluorescence seen;

screen exhibits diffuse, this is not unusual
peripheral, and coarse-
speckled fluorescence.
All of the controls are
acceptable. No other
samples tested in the
same run exhibit multiple
patterns of fluorescence.
The CLS should
A. concentrate the
sample exhibiting
multiple patterns and
reassay
B. dilute the sample in
question and reassay
C. report the types of
fluorescence seen; this is
not unusual
D. run an LE prep to
confirm
an indirect fluorescent C. 4+
assay for Toxoplasma
gondii is performed
using commercially
prepared T. gondii slides
as the substrate. The test

serum shows strong
green peripheral staining
under the fluorescent
microscope. This should
be interpreted as
A. neg
B. 1+
C. 4+
D. inconclusive
A beta-subunit RIA test B. eptopic pregnancy

for hCG yields a result of level is low for hCG during this week
615 mIU/mL. The patient's
last menstrual period
was 10 weeks ago. This is
indicative of
A. choriocarcinoma
B. eptopic pregnancy
C. hydatidform mole
D. normal intrauterine
pregnancy
a qualitative ELISA was D. a step in the procedure was not

performed as follows: performed
1. add patient serum to washing after step 5 was not performed
an antigen-coated and thus not removing unbound reagent
microtiter weel
2. Incubate
3. wash
4. add horseradish
peroxidase-labelled
antihuman globulin
5. incubate
6. add peroxide and
chromagen
7. stop the reaction
The resulting color
development was
extremely intense
because
A. incorrect substrate
was added
B. the patient's serum
contained a large
amount of antibody
C. the patient's serum
contained a small
amount of antibody
D. a step in the
procedure was not
performed
An anti-DNase-B A. has not had a recent infection with

neutralization test was group A strep
performed on the serum A fourfold rise in titer is indicative of a
of an acutely ill 24 year recent infection with group A strep
old female. The titer was
120. Two weeks later, a
convalescent serum was
obtained and tested by
the same method in
parallel with the acute
specimen. The
convalescent titer was
240; the titer on the
acute specimen was
again 120. These results
indicate that the patient
A. has not had a recent
infection with group A
strep
B. has had a recent
group A strep infection
C. is at risk for severe
poststreptococcal
glomerulonephritis
D. suffers from
streptococcal pyoderma
in an ASO test, the A. Falsely elevated values

streptolysin-O control streptolysin-O causes the lysis of
tube demonstrates no erythrocytes. In the presence of a
lysis. What might be the neutralizing antibody (ASO), however,
effect on the results of hemolysis of cells is inhibited. The end
the test? point of the test is read as the greatest
A. Falsely elevated serum dilution showing no hemolysis. The
values absence of hemolysis in the streptolysin
B. Falsely decreased control tube indicates inactivation of the
values reagent
C. no effect, since the
end point is read as the
highest dilution
demonstrating hemolysis
D. no effect, since all

tubes would be equally
effected
A heterophile A. Forssman antibodies

differential-absorption
test was performed on
serum from a patient
suspected of having
infectious
mononucleosis. The
patient serum reacted
with horse RBCs initially
and after absorption with
beef erythrocytes, but
not after absorption with
guinea pig kidney cells.
This result is consistent
with the presence of
A. Forssman antibodies
B. infectious
mononucleosis
antibodies
C. Mycoplasma-
associated cold
agglutinins
D. serum-sickness
antibodies
One mL of patient serum D. 1:48

is added to 2 mL of 1:3 x 1:4 X 1:4
saline in a test tube
labeled tube 1. A total of
5 tubes are set up with
1.5 mL of saline added to
tubes 2-5. Next 0.5 mL of
the serum dilution from
tube 1 is transferred to
tube 2, mixed, and 0.5
mL is serially transferred
to the remaining tubes.
What is the dilution in
tube 3
A. 1:3
B. 1:12
C. 1:24
D. 1:48
The following results are B. the patient's ASO titer is elevated,

seen in an ASO test on suggesting a recent group A strep
serum from a 35 year old infection
male. The red cell
control shows no lysis,
and the streptolysin
control shows total
hemolysis. The positive
serum control is
expected to be 333
Todd units
Labeled tube 1-9
NH = no hemolysis, SH =
slight Hemolysis, TH =
total hemolysis
positive control: NH, NH,
NH, NH, NH, TH, TH, TH,
TH
patient: NH, NH, NH,
NH, SH, TH, TH, TH, TH
Todd Units: 100, 125, 166,
250, 333, 500, 625, 833,
1250
What conclusion can be
drawn from this result?
A. the patient's ASO titer
is within the normal
range for an adult
B. the patient's ASO titer
is elevated, suggesting a
recent group A strep
infection
C. the results are invalid
due to the partial
hemolysis in some tubes
D. the results are invalid
due to the control results
a fluorescent label C. phycoerythrin

commonly used in flow
cytometric analysis is
A. auramine
B. Giemsa
C. phycoerythrin
D. Romanowsky
In a radial A. dilute the patient serum with saline and

immunodiffusion test for run it again
IgG, the results on the
standards test were as
follows
Standard 1: IgG
concentration = 2300,
Ring diameter = 10 mm
Standard 2: IgG
Standard 3: IgG
If the patient sample was
tested on the same plate
and had a ring diameter
of 12, the CLT should
A. dilute the patient
serum with saline and
run it again
B. extrapolate from the
highest standard and
report the result
C. report the IgG
concentration of the
patient as >2300
D. divide the ring
diameter of 12 by 2
(resulting in 6 mm), read
the concentration from
the standard curve and
double the result, and
report the patient result
as 2000
A serum C. a monoclonal IgG in the patient serum

immunoelectrophoresis
shows a dense, circular,
sharply peaked arc when
reacted with IgG
antiserum. This indicates
A. an incorrect
antigen/antibody ratio in
the test system
B. increased polyclonal
IgG in the patient serum
C. a monoclonal IgG in
the patient serum
D. the presence of kappa
light chains
A patient's serum sample A. a biological false-pos reaction in the

is reactive at the 1:8 RPR
dilution when tested with
the RPR card test. An
FTA-ABS was
subsequently performed
according to the
established lab protocol,
which required heat
inactivation of the serum
and adsorption with the
sorbent, yielding a 1:5
sorbent dilution, and
controls were
satisfactory. The most
likely explaination fro this
discrepancy is
A. a biological false-pos
reaction in the RPR
B. a false-neg reaction in
the FTA-ABS due to
increased sensitivity
C. the patient serum
should also be run
undiluted in the FTA-ABS
D. the patient serum was
not inactivated before
performing the RPR
A 32 year old white D. anti-Sm

female presents with speckled pattern
signs suggestive of SLE.
The ANA screen by
indirect
immunofluorescence
shows many evenly
distributed spots of
fluorescence over the
entire nucleus. Which
antibody is most likely
present in the patient's
serum?
A. anti-dsDNA
B. anti-DNP
C. anti-histone
D. anti-Sm
In an immunoassay, D. a sandwich immunoassay

serum is added to a
microtiter well coated
with specific antibody.
After incubation and
washing, enzyme-
labelled specific
antibody is added. This
procedure is
A. a competitive binding
immunoassay
B. an enzyme multiplied
immunoassay
C. a homogeneous
immunoassay
D. a sandwich
immunoassay
in an enzyme multiplied A. high concentration of the antigen being

immunoassay (EMIT), the measured
patient sample showed
high levels of enzyme
activity. This indicated
the presence in the
patient serum of a
A. high concentration of
the antigen being
measured
B. high concentration of
the antibody being
measured
C. low concentration of
the antigen being
measured
D. low concentration of
the antibody being
measured
on an ouchterlony A. smooth and continuous between the

double diffusion plate, 2 antigen wells and the antibody well
wells are filled with
antigen and one well is
filled with antibody. If

the antibody reacts with
both antigen and the
antigens are identical,
the precipitin line will be
A. smooth and
continuous between the
antigen wells and the
antibody well
B. crossed, forming a
double spur
C. a Y-shaped single
spur
D. straight across above
the antibody well
a latex agglutination test C. prozone reaction

for CRP is performed.
The patient serum is
tested undiluted and at a
1:5 dilution. The undiluted
sample shows no
agglutination. The 1:5
diluted sample is
agglutinated strongly.
This discrepancy is most
likely due to
A. bacterial
contamination of the
sample
B. reaction time longer
than 2 minutes
C. prozone reaction
D. improper dilution
technique
A complement fixation A. 16
assay for cryptococcal
antibody is performed.
The antigen control,
patient control, and
complement control all
show hemolysis. The cell
control is not
hemolyzed. Patient
results are as follows
1:2 NH, 1:4 NH, 1:8 NH,
1:16 NH, 1:32 SH, 1:64 H

The results should be
reported as
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. invalid, the cell control
should have been
hemolyzed
An HIV patient is to be C. CD14, CD45

tested for total T cells,
CD4 cells and CD8 cells
by flow cytometry. The
gating tube would be
prepared by staining
cells with fluorescent-
labelled antibodies
detecting
A. CD 45, CD16
B. CD4, CD8
C. CD14, CD45
D. CD3, CD5
A PCR is to be B. no DNA primers were added to the test

performed to amplify system
Borrelia burgdorferi
DNA in a sample. The
CLS addes the DNA
polymerase, ATP, GTP,
CTP, and TTP to the test
system and begins the
cycling. When tht sample
is analyzed, no B.
burgdorferi DNA is
found. This can be
explained by the fact
that
A. no B. burgdorferi
DNA was present in the
original sample
B. no DNA primers were
added to the test system
C. no reverse
transcriptase was added
to the test system
D. uracil triphosphase
was missing from the test

system
A patient serum was A. immune to HBV

tested for HbsAg, anti-
HBc, and HBs by
competitive binding
ELISA assays. The patient
was negative for HbsAg
and positive repeatedly
for anti-HBc and anti-
HBs. These results
indicate that the patient
is
A. immune to HBV
B. actively infected with
HBV
C. infected with both
HBV and HCV
D. a chronic HBV carrier
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4/8/2020 NCA Immunology Flashcards | Quizlet

Terms in this set (41)

A patient presented with B. significant Mycoplasma pneumoniae

In performing a C. Serum sickness

In the RPR card test, the A. cardiolipin

An RPR card test D. is unreportable; the RPR card test

reactive 1:1 dilution. The

The results of a A. reactive, titer 4

a common test kit for A. a positive reaction is indicated by

D. the test is specific for

The results of an C. prozone due to antibody excess

which of the following B. it can be elevated in postoperative

which of the following is D. very early gestation

A modified Davidsohn's B. infectious mononucleosis

A rubella antibody titer is D. 1:20

in the third tube?

A cold agglutination titer C.32

in a serum A. high concentration of IgM in the test

Which of the following is A. antigen is moved by electrophoresis

a western-blot assay to C. indeterminate result; repeat assay

a 25 year old female A. chronic biological false positive due to

card test. The result is

the results of a A. change the report to weakly reactive

The results below C. valid; a titer of 160 should be reported

an antinuclear antibody C. report the types of fluorescence seen;

as the substrate. The test

A beta-subunit RIA test B. eptopic pregnancy

a qualitative ELISA was D. a step in the procedure was not

An anti-DNase-B A. has not had a recent infection with

in an ASO test, the A. Falsely elevated values

D. no effect, since all

A heterophile A. Forssman antibodies

One mL of patient serum D. 1:48

The following results are B. the patient's ASO titer is elevated,

a fluorescent label C. phycoerythrin

In a radial A. dilute the patient serum with saline and

A serum C. a monoclonal IgG in the patient serum

A patient's serum sample A. a biological false-pos reaction in the

A 32 year old white D. anti-Sm

In an immunoassay, D. a sandwich immunoassay

in an enzyme multiplied A. high concentration of the antigen being

on an ouchterlony A. smooth and continuous between the

filled with antibody. If

a latex agglutination test C. prozone reaction

1:16 NH, 1:32 SH, 1:64 H

An HIV patient is to be C. CD14, CD45

A PCR is to be B. no DNA primers were added to the test

was missing from the test

A patient serum was A. immune to HBV

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