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Dental Question and Answers Knew
Dental Question and Answers Knew
1. A hypertensive patient is scheduled for surgery. What antihypertensive drugs should not be taken the
morning of surgery
a) Thiazide diuretics
b) ACE Inhibitors
c) Calcium channel blockers
2. Anisocoria refers to
a. Uneven pupils
b. Corneal Lacerations
c. Corneal injury with penetration wound
d. Pupils which do not constrict
3. An unconscious patient undergoing CPR, the respiration changes that needs to be made
a. Continue with the same rate of 30 compressions with 2 breaths
b. 12 cycle per minute
7. A 34 year old female patient is rushed to the ER following MVA. Her limbs are cold and clammy. The
following vitals were recorded.
1. BP- 100/60 mm of Hg
2. HR- 100 /min
3. Temperature – 35.3 deg centigrade
4. Urine – negligible
1
9. Which of the following is not a secondary immunocompromised state
a. Malnutrition
b. Anemia
c. Luekemia
d. Lymphocytopenia
11. Which of the following values would you term to be hyper tensive
a. 135/85
b. 140/90
c. 145/95
d. 150/90
12. 18 year old girl is predisposed to fainting attacks and gives a positive history of syncope and shortness of
breath. Her examination reveals a mid systolic click and a late systolic murmur. She is on GTN and anti
hypertensives. The dental treatment for such a patient includes
a. SABE prophylaxis
13. A 54 year old man with a ho of type 2 DM is diagnose and taking treatment with Glipizide and diet
control and exercise. His blood reports are as follows RBS, FBS, PPBS, glycosylated Hb. (All within normal
values)(THEY HAVE GIVEN THE RANGE)
a. Infective prophylaxis
b. No change in treatment
c. 2 other choices I cant remember
A. Buccinator
B. Buccinator and inferior orbicularis
C. Buccinator and superior orbicularis
D. Buccinator and orbicularis oris++
16. - In an upright position, blood from medial cantus, lateral nose and upper lip drains into:
2
17. After doing CPR to an adult patient the pulse returns but without breath. Management is:
A. Provide rescue breathing at rate of 10-12/mint ++
B. Provide rescue breathing at rate of 5-6/mint
C. Put the patient in recovery position
19. Skin below the ear covering the parotid gland is supplied by:
A. Superficial temporal
B. Greater auricular++
C. Temporal nerve
D. ?
23. The five soft plate muscles arise from (controversial question with no answer)
A. Hard palate
B. Palatal bone
C. Base of skull
D. Palatopharyngeal arch
24. Best plain film to show maxillary sinus and orbital rim
A. Caldwell view
B. Water view ++
C. Lateral oblique
25. Antibiotic for empiric treatment in end stage renal deficiency is:
A. Flagyl
B. Doxycillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Penicillin
26. Ibuprofen:
A. Peak effect (concentration) after 6-8 hours of administration
B. Initial secretion is via liver biliary rout
C. Mostly found bound to plasma protein ++
31. 24 year women with history of fatigue and lethary and history of syncope. Clinically mid systolic click with
late systolic murmur. Probably she is suffering from
a. Hypertrohic Cardiomyopathy
b. Mitral valve prolapse
c. Aortic regurgitation
d. Mitral stenosis
32. 24 year woman with history of fall with fracture central incisor comes to the clinic for extraction and
immediate implant placement. She gives history of fatigue and lethargy and history of syncope. Clinically mid
systolic click with late systolic murmur. What is your line of management in this pt
a. Avoid local anaesthesia with vasoconstriction
b. SABE prophylaxsis
c. Lab investigation for bleeding problem
d. Do nothing
4
37. COPD pt for extraction of multiple teeth you will give
a. 2.5 L oxygen
b. 4L oxygen
c. 6L oxygen
d. No need if its only COPD
5
DENTOALVEOLAR AND IMPLANT SURGERY
1. A 45 year old man has an asymptomatic impacted mandibular third molar detected on radiograph. What are
the treatment options that you would choose from
a. Surgical extraction mandatory
b. Just observe and follow up on a 6 monthly basis
c. Wait and watch for several years
d. No treatment required
2. As part of preoperative assessment for elective facial cosmetic surgery, photographs need to be done
a. With ring flash
b. Flash at the side of the lens
c. With overhead flood lights
d. In natural light
3. During implant placement surgery, the head of the implant fractured but the surgeon was able to seat the
healing abutment. What are the surgeons options
a. As the internal apparatus is fine nothing further need be done
b. Removal of the implant
c. Place another bigger implant?
4. The surgeon has a patient for whom he has placed an implant last week in relation to 15 region. The
patient returns with the implant in his hand. What should be done
a. Place another bigger implant in its place
b. Do nothing now but wait and watch for 4 weeks
c. Fix the same implant with addition of bone
d. ?
5. The radiograph is shown of a tooth #10. (The crown is destroyed completely up to the level of bone with
some bone loss at the apical third)The plan is for immediate placement of implant following surgery. What is
the plan for extraction
a. Intralveolor extraction with straight forceps
b. Transalveolar extraction
c. Transalveolar extraction with elevtors
d. Intraalveolar extraction using root tip forceps
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6. Surgeon wants to place an immediate implant after extraction. The role of resorbable membrane in this case
a. Should be used to prevent tissue in growth in the socket space (abubaker)
b. Should be used only in case of bone grafting when primary closure is not possible
c. Should not be used if primary closure is achieved
d. Is used only to prevent crestal bone loss
13. A short maxillary central incisor with short roots is due for endodontic surgery. How much of root tip
should be cut
a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4 mm
14. A patient has ceramic crowns and requires endodontic surgery. Which is the best approach
a. Semilunar
b. Para semilunar
c. Sub marginal
d. Sulcular
15. A 24 year old has an impacted full bony 38 distoangular third molar. During extraction, the mandibular
angle fractured. The proximal fragment is displaced upwards. What is the next step
a. IMF 4 weeks
b. Trans cervical fixation of the # with plates
c. Transoral fixation of the #with 1 plate
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d. Transoseous wiring
16. A surgeon is placing a dental implant irt #12. Implant displaced into sinus. What is next step?
a. Leave in the sinus, prescribe antibiotics and observe
b. Just leave it as it is
c. Explore and removal it surgically trans crestally
d. Wait for a week and remove it trans nasally after that
18. The antibacterial best suited to treat odontogenic infections in end stage renal failure patients who is
allergic to pencillin
a. Trimethoprim/Sulbactum
b. Flagyl
c. Clindamycin
d. Doxycycline
e. Cefaclor
19. The best antibacterial of choice to treat ethmoidal and maxillary sinusitisi is
a. Pencillin
b. Ceftazidime
c. Ampicillin
d. Trimethoprim\sulfamethaxozole
e. Metronidazole
21. While doing implant in #22 severe bleeding is encountered. The surgeon should:
a. continue implanting
b. Pack the socket and reevaluate ++
c. Fill the socket with bone and continue implant
d. Place surgical stent and follow up patient the following day
22. The forceps used for extraction of of 2nd mandibular molar with decayed crown is:
A. No 23 ++
B. No 151
C. No 286
D. 88
23. The following day of inserting and implant in #22, the patient returns complaining of numbness.
Management is:
. Remove the implant
B. Surgical exploration of the area
C. Keep the implant in site since the numbness will resolve spontaneously in few days
D. Follow up for few days to and remove implant if numbness persists ++
8
24. In 12 year old patient, after doing extraction of maxillary first molar for orthodontic treatment, what
implant is required:
A. Use correct size implant
B. Use smaller size implant
C. Use larger size implant
D. Do not implant but wait until full growth is reached. ++
25. In thrombocytopenic patient, extraction of upper molar is contraindicated when platelets count is:
A. Less than 40000 mm³
B. Less than 80000 mm³
C. Less than 150 mm³
D. Less than 250mm³
27. The test for determining if a patient is affected with cat-scratch disease is:
A. Handberg ?
B.(It should be Warthin–Starry stain but this test was not included -PCR, IMMUNOFLUROSCENT
ANTIBODY TEST)
C. Skin protein test?
d. hanger – rose ( fonseca )
28. The optimum speed of rotation when preparing a tap for inserting an implant is:
A. 30-40 ( contemporary tells only 15rpm)
B. 40-60
C. 60-80
D. 80-100
29.
30.
31. Patient with Osteomyelitis treated with sequestrectomy and prolonged antibiotic but without improvement.
Management is:
A. Review culture results ++++
B. Give longer antibiotic regime
C. ?(May be repeat procedure is the right answer)
33. Patient returned the following day after extraction with gross bleeding from socket. Management is:
A. Irrigate and apply packing to stop bleeding and local anesthesia.
B. Gentle exploration of socket and local anesthesia. ++
9
36. Acute sinusitis is caused by:
A. Mixed aerobic and anaerobic bacteria (chronic sinusitis)
B. Streptococcus pneumonia (answer not typed but copied from Abubaker)
38. Opening ostectomy to gain access when doing microsurgical apicectomy and using ultrasound tip is
A. 3mm
B. 5mm
C. 7mm
D. 12mm
39. Patient with shallow vault and severely resorbed alveolar ridge require full denture. What augmentation is
needed for this patient
A. Onlay bone graft ++
B. Interpositional bone graft
C. Transpositional bone graft
D. Vestibuloplasty
41. The most common route of spread of infection from lower third molar
A. Lingucoritcal plate ++
B. Buccocortical palate
C. Lingo-Bucco cortical
D. Through associated muscle
42. 58 years patient with deficient alveolar ridges required construction of full denture and was determined by
the surgeon to undertake Dean’s method of alveoloplasty (augmentation). Disadvantage of this method is
A. ?
B. ?
Main disadvantage
1. Reduced ridge thickness
2. Inability to place implants (Contemporary Peterson)
43. 8 year old patient required extraction of decayed tooth and had history of easy bleeding. Hematological
picture includes increases BT, elevated APTT and normal PT. His condition is
a. Deficiency Factor VIII-C
b. ?
c. Von Willebrand disease++
d. Thrombocytopenic purpura
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45. Lab findings which is not seen in Von-Willbrand disease is:
A. Increases APTT
B. Norma PT
C. Deficiency of Factor VIII-C and Von-Willbrand factor
D. Normal platelet aggregate studies ++
48. In type 4 (D4 density) of bone when doing implant the surgeon should
A. – wider implant
B. ?
C. ?
D. ?
49. Pt after lower third molar surgery suffer severe bleeding, how will you control bleeding
a. Local anesthesia with adrenaline , remove clot, pack and suture.
b. Remove clot, place gelfoam, apply pressure, LA with adrenaline, suture
c. Give vitamin K……..?
d. Use 1:1000 adrenaline in to socket and soft tissue
50. 8 year girl require lower molar extraction due to severe caries. Gives history of bleeding. On lab
investigation, increased bleeding, increased APTT, normal PT. she is suffering from
a. Factor eight deficiency
b. Von Willebrand factor deficiency
c. DIC
d. Thrombocytopenia
52. 18 year old with impacted third molar bilateral with soft tissue and bone chance of eruption is
a. 10 – 30%
b. 30 – 50%
c. 50 – 80%
d. 100%
56. Cyclosporine
a. Increase T, decrease B lymphocyte
b. Decrease T, Increase B lymphocyte
c. Decrease T and B lymphocyte
d. Decrease T lymphocyte only
64. Dsyesthesia is
a. Unpleasant sensation due to normal stimuli
b. Increased pain sensation to normal stimuli
c. Increased sensation to painful stimuli
d. Anaesthesia for a prolonged period of time
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65. Maxillary molar teeth extraction infection spreading in to cranium through all except
a. Superior ophthalmic vein
b. Inferior ophthalmic vein
c. Pharyngeal plexus
68. Extraction forceps number for lower anterior tooth (Only theory written)
151 – lower ant., 151A – mand bicuspids, 17 – molars lower, 23- cowhorn mandibular,
53 – up molars
88 – cowhorn
286 – bayonet
69. upper molar extraction IOPA – RS 26 Diabetic patients – open or closed extraction
70. cyst in the maxilla –enucleation or endodontic surgery or extraction – order of treatment
71. commonly used flap in oral surgery ---- envelope flap,
72. bleeding from the anterior maxilla while placing implant…. what will u do … just place implant
73. PPS Maxilla – 1mm bone from sinus.. narrow palatal vault – which surgery will u do…
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LATERAL PHARYNGEAL ????????
78. Incision for drainage of retropharngeal space - anterior border of SCM
79. Cavernous Sinus thrombosis – doesn’t occur ---- via Sup ophthalmic vein , inferior opthalmic, angular,
pterygoid plexus ?????????
80. Complication of draining retropharyngeal space – injury to carotid sheath
81. Management of impacted tooth in 45 year old patient without any problem
82. Implant in sinus
83. Chances of eruption of impacted tooth after the age of 18
84. Most common cause for impaction
85. Extraction of 10 root stump
86. Most common flap in oral surgery
87. Cyst w.r.t to 9 and 10 in the maxilla
88. Implant causing numbness in 21 what u do next
89. Implant coming out after placement after 1 week what to do
90. Ibuprofen metabolism
91. Absolute indication for extraction of tooth
92. Study after methylene t99 in osteomyelitis
93. Protocol for HBO therapy
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LOCAL ANESTHESIA
1. A patient with history of uncontrolled hyperthyroidism requires surgery. Which is the surgeon’s is choice
of LA
a. Lidocaine
b. Mepivacaine -
c. Propoxycaine
d. Bupivacaine? – least toxic
2. A patient presents with submandibular space infection requiring I and D. The surgeon wishes to makes use
of EMLA for the site of Venipuncture. Which of the statements are correct
a. EMLA is a mixture of Bupivacaine and Prilocaine
b. EMLA is 2.5 % of lidocaine and Procaine
c. EMLA is a combination of 2.5 % of lidocaine and Prilocaine
d. It should be applied at least 60 mins prior to venipuncture
4. A surgeon wants to use X tip system for intraosseous anesthesia of the mandibular premolar. What is the
size of the needle used(study from malamed)
a. 25 gauge short needle
b. 27 gauge long needle
c. 27 gauge ultra short needle
d. 30 gauge short needle
NOTE: IAN – 25 Gauge long needle
Buccal – 27 gauge short needle
Mental – 27 short
Supraperiosteal – 27 short
PDL – 27 Short
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Intraosseus – 27 short
PSA – 27 Short , Infraorbital – 25 long, Maxillary – 25 long , Infiltration – 27 short
a) prilocaine
b) mepivacaine
c) bupivacaine
d) lidocaine
6. A person on tricyclic antidepressants if injected with Lidocaine containing 1:100000 of epinephrine will
have the following effects
a. An increase in blood pressure due to VC
b. A decrease in heart rate due to LA
c. An increase in heart rate due to VC
d. A decrease in blood pressure due to LA
7. The heart has the following number of receptors sensitive to adrenaline in the body
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
8. An 8 year old child who weighs 16 kg is in need of extraction. How many carpules of 2% lidocaine with
1:100000 epi be safely given
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
10. After reversal of the IANB, in which of the structures will the effects first be felt
a. Central incisor
b. Canine
c. Premolar
d. Molar
11. An inexperienced dentist soaks his dental anesthetic cartridges in isopropyl alcohol. When he delivers a
nerve block what will be the effect ?
a. Gingival sloughing
b. Palatal ulcerations
c. Prolonged anesthesia
d. No change
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B. Epinephnne
C. Levonordefrin++
D. Octapressin (Felypressin)
17
GENERAL ANESTHESIA
1. A patient who cannot maintain the airway has a tendency for vomiting. Best method to prevent aspiration is
by employing
a. A cuffed ET tube
b. Laryngeal mask
c. ??
2. In a conscious patient with intact pharyngeal reflexes, which is the best method of maintaining
airway patent?
a. Nasopharyngeal airway
b. Venturi mask
c. Bifid nasal canula
d. Oropharyngeal airway
3. The anesthetist is at work in a pt with limited mouth opening and manages to secure his airway after
repeated attempts. Which of the following laryngeal cartilages are most likely traumatized
a. Cuneiform
b. Cricoid
c. Thyroid
d. Arytemoid medial surface
4. Which of the following drugs need to be stopped on the day of the surgery
a. ACE inhibitors
b. Beta blockers
c. Thiazide Diuretics
d. Ca Channel blockers
5. During anesthesia, the patient starts coughing and body becomes rigid. The pt is apneic. Which of the
following drugs is not helpful in this condition
a.Lidocaine
b. Suxamethonium
c. Propofol
d. fentanyl
6. Which of the following devices can hold the maximum gastric content in case the patient accidently vomits.
a. Cuffed ET tube
b. Laryngeal mask airway
c. Cobra LMA(PLA - Perilaryngeal airway)
7. The drug of choice in Fentanyl associated chest wall rigidity is one of the following
a. Lido caine
b. Flumezenil
c. Nalaxone
d. Propranol
8. A 26 year old male patient has a skeletal class 2 with retrogenia. His BMI is 32. What is the best way to
secure his airway before surgery
a. Blind awake nasotracheal without sedation
b. Awake Orotracheal under sedation
c. Fiberoptic guided nasotracheal intubation
d. Treacheostomy
9. In a post trauma patient who is obtunded, in whom pharyngeal reflexes are intact, which of the folowing is
advised to secure airway
b. Orotracheal airway
c. Nasopharyngeal airway
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d. Nasal cannula
e. Venturi mask
10. General anesthetist uses topical anesthesia – which area– supraglottic , infraglottic (transtracheal) or glottic
(Question not clear)
11. Rotameter - used for what --- GAS flow ANESHTHESIA MEASURMENT.
15. Patient with difficult airway posted for surgery, premedication all except
A. Diazepam++
B. Ranitidine
18. TMJ ankylosis to pt. induced by inhalation anesthetic after 60 minutes pt produces crowing sound and
severe chestwall movement. Drug which will be not be useful is
a. IV Propofol
b. IV lidocaine
c. Sch
d. Fentanyl
19. Surgeon plans for surgery. Desires decreased secretion with slight depression of CNS, drug of choice
a. Atropine
b. Scopolamine +++
c. Glycopyrolate
20. First skeletal muscles to contract after using succinyl choline used during general anesthesia is
A. Eyelids
B. Shoulder
C. Hands
D. Abdomen
19
21. Pt on TCA, Local anesthesia with norepinephrine
a. Lidocaine induces hypotension
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DENTOFACIAL DEFORMITIES
1. A pt with Class 1 molar relation has severe retrogenia and a severe disparity in the anteroposterior relation
of her mand to maxilla relation. What Treatment plan
a. Genioplasty
b. Mandibular advancement with genioplasty
c. Lefort 1 with mandibular advancement
2. A patient walks into your clinic with subconjunctival ecchymosis without visualization of posterior limit.
(She also has black eye.? No nerve paresthesia. She gives h/o an Orthognathic surgery done to correct mid face
deformity. What would be the most likely procedure
a. High Lefort 1
b. Quadrangular lefort 2
c. Lefort 3
d. Pyramidal Lefort 2
3. A patient has midface deformity with deficiency in the malar and zygomatic regions. How would you
correct her condition.
a. High level lefort 1
b. Quadrangular lefort 2
c. Lefort 2
d. Lefort 3
4. While doing an IVRO osteotomy of the mandible for advancement, there is an unfavourable fracture high
in the proximal segment. What is the most apt way the surgeon should proceed.
a. Change the osteotomy to the inverted L
b. Do a C osteotomy
c. Treat the pt for a condylar neck fracture
d. Abandon the procedure and do MMF
6. Post operative numbness associated with the lower lip after BSSO is seen commonly after
a. Use of drill to osteotomize
b. Use of Bone osteotomy
c. Use of plate and screw for fixation
d. Mandibular manipulation
9. After doing bimaxillary osteotomy and fixation the surgeon realises that the occlusion is unstable.
Management is:
A. Remove maxillary fixation and stabilise the occlusion and fix again
B. Remove mandibular fixation and stabilise the occlusion and fix again
C. Remove both maxillary and mandibular fixation and stabilise occlusion and fix again
D. Do nothing
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C. Anterior to mental foramen
D. According cephalometric analysis
22
PATHOLOGY
b) odontoma
c) CEOT
3. Ulcer in the FOM in a 65 yr old. SOHND ( 1 to 3) is chosen to treat him. What are the reconstructive
options that are best suited?
a. PMMC
b. Temperomyofascial flap
c. Massetric ?
d. Radial forearm free flap
4. A ca of lower lip entails sacrificing 80% of the lower lip. Which is the best reconstructive option available?
a. Advancement of the lip flap based on sup labial artery
b. Rotation flap
c. Bernard ... flap / technique
d.
5. A 54 year old man has undergone an anterior en-bloc resection of the mandible for treating as part of
cancer therapy. The surgeon wishes to use the clavicle based on the SCM to reconstruct the mandibular defect.
Select the statement which is true.
a. The graft cannot be segmented to fit the morphology
b. The graft is good to place dental implants
c. Gives good morphological substitution for defect
d. It is the best of reconstructive options available
6. A 56 year old lady has a small giant cell granuloma in her mandible. She is diagnosed to be having
secondary hyperparathyroidism. What is the next step
a. Treat her tumour by enucleation and curettage
b. Excision of the parathyroid gland to conrol excess secretion of PTH
c. Treat her renal condition and supplement with Vit D and Calcium
d. Treat the lesion by steroid injections
8. In a patient who is 30 years old, which of the following is the most common tumour
a. Ameloblastoma
b. CEOT
c. Cementoblastoma
d. AOT
e.
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9. IgG antibodies is demonstrated in the basement layer of which of the following
a. Lichen Planus
b. Erythema Multiforme
c. Discoid lupus erythematosus
d. Pemphigus Vulgaris
10. A 45 year old man who is a chronic smoker for the past 25 years has been diagnosed with a well
differentiated carcinoma of the lower lip measuring 2 cm. On examination there are no palpable lymph nodes.
Which is the best method of treatment for him?
a. Wedge excision
b. Chemotherapy
c. Just observe
d. Radiotherapy
11. A 58 year old male presents with an ulcer that is 3x2 cm in size with no palpable lymph nodes. Contrast
enhanced CT is done and reveals no cortical perforation in the lesion and no lymphatic involvement. A SND(i-
iii) is planned for his treatment. The surgeon wishes to reconstruct the defect. His best option is
a. PMMC
b. Temporalis myofascial flap
c. Full thickness skin graft
d. Split thickness skin graft
12. cysts of jaws usually cause CORTICAL EXPANSION, ROOT RESORPTION, TOOTH DISPLACEMNT
13. Hairy leukoplakia in AIDS
14. Most common tumor in pediatric age group – haemangioma. Lipoma, fibroma
15. Recent modality of treatment of pagets disease
16. Reconstruction after snd 1-3
17. Treatment of choice for salivary cancers
18. Clavicle based graft
19. 0.4 cm lesion found below ear lobe. The lesion is:
A. Attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying connective tissue sebaceous cyst.
B. Attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying connective tissue epidermoid cyst.
C. Attached to skin not movable and attached to underlying connective tissue sebaceous cyst.
D. Attached to skin not movable and attached to underlying connective tissue epidermoid cyst.
24
25.
25
CLEFTS AND SYNDROMES
7. Patient with Treacher Collins syndrome needed correction of mandibular deficiency which included 12cm
advancement. Best approach is
A. BSSO
B. Inverted L osteotomy ++ extra oral
C. Intraoral vertical ramus osteotomy
D. Extraoral vertical ramus osteotomy
Peter ward Booth 2 page 947
a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 4mm
d. 6mm
a. Synovial joint
b. Fibrous joint
c. Catrilagenous tissue
d. Fibrous tissue
11. Pt with wide cleft lip and palate lip adhesion or nasoalveolar molding planned
a. Few week after birth
b. First – third month
c. Third to sixth
d. 6–9
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TRAUMA
1. A 25 year old man is admitted for surgery after RTA with diagnosis of Bilateral Condylar # with
communition of Midface. This condition is a case for
a. Absolute indication for fixing the condyles
b. Relative indication ...
c. Case for MMF
d. Absolute contraindication for fixing Condyle
4. An 8 year old child has sustained a fracture of the condyle. What is the indication for ORIF
a. Dentoalveolar injury
b. Intarcapsular fracture with middle cranial fracture
c. Inability to open mouth after 1 week of closed reduction
d. The degree of displacement of condyle
5. A 34 year old man has sustained a MVA with fractures of the skull base with orbital fractures. On
examination for consensual light reflex in the right eye, there is a negative response. The same reflex for the left
eye is normal. There is associated ptosis of the left eye. The pt has damage to
a. CN1 on the L; CN 2 R
b. CN2 R and CN3 L
c. CN2 L and CN1 L
d. CN3 R and CN2 L
6. A patient has sustained head injury after MVA. He has cerebral concussion and is in coma. If the patient
stays in coma for how many hours, will there be residual nuerological deficit.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8 0r 6
7. predominant medial wall of orbit – ethmoid(lateral wall – zygomatic & gr wing of sphenoid, floor – orbital
surface of maxilla, palatine bone and zygoma)
8. Placement of
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9. Airway maintenance in a conscious patient
10. Nerve injured commonly in ZMC fracture
11. Cause for sublingual ecchymosis
13. What is the CT scan interval for zygomaticfracture: (OBLIQUE PARASAGITTAL VIEW FOR ORBITAL
FRACTURES)
A. 0.5mm
B. 1-1.5mm
C. 15.2.5mm
D. 2.5-3.5
14. In maxillofacial trauma patient with suspected injury to cervical thoracic vertebra, the diagnostic
radiograph is:
A. ?
B. ?
C. ?
D. swimmers view or cross table views
16. Trauma patient with pulse rate =130, BP 100/60, breathing =30/mint, how much blood loss is expected in
this patient
A. Less than 15%
B. 15-30%
C. 40%
D. 30-40 % ++
18. Glasgow comma scale score in trauma patient who is non responsive to verbal communication + can open
the eye + responds to pain stimuli
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
22. Trauma patient developed asymmetrical pupil (Not round). The most likely cause
A. Blow out fracture
B. Blow in fracture
C. Perforation of the eye ball
D. ?
26. 24 year female with angle fracture. Surgeon decides to fix with compression plating technique. Following
is true
a. Less chance of motor and sensory nerve injuries
b. Will need two week IMF postop
c. Should be approached extraorally
d. Will heal by secondary intension
29. Ptosis
A. –drop upper eyelid
B. –
C. –
D. –
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TMJ
3. What is the position of disc irt to condyle in case of early internal derangement when mandible is in closed
position
a. Anterior and straight
b. Anterior and medial
c. Anterior and lateral
d. No change
5. stylomandibular ligament
a. Formed from the parotid fascia
b. Runs from styloid process to the angle mandible
c. Lateral check ligament
d. Prevents the movement of the condyle
6. Disc position
7. In Internal disk derangement the disk is displaced
A. Anteriorly ++ ( antromedially )
B. Medially
C. Posteriorly
D. Laterally
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9. Most likely cause of myofacial pain dysfunction is
A. Bruxism following stress++
B. Internal derangement with reduction
C. Internal derangement without reduction
D. ?
32