CAREER FOUNDATION

SESSION 2020 – 21
ONLINE INTERNAL TEST - 1
CLASS – IX (CBSE_PHASE - I)
Time: 2.00 Hours Date: 17-05-2020 Maximum Marks : 300

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. This Question Paper contains 6 Sections i.e. Section A-Physics, B-Chemistry, C-Biology,
D-Mathematics, E-MAT, F-SST.
2. Question paper contains 100 Objective Type Questions.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are NOT ALLOWED.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
6. Mark your responses in the OMR sheet using only Blue/Black ball pen.
7. Do not break the seals of the question – paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Filling the top-half of the ORS:

8. Write your Form Number, Name and Father’s Name with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these any
where else.
9. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your Form Number with Blue/Black ball pen.

C. Question paper format and Marking scheme:

(i) For each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one ( –1) mark will
be awarded.

Form No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

S.M. J Tower, Door No.16 Newry Square, No : 99,13th

IT Expressway, Beside, Novotel
Old Mahabalipuram Road
Sholinganallur, Chennai-600119,
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Main Road, 6th Avenue
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Tel : 6366366903 / 6366366904

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Tel.: 9611994455, 9566404272 Tel.: 9900070050
Useful Data:
1 amu = 1.66 × 10–27 kg R = 0.082 L-atm K–1 mol–1
h = 6.626 × 10–34 J s NA = 6.022 × 1023
me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg e = 1.6 × 10–19 C
c = 3.0 × 108 m s–1 F = 96500 C mol–1
RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J 4pÎ0 = 1.00 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–1
Atomic No. : H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13, Si = 14,
P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19, Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br = 35, Ag = 47, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82,
U = 92.
Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5,
Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207,
U = 238.

CBSE CLASS - IX | (PHASE - I)

ONLINE INTERNAL TEST- 1 DATE : 17 - 05 - 2020

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : Motion (upto problems on equations of motion)

CHEMISTRY : Matters in our surroundings (Till Classification of matter)

BIOLOGY : Cell (upto Nucleus)

MATHEMATICS : Number system (Till Rationalization)

MAT : Coding - Decoding

SST : The French Revolution

 INTERNAL TEST- 1 [CLASS - IX]

SECTION - A
PHYS ICS

1. If a = 2 m, b = 1 m, c = 1.5 m and d = 7 m then distance and displacement between x and y is

a
a b d
x y
c c
(1) 31 m, 31 m (2) 21 m, 21 m (3) 21 m, 31 m (4) 31 m, 21 m
2. Statement 1 : The displacement of a body may be zero, though distance can be finite.
Statement 2 : If a body moves such that finally it arrives at initial point, then displacement is zero while
distance is finite.
(1) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
Statement 1
(3) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
(4) If Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
3. A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/h and for rest half of time at 40 km/h. Total distance covered is
60 km. What is the average speed of the car
(1) 60 km / h (2) 80 km / h (3) 120 km / h (4) 180 km / h
4. An object moves from point A to B to C to D along the circle shown in the figure below then the magnitude
of the displacement (a) and distance (b) are respectively
p B
(1) km = a ; 2 km = b ·
2
3 3
(2) p km = a ; km = b A· ·O ·C
2 2
·
p 1km
(3) 2 km = a ; km = b · · ·
2 1km D
3p (Radius = 1 km)
(4) 2 km = a ; km = b
2
5. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is about
(1) 80 m (2) 40 m (3) 20 m (4) 160 m
6. A 150 m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km / h. The time taken by the train to cross a
bridge of length 850 meters is
(1) 56 sec (2) 68 sec (3) 80 sec (4) 92 sec
7. A body moves 16 m north, 8 m east and then moves 10 m south, what is the resultant displacement from
initial position ?
10
(1) 10 2 m (2) 10 m (3) m (4) 20 m
2
8. Rate of change of displacement with respect to time is
(1) Speed (2) Acceleration (3) Velocity (4) Distance

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9. The correct statement from the following is

(1) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero acceleration
(2) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero acceleration
(3) A body having uniform speed can have only uniform acceleration
(4) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero acceleraton
10. Vidya drives her scooter 7 kilometers north. She stops for lunch and then drives 5 kilometres east. What
distance did she cover ?
(1) 2 km (2) 74 km (3) 12 km (4) 24 km
11. A woman drives to her office 10 km away from her house at 9 am and reaches her office at 9:20 am. She
stays in the office until 6 pm and then returns home at 6:25 pm. Which answer gives the correct distance and
displacement at 6:25 pm ?
(1) The distance covered is 20 km and displacement is zero
(2) Both distance and displacement are 20 km
(3) Both distance and displacement are 0
(4) The distance covered is 0 and displacement is 20 km
12. SI unit of measurement of acceleration is
(1) m/s (2) m/s2 (3) m/hr (4) s2
13. A girl leaves a history classroom and walks 10 meters north to a drinking fountain. Then she turns and walks
30 meters south to an art classroom. What is the girl's total displacement from the history classroom to the
art classroom ?
(1) 20 m south (2) 20 m north (3) 40 m north (4) 40 m south
14. Acceleration is vector quantity, which indicate that its value
(1) Is always positive (2) Is always negative
(3) Is zero (4) Can be positive, negative or zero
15. A particle moves along the sides AB, BC, CD of a square of side 25 m with a speed of 15 m/s as shown in
the figure. Its average velocity magnitude is:

C B

D A

(1) 15 m/s (2) 10 m/s (3) 7.5 m/s (4) 5 m/s

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 INTERNAL TEST- 1 [CLASS - IX]

SECTION - B
CHEMISTRY
16. A solid is
(1) Rigid form of matter (2) Fluid form of matter
(3) Either (1) or (2) (4) Both (1) and (2)
17. Intermolecular attractions are least in
(1) Solids (2) Gases
(3) Liquids (4) Cannot say
18. The zig-zag movement of the pollen grains over water surface proved.
(1) That the particles are constantly moving (2) That matter is made up of tiny particles
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) and (2)
19. Speed of particles
(1) Increase with increase in temperature (2) Increase with decrease in temperature
(3) Decrease with decrease in temperature (4) Both (1) and (3)
20. The chemical name of blue vitriol is
(1) Copper sulphide (2) Copper sulphate
(3) Copper carbonate (4) Copper sulphite
21. The particles of matter are
(1) Very very small (2) Have spaces between them
(3) Attract each other (4) All of the above
22. Which of the following pairs will not exhibit diffusion?
(1) Hydrogen, oxygen (2) Oxygen, water
(3) Salt, sand (4) Sugar, water
23. The zig-zag motion of the colloidal particles is known as
(1) Diffusion (2) Brownian motion
(3) Effusion (4) Ionization
24. Which one of the following properties are not characteristics of liquids ?
(1) Fluidity (2) Indefinite shape
(3) Definite volume (4) Compressibility
25. Which of the following activity proves that matter particles have spaces between them ?
(1) Dissolving sugar in water (2) Successive dilution
(3) Brownian motion (4) Both (1) and (3)
26. Intermixing of particles (on their own) so that they mix uniformly is called
(1) Diffusion (2) Brownian motion
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Ionization
27. Diffusion is maximum in
(1) Solid (2) Liquid
(3) Gas (4) Cannot say
28. The smell of perfume spreads out across the room by a process called
(1) Evaporation (2) Diffusion
(3) Condensation (4) Fusion
29. How many free surfaces does a liquid have ?
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 2

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30. Which of the following can you relate to liquids ?

(1) Fixed shape (2) Maximum KE of particles
(3) Fluidity (4) Indefinite free surfaces

SECTION - C
BIOLOGY

31. Cell theory was proposed by:–

(1) Robert Hooke (2) Beadle and Tatum
(3) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek (4) Schleiden and Schwann
32. The longest cell in the human body is:–
(1) Neuron cell (2) Muscle cell
(3) Liver cell (4) Kidney cell
33. We study about structure, reproduction, evolution and genetics of cell in which branch of science:–
(1) Cytology (2) Histology
(3) Cell biology (4) Anatomy
34. Observe the figure carefully and identify from the figure, which part is "Body tube" and its appropriate
function from the options given below.

(1) 'K' for concentrating light to the object from mirror

(2) 'D' carries objectives lens and eye piece at a convenient distance
(3) 'E' supports the microscope
(4) 'H' platform where glass slide with the material is placed.
35. The shape of onion peel cells taken for observation under microscope is:–
(1) Round (2) Elliptical
(3) Rectangular (4) Oval
36. Term protoplasm was given by
(1) J.E. Purkinje (2) Robert Brown
(3) Robert Hooke (4) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
37. Which of the following is not a cell?
(1) RBC (2) Bacteria
(3) Spermatozoa (4) Virus
38. Cheek cells donot have____________
(1) Cell membrane (2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Nucleus (4) Cell wall
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 INTERNAL TEST- 1 [CLASS - IX]

39. Cell wall lies:

(1) Outer to the cell membrane (2) Inner to the cell membrane
(3) Both side of the cell membrane (4) In between the cell membrane
40. The cell wall of bacteria is made up of
(1) Peptidoglycan (2) Cellulose and pectin
(3) Chitn (4) Suberin
41. Observe the figure carefully and select correct labels from options given below:–

A B C
(1) Secondary wall Middlelamella Pr imary wall
( 2) Middlelamella Plasmodesmata Pr imary wal
( 3) Secondary wall Plasmodesmata Pr imary wal
( 4) Pr imary wal Middlelamella Secondary wall

42. Which of the following is the non-membranous cell organelle?

(1) Ribosomes (2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
43. What is the nature of cellulose and hemicellulose that form cell wall of plant cells? Select appropriate
option:–
(1) Amino acid (2) Polysaccharide
(3) Lipids (4) Lipopolysaccharide
44. Which of the following is unicellular?
(1) Paramecium (2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Virus
45. Which of the following is incorrect match?
(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum–Single membranous (2) Mitochondria–double membranous
(3) Centriole–single membranous (4) Ribosome–non membranous

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SECTION - D
MATHEMATICS
46. Which of the following is an irrational number ?
(1) p (2) 12 ´ 75

(3) 2 (4) Both (1) and (3)

(
47. Find the value of (125) 2 / 3 ´ (8) -1/ 3 )
1 25
(1) (2)
25 3

25 25
(3) (4)
4 2

1 1
48. If x + = 7, then x + is
2
2
x x
(1) 7 (2) 9
(3) 3 (4) 4
p
49. Express 0.61 in the form of
q

6.1 61
(1) (2)
9 99

61
(3) (4) None of these
999

æ 1 ö æ 1ö æ 1 ö æ 1 ö æ 1ö
50. The value of çè1 - ÷ø çè1 - ÷ø çè1 - ÷ø çè1 - ÷ø ...........çè1 - ÷ø
2 3 4 5 n
2
æ 1ö
(1) 1 (2) ç 1 - ÷
è nø

1 1
(3) (4)
n n +1

51. Find the value of 'm' if 3

53m ¸ 4 625 = 5 510
(1) m = 2 (2) m = 3
(3) m = 4 (4) m = 1
52. Expressing 0.34 + 0.34 as a single decimal we get

(1) 0.6788 (2) 0.689

(3) 0.6879 (4) 0.687

53. How many irrational number is there between 3 and 6

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) Infinite

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 INTERNAL TEST- 1 [CLASS - IX]

54. If 512 = 2x, 81 = 3y, 625 = 25z, then x + y – z is

(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 12 (4) 13
55. Decimal representation of a rational number cannot be
(1) Terminating (2) Non-terminating non repeating
(3) Non-terminating repeating (4) None of these
1
56. How many digits repeat infinitely many times in the decimal form of ?
9900
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) None of these
a +b b+ c c+ a
æ xa ö æ xb ö æ xc ö
57. ç b ÷ ´ç c ÷ ´ç a÷
èx ø èx ø èx ø
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) None of these
3
- 3
æ 25 ö 2 é 50 ù
58. Simplify ç ÷ ´ê ú
è 9ø ë6û
(1) 1 (2) 2
5
(3) 125 (4)
3
59. If 22x - y = 32 and 2x + y = 16, then find the value of x 2 + y 2
(1) 5 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 12
60. Simplify 4 2 + 6 3 + 3 2 - 2 3

(1) 7 2 + 4 3 (2) 7 2 + 3

(3) 2+ 3 (4) 2 +5 3
61. Product of a non-zero rational number with an irrational number is always
(1) Rational number (2) Irrational number
(3) Natural number (4) Integer
62. If x and y are 2 different rational numbers then, which of the following statement is always true ?
x-y x´y
(1) is a rational number between x and y (2) is a rational number between x and y
2 2

x+y x¸y
(3) is a rational number between x and y (4) is a rational number between x and y
2 2

63. The value of 5.2

45 46
(1) (2)
9 9

47
(3) (4) None of these
9
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x
64. If = 0.6 + 0.4, find the value of x
9
(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 12
x y z
65. If a = b , b = c and c = a , then the value of xyz is
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1

SECTION - E
MAT

66. If A = Z, B = Y, C = X, D = W and so on, then what will be the code for "ARCANE" ?
(1) Z I T Z O W (2) Z S X Z O V
(3) Z I X Z M V (4) Z Q T Z M W
67. If E = 5, ESTER = 67, then the word TRITE would be
(1) 67 (2) 73
(3) 69 (4) 72
68. In certain code language TIRADE is coded as EDARIT, how can PRESAGE be coded in that code ?
(1) E A G S E P R (2) E G A S R E P
(3) E G A S E R P (4) E G S A E R P
69. If BO = 30, WAR = 414 then CAR will be
(1) 215 (2) 36
(3) 54 (4) 801
70. If "White" is called "Blue", "Blue" is called "Red", "red is called "Yellow", "Yellow" is called "Green", "Green"
is called "Black", "Black" is called "Violet" and "Violet" is called "Orange", then what would be the color of
human blood ?
(1) Red (2) Yellow
(3) Orange (4) Green
71. If "Parrot" is known as "Peacock", "Peacock" is known as "Crow", "Crow" is known as "Pigeon", and
"Pigeon" is known as "Sparrow", then what would be the name of Indian National bird ?
(1) Parrot (2) Sparrow
(3) Peacock (4) Crow
72. If "RAJU" is coded as "11 - 12 - 13 - 14" and "JUNK" is coded as "13 - 14 - 10 - 9", then how will you code
"RANK" ?
(1) 9 - 10 - 11 - 12 (2) 10 - 11 - 12 - 9
(3) 11 - 12 - 10 - 9 (4) 12 - 11 - 10 - 9
73. In a certain code language, "PICTURE" is written as "QHDSVQF". How would "BROWSER" be written
in that same code language ?
(1) C Q V V T D S (2) C Q P V T D S
(3) C Q P U T D S (4) C Q V P P D S
74. In a certain code language, "Put tir fin" means "delicious juicy fruit", tie dip sig" means "beautiful white lily",
and "sig lon fin" means "lily and fruit". What is the code for "and" ?
(1) tir (2) sig
(3) fin (4) lon

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 INTERNAL TEST- 1 [CLASS - IX]

75. In a certain code language "OP ik pat am" means "Udit is playing cards". "Pok aj ik am" means "Ashwin is
playing tennis", "ik dot pos oh" means "they are playing football" and "OP rus pok" means "cards and tennis".
Which word in that language means "Ashwin" ?
(1) am (2) aj
(3) pok (4) pot
76. In a certain code language, (i) "134" means "Good and Tasty", (ii) "478" means "see good pictures" and (iii)
"729" means "pictures are point". Which of the following numerical symbol stands for "see" ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 7 (4) 8
Questions 77 to 80
In the following questions, two columns I and II have been given. In column-I few words are given and in
column-II their codes have been given using a particular rule. The order of the smaller letter have been placed in
jumbled-up form, you have to decide the language and choose the alternative which is equal to letter asked in the
question.
Column-I Column-II
NATION – agvnab
REMOTE – rzgrbe
STAIR – efgnv
FORMAL – bensyz
COMMON – zabzpb
FOR – ebs
77. What is the code for "SCREEN" ?
(1) f e p c r a (2) f p r e b a (3) f p e r s a (4) f e p r r a
78. What is the code for "RATION" ?
(1) e n s v b a (2) e n g v b a (3) e n g r b a (4) e n g v c a
79. What is the code for "CREATOR" ?
(1) p r e n g b c (2) p e r s b g c (3) p e r n g b e (4) p e b r y c
80. What is the code for "AMERICAN" ?
(1) n z r e v p n a (2) n z r e s p n a (3) n z l e s p n a (4) n z r e q p n a
81. If in a certain code language 'STAR' is written as written as '5$*2', 'TORE' is written as '$32@', then how
will 'OATS' be written in that language ?
(1) 3*5$ (2) 3*$5 (3) 3$*5 (4) 35*$
Questions 82 to 85
The letter-group in each of these questions is to be codified as per the following number codes :
Letters L T P M R D H F K V
Numbers codes 3 0 4 9 2 1 5 7 6 8
82. DHFMTRV
(1) 1579082 (2) 1579028 (3) 1570982 (4) 1570928
83. KHVLRDP
(1) 6853214 (2) 6853124 (3) 6583214 (4) 6538214
84. MDFHLTR
(1) 9175320 (2) 9175230 (3) 9137502 (4) None of these
85. PRFLKHV
(1) 4273658 (2) 4273685 (3) 4237865 (4) 4237658

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SECTION - F
SOCIAL SCIENCE
86. Match the following
(a) Livre (i) The act of freeing
(b) Tithe (ii) Religious tax
(c) Taille (iii) Unit of currency in France, discontinued in 1794
(d) Emancipation (iv) Tax paid directly to the state
(1) a - i,b - ii,c - iii,d - iv (2) a - ii,b - iv,c - i,d - iii
(3) a - iv,b - i,c - ii,d - iii (4) a - iii,b - ii,c - iv,d - i
87. Identify the wrong statement
(a) Maximillian Robespiere was the leader of Jacobin Club
(b) Louis XVI was publicly executed at the place de la concorde
(c) In July 1794 France was declared a Constitutional Monarchy
(d) The period from 1790 - 1792 is referred to as the Reign of Terror
(1) a and b (2) b and c (3) c and d (4) a and d
88. Arrange the given events in the chronological order
(a) Representatives of the Third Estate assembled in the Tennis court
(b) Agitated crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille
(c) The National Assembly voted to declare war against Prussia and Austria
(d) Olympe de Gouges wrote a ‘Declaration of the Rights of Women and Citizen’ and addressed it to the
Queen
(1) 1 - a, 2 - b,3 - d,4 - c (2) 1 - d,2 - a,3 - c, 4 - b
(3) 1 - b,2 - a,3 - d,4 - c (4) 1 - c, 2 - a,3 - d, 4 - b
89. Which of these were features of the Constitution of 1791 ?
(a) All men above the age of 21 had right to vote
(b) Women could contest in elections
(c) National Assembly consisted of 745 members
(d) The constitution began with a declaration of the rights of Man and Citizen
(1) a and b (2) b and d (3) c and b (4) c and d
90. Match the following
(a) The bundle of rods or fasces (i) Symbol of eternity
(b) The winged woman (ii) Symbol of royal power
(c) Snake biting its tail to form a ring (iii)Personification of law
(d) Sceptre (iv) Strength lies in Unity
(1) a - i,b - ii,c - iii,d - iv (2) a - iv,b - iii,c - i,d - ii
(3) a - iii,b - i,c - iv,d - ii (4) a - iv,b - i,c - iii,d - ii
91. State which of the following sentences is/are false ?
(i) Olympe de gouges was one of the most politically active women in revolutionary france.
(ii) Montesquieu was the author of the book "The spirit of the laws".
(iii) Rousseau wrote "The social contract".
(1) Only (iii) is true (2) Only (i) is true (3) All are false (4) All are true
92. The Bastille symbolised
(1) Benevolence of the king (2) Despotic power of the king
(3) Armed might of France (4) Prestige and power

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93. Which of the following refuted the doctrine of divine and absolute right ?
(1) John Locke (2) Rouseeau (3) Montesquieu (4) Voltair
94. Division of power within the government was put forth in the book
(1) Two Treaties of Government (2) The Spirit of Laws
(3) Le Moniteur Universal (4) The Social Contract
95. Tennis court oath was led by
(1) Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette (2) Lenin and Kerensky
(3) Mirabeau and Abbe sieyes (4) Rousseau and Voltaire
96. Members of the Jacobin Club were known as
(1) Conservatives (2) Revolutionaries (3) Terrorists (4) San-Culottes
97. Which of the following was a factor in the rise of Napoleon ?
(1) Fall of the Jacobin Government (2) Robespierres Reign of Terror
(3) Political instability of the Directory (4) Nationalists forces
98. Which of the following is/are the main object of the constitution of 1791 ?
(1) Do away with feudal privileges (2) Give equal rights to women
(3) Establishing dictatorship (4) To limit the powers of the king alone
99. Voting in the Estates General was conducted on the principle of
(1) Vote of active citizens (2) Each member one vote
(3) Universal adult franchise (4) Each estate one vote
100. The most important privileges enjoyed by the clergy and nobility.
(1) Ownership of land (2) Right to collect dues
(3) Participate in wars (4) Exemption from all types of taxes

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