Express
Legal Aptitude
Legal Caselets - 3
Number of Questions : 25
Directions for questions 1 to 25: You have been
given some passages followed by five questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose
the most appropriate option which follows from the
passage. Only the information given in the passage
should be used for choosing the answer and no
external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is
to be applied.
Passage – 1
Sting Operations have been an incredible instrument
in uncovering wrongdoing and defilement in the public
arena. We have seen various situations where sting
operations have assumed a noteworthy part in
securing justice for all. Be that as it may, a line is
required to be drawn between sting operations that
assault privacy and those which reveal debasement
and like others with a particular objective to secure
the very soul of the Constitution of India. In any case,
in the present circumstances where political
corruption is at its apex, it is difficult to essentially
discover which sting operations are politically
invigorated, which are truly proposed to filter the
social order, or which are truly the results of
fabricated broadcast bolstered by different political
gatherings and their corporate benefactors.
A set of accepted rules and effective regulation is
required. It is henceforth recommended that a
sovereign quasi-judicial organization should be
established that has forces of both censure and
execution. It is also suggested that a law should be
enacted to avoid media from meddling into the
privacy of individuals. A set of guidelines relating to
Legal Aptitude – 12
12
CEX–9440/20
broadcasting of sting operations have been provided.
Since, there is no immunity provided by law,
journalists ought to adhere to the guidelines to
prevent any liability.
Since, there is no law that deals with admissibility
of evidence procured by a sting operation, courts
need to give less recognition to Factum of
Entrapment and alluring the suspect into conferring
an offense when weighed against admissibility of
evidences. More accentuation ought to be laid on
the way the crime has been committed which would
have been committed anyway even if inducement
was not there. Sting operations are every now and
again guarded on the ground that the media has a
commitment to put the unscrupulous criminals in
the sight of people when the law enforcement
agencies are unwilling to do so. However, without a
strong arrangement of standards and regulations,
these operations can similarly change into a race to
build greater viewership ratings.
1. According to the passage which one of the
following best captures the author's attitude
toward sting operations:
(a) Sting operations are a necessity to
uncover wrongdoings in the public arena.
(b) Sting operations are unconstitutional as
it violates a person's right to privacy.
(c) Sting operations can be abused to satisfy
personal agendas.
(d) Sting operations are a useful tool to
secure political justice but must it be
responsibly conducted.
Page 1
2. The primary purpose of the passage is most
likely to
(a) Critically analyze the implications of sting
operations through the legal prism.
(b) Assess and view its application in the
social paradigm.
(c) Understand its relevance under the
context of the individual right to privacy.
(d) Highlight the responsibility of agents like
media, etc. to use it for social good.
3. With reference to the passage if a sting
operation is conducted on any individual,
which of the following legal consequences
would follow?
(a) It would not be deemed inadmissible as it
may amount to a person being compelled
to be a witness against himself.
(b) It would be admissible as a secondary
evidence in the court of law.
(c) It would be required to be corroborated
with supplementary evidences to hold
culpability.
(d) It would be required to establish that even
in the absence of inducement the act
would have been committed.
4. Television news channel "India News 360"
carried out a sting operation which showed
Ms. Uma Bhairavi, a teacher with a
Himanchal government school, purportedly
taking bribe to pass students of X high school
in their board examination. This resulted in
mass agitation. Based on the author's
reasoning in the passage above:
(a) The court is going to take cognizance of
the matter solely on the basis of media
trial.
(b) The court is not going to take any action
as media trials do not carry any
admissibility.
(c) The court would try and find if the impugned
action would have occurred in the absence
of inducement.
(d) The court would require the submission
of corroborative evidences to formulate its
decision.
Page 2
5. A went to B's office hiding a spy pen in his
pocket. In order to attain a favorable
consideration from B for his work, A offers
him a bribe of 1 lakh. B however denies it.
Subsequently A keeps on increasing his offer
and eventually settles a deal for 10 lakh
rupees. After coming out of B's office, A
informs CBI that B is engaging in corrupt
practices. B is subsequently caught on the
basis of the visual evidence. Based on the
author's reasoning in the passage above decide.
(a) B is liable as he has been caught on
camera accepting bribe.
(b) B is not liable as an electronic evidence
in isolation doesn't qualify the test of
admissibility.
(c) B is liable as any secondary evidence
need not be aligned with a corroborating
evidence to attain legitimacy.
(d) B is not liable as he was induced into
commission of crime.
Passage – 2
Two years ago, X was involved in a criminal complaint
filed by his wife and her mother. They resolved their
differences later and now live amicably with their
minor child. The criminal case against X has been
withdrawn. However, the court order pertaining to the
criminal case pops up each time X enters his name
during an internet search.
X, has now filed a writ in the Delhi High Court seeking
the right to be forgotten. The petitioner has sought
that his name be delinked or removed from Google's
search index so that it does not appear along with
"irrelevant and obsolete" and harmful data about him.
The respondents in his petition are the Union
government, Google and indiankanoon.org, a search
engine for Indian law, which uploaded the legal order.
The case is still pending in court.
Going by the spate of recent writs and orders in
courts in India, the right to be forgotten seems to be
catching on. Originating from another legal term, the
right to oblivion (known in French as le droit a l'oubli),
a person exercising this right can knock on legal
Legal Aptitude – 12
doors to request that their personal data or
information be removed from online resources. The
right to be forgotten has to do with taking control of
one's personal information online - the right to stub
out irrelevant data after a certain period of time and
start over afresh.
Made popular by the European Court of Justice in
2014 in the Google Spain vs Mario Costeja Gonzalez
case - in which the court ruled that European citizens
had the right to request commercial search firms
such as Google to take down links to private
information that were no longer relevant - the right to
be forgotten has emerged as a new legal tool in the
internet age and is an "evolving law" in India, say
lawyers.
It is however stressed that the right to be forgotten
cannot be a blanket right. For instance, a judge should
not stub out the name of a criminal convicted for murder
in a judgment, as people have the right to know.
6. According to the passage which one of the
following best captures the theme of the passage?
(a) Right to be forgotten must be granted to
secure privacy of an individual.
(b) Right to be forgotten is an anti-thesis to
right to freedom of speech.
(c) Right to be forgotten is a fundamental
aspect of individual liberty.
(d) Right to be forgotten has always been a
specie of right to privacy.
7. The primary purpose of the passage is most
likely to
(a) Analyze the implications of privacy and
its various safeguards.
(b) Assess the privacy of an individual on
virtual platform .
(c) Elucidate its distinctiveness with regard
to the real aspect of privacy.
(d) Understand the evolution of right to be
forgotten.
8. With reference to the passage, to have a
legitimate claim for the right to be forgotten
which of the following conditions must be
satisfied?
Legal Aptitude – 12
(a) The information must be in public domain.
(b) The information must have caused a legal
damage.
(c) The information published in the news-
papers also qualify for the impugned relief.
(d) The information must be immaterial and
must attack the privacy.
9. X was raped by M. In her legal battle X won
the case and M was sentenced for life.
However, after a few days X requested the
High Court of the state to remove any material
disclosing her identity to the world from a
private news website. Based on the author's
writings in the passage above, decide:
(a) X will be allowed the relief sought as even
though the matter is relevant, it affects
her privacy.
(b) X will be allowed the desired relief as the
impugned material information is irrelevant
and affects her privacy.
(c) X will not be allowed the relief as it runs
contrary to the ideals of free speech and
expression.
(d) X will not be allowed the relief as the
information is as material to the case as
any other facts.
10. 'A' the woman's father, the petitioner,
requested the court to pull down the name of
his daughter from the court's website resulting
from an earlier court order as it may obstruct
her new married life. Based on the author's
reasoning in the passage above decide.
(a) X will be allowed the relief sought as even
though the matter is relevant, it affects
her privacy.
(b) X will be allowed the desired relief as the
impugned material information is irrelevant
and affects her privacy.
(c) X will not be allowed the relief as it the high
court's website which makes the information
material owing to it being a court of record
and a treatment equivalent to that of a private
website cannot be rendered.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
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 Passage – 3
The matter relates to disputes which arose about
the trusteeship of a temple. There was a dispute
about whether Petitioner 1 was the Secretary of the
Executive Committee of the public trust. FIRs were
filed against the petitioners. However, after enquiry,
the police authorities found that no cognizable
offences were made out against the petitioners. But
surprisingly action under Section 151 (1) CrPC (arrest
to prevent the commission of cognizable offences)
was taken against the petitioners and they were
detained at the police station. They were later
released on the orders of the Executive Magistrate.
The petitioners claimed to be reputed citizens. They
alleged that their detention was totally illegal and a
result of abuse of power by the Police.
On behalf of the Police, it was submitted that the
said action became necessary under Section 151
(1) CrPC as FIRs had been lodged against the
petitioners. The Court was of the opinion that this
justification was misleading and was an attempt to
cover up the illegal act.
The Court observed: "The police officer may take
action as per Section 151 (1) of CrPC against a
person, only if he has knowledge of a design of
commissioning of any cognizable offence, or if it
appears to him that commission of cognizable
offence cannot be prevented unless preventive action
is taken against the person who may commit
cognizable offence."
It was further stated: "Knowledge to the police officer
of a design to commit any cognizable offence and
formation of opinion by the police officer that
commission of cognizable offence cannot be
prevented unless preventive action is taken against
the proposed offender is sine qua non for taking
preventive action as per Section 151 (1) of CrPC.
Depriving a person of his liberty guaranteed by Article
21 of the Constitution of India cannot be left to the
whims and wishes of the police officer, and if it is
permitted it would be conferring arbitrary and
unbridled powers on the police officers."
Page 4
The High Court held that the petitioners had suffered
due to the illegal and high-handed actions of the
Police Inspector and, therefore, ordered him to pay
a compensation of Rs 1 lakh each to the two
petitioners, in addition to the costs of Rs 10,000
each payable to the petitioners. However, petitioners'
prayer for directing the State to conduct enquiry
against the Police Inspector and Constable was
rejected.
11. According to the passage select the
statement that can be most plausibly inferred
from the author's reasoning:
(a) The offence Petitioner 1 was accused of
was of cognisable nature.
(b) The offence Petitioner 1 was accused of
was of non-cognisable nature.
(c) The offence Petitioner 1 was accused of
was based on false evidence.
(d) The offence Petitioner 1 was accused of
came under Section 151 (1) CrPC.
12. Which one of the following views can be
attributed to the reasoning provided by the
court in the passage?
(a) The court held that the police have
absolute discretionary power under
Section 151(1).
(b) The court held that a new legislation has
to be enacted to put a control on the
arbitrary powers of the police.
(c) The court held that opinion of the police
officer regarding the nature of offence
should never be regarded as conclusive.
(d) The court held that the present legislation
has loopholes allowing the arbitrary
powers of the police.
13. Which of the following interpretation of the
term 'sine qua non' is apt as used in the
context of the passage?
(a) To include all the ancillary details of an
event.
(b) Something which is absolutely necessary
for an event to occur.
(c) A thing without a proper justification.
(d) An offence having absolute liability.
Legal Aptitude – 12
14. A was planning in his house for a protest
against a legislation passed by the
government. He posted an update regarding
it on the social media and was expecting to
assemble 500 people to a common place to
take out a demonstration against the
government policy. The police on seeing the
social media update arrested A in his house
for 1 day in order to stop any unforeseen
circumstances. Is the action of the police
justified under Section 151(1) of CrPC?
(a) The action is justified as the police wanted
to take a preventive step.
(b) The action is justified as the A was in the
process of attempting an offence.
(c) The action is not justified as A was not in
the process of attempting an offence.
(d) The action is not justified as A did not
commit any offence.
15. On an accusation, A was arrested by the
police for the offence of stealing Rs. 1000 from
his employer. He was kept in custody for 24
hours and was later released when the
employer found the said amount with himself
and took back the complaint on the ground
that it was a result of a misunderstanding. A
sued the police for wrongful detention.
(a) The police are liable as they arrested A
for a petty offence.
(b) The police are liable as they detained A
wrongfully.
(c) The police are not liable.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Passage – 4
Generally, an ordinary FIR is filed, recorded and
numbered in a police station within whose jurisdiction
an incident takes place. Whereas, in the case of a
Zero First Information Report (FIR), a FIR is only
filed (and not numbered) in any police station
regardless of where the incident has taken place. In
Legal Aptitude – 12
such a case, the police station, later on, transfers
the FIR to the police station that has the jurisdiction
to investigation the matter.
The Provision of Zero FIR was introduced into
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, upon the
recommendation of Justice Verma Committee, after
the December 2012 Nirbhaya Rape Case. According
to the said Report, if there is a failure in lodging a
Zero FIR by any police officer, it would attract a
rigorous imprisonment of six months extendable up
to 2 years. Such act or omission may also invite
departmental inquiry upon the officer.
Further, the Central Government has also asked all
the State Governments to make amendments in
state laws with respect to registration of Zero FIR.
The main motive to introduce the concept of Zero
FIR is to avoid delay in filing of offence and also to
avoid wastage of time which otherwise would have
an adverse impact on the victim. This would also
help the police officers to arrest the offenders as
soon as possible.
In today’s scenario, where grave offences like
accident, murder and rape, demand immediate
action from the authorities, a Zero FIR enables the
police to take preliminary action against the offender,
instead of deciding the territorial jurisdiction of the
crime.
But various experts have reportedly stated that
although provisions related to Zero FIR are in place,
but the practical implementation is yet to be made.
For instance, in the recent murder and rape case of
Dr Priyanka Reddy in Hyderabad, her sister was
made to run from one police station to another to
lodge a FIR against the offenders. Thus, it is widely
believed that it would take time and effort for creating
awareness amongst the public about Zero FIR and
then, for the Zero FIR concept to become a practical
reality.
Page 5
16. According to the passage select the
statement that can be most plausibly inferred
from the author’s reasoning about the
difference between FIR and Zero FIR
(a) FIR is related to serious offences while
Zero FIR is for petty offences.
(b) All FIRs are Zero FIRs but all Zero FIRs
are not FIRs.
(c) FIR is filed at a specific place while Zero
FIR can be filed anywhere.
(d) FIR is elaborate in form and structure while
Zero FIR is brief.
17. Which one of the following views can be
attributed to the author of the passage from
the last paragraph?
(a) The author is certain about the efficacy
in the implementation of Zero FIR.
(b) The author is critical about the efficacy
in the implementation of Zero FIR.
(c) The author is critical regarding the
amending provisions which introduced the
concept of Zero FIR.
(d) The author is distraught regarding the
amending provisions which introduced the
concept of Zero FIR.
18. Which of the following can be inferred from
the passage as the causative factor behind
the enactment of Zero FIR?
(a) The rising cases of sexual offences and
the procedural fallacies of the system in
its rectification.
(b) The delay in the trials by the court in
cases related to sexual offences.
(c) The acquittal of the accused in cases of
grave offences like accident, murder and
rape due to lack of evidence.
(d) The burden on the courts due to huge of
pending criminal cases in the country.
19. Asha lived in Delhi and used to work in an
MNC in Noida. One evening while returning
home she was sexually assaulted by a group
of men near her office. Decide what would be
the best course of action for her.
Page 6
(a) Asha can file a Zero FIR in the Delhi police
station where she resides.
(b) Asha can file a Zero FIR in the Noida
police station where the incident took
place.
(c) Asha can file a Zero FIR in the police
station where the accused group of men
reside.
(d) Asha can file a Zero FIR in any police
station of her choice.
20. In the above mentioned, case Asha chose to
file a Zero FIR in the police station near her
residence in Delhi. She was told by the officer
in charge of the respective police station to
file the FIR in the police station which was
nearest to the place where the incident
occurred. What recourse does Asha have?
(a) Asha should follow the instructions of the
police officer.
(b) Asha should request the police officer to
file her FIR.
(c) Asha should file a complaint against the
police officer who refused to file the FIR.
(d) Asha should not file a FIR in any police
station and should sue the culprits
directly.
Passage – 5
Generally, a person is liable for his own wrongdoing
and one does not bear any obligation for the work
done by others. The general rule of vicarious liability
is that liability of one person for the act done by
another person may arise. The law refers to this as
vicarious liability.
In the field of Torts it is considered to be an exception
to the general rule that a person is liable for his own
acts only. The principle of vicarious liability is based
on the principle of qui facit per se per alium facit per
se, which means, "He who does an act through
another is deemed in law to do it himself." Hence, in
Legal Aptitude – 12
the case of vicarious liability, both the persons on
whose instructions the act is carried out, as well as
the person implementing the act, are liable. Thus,
employers are strictly responsible for the act of their
employees committed during employment.
In the order that A's liability for actions done by B
may arise, it is necessary that there must be some
kind of relationship between A and B, and wrongly,
in a certain way, related with that relationship.
So, a master is liable for the acts of his servant if the
act is done in the course of employment. But where
one appoints an independent contractor to do the
work on his own behalf, he is not responsible in any
general way for any act committed by the contractor
during the execution of the work except in some
exceptional cases.
In partnership cases liability is joint and several.
When two or more parties are jointly and severally
liable for vicarious acts, each party is independently
liable to the full extent of the injuries. Thus, if a plaintiff
collectively wins a money judgment against the
parties, the plaintiff can collect the full value of the
judgment from both. That party can then seek
damage as contributions from other wrongdoers.
This concept of choosing the defendant from which
to collect damages is called the law of indivisible
injury.
The vicarious liability of a law partnership is
essentially analyzed in two stages: first, whether
the partnership is in existence or real; And second,
wrongdoing / work done within the partner in simple
course of business, in the existence of law
partnership.
21. Which of the following cannot be inferred from
the passage with reference to the partnership
firm?
(a) The partnership must not be out of doctrine
of estoppels.
(b) All the partners must be active partners
of the firm.
(c) Partners for profit only wouldn't be liable
for any amount claimed from the firm.
(d) All of the above.
Legal Aptitude – 12
22. Which of the following is the correct meaning
of joint and several?
(a) If one partner is claimed against, the other
partners by default become liable.
(b) If one partner is claimed against, the other
partner only needs to pay when asked.
(c) All the partners must pay for the act of
the firm.
(d) Both (a) & (c).
23. Which of the following is true with reference
to vicarious liability?
(a) Vicarious liability is a rule of tort law.
(b) Vicarious liability is not applicable in
cases of independent contractor.
(c) In cases of vicarious liability the people
are only jointly liable.
(d) None of the above.
24. A, B and C were partners in a firm. A while
submitting a tender on behalf of the firm forgot
to put its common seal on the draft. The
tender got approved and subsequently the firm
was asked to pay a security amount. The
firm failed to pay the amount in time. A case
was instituted in this regard. Decide the
liability.
(a) The firm will be liable to pay the amount
on default.
(b) The partners would be liable in their
individual capacity.
(c) Only A would be liable as the impugned
act doesn't constitute as the act of the
firm.
(d) Initially A would be liable and later on he
can secure the share from other partners.
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25. A, B and C were partners in a firm that owed
money to D. Since A and B were very good
friends with D, the latter instituted a case for
recovery of the entire amount against C. C
later on asked the two partners to share the
debt. Before A could pay he declared himself
insolvent. Decide with reference to the
passage above the contribution.
© LST 2020 Replication or other unauthorised use of this material is prohibited by the copyright laws of India
Page 8
(a) B will only pay his half of the debt.
(b) B will pay the entire share of A along with
his due.
(c) B and C will bore the burden of A's share.
(d) C would bear A's share.
Legal Aptitude – 12
 CEX–9440/20 Legal Aptitude – 12
Answers and Explanations
1 c 2 a 3 d 4 c 5 d
11 b 12 c 13 b 14 c 15 c 16
21 d 22 b 23 d 24 c 25 c
1. c Refer to the 1st paragraph. In the present
circumstances where political corruption is at its apex,
it is difficult to essentially discover which sting
operations are politically invigorated, which are truly
proposed to filter the social order, or which are truly
the results of fabricated broadcast bolstered by
different political gatherings and their corporate
benefactors.
Incorrect:
(a) The idea of necessity was never endorsed by the
author.
(b) It may attack privacy but doesn't itself become
unconstitutional.
(d) Political Justice means that all the citizens have
equal right in political participation. Therefore, it won't
qualify as a logical assessment.
2. a The author in the first paragraph has rendered a critical
analysis of the use of sting operations and how it can
be easily abuse someone's right to privacy. In the
subsequent paragraphs, the author focuses on the
issue from a legal viewpoint and stresses how in the
absence of proper law on the same, agents such as
the media must adhere to certain guidelines related to
broadcasting and avoid conducting them only for the
sake of viewership.
Incorrect:
(b) The passage barely conveys anything from the
social view point.
(c) Though the author has dealt with issues of
personal space however the fact that he has also
dealt with the other legal aspects thereby making the
first option a more apt reflection of the paragraph.
(d) In totality the legal implications dominate the
passage, while this option solely deals with the aspect
of social responsibility of the media.
3. d From the 2nd line of the passage, More accentuation
ought to be laid on the way the crime has been
committed which would have been committed anyway
even if inducement was not there; The idea of effect
of inducement has been dealt in the passage
Legal Aptitude – 12
Express
6 a 7 b 8 b 9 b 10 c
c 17 b 18 a 19 d 20 c
Incorrect answers
Choice (a) - The passage does not touch upon the
idea of being compelled under a sting operation which
is covered under art. 20 of the constitution.
Choice (b) - The passage never talks about admissibility
of secondary evidences.
Choice (c) - The passage does not talk about the need
of corroborating evidences to establish guilt.
4. c This question asks you to apply a facts situation based
on the author's argument. While only option (c) is
reflective of his opinions in the passage the rest have
not been touched or discussed by him. The last
paragraph clearly surmises his opinion as related to
the element of inducement.
Incorrect answers
Answer choices (a), (b), and (c) are irrelevant with
respect to the passage.
5. d Option (d) is correct as it deals with the element of
inducement while the rest (a, b and c) have elements
that are irrelevant in the context of the passage.
6. a Refer to the last line of the 3rd paragraph. The right to
be forgotten has to do with taking control of one's
personal information online - the right to stub out
irrelevant data after a certain period of time and start
over afresh.
Incorrect:
b) The idea of free speech hasn't been discussed
c) Idea of liberty is multi-dimensional (expression, belief,
etc.) and the author hasn't discussed it at all.
d) Right to be forgotten is the most recent addition to
the limb of privacy. Refer 1st line of 4th paragraph.
7. b The author in the first paragraph last line states- The
right to be forgotten has to do with taking control of
one's personal information online - the right to stub out
irrelevant data after a certain period of time and start
over afresh.
Page 1
 Incorrect:
(a) The passage barely addresses the implication of
the other aspects of privacy.
(c) Though the author doesn't deliberate on the
distinction between real and virtual privacy.
(d) The author does not address the evolution of
privacy.
8. b Incorrect answers
Choice (a) - public domain is a vague term and doesn't
convey a specific meaning.
Choice (b) - Even in cases of foreseeable damages
the right can be exercised.
Choice (c) - Only information existing on the virtual
space comes under its purview.
9. b Paragraph 2 last line. The information is irrelevant as
the information revealing her identity was not material.
10. c The information could have been pulled down in cases
of private websites, but not in case of the High Court
or Supreme Court.
11. b Option (b) is the correct answer as despite the
argument from the police, the court held that the
petitioner was not liable of being arrested as the
offence he was accused of was not of cognisable
nature.
12. c Option (c) is the correct answer as it has been held
by the court that - "Depriving a person of his liberty
guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution of India
cannot be left to the whims and wishes of the police
officer, and if it is permitted it would be conferring
arbitrary and unbridled powers on the police officers."
Therefore, opinion of the police officer regarding the
nature of offence should never be regarded as
conclusive.
13. b Option (b) is the correct answer as the term "sine quo
non" refers to an essential condition which in the
context of the sentence is used to state that preventive
action is a necessary condition to proceed under
Section 151(1).
14. c Option (c) is the correct answer as A was not going to
commit any offence and taking part in a protest does
not give the right to the police to arrest A.
Option (d) is incorrect as (c) is a better option by
virtue of it talking about the process to commit an
offence rather than the actual commission of offence.
15. c Option (c) is the correct answer as the police is not
liable as the offence of which A was accused off
was of theft (irrespective of the amount of money
stolen) which is not a petty offence and the detention
was not wrongful.
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16. c Option (c) is the correct answer as only the said
option marks the correct difference between a FIR
and Zero FIR which is that FIR is jurisdiction based
whereas Zero FIR can be filed irrespective of
jurisdiction and later transferred to the place of
jurisdiction.
17. b Option (b) is the correct answer as it can be inferred
from the passage that seeing the current incidents
the author is critical and speculative regarding the
efficacy in the implementation of Zero FIR.
18. a Option (a) is the correct answer as it can be inferred
from the passage that the Provision of Zero FIR was
introduced into Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
in order to speed-up the process of investigation
and fill the voids in the existing laws which were
inherently flawed due to procedural technicalities.
19. d Option (d) is the correct answer as it has been stated
in the first paragraph of the passage that a Zero FIR
can be filed in any police station irrespective of
jurisdiction.
20. c Option (c) is the correct answer as it has been
mentioned in the passage that if there is a failure in
lodging a Zero FIR by any police officer, it would
attract a rigorous imprisonment of six months
extendable up to 2 years. Therefore, Asha has the
right to file a complaint against the police officer who
has refused to file the Zero FIR.
21. d Option (d) is the correct answer as none of the
statements can be inferred from the passage.
22. b Option (b) is the correct answer as the complete
meaning of the term joint and several liability is
expressed in (b) by mentioning the element of payment
on being asked to do so.
23. d Option (d) is the correct answer as all the statements
given are flawed with respect to vicarious liability.
24. c Option (c) is the correct answer as by failing to put
the seal the act was not ratified by the company and
thus only A would be liable to pay.
25. c Option (c) is the correct answer as since A would not
be able to bear his half, the same shall be shared by B
and C is they are jointly responsible towards the firm's
debt.
Legal Aptitude – 12